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100A PS15
Author: Eric Emer April 12, 2013

Reading 14 and 15 of Mattuck Collaborators: Shawn Qian.


Exercise 14.1 #1
f (x) = sin x

Proof. x=xa d sin (a + x) sin a sin x = lim x0 dx x sin a cos x + sin x cos a sin a = lim x0 x sin a(cos ( x) 1) + sin x cos a sin a = lim x0 x sin a(cos ( x) 1) sin x cos a = lim + lim x0 x0 x x We use LHopitals Rule to get lim lim
x 0 cos x1 . x


x 0

sin x 0 x1 = lim = =0 x0 x 1 1
x0 sin x x

We also use LHopitals Rule to get lim lim sin

x x

x 0

= lim

cos x 1 = =1 x0 1 1

Replacing these values where they belong in the equation, we get: d sin x = sin a 0 + 1 cos a dx d sin x = cos a dx


I essentially already showed this in the previous part, but I will spell it out again. We get: d sin a(cos ( x) 1) sin sin x = lim + lim x 0 x0 dx x x cos a x

d (cos ( x) 1) sin x sin x = sin a lim + cos a lim x0 x0 dx x x As shown above, both lim x0 (cos ( at 0, because of LHopitals Rule.
x)1) x

and lim

x 0

sin x

, are evaluated by their derivatives

Exercise 14.1 #3

Proof. We apply the denition of a derivative at point a as: f (a) = lim f (x) f (a) xa xa

We know that f (x) is dierentiable at 0, so we know that the limit as x 0 is the same as the limit as x 0+ : f (0) = lim f (x) f (0) f (x) f (0) = lim = + x0 x0 x0


However, we know that f is an even function. Therefore: f (0) = lim Let us dene k = x. f (0) = lim f (k ) f (0) f (k ) f (0) = lim = f (0) k k k0+ f (x) f (0) f (x) f (0) = lim x0 x0 x0



The only value that that is equal to its negative is 0. Therefore, it must be that f (0) = f (0) = 0.

Problem 14-3

Proof. We begin by investigating f (x + a) and f (x a). f (x + a) = f (x) + f (a) + 2xa f (x a) = f (x) + f (a) 2xa Subtracting, we get: f (x + a) f (x a) = f (a) f (a) + 4xa We divide both sides by 2a: f (x + a) f (x a) f (a) f (a) + 4xa = 2a 2a 2

We take the limit as 2a 0. Which is of course the same as when a 0. f (x + a) f (x a) f (a) f (a) + 4xa = lim a0 a0 2a 2a lim We see that in the above equation, the right hand side is the denition of f (x). f (x) = lim f (a) f (a) + 4xa a0 2a f (a) f (a) f (x) = 2x + lim a0 2a f (a) f (a) f (x) = 2x + lim a0 2a

We see that the remaining limit is the denition of f (0). Therefore: f (x) = f (0) + 2x

Now we seek to give two such functions. These are easy to get if we start with f (x) = f (0) + 2x. f1 (x) = x2 f2 (x) = x2 + 2x


Problem 14-6


f (x) = x2 :xQ x2 : x I


The function is continuous only at x = 0. Because it is continuous, it is also dierentiable at the point x = 0. We see that the limit: lim We write: g ( x) = f (0 + x) f (0) x x : xQ x : xI


f ( x) f (0) = x

We notice that this function exists and is continuous at 0. lim g ( x) = 0

x 0

exists, because: lim


x = lim x = 0
x 0

And f (0) = 0. f (0) exists and it is equal to 0. vThis function is also not continuous at any other point. We observe that for x0 = 0, taking a sequence of rational numbers which converge to x0 and separately a sequence of irrationals which converge to such an x0 , we see that limxx0 f (x) does not exist.


Problem 15-1

Proof. We consider a polynomial f (x) with n distinct real zeroes. A polynomial with n distinct real zeroes must be a polynomial of degree n. Therefore, its derivative will be of degree n 1. Even without computing the derivative, we can see that the derivative will have n 1 zeroes by a simple application of Rolles Theorem. The function f has n 1 gaps between the zeroes of f (x). Polynomial function f (x) has zeroes {r1 , r2 , . . . , rn }. We apply Rolles Theorem to the gaps between each zero. We apply Rolles Theorem to [r1 , r2 ], [r2 , r3 ], . . . , [rn1 , rn ]. There are n 1 such disjoint intervals. Rolles Theorem tells us that for such an interval, where f (rk ) = f (rk+1 ), there exists some c on the open interval (rk , rk+1 ) such that f (c) = 0. Applying this to n 1 such intervals, we see that there are at least n 1 distinct real zeroes.


Proof. We seek to show that a polynomial of degree n > 0 has at most n distinct real zeroes. We use proof by induction, as hinted. Base Case: n = 1 We observe that a function f (x) of degree n = 1 obviously has at most 1 distinct real zero. To belabor the point, a function of degree 1 has structure f (x) = mx + b. By the laws of algebra, the b singular zero can be derived from the equation 0 = mx + b, where the zero is solvable as r = m. This is clearly 1 distinct value. Inductive Step We do induction on n. Suppose that a polynomial function with f (x) has degree n > 0. f (x) can be expressed as: f (x) = an xn + an1 xn1 + . . . + a0 However, we consider that it has n + 1 zeroes. In that case, by the linear factors theorem, f (x) can be expressed as: f (x) = an (x r1 )(x r2 ) . . . (x rn )(x rn+1 ) We see that this would make f (x) an n + 1 degree polynomial, which is a contradiction, because we know f (x) is a degree n polynomial.