COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING SET II Situation 1: Information dissemination is an integral element of health promotion, and disease prevention.

The nurse is in the best position to do health education activities. 1. A nurse is providing instructions to a pregnant client with genital herpes about measures that need to be implemented to protect the fetus. The nurse tells the nurse that: a. Daily administration of acyclovir (Zovirax) is necessary during the entire pregnancy b. Total abstinence from sexual intercourse is necessary during the entire pregnancy c. Sitz baths need to be taken every 4 hours while awake if vaginal lesions are present d. A cesarean section will be necessary if vaginal lesions are present at the time of labor

2. While the nurse is counseling a group of mothers about sexually transmitted diseases, one mother asks the nurse which sexually transmitted disease is most detrimental to their baby's safety during pregnancy? The nurse should respond that it would be: a. Gonorrhea c. Genital herpes b. Syphilis d. Trichomonas vaginalis 3. During an infection control seminar, the speaker specified that prevention of the spread of HIV include the following measures EXCEPT: a. Patients with AIDS should be isolated b. Blood and other specimens should be labeled AIDS Precaution c. Needles should be disposed into a puncture resistant container d. Blood spills should be cleaned with chlorox 4. A nurse is giving health education to a client diagnosed with HIV. The nurse determines that the client does not need further teaching if the client states that the most effective method known to control the spread of HIV infection is: a. Premarital serologic screening b. Prophylactic treatment of exposed people c. Laboratory screening of pregnant women d. Sex education about preventive behaviors. 5. The following are preventions of gonorrhea transmission EXCEPT: a. Sex education b. Case finding c. Incidence to be reported to health authorities d. Administration of ophthalmic prophylaxis, as ordered Situation 2: The nursing process is applied in any health care setting. 6. A child is diagnosed with scarlet fever. The nurse assesses the child knowing that which of the following is not a clinical manifestation associated with this disease? a. Pastia's sign b. White strawberry tongue c. Edematous and beefy, red colored pharynx d. Koplik spots

7. A nurse provides instructions to the mother of a child with mumps regarding respiratory precautions. The mother asks the nurse the length of time required for the respiratory precautions. The nurse most appropriately responds that: a. Respiratory precautions are necessary for the entire time of illness. b. Respiratory precautions are necessary until the swelling is gone. c. Respiratory precautions are indicated during the period of communicability. d. Respiratory precautions are indicated for 18 days after the onset of parotid swelling. 8. A 6-month-old infant receives DPT immunization at the well-baby clinic. The mother returns home and calls the clinic to report that the infant has developed swelling and redness at the site of injection. The nurse tells the mother to: a. Apply a warm pack to the injection site b. Bring the infant back to the clinic c. Apply an ice pack to the injection site d. Monitor the infant for fever 9. A nurse is preparing the plan of care for a patient with herpes genitalis. What would be the priority nursing diagnosis for the patient? a. Disturbed Sleep pattern b. Imbalance in Nutrition: Less than Body Requirements c. Alteration in Comfort: Pain d. Ineffective Breathing Pattern 10. The nurse on duty, based on her assessment findings suspects the presence of diphtheria. Which of the following will confirm her suspicion? a. Pharyngotonsilar congestion b. Grayish membrane at hard palate c. Whitish plaque at buccal mucosa d. Increased lacrimation Situation 3: There are 170 Bilhariasis endemic municipalities. You are assigned in one of these municipalities. 11. In order to confirm the diagnosis of Snail fever, you advise patient to have, which of these examination: a. X-ray of the abdomen b. Urinalysis c. Stool examination d. CBC 12. You know that the mode of transmission of Katayama fever is: a. Contact with affected stray animals b. Contact with water infected with cercaria c. Infected flies and rodent d. Use of sanitary toilets

13. Which among the following is the drug of choice for Bilhariasis? a. Biltricide c. Chloramphenicol b. Hetrazan d. Tetracycline

14. The following are preventive measures for Schistosomiasis EXCEPT: a. Use of safe water

b. Avoid bathing and washing in infested waters c. Use of sanitary toilets d. Elimination of breeding sites of mosquitoes

15. Which of the following is NOT a complication of Bilhariasis? a. Liver cirrhosis and portal hypertension b. Cor pulmonale, pulmonary hypertension c. Meningitis and hepatomegally d. Ascitis and renal failure Situation 4: Endemic malaria occurs in the topic and subtopic areas where socioeconomic condition is very poor. 16. During your assessment, which among the following signs and symptoms need referral to a secondary or tertiary facility? a. Sweating and headache b. Icterus and shock c. Fever and chills d. Renal or liver failure 17. Laboratory confirmation of malaria is done on a blood film. What do you expect to see in the film? a. Antibodies c. Malarial purinates b. Malarial parasites d. Antigen

18. The mode of transmission of this disease is through the bite of an infected female mosquito called: a. Aminophylline c. Anopheles b. Aedes poecillus d. Aedes egypti 19. Which of the following is NOT an anti-malarial drug? a. Sulfadoxine c. Tetracycline b. Amoxicillin d. Quinidine 20. As a preventive measure for malarais, you ecucate people living in malaria endemic areas to do which of the following? A. Avoid going out between 12nn to 3am B. Take chloroquine tablets once a day C. Apply insect repellant on house walls D. Use long sleeved shirts when going out at night E. Plant neem tree in their backyards F. Clear hanging branches nears rivers a. A, B, C, D, E, F c. B, C, D, E, F b. C, D, E, F d. B, C, D, E Situation 5: A nurse is having her duty in a public health clinic. She encounters multiple cases of sexually transmitted diseases. 21. A nurse is collecting data from a prenatal client. The nurse determines that which of the following places the client into the high risk category for contracting human immunodeficiency virus? a. Living in an area where HIV infections are minimal b. A history of IV drug use in the past year c. A history of one sexual partner within the past 10 years

d. A spouse who is heterosexual and had only 1 sexual partner in the past 10 years

22. Which among the following informations is true of HIV? a. It can be transmitted via body fluids such as blood, semen, urine, and perspiration. b. Blood, semen, and breast milk have higher concentrations of HIV than urine, saliva, vomitus and stool c. A client who by history may be exposed to HIV but test negative for HIV antibodies can no longer infect others d. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) is the confirmatory test for HIV

23. Hepatitis B infection is established by the presence of hepatitis B antigen-antibody systems in the blood. Which of the following is NOT true? a. Presence of HBsAG is the serological marker to establish the diagnosis of hepatitis B. b. If the serological marker is present in the blood after 3 months, it indicates a carrier state or chronic hepatitis. c. The presence of anti-HBS indicates recovery and immunity to hepatitis B. d. Presence of HbeAG determines the infective state of the client

24. The nurse is talking to a young female client in the health clinic who is concerned she may have sexually transmitted disease. The nurse commends her for seeking medical care. The nurse explains that the major reason treatment of majority of STDs is delayed because: a. Client is embarrassed b. Symptoms are though to be caused by something else c. Symptoms are ignored d. The client does not manifest signs and symptoms 25. The nurse is very active in contact tracing and epidemiologic treatment of all gonococcal identified contacts to prevent: a. Development of resistant strains b. Asymptomatic infections c. Non-venereal transmission d. Reinfection Situation 6: Avian Influenza is an infectious disease of birds that can cause serious illness in humans. 26. The importation of chicken from countries with outbreak of avian flu is banned by which law? a. RA 280 c. PD 280 b. EO 280 d. AO 280

27. The major causes of death in avian flu are the following except: a. Severe viral pneumonia b. Respiratory distress c. Multiple organ failure d. Dehydration from severe vomiting and diarrhea 28. A suspected case of avian flu would be identified if a person exhibits which of the following manifestations? a. Body weakness, fever, vomiting, diarrhea, cough, and anorexia b. Fever, body weakness cough, dyspnea, and sore throat c. Fever, cough, sore throat, diarrhea, bloody stool, and hematemesis d. Hemoptysis, difficulty breathing, sore eyes, vomiting and diarrhea

29. It is necessary to institute which of the following measures to birds suspected of being exposed to the virus? a. Vaccination of poultry b. Killing of all infected or exposed birds c. Mixing antiviral to feeds and water supplied to poultry suspected of being exposed to avian flu d. All of the above 30. Incubation period for avian influenza is: a. 10 days c. 21 days b. 3 days d. 7 days

Situation 7: Ralph, a student nurse began to feel joint pains and eye pains associated with high fever. He noticed some pinpoint rashes on his legs. He is diagnosed with Dengue fever. 31. In the prevention of dengue fever, which of the following measures is included? a. Mass vaccination during rainy season b. Prophylactic drug treatment with antivirals c. Removal of small collections of water such as flower vases d. Fogging or daily spraying of insecticides 32. The most effective control measure for dengue hemorrhagic fever is: a. Isolation of patient b. Mosquito control c. Health education d. Concurrent disinfection 33. The treatment and control of dengue hemorrhagic fever include all of the following EXCEPT: a. Treat shock with IVF b. Encourage vaccination c. Eradication of vector d. Community participation 34. The best nursing intervention in the management of dengue fever among patients admitted in the hospital would be: a. Observation b. Contact Isolation c. Administration of antivirals d. Platelet administration 35. Which is an independent nursing intervention for a patient with Dengue Hemorrhagic Fever? a. Give aspirin for fever and muscle pains b. Put ice bag over forehead if patient has nose bleed c. Place patient in prone position to relieve abdominal pain d. Give high fiber diet Situation 8: The BHW of Barangay Jacinto reported series of adults having cases of spasmodic coughing and fever for the past two weeks. The CHN in the area alarmed by the reports decided to investigate the community. 36. Which among the following diagnostic tests does NOT indicate active tuberculosis?

a. Sputum smear positive times three b. Chest x-ray as diagnosed by the TBDC c. An induration of 10 post tuberculin test d. Chest x-ray after having three negative sputum smears 37. Mang Jose, 42 years old, went to the Chest Center to avail of the free Direct Sputum Smear Microscopy. Which among the following is a contraindication for sputum collection? a. Pleural effusion c. Hemoptysis b. TB meningitis d. Miliary TB 38. Mang Jose began his treatment regimen for tuberculosis. He complains of frequent tingling sensation of his feet. Which among the following diets shout be encouraged? a. Fish c. Milk b. Kangkong d. Beef 39. As a nurse working in the Barangay Health Center, it is essential to counsel the client on the side effects of the treatment regimen. Which among the following side effects should be reported immediately to the physician? a. Hemoptysis c. Flu-like symptoms b. Red-colored urine d. Yellowish palms 40. Which among the following is considered as the most important health teaching given to clients with Tuberculosis? a. Strict compliance to treatment regimen b. Frequent handwashing c. Proper disposal of soiled tissues d. Covering of mouth while coughing or sneezing

Situation 9: The nurse is aware of the misuse of antibiotics , which resulted to the emergence of new strains of microorganisms that proves to effect a catastophic effect on human health. 41. The period between the first exposure and multiplication of the SRAS causative agent would be: a. 2-10 days c. 1-20 days b. 5-11 days d. 1-5 days 42. SARS remains to be an enigma among health practitioners and had proven its virulence. The nurse knows that the virus could be categorized as: a. Rhabdovirus c. Coronavirus b. Togavirus d. Paramyxovirus 43. Which of the following best defines standards precaution? a. These are guidelines created to prevent transmission of microorganisms in hospitals b. It is a strategy of assuming that all patients are infectious, and using barrier protections during nurse-client interactions c. These are precautions based on contagious or epidemiologically significant organisms are recognized. d. It pertains to the use of handwashing. 44. In managing individuals with SARS, the nurse should be aware of the different signs and symptoms of the disease. Which among the following characterize the prodromal phase: a. The patient is usually not infectious at this time.

b. Dry hacking cough is present c. Fever is present, but does not rise beyond 38oC d. The patient requires mechanical ventilation at this stage 45. Handwashing deters the spread of microorganisms. A nurse involved in the care of a patient diagnosed with SARS should: a. Perform handwashing before client contact b. Perform handwashing after eating c. Perform handwashing after food preparation d. Perform handwashing before using the toilet Situation 10: Filariasis is endemic in some parts of the Philippines. The disease often progresses to become chronic, debilitating and often unfamiliar to health workers. 46. Effective methods that the government would likely to pursue to eliminate filariasis in the country are all of the following EXCEPT: a. Pursue annual mass drug administration using two drugs in all endemic areas for at least five consecutive years b. Vaccination of all susceptible in high risk areas and high risk populations c. Intensify health information and advocacy campaigns in its prevention, control and elimination d. Halt progression of disease through disability prevention

47. The vector for Filariasis is a. Wuchereria bancrofti b. Aedes poecillus c. Anopheles d. Aedes egypti 48. A long incubation period characterizes Filariasis that typically ranges from: a. 2-4 weeks c. 2-3 years b. 4-6 weeks d. 8-16 months 49. A 36-year-old man is brought by his wife to a doctor's clinic to be tested for filariasis. The most likely diagnostic test that he will undergo is: a. Immunochromatographic test (ICT) b. Nocturnal Blood Examination c. Stool examination d. Urinalysis 50. A client in the acute stage of the disease will include which of the following clinical findings? a. Lymphangitis, lymphadenitis, epidydimitis b. Hydrocele, lymphedema, elephantiasis c. Orchitis, hydrocele, elephantiasis d. Lymphadenitis, lympedema and orchitis Situation 11: Specific defenses of the body involve the immune system. Nurses should be knowledgeable on the importance of immunity in the prevention of communicable diseases. 51. Ayisha is given the hepatitis B immune globulin serum, which will provide her with passive immunity. One advantage of passive immunity is that it: a. Has effects that last a long time

b. Is highly effective in the treatment of disease c. Offers immediate protection d. Encourages the body to produce antibodies 52. Nurse Keith explains to a mother whose child just received a tetanus toxoid injection that the toxoid confers which of the following immunity? a. Lifelong passive immunity b. Long-lasting active immunity c. Lifelong active natural immunity d. Lifelong active artificial immunity 53. Simon, who is suspected of having tetanus, asks Nurse Benny about immunizations against tetanus. Nurse Benny explains that the major benefit in using tetanus antitoxin is that it: a. Stimulates plasma cells directly b. Provides a high titer of antibodies c. Provides immediate active immunity d. Stimulates long-lasting passive immunity 54. Justin, who was exposed to hepatitis A is given gamma globulin to provide passive immunity, which: a. Increases production of short-lived antibodies b. Provides antibodies that neutralize the antigen c. Accelerates antigen-antibody union at the hepatic sites d. Stimulates the lymphatic system to produce large numbers of antibodies 55. A mother asked Nurse Edna on the duration of the effectiveness of a natural passive immunity. Nurse Edna is correct when she tell the mother that the effect lasts for: a. 2 to 3 weeks c. 6 months to 1 year b. Permanent d. 2 to 5 years Situation 12. Whenever possible, the nurse implements strategies to prevent infection. If infection cannot be prevented, the nurse's goal is to prevent the spread of the infection within and between persons, and to treat the existing infection. 56. Gino is a chronic carrier of infection. To prevent the spread of the infection to other clients or health care providers, the nurse emphasizes interventions that do which of the following? a. Eliminate the reservoir b. Block the portal of exit from the reservoir c. Block the portal of entry into the host d. Decrease the susceptibility of the host 57. The most effective nursing action for controlling the spread of infection includes which of the following? a. Thorough hand cleansing b. Wearing gloves and masks when providing direct client care c. Implementing appropriate isolation precautions d. Administering broad-spectrum prophylactic antibiotics 58. In caring for Mark who is on contact precautions for a draining infected foot ulcer, Nurse Bong should perform which of the following? a. Wear a mask during dressing changes b. Provide disposable meal trays and silverware c. Follow standard precautions in all interactions with the client d. Use surgical aseptic technique for all direct contact with the client

59. When caring for a single client during one shift, it is appropriate for the nurse to reuse which of the following personal protective equipment? a. Goggles c. Surgical mask b. Gown d. Clean gloves 60. After teaching a client and family strategies to prevent infection, which statement by the client would indicate effective learning has occurred? a. We will use antimicrobial soap and hot water to wash our hands at least three times per day. b. We must wash or peel all raw fruits and vegetables before eating. c. A wound or sore is not infected unless we see it draining pus. d. We should not share toothbrushes but it is OK to share towels and washcloths. Situation 13. Leprosy is an ancient disease and is a leading cause of permanent physical disability among the communicable diseases. It is a chronic mildly communicable disease that mainly affects the skin, the peripheral nerves, the eyes and mucosa of the upper respiratory tract. 61. Assessment is done upon seeing a patient with leprosy. The following are early signs and symptoms, except: 1. Appearance of a skin patch 2. Loss of sensation on skin lesion 3. Inability to close eyelids 4. Hair growth over the lesion 5. Painful nerves 6. Loss of eyebrow 7. Ulcers that do not heal 8. Sinking of the nose bridge a. 3, 5 and 7 c. 3, 6 and 8 b. 2, 5 and 8 d. 2, 6 and 7 62. A person can get leprosy through the following except: 1. Inhalation of the infectious organism through a broken skin 2. Repeated skin to skin contact with untreated individual 3. Inhalation of the infectious organism from the nasal discharges of an untreated individual 4. Contact with articles soiled with discharges from lesions of leprosy patient a. 1 only c. 4 only b. 1 and 3 d. 3 and 4 63. Philip is a 55 year-old resident who is affected by leprosy and is on schedule for Multidrug Therapy. Which daily treatment is usually prescribed by a physician for lepromatous and borderline type in 28 days? a. Dapsone 10 mg and Rifampicin 600 mg b. Clofazimine 50 mg and Rifampicin 50 mg c. Rifampicin 150 mg and Dapsone 50 mg d. Clofazimine 50 mg and Dapsone 100 mg 64. Only in rare instances is there really a need to use laboratory and other investigations to confirm a diagnosis. However, when a clinical diagnosis is doubtful. This optional procedure is done to prevent misclassification and wrong treatment. a. Direct Sputum Smear Microscopy (DSSM) b. Slit Skin Smear (SSS) examination c. Mass Blood Smear (MBS) collection d. Purified Purine Derivative (PPD) test

65. Preventive aspect of care is a priority consideration. Which of the following vaccine is also preventive measure? a. BCG c. Gammaglobulin b. DPT d. ATS Situation 14. Nurse Lorie is taking care of Anne, 15 months old, who is admitted to the hospital with Rubeola. She has conjunctivitis, coryza, cough, rashes and temperature of 38C. 66. Which of the following statements is true of Rubeola? 1. It is caused by a filterable virus 2. The prodrome period lasts for about 2 weeks 3. The rashes doesn't end in a branny desquamation 4. It is an acute highly communicable infection 5. The rash usually begins behind the ears and neck 6. The cause of death is usually from complications 7. Serum antibodies appear on the third day of the incubation period 8. A morbilliform rash appears on the 3rd or 4th day a. 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 c. 2, 3, 4, 5 and 7 b. 3, 4, 5, 7 and 8 d. 1, 4, 5, 6 and 8 67. Nurse Lorie knows that the incubation period of Rubeola is: a. 10 days from exposure to appearance of fever and about 14 days until rash appears b. 2-3 weeks, commonly 13 to 17 days c. 12 to 26 days, usually 18 days d. Varies from 3 days to 1 month or more, falling between 7-14days in high proportion of cases 68. Anne's immunity from her mother lasted only 6 months. She was brought by her mother because of spots in her buccal mucosa. What do you call these spots? a. Pseudomembrane c. Koplik spots b. Rose spots d. Forscheimer's spots 69. The characteristic signs of measles are which of the following group? a. Skin eruptions which are abundant on covered areas of the body than on the exposed areas b. Rashes which spread from the face to the trunk and limbs, conjunctivitis, high fever and tiny white spots in the mucosa inside the cheek c. Vomiting, headache, fine petechial and morbilliform rashes and epistaxis d. Severe backache and rashes which are more abundant on extremities than on the trunk 70. A nursing intervention that is important in caring for Anne would include the following, except: a. Administer as prescribed antipyretics to reduce fever b. Ensuring that the room is well lighted c. Wearing face mask when administering nursing care to the child d. Increase fluid intake of the child by drinking water frequently Situation 15. Vangie is a 15 year-old child who is spending Christmas Vacation in Pangasinan. A week before the vacation ends, she developed fever, diarrhea and rose spots on her abdomen. 71. Based on Vangie's clinical findings, Nurse Ulysses will suspect Vangie to have contacted which infection? a. Dysentery c. Cholera b. Amoebiasis d. Typhoid fever

72. Vangie's condition is caused by a: a. Virus c. Helminth b. Bacteria d. Protozoa 73. Nurse Ulysses provided the family with health education to prevent transmission of infection as the disease can be transmitted to family members through the following, except: a. Flies b. Contaminated food and water c. Airborne transmission d. Direct contact

74. The characteristic signs of the said condition in #71 are which of the following? 1. Intermittent fever 2. Continued fever 3. Loss of appetite 4. Slow pulse 5. Rose spots on trunk and abdomen 6. Diarrhea 7. Rice watery stool 8. Bloody stool a. 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 c. 1, 3, 4, 5 and 7 b. 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6 d. 2, 3, 4, 5 and 8

75. As a preventive control measure for the said condition in #71, which of the following must be discussed in the health education program for the pubic? 1. Sanitary disposal of human feces and maintenance of fly proof latrine 2. Proper food handling and preparation 3. Removal of stagnant water in empty water drums and flower pots 4. Use of repellants and insecticides a. 1 and 4 c. 3 and 4 b. 2 and 3 d. 1 and 2 Situation 16. According to a nationwide survey on soil-transmitted helminthiasis (STH) among children aged 12-71 months old done by the DOH, UP and UNICEF in 2003, it showed a cumulative prevalence rate of 66 percent. Studies have shown that STH infected children are prone to acquire other infections. There is a need to sustain mass deworming for 3 consecutive years to immediately control intestinal parasitism and other parasites among these infected children at the critical time of their growth and development. 76. Antihelminthic drugs used include: a. Albendazole and Mebendazole b. Metronidazole and Albendazole c. Cotrimoxazole and Metronidazole d. All of the above 77. It is a parasitic disease that has similar manifestation with Pulmonary Tuberculosis. What is it? a. Trichuriasis c. Ascariasis b. Filariasis d. Paragonimiasis 78. The treatment of choice for the condition in #77 is:

a. Bithionol c. Praziquantel b. Ethambutol d. Metronidazole 79. The three major causes of intestinal parasitic infections in the Philippines are the following, except: a. Trichuriasis c. Ancylostomiasis b. Taeniasis d. Ascariasis 80. This parasite enters the intestinal mucosa and could be spread through autoinfection. This is typically exemplify by: a. hookworm c. whipworm b. tapeworm d. pinworm Situation 17. Lord Voldemort complained of dizziness, vomiting, headache and numbness of the face especially around the mouth after 45 minutes of eating shellfish. He was rushed to the hospital and was diagnosed with Paralytic Shellfish Poisoning (PCP) or Red Tide Poisoning. 81. In addition to the above mentioned signs and symptoms manifested by Lord Voldemort, he may also manifest the following: a. Blurred vision and rapid rise in the blood pressure b. Seizures, bradycardia, hematemesis and chest pain c. Tachycardia, dysphagia, paresthesia and ataxia d. Floating sensation, hypertension, bradycardia and abdominal pain 82. Which of the following statement is not true about red tide poisoning? a. The toxin is totally destroyed upon cooking b. Symptoms occur within minutes or several hours after ingestion of poisonous shellfish c. It is caused by a plankton d. Symptoms include tingling sensation and paresthesia 83. Nurse Bellatrix is giving health education to the family of Lord Voldemort regarding Red Tide Poisoning. Lord Voldemort asked the nurse, Does cooking the shellfish make it safe to eat? Nurse Bellatrix's best response is: a. Yes, as long as you cook the shellfish properly at a boiling point. b. No, the poisons are not destroyed by cooking. c. Yes, the toxins are easily destroyed by heat. d. No, the toxins are destroyed by freezing. 84. The mother of Lord Voldemort asked Nurse Bellatrix, Which sea foods can transmit red tide poisoning to human? The nurse response included the following sea foods, except: a. crab meat c. clams and mussels b. oysters and scallops d. sea cucumber 85. Management of Red Tide Poisoning includes: a. Do not induce vomiting b. Giving of medications c. Give coconut milk and sodium bicarbonate d. The toxin is totally destroyed upon cooking Situation 18. Severus was admitted with manifestation of jaundice accompanied by pruritus and urticaria. The patient was diagnosed with Hepatitis A.

86. Hepatitis A is also known by the following names, except: a. Infectious hepatitis c. Epidemic hepatitis b. Catarrhal jaundice d. Inoculation hepatitis

87. Severus asked the nurse, Why don't you give me some medication to help me get rid of this problem? Nurse Neville's best response would be: a. Sedatives can be given to help you relax. b. We can give you immune serum globulin. c. There are no specific drugs used to treat hepatitis. d. Vitamin supplements are frequently helpful and hasten recovery. 88. Nurse Neville has instructed Severus about the type of diet should be eaten. The lunch selection that would indicate the client's understanding and compliance with the dietary principles taught is: a. Turkey salad, French fries and sherbet b. Salad, sliced chicken sandwich and gelatin dessert c. Cheeseburger, taco chips and chocolate pudding d. Cottage cheese, peanut butter sandwich and milk shake

89. The cooked food most likely to remain contaminated by the virus that causes Hepatitis A is which of the following? a. Canned tuna c. Fried tuna belly b. Broiled shrimp d. Steamed lobster 90. Which of the following signs and symptoms occur in a patient with Hepatitis A? 1. Loss of appetite 2. Enlargement of the lymph nodes 3. Tachycardia 4. Jaundice 5. Bradycardia 6. Urticaria 7. Clay-colored stools a. 1, 2, 4, 6 and 7 c. All except 5 b. 2, 3, 4, and 6 d. All of the above Situation 19. During the rainy season, several areas in Davao City becomes flooded with water. Leptospirosis is one infection that is common during this time of year. 91. Leptospirosis is also known with the following names, except: a. Mud fever and Flood fever b. Weil's disease and Trench fever c. Catarrhal jaundice and Ragpicker disease d. Spiroketal jaundice and Japanese Seven Days Fever 92. Dobby, who is suspected of having Leptospirosis, should have his urine be tested for the presence of the microorganism: a. During the febrile period b. During the first week of the illness c. During the first six months after contracting the infection d. After the 10th day of illness

93. Leptospirosis can be transmitted through: a. Open skin contact c. Droplets b. Airborne d. Sexually transmitted 94. Albus asked if it is possible to be infected while swimming in public pools or rivers. Nurse Hermione replied that: a. This is not possible as long as you have no open wounds while swimming in public pools. b. Infection with leptospirosis is possible with recreational swimming in water contaminated with urine of human and animals having the infection. c. You can protect yourself by applying 70% alcohol before swimming d. There is no danger during day time because leptospires die when exposed to sunlight.

95. Management and treatment of Leptospirosis is symptomatic but a drug medication is prescribed at 200 mg orally once a week for prevention. What is the drug of choice? a. Chloramphenicol c. Zidovudine b. Doxycycline d. Streptomycin

Situation 20. Rabies remains a public health problem in the Philippines. Approximately 300 to 600 Filipinos die of rabies every year. The Philippines has one of the highest prevalence rates of rabies in the whole world. 96. Dolores Umbridge, while on her way home from work, was bitten by a stray dog. Nurse Sirius asked Dolores what she did immediately after the incident. Dolores's response indicates correct understanding of first aid measure when she says that: a. I went to the hospital and reported the incident b. I ran after the dog and had bitten it too c. I washed my wound immediately with soap and water d. I went to the drug store and bought 500 mg antibiotics 97. Nurse Sirius interviewed Dolores and her mother at the Emergency Room to take the history before seeing a doctor. The nurse told Dolores's mother not to kill the dog because the dog will be: a. Injected with a vaccine b. Confined at a veterinary clinic c. Observed for 14 days d. Treated with antibiotics against rabies 98. It is the objective of the Department of Health (DOH) to reduce the incidence of Human Rabies from 7 per million to 1 per million population by: a. 201 b. 2015 c. 2020 d. 2025 99. Considering that rabies is one of the most acutely fatal infections which causes the death of approximately 300 to 600 Filipinos annually, voluntary pre-exposure prophylaxis among people who are at risk is highly recommended. These people include: a. Barangay tanod officials patrolling the streets at night, side walk vendors, veterinarians and animal handlers b. All people living within an area where there are dogs that roam their neighborhood c. Pet owners, animal handlers, health personnel working in anti-rabies units and children below 15 years old d. Pregnant women, side walk vendors, pet owners, veterinarians and infants 100. What is the most common caused of death in patients with Rabies? a. Seizures c. Hemorrhage

b. Respiratory Paralysis d. Hydrophobia