QP II

CODE : MAGENTA
28540/QB/HYD-KCO-C / IITJ EE / 18-1-2011 /

IITJ EE

NARAYANA IIT ACADEMY
INDIA

IITJEE MODEL Exam Date : 29-1-2011
Time : 3: 00
GRAND TEST-10
PAPER II
Max Marks : 240
ID.NO :

INSTRUCTIONS :

1) This booklet of your Questions Paper contains 57 questions. Maximum marks: 240. The
question paper consists of 3 parts (Chemistry, Mathematics and Physics). Each part has
4 sections.

2) Section-I contains 4 multiple choice questions. Q.No: 1 to 4, 20 to 23 and 39 to 42. Each
question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. For
each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you have darkened only the
bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In
case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus one (-1) mark will be awarded.

3) Section-II contains 5 multiple correct answer(s) type questions. Q.No: 5 to 9, 24 to 28
and 43 to 47. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONE OR
MORE is/are correct. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 4 marks s if
you have darkened all the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark
if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (-1) mark will be awarded.

4) Section-III contains 2 questions. Q.No: 10,11,29,30,48 and 49. Each question contains
statements given in two columns, which have to be matched. The statements in Column I
are labeled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column II are labeled p, q, r, s and t.
Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE
statement(s) in Column II. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 2 for
each row in which you have darkened the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct
answer. Thus, each question in this section carries a maximum of 8 marks. There is no
negative marking for incorrect answer(s) for this section.

5) Section-IV contains 8 questions. Q.No: 12 to 19, 31 to 38 and 50 to 57. The answer to
each of the question is a single digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The appropriate
bubbles below the respective question numbers in the ORS have to be darkened. For
each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer, and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all
other cases, minus one (-1) mark will be awarded.

This Question paper contains 20 Pages GT_10_PAPER_2_29 -01-11
Space for rough work
Page 2 of 20
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-1
Section-I contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A) , (B) , (C) and (D)
, out of which ONLY ONE is correct. For each question in Section - I , you will be awarded 3
marks if you have darkened only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if
no bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer , minus one (-1) mark will be
awarded.
1) IUPAC name of the following compound is
COOH
O H
CHO

A) 4-formyl-2-hydroxycyclohex-5-ene-1-carboxylic acid
B) 4-formyl-6-hydroxycyclohex-2-en-1-oic acid
C) 4-formyl-2-hydroxycyclohex-5-en-1-oic acid
D) 4-formyl-6-hydroxycyclohex-2-ene-1-carboxylic acid
2) The standard reduction potential of a silver chloride electrode is 0.2 V and that of a
silver electrode is 0.79 V. The maximum amount of AgCl that can dissolve in 10
6
L of a
0.1 M AgNO
3
solution is
A) 0.5 mmol B) 1.0 mmol C) 2.0 mmol D) 2.5 mmol
3) Select the correct statement regarding phosphoric acid. Given that
f
H(H
3
PO
4
) =-1290 kJ mol
-1
,
f
H( )
2 4
H PO

=-1302 kJ mol
-1
,
S(H
3
PO
4
) =176 J mol
-1
K
-1
, S( )
2 4
H PO

= 89 J mol
-1
K
-1
.
A) It has a pK
a1
of 2.4
B) pK
a2
of phosphoric acid is less than pK
a1
.
C) First dissociation of phosphoric acid is endothermic.
D) First dissociation of phosphoric acid is entropy driven.
4) CuCN reacts with FeCl
3
to give
A) CuCl
2
B) Cu(CN)
2
C) (CN)
2
D) All of these
Page 3 of 20
SECTION-2
Section-II contains 5 multiple correct answer(s) type questions. Each question has 4 choices (A) ,
(B) , (C) and (D) , out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct. For each question in Section II ,
you will be awarded 4 marks s if you have darkened all the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct
answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases , minus one (-1) mark will be
awarded.
5) Which of the following statement/s is/are true?

A) Dimethyl ether is a better Lewis base than disilyl ether (SiH
3
OSiH
3
).

B) (CH
3
)
3
COH

is less acidic than (CH
3
)
3
SiOH

C)
4
4
SiO

undergoes polymerisation while
4
ClO
does not.

D)
Methyl isocyanate
( )
3
CH N C O = = is bent with respect to nitrogen but silyl
isocyanate
( )
3
SiH N C O = = is linear with respect to the same.

6) An organic compound of molecular formula
4 8 2
C H O reacts with excess MeMgBr to
give two products of which one reacts with NaOI to give yellow precipitate and the
other does not. The structure of the hydrocarbon may be

A) C H
3
O
O
CH
3

B) H
O
O
CH
3
CH
3

C) H
O
O
CH
3

D)
C H
3
O
CH
3
O

7) Sodium thiosulphate is prepared by
A) boiling Na
2
SO
3
solution with elemental sulphur in alkaline medium.
B) boiling Na
2
SO
3
solution with elemental sulphur in acidic medium.
C) oxidation of poly sulphides, Na
2
S
3
with air.
D) reduction of bisulphite solution plus SO
2
with zinc dust.
8) Alkene(s) which are more reactive than propene towards acid catalysed hydration is/are

A) Ethane B) but-2-ene
C) 2-methylbut-2-ene D) but-1-ene

Page 4 of 20
9) Which of the following statements may explain the meta directing ability of nitro group
in electrophilic aromatic substitution?

A) nitro group decreases the electron density at ortho and para positions to a higher
extent than meta position

B) the arenium ion intermediates formed by the electrophilic attack at ortho and para
positions are more destabilised compared to the one formed by meta attack

C) nitro group increases the electron density at meta position and decreases the same at
ortho and para positions.

D) the arenium ion intermediate formed by meta attack in nitrobenzene is more stable
than the same formed in unsubstituted benzene
SECTION-3
Section-III contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns , which have to be matched.
The statements in Column I are labeled A , B , C and D , while the statements in Column II are labeled p , q , r , s and t.
Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE statement(s) in Column II. For each
question in Section III , you will be awarded 2 for each row in which you have darkened the bubble(s) corresponding to
the correct answer. Thus , each question in this section carries a maximum of 8 marks. There is no negative marking
for incorrect answer(s) for this section.
10) Match the inorganic compounds in column A with the product(s) obtained on strong
heating given in column B Match the Following:
Column I Column II
(a) Pb(NO
3
)
2
(p) N
2

(b) NH
4
NO
3
(q) O
2

(c) (NH
4
)
2
Cr
2
O
7
(r) NO
2

(d) AgNO
3
(s) H
2
O
(t) Metal oxide
11) Match the Following:
Match the reactions in Column A with suitable thermodynamic parameters in column B
Column I Column II
(a)
HNO
2
(aq)
H
+
(aq) +
2
NO

(aq)
(p)
0 G A = ; 0 G A >

(b)
NaCl(s)+H
2
O Na
+
(aq) +Cl
(aq)
(q) 0 G A <
(c)
AgCl(s)+H
2
O
Ag
+
(aq) +Cl
(aq)
(r) 0 S A >
(d)
HNO
3
(l) +H
2
O H
3
O
+
(aq) +
3
NO

(aq)
(s) Addition of HCl solution
drives the reaction in the
backward direction.
(t) Addition of KCl solution
has no effect on the
direction of the reaction.
Page 5 of 20
SECTION-4
Section-IV contains 8 questions. The answer to each of the question is a single digit integer ,
ranging from 0 to 9. The appropriate bubbles below the respective question numbers in the ORS
have to be darkened. For each question in Section IV , you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken
the bubble corresponding to the correct answer , and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all
other cases , minus one (-1) mark will be awarded.
12) The conductivity of 0.1 M solution of a weak monoprotic acid is 2.1910
-4
S cm
-1
. The
limiting molar conductivity of it is 400 S cm
2
mol
-1
. If the dissociation constant of the
acid is y10
-6
, what is the value of y?
13) What is the total number of isomers (including stereoisomers) possible for the complex
[Fe(NO
2
)
2
(NH
3
)
4
]
14) K
p
for the dissociation of solid ammonium carbamate (NH
2
COONH
4
) into NH
3
(g) and
CO
2
(g) at 400 K is 32 bar
3
. What is the total pressure(in bar) of ammonia at
equilibrium?
15) How many of the following compounds are more basic than aniline?
(a) ethanamine (b) p-toluidine (c) p-nitroaniline (d) pyrrole (e) o-toluidine
16) How many of the following compounds turn into aromatic ions in strongly
acidic (HClO
4
) solutions?
a)
O
b)
O
c)
O
d)
O
O
e)
NH

17) An element with molar mass 2.710
-2
kg mol
-1
forms a cubic unit cell with edge length
405 pm. If its density is 2.710
3
kg m
-3
, what is the rank (number of atoms per unit cell)
of the cubic unit cell?
18) What is the number of stereoisomers for the compound
CH
3
CH(OH)CH=CH-CH=CH-CH
3
?
19) What is the total number of beta particles emitted in the radioactive series
236 208
92 82
U Pb ?

Page 6 of 20
MATHEMATICS
SECTION-1
Section-I contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A) , (B) , (C)
and (D) , out of which ONLY ONE is correct. For each question in Section - I , you will
be awarded 3 marks if you have darkened only the bubble corresponding to the correct
answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer,
minus one (-1) mark will be awarded.
20)
The greatest value of ( ) ( )
2 3
2sin 3cos 4 6 2sin 3cos u+ u+ u u as u ranges over all
real numbers is
A) 3456 B) 2345 C) 4567 D) 1234

21)
Let
4 1
9 2
A
(
=
(

then
100
A equals
A)
301 100
900 299
(
(

B)
301 100
900 301
(
(

C)
400 101
901 200
(
(

D)
400 99
901 200
(
(

22)
The number of integers ' ' m such that 3 m+ and
2
3 3 m m + + are both perfect cubes of
an integer, is
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

23)
The maximum value of
2 2
x y + such that the real numbers ' ' x and ' ' y satisfy
( )
2 2
4 1 x y x s s is
A)
24 16 2 +
B)
24 16 2
C)
12 8 2 +
D)
12 8 2

Page 7 of 20
SECTION-2
awarded.
24) Which of the following statements is/are true?

A) In a triangle if the diameter of any escribed circle equals the perimeter of the triangle,
then the triangle is right angled.

B)
If the in-radius of a triangle is 3cm and
1 2 3
, , r r r be the ex-radii of a triangle, then
1 2 3
1 1 1 1
3 r r r
+ + =

C)
In a triangle,
1
4
abc Rr s = where , , a b c are sides of a triangle, ' ' R the circum-
radius, ' ' r the in-radius and ' ' s the semi perimeter.

D) The in-radius of a triangle having sides 16,63,65cm is 7 . cm

25)
If the matrix A and B are of 3 3 and ( ) I AB is invertible,
then which of the following statements is/are correct?
A) I BA is not invertible
B) I BA is invertible
C) I BA has for its inverse ( )
1
I B I AB A
+

D) I BA has for its inverse ( )
1
I A I BA B
+

26)
Let ( ) 0 z C z e = satisfy
1
2. z
z
+ = Which of the following statements is/are correct?
A) The product of the least and greatest value of z is 1
B) The sum of the least and greatest value of z is 2 2
C) The difference of the greatest and least value of z is 2
D) The least and greatest value occur when ' ' z is purely imaginary
Page 8 of 20
27)
A curve passes through the point ( ) 1,2 and has slope at any point ( ) , x y as
2
.
2 y
Then
A) The equation to the curve is ( ) ( )
2
2 4 1 y x =
B) The curve is a parabola with its directrix given by 1 x =
C) The curve is a parabola with its directrix given by
1
2
x =
D) The equation of the curve is ( ) ( )
2
2 2 1 y x =

28)
The co ordinates of a point on the line
1 1
2 3 1
x y z +
= =
at a distance 11 from the point

( ) 1, 1,1 are
A) ( ) 2, 4,2 B) ( ) 1, 2,4 C)
10 8 2
, ,
7 7 7
| |
|
\ .
D)
1 2 3
, ,
7 7 7
| |
|
\ .

SECTION-3
Section-III contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns , which have to be
matched. The statements in Column I are labeled A , B , C and D , while the statements in Column II are
labeled p , q , r , s and t. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE
statement(s) in Column II. For each question in Section III , you will be awarded 2 for each row in which
you have darkened the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer. Thus , each question in this section
carries a maximum of 8 marks. There is no negative marking for incorrect answer(s) for this section.
29) Match the following:
Column I
( Differential Equations )
Column II
( Geometric Meaning )
(A) dy x
dx y
=
(p) Family of straight lines passing through origin
(B) dy y
dx x
=
(q) Family of straight lines having slope 1
(C)
1
dy
dx
=
(r) Family of curves having slope at any point
( ) , x y equal to the negative of the slope of the
line joining origin and the point ( ) , x y
(D) dy y
dx x
=
(s) Family of curves orthogonal to the line joining
origin and the point ( ) , x y

Page 9 of 20
30) Match the following:
The matrix
2 2
2 2
2 1
i j
A a
(
(
= =
(

and
cos sin
sin cos
S
u u (
=
(
u u

are such that
T
S AS = diagonal matrix
2 2
i j
D d
(
= =

for some suitably chosen value of 0, .
4
t | |
ue
|
\ .

Let
50
2 2
i j
M A m
(
= =

Column I Column -II
(A)
If u is the angle that makes
T
S AS a diagonal matrix
then 3tan2u is
(p) 0
(B)
The value of
11 22
51
4
3
m m
is
(q) 4
(C)
The value of
11 22
d d is
(r) 1
(D)
The value of
12 21
50
3
m m
is
(s) 5

SECTION-4
31)
Suppose a solution of the differential equation
( )
2 7 3
1
dy
x y x y
dx
+ = satisfies the initial
condition
1
1.
4
y
| |
=
|
\ .
Then the value of
5
4
.
dy
dx
when 1, y = is
32)
The number of integers ' ' k such that the equation
3
3 0 x x k + = has the integer roots,
not necessarily distinct, is
33)
Let

2 2 , , a i j k b i j c = + = +

is a vector such that , 2 2 . a c c c a = =

and angle
between a b

and c
is .
3
t
If
( )
a b c

is
6 3
,
then the value of ' ' is

Page 10 of 20
34) The length of the altitude on side AC of the triangle ABC is equal to . AB BC
The value of sin cos
2 2
C A C A +
+ is
35)
Let
( )
( )
2
2
0
8 7cos
,
7 8cos
x
I dx
x
t
+
=
+
}
then 56I equals
36)
Let
1 2 10
1, , ,....., o o o be the eleven 11
th
roots of unity. Let
( )
11
10
1
.
r r
r
r

=
= o + o

The value of
11
11
+
equals
37)
Let ' ' be the number of divisors of the form ( ) 4 1, 0 n n n Z + > e of the number
13 10 11
10 11 13 then
800
124

equals
38)
The area bounded by the curves
2
4 , 2 y x x y
2
= = and x y = can be expressed
in the form of ,
t+
( , being relatively prime positive integers) then + equals

Page 11 of 20
PHYSICS
SECTION-1
Section-I contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A) , (B) , (C) and (D)
, out of which ONLY ONE is correct. For each question in Section - I , you will be awarded 3
marks if you have darkened only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if
no bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer , minus one (-1) mark will be
awarded.
39) An impulse I is applied horizontally at a height h above the centre O of uniform disc of
mass m at rest on a rough horizontal plane. The velocity of O immediately after the
impulse is applied is v
0
but it begins to increase after motion started. Then :

A)
2
R
h <
B)
2
R
h =
C)
2
R
h >
D)
0
I mv >

40) In the Pressure versus Volume graph shown, in the process of going from a to b 60 J of
heat is added, and in the process of going from b to d 20 J of heat is added. In the
process of going from a to c to d, what is the total heat added?

A) 80 J B) 65 J C) 60 J D) 56 J

Page 12 of 20
41) Two stars of mass M and 5 M, which are at a distance L apart rotate about their centre of
mass due to gravitational attraction. Find time of one rotation

A) 3
2
6
L
GM

B) 3
2
3
L
GM

C) 3
5
2
6
L
GM

D) 3
6
2
5
L
GM

42) A radioactive sample contains two radio nucleoids A and B having decay
constant
1
hr
and
1
2 hr
. Initially 25%of total decay comes fromA. How long (in

hr) will it take before 75%of total decay comes from A. [Take 3 l n = ]
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5
SECTION-2
awarded.
43) A thin metallic spherical shell contains a charge Q over it. A point charge q is placed
inside the shell at point T separated from the centre by distance a. Another point charge
1
q is placed outside the shell at a distance b from the centre as shown in the adjacent
figure. Now select the correct statement(s) from the following.

Page 13 of 20
A) Electric field at the centre due to charge over outer surface of the shell is zero.

B)
Electric field at the centre due to charge over outer surface of the shell is
1
2
0
4
q
b e

C)
Electric potential at the centre due to all charges in space is
1
0
1
4
q q q Q
a R R b
(
+ +
(
e

D)
Electric potential at the centre due to all charges in space is
1
0
1
4
q q Q
a R b
(
+ +
(
e

44) Displacement time graph of a particle moving in a straight line is as
shown in figure. Select the correct alternative (s) :
A
B
C
s
o
t
AB is a straight line

A) Work done by all the force in region OA and BC is positive.
B) Work done by all the force in region AB is zero.
C) Work done by all the force in region BC is negative.
D) Work done by all the force in region OA is negative.
45) A beam of ultraviolet light of wavelength 100 nm to 200 nm is passed through a box
filled with hydrogen gas in ground state. The light coming out of the box is split into two
beams A and B. A contains unabsorbed light from the incident light and B contains the
emitted light by hydrogen atoms. The beam A is incident on the emitter in a
photoelectric tube. The stopping potential in this case is 5 volts. You can assume that the
transition to higher energy states are not permitted from the excited states. Use
12400 . hc eV =
A) It beam B is incident on photo emitter, stopping potential is 4.7 volt.
B) Work function of emitter is 7.4 eV.
C) It beam B is incident on photo emitter and stopping potential is 7.4 volt.
D) Work function of emitter is 6.7 eV

Page 14 of 20
46)
A particle moves along X-axis. Its equation of motion is ( ) 2 2 x t t = where t is in
second. Therefore:
A) the particle moves away from origin for 2 t s

B) the particle momentarily comes to rest at 1 t s =
C) the particle moves in S.H.M.
D) The given equation represents uniformly accelerated motion
47) Select the correct statement(s):

A) A beaker is partially filled with a liquid, on heating both beaker and liquid through
the same temperature rise, the empty space in the container does not change in
volume. Then coefficients of cubical expansion of the two must be different.

B) Two copper spheres (one solid and the other hollow) have same initial radius and
temperature. They are heated to same higher temperature. At the end of the heating,
the radius of the hollow one is greater than that of the solid.

C) Two spheres of the same material having radii 1 m and 4 m and temperatures 4000 K
and 2000 K respectively are placed inside a cool room. The energy radiated per
second by the first sphere is greater than that by the second.

D) When you touch two bodies, the body felt warmer on the touch must be of higher
temperature than the other.

Page 15 of 20
SECTION-3
Section-III contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns , which have to be
matched. The statements in Column I are labeled A , B , C and D , while the statements in Column II are
labeled p , q , r , s and t. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE
statement(s) in Column II. For each question in Section III , you will be awarded 2 for each row in which
you have darkened the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer. Thus , each question in this section
carries a maximum of 8 marks. There is no negative marking for incorrect answer(s) for this section.
48) In Column I shows four diagrams of real object point O, image point I and principal
axis have been sketched. Select the proper optical system from Column II which can
produce the required image. (Image may be real or virtual)
Column I Column II
(a)
-
O
-I

(p) Diverging lens
(b)
-
O
-
I

(q) Converging lens
(c)
O I
h h =
I
h
O
h

(r) Concave mirror
(d)
-
O
-I

(s) Convex mirror

49) A block is executing SHM on a rough horizontal surface under the action of an
external variable force. The force is plotted against the position x of the particle
from the mean position. (v =velocity of block, for both v and x positive direction is
towards right)

Column I Column II
(a) x positive, v positive (p) I
(b) x positive, v negative (q) II
(c) x negative, v positive (r) III
(d) x negative, v negative (s) IV
Page 16 of 20
SECTION-4
50) A student of height h jumps vertically up from the squat position. At the top point of the
jump, the students center of mass is at a height 3h/4 from the ground. The average force
acting on the floor during the jump prior to the moment when the student loses contact
with the floor is F. It is known that when the student stands on the floor, the center of
mass is at a height h/2 from the floor; in the squat position, the center of mass is at a
height h/4 from the floor. The mass of the student is m. If,
mg
F n
3
1

=

( )
. Find n.
51) O is the point object kept on the principal axis of a concave mirror M of radius of
curvature 20 cm. P is a prism of angle
0
1.8 = . Light first falls on the prism and then
falls on the mirror. The distance between the images formed by the concave mirror due
to
this light is ( )
mm
n
. Find n. Take
2
8
= for prism.
O

52) A metal rod of length 1 m is clamped at two points as shown in figure. Distance of
the clamp from the two ends are 5 cm and 15 cm respectively. The minimum and
next higher frequency of natural longitudinal oscillation of the rod are
1
f and
2
f
respectively. If
2 1
4
10 , f f n Hz = Find n. Given that Youngs modulus of
elasticity and density of aluminum are
11 2 3
1.6 10 2500 Y Nm and kgm

= =
respectively.

Page 17 of 20
53) What is current i (in amperes) in figure, where all resistances are 4.0O and all batteries
have an emf of 10 V?

54) A battery of e.m.f. 10 V and internal resistance 2O is connected in primary circuit
with a 100 cm long uniform potentiometer wire and a rheostat whose resistance is
fixed at 998O. A battery of unknown e.m.f. E is being balanced on this
potentiometer wire and balancing length is found to be 50 cm. When area of cross
section of potentiometer wire is doubled, then balancing length is found to be 75
cm . Area of cross-section (initially) is
2
100cm . If the e.m.f of the battery
2
n
E Volts = ,
Find n
55)
A current of 2 I A = flows in a circuit having the shape of an isosceles trapezium.
The ratio of the parallel sides of the trapezium is 2. Find the magnetic induction B
( ) in T at symmetric point O in the plane of the trapezium. The length of the smaller
base of the trapezium is 100 , l mm = the distance 50 . h mm =

Page 18 of 20
56) An A.C. source of angular frequency is fed across a resistor R and a capacitor C in
series. The current registered is I. If now the frequency of source is changed to
3
(but
maintaining the same voltage), the current in the circuit is found to be halved. If the ratio
of reactance to resistance at the original frequency is r, Find the value of
2
5r .
57) The potential energy of a 200 gm particle free to move along the X axis is given
by ( )
2
2
x
V x x J
| |
=
|
\ .
. The total mechanical energy of the particle is 2 J. Find the
maximum speed of the particle. (in m/s).

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QP II

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28540/QB/HYD-KCO-C / IITJ EE / 18-1-2011 /

at a distance 11 from the point

then the value of ' ' is

( , being relatively prime positive integers) then + equals

. Initially 25%of total decay comes fromA. How long (in

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