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Mock2 Q1 Blood supply of breast is from all except a) Internal mammary artery b) Intercostal artery c) Thoracodorsal artery of the

subscapular arteryans d) Thoraco-acromial artery q2 About prostate true is a. Urethra penetrates apex, b. Central zone is more prone for carcinoma than peripheral, c. Columella semilunaris opens into prostatic utricle,.ans d. Posterior lobe separated by rectovesical pouch. Q3 Primary structure deformity of an organ is called as a) Malformation ..ans b) Deformation c) Dysmorphism d) Syndrome Q4 When median nerve is paralyzed in carpal tunnel syndrome which of the following occurs a) Adductor pollicis paralysis b) Flexor pollicis longus paralysis c) Flexor pollicis brevis paralysis.ans d) Loss of sensation of thenar eminence q5 Which of the enzyme deficiency is correctly paired a. Farbers Alpha galactosidase, b. Gauchers Beta glucosidase, ..ans c. Niemann-picks Beta galactosidase, d. Fabrys disease sphingomyelinase. Q6 Alkaptonuria results due to the absence of a) Homogentisate oxidase ans b) Ornithine transcarbamyolase c) Arginosuccinate synthase d) Phenylalanine hydroxylase q7 Hartnups disease occurs due to a) Defective transport of neutral aminoacids and tryptophan ans b) Tryptophan pyrolase deficiency c) Decarboxylase deficiency

d) None of the above Q8 Enzyme replacement therapy is available for which of the following disorders? Metachromatic leukodystrophy Mucolipidosis Niemann Pick disease Gaucher disease (Correct Answer) ..ans

Q9 Enteroendocrine cells differ from goblet cells in which of the following ways? A. The direction of release of secretion (Your Answer) ..ans B. Use of exocytosis for release of secretory products from the cell C. Their presence in small and large intestine D. Their origin form a crypt stem cell

Q10 Which of the following hormone is not secreted by the kidney: AFMC 2012 A. Renin B. Erythropoietin C. 1, 25 Dihydroxycholecalciferol D. Angiotensin I (Your Answer) ans

Q11 The laboratory report shows values of gonadotropin and ovarian hormones of the blood sample taken, on day 20 of the menstrual cycle of a young women. Whether her cycle was ovulatory or not may be validly assessed by the reported serum level of a) FSH b) LH c) Oestradiol d) Progesterone ..ans Q12 Insulin secretion is induced by all the following EXCEPT

a) Growth hormone b) Placental lactogen c) Somatostatin.ans d) Estrogens q13 The most common and ultimately lethal extramedullary complication of multiple myeloma is a) amyloidosis of the brain b) amyloidosis of the liver c) kidney disease .ans d) peritonitis Q14 Congo red with amyloid produces (AIIMS - 78) a. Dark brown b. Blue colour c. Brilliant pinkans d. Khaki q15 Fixative used for bone histopathology? a. 10% formalin..ans b. Normal saline c. Rectified spirit d. Nothing q16 Osteomyelitis clinically resembles which of the following bone tumor a) Ewings tumor,,,,,ans b) Chondrosarcoma c) Chondroblastoma d) Giant cell tumour q17 Which of the following statement is not true regarding Chlamydia Trachomatis: A. It is biphasic B. Elementary body is metabolically active .ans C. Inside the cell it evades phagolysosome

D. Reticulate body divides by binary fission

Q18 True about non-typhoidal salmonellosis a) Can be transmitted by eating poultry products b) can be diagnosed by blood culture better than stool sample c) Quinolones are ineffective .ans d) Severe in neonates Q19 Sero conversion in HIV infection takes place in a) 2 weeks b) 4 weeksans c) 9 weeks d) 12 weeks q20 A woman who pricked her finger while pruning some rose bushes develops a local pustule that progressed to an ulcer. Several nodules then developed along the local lymphatic drainage. The most likely etiological agent would be A) Aspergillus fumigatus B) Candida albicans C) Histoplasma capsulatum D) Sporothrix schenckii .ans Q21 maurer dots seen in 1 vivax 2 malariae 3 falciform.ans 4 ovale q22 The common mode of infection of the pasteurella multocida is by; a) Soil b) Animal bite ans c) Human beings d) Endogenous infection Q23 Correct match of drug and its metabolic enzyme are all except?

A. Digoxin P glycoprotein B. Simvastatin Glucuronidation.ans C. Verapamil CYP3A4 D. Carvedilol- CYP2D6 Q24 A 50 year old man had an attack of myocardial infarction and developed ventricular ectopics and low ejection fraction. Which of the following anti arrhythmic drug to be given a) Flecainide b) Mexilitine c) Beta- blocker ans d) Radio-frequency ablation technique Q25 The ganglion blocking drugs act by a) Competing with acetylchoine at neruromuscular junctions ans b) Preventing release of acetylcholine c) Preventing nerve conduction in post ganglionic segment d) Preventing catecholamine release or inactivating it Q26 Which of the following combinations is not recommended in anti-retroviral therapy a. Stavudine + Lamivudine b. Zidovudine + Lamivudine c. Stavudine + Zidovudine .ans d. Zidovudine + Didanosine q27 The anti-malarial drugs effective in pre-erythrocytic phase in liver are a) Proguanil....ans b) Chloroquine c) Pyrimethamine d) Quinine Review:PHARMACOLOGY-ANTIBIOTICSQ28 For confirmation of DNA from autopsy sample is taken from a. Liver b. Spleen c. Kidney

d. Brain. ans q29 Grease collar is seen with a) Electrocution b) Ligtening c) Thermal injury d) Bullet entry (firearm entry wound).ans

Q30 Ossification centre appearing just before birth is a) Lower end of femur..ans b) Lower end of Tibia c) Upper end of Humerus d) Scaphoid Review:FM-Identification Q31 A lady has bilateral hearing loss since 4 years which worsened during pregnancy. Type of impedence audiometry graph will be : A. C B. Ad C. As (Your Answer) ,,,,,ans D. B Q32 Which species of Klebsiella infection is associated extremely foul smell? a) Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis b) Klebsiella seeberi c) Klebsiella sygomaticus d) Klebsiella Ozaenae .ans Q33 A patient presented with a 3.5 cms size lymph node enlargement, which was hard and presented in submandibular region. Examination of the head and neck did not yield any lesion. The next investigation to be done: (CMC 2005) a. CXR b. Triple endoscopy .ans c. Supravital staining of oral mucosa

d. Laryngoscopy q34 At birth, following structures are of adult size, EXCEPT a) Tympanic cavity b) Mastoid antrum ans c) Malleus d) Tympanic ring Q36 According to the Epidemiological Wheel Theory, in malaria, there is : (a) a large central hub, while out of the environmental factors, all the three components have unequal roles (b) a large central hub, while out of the environmental factors, all the three components have a major and equal role (c) a small central hub, while out of the environmental factors, all the three components have unequal roles (d) a small central hub, while out of the environmental factors, all the three components have a major and equal role.ans q37 Residence of three village with three different types of water supply were asked to participate in a study to identify cholera carriers. Because several cholera deaths had occurred in the recent past virtually everyone present at the time submitted to examination. The proportion of residents in each village who were carriers was computed and compared. This study is a: a) Cross-sectional study ..ans b) Case-control study. c) Concurrent cohort study d) Non-concurrent. Q37 Study that is used to compare serum cholesterol levels in obese and non-obese women and to find the relation or significant prevalence is: a) Chi-square test..ans b) Paired 't' test c) Studen 't' test d) Cross-sectional study q38

Nutritional supplements to pregnant women given by Anganwadi workers under ICDS programme is: a) 300 calories and 25 gm proteins b) 500 calories and 15 gm proteins c) 500 calories and 25 gm proteins..ans d) 300 calories and 15 gm proteins q39 Elderly is defined as the person aged above: (a) 60 yrs (b) 65 yrs .ans (c) 70 yrs (d) 75 yrs q40 Socialization of medicine leads to all except : a) Ensures complete utilization of services by all..ans b) Free medical care supported by state c) Eliminates the competition among physicians in search of clients d) Ensures social equity, universal coverage of health services (Repeat question AIIMS Nov 06 AA q49) q41 Among various species of Mosquito belonging to anopheles genus, one that is highly anthrophilic and transmits even at low density is: (Delhi 2005) a. Anopheles sundicans b. Anopheles fluvitalisans c. Anopheles stephensi d. Anopheles culicifacies q42 Raised prostate specific antigen signifies all except a) Ca Prostate b) Prostatic calculi .ans c) Prostatic Hypertrophy d) Prostatitis Q43 Correct statement concerning intussusception: a) It is frequently preceded by a gastrointestinal viral illness .ans b) A1-2 week of parenteral alimentation should precede surgical reduction

c) Hydrostatic reduction without surgery is rare sucessful d) Recurrence rates following treatment are high Q44 . In a case of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, the metabolic disturbance is a) Respiratory alkalosis b) Metabolic acidosis c) Metabolic alkalosis with paradoxical aciduriaans d) Metabolic alkalosis with alkaline urine Review:P.Surgery-CHPSQ45 Which is not a feature of Hyperkinetic Child? a) Low IQ b) Low attention span c) Right to left dissociation.ans d) Amphetamine is drug of choice Review:Psychiatry-GeneralQ46 The squeeze techniques was devised for the treatment of a) Frigidity b) Primary impotence c) Secondary impotence d) Premature ejaculationans Review:Psychiatry-sexual disordersQ47 X ray diagnosis of scurvy is established by? a] Ring epiphysis b] white line in metaphysis c] thinning of the cortex d)ground glass appearance .ans Q48 Snow storm appearance on CXR is seen in a)anthracosis b)asbestosis c)fat embolism..ans d)Bagassosis q49 Spongy appearance with central sunburst calcification is seen in?

A. Pancreatic adenocarcinoma B. Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma C. Somatostatinoma D. Serous cystadenoma (Your Answer) ..ans

Q50 The most frequently damaged nerve in the lower extremity in anesthetized patients is the a) Obturator nerve b) Femoral nerve c) Anterior tibial nerve d) Common peroneal nerve ..ans Q51 The most sensitive early sign of malignant hyperthermia during general anesthesia is a) Tachycardia b) Hypertension c) Fever d) Increased end- expiratory Co2 tension (PECO2) .ans Q52 A patient had seven irregular hyperpigmented macules on the trunk and multiple small hyperpigmented macules in the axillae and groins since early childhood. There were no other skin lesions. Which is the most likely investigation to support the diagnosis? A. Slit lamp examination of eye ans B. Measurement of intraocular tension C. Examination of fundus D. Retinal artery angiography

Q53 Salmon patch is seen in a) Congenital syphilis..ans b) Secondary syphilis c) Tuberculosis d) Systemic lupus erythematosus Review: Dermatology--

Q54 Most common cause of Neonatal sepsis in hospitals in India is A. Klebsiella .ans B. Escherichia coli C. Listeria monocytogenes D. Staph aureus

Q55 Arthritis occur in: a) Alkaptonuria ..ans b) Cytinosis c) Maple syrup diseases d) Homocystinuria Q56 Paradoxically split second heart sound signifies severe a) Pulmonary stenosis b) Mitral stenosis c) aortic stenosis ..ans d) tricuspid stenosis Q57220. Incubatory carriers are not seen in a) Measles b) Chicken Pox c) Hepatitis A.ans d) Diphtheria q58 Dermatan sulfate and chondroitin sulfate are excreted in urine in cases of ____________ . a) Hurler syndrome b) Sanfilippo disease c) Morquio syndrome .ans d) Maroteaux-Lamy Syndrome Q59 MacEwan's signs is a) Cracked pot note of the skull on percussion b) Is present in increased intracranial tension c) Both.ans d) None

Review:Paediatric Neurology Q60 The best way of diagnosing Trisomy-21 during second trimester of pregnancy is: a) Triple marker estimation b) Nuchal skin fold thickness measurement c) Chorionic Villus Sampling d) Amniocentesisans Review:Paediatrics-Metabolic Disorders & GeneticsQ1 Which one of the following statements, concerning persistent hyperplastic primary vitreous (PHPV) is true? A. It may calcify B. It is most easily differentiated from retinoblastoma by the presence of exophthalmos or cataract C. It is generally unilateral D. Visual prognosis is usually good

Q2 True about Lymphokines: (Kerala 2005) a. Alpha-interferon activates macrophages b. Interleukin 2 (IL-2) is a T-cell growth factor c. The action of lymphokines is not antigen specific d. All CD4+ T-cells do not produce the same Lymphokines e. Colony stimulating factors (CSF) stimulate bacterial growth q3 Which one of the following ECG changes is associated with Wolff-Parkinson White syndrome? a) Long QT b) P wave inversion c) 'J' waves d) Short PR interval

Q4 The symptoms of parkinson's disease include all, except a) Flaccidity b) Short steps

c) Mask face d) Increased tone Review:General Medicine-NeurologyQ5 Paralysis agitans is the syndrome a) Tabes dorsalis b) Cerebral diplegia c) Parkinson's disease d) Internal capsular paralysis Q6 Which of the following statement regarding botulism is correct? a) Pin point pupil is a characteristic finding b) PG is the drug of choice once symptoms appear c) The spores of the organism are readily killed by dry heat at 100 degree C d) The toxin blocks transmission of cholinergic nerve fibres

Q7 Which is not seen in botulism a. Vomiting b. Diarrhea c. Constipation d. Weakness Q8 Malignant hyperthermia and neuroleptic malignant syndrome share each of following characteristics EXCEPT a) Generalized muscular rigidity b) Hyperthermia c) Effectively treated with dantrolene d) Flaccid paralysis after administration of vecuronium Q9 Biphasic respiratory depression is usually seen after a) Neurolept anesthesia b) Regional anesthesia c) Halothane anesthesia d) Isoflurane anesthesia

Q10 which is not correct match 1.DUKE CRITERIA- INFECTIVE ENDOCARDITIS 2.SAPPORO CRITERIA-APS 3.STUDIFORD - PRIMARY ABDOMINAL PREGNANCY 4.SPIGELBERG cervical PREGNANCY q11 A baby presenting with multiple deformities, cleft lip, cleft palate, microcephaly, small eyes, scalp defect and polydactyly. Probable diagnosis is? A. Trisomy 21 B. Trisomy 13 C. Monosomy 2 D. Trisomy 18

Q12 Most common presentation of gonococcal infection in females Acute cervicitis Acute urethritis Vaginitis Bartholinitis Q13. Which of the following match is incorrect a. Vermis: - Plans the Movements, b. Cerebrocerebellum: - Receives the Rubrocerebellar Connections, c. Spinocerebellum: - Proprioception, d. Vestibulocerebellum: - Controls Eye Movements. Q14 The fascia separating rectum from coccyx is called A) Scarpa's fascia B) Waldeyer's fascis C) Denonvillier's fascia D) Colle's fascia Q15 Which is not a part of waldeyers ring? a. Lingual tonsil b. Palatine tonsil c. Adenoids d. Thyroid gland

Q16 Vitamin A intoxication causes injury to A. Lysosomes B. Mitochondria C. Microtubules D. Endoplasmic reticulum

Q17 Two vitamins whose derivatives are involved in transformation of serine to glycine are a) B6, B12 b) B, Niacin c) Folic acid, B 12 d) Folic acid, B6

Q18 The reaction inhibited by thiamine deficiency is a) Pyruvate to Acetyl CoA b) Citrate to alpha ketoglutarate c) Succinyl CoA to fumarate d) None Q19 Tryptophan Load test helps in the evaluation of deficiency of a) Niacin b) Riboflavin c) Pyridoxine d) Folic acid Review:Biochemistry-VitaminsQ20 Acetyl CoA can directly lead to the formation of all except a) Glucose b) Triglyceride c) Ketone bodies

d) Cholesterol Q21 When Spinal cord is secured at the level of brainstem, the effect on respiration will be a. Caeses, b. Normal, c. Irregular, d. Apneic q22 CO2 affects respiratory center via a) CSF H concentration b) Carotid body c) Inflation and deflation reflex d) Aortic body Review:Physiology-RespiratoryQ23 Pretectal nucleus is responsible for a) Accomodation reflex b) Light reflex c) Conjugation reflex d) None Q24 chylomicrons protein core+ a. triglyceride only b. triglyceride+ cholesterol c.triglyceride+ cholesterol+phopholipid q25 Normal body temperature can be raised by a) Androgens b) Gonadotropins c) Oestrogens d) Progesterone

Review:Physiology-Endocrinology-

Q26 C-MYC translocation is seen in which of the following tumors ? A) Burkitt lymphoma B) Neuroblastoma C) Malignant melanoma D) Breast cancer Q27 Granulosa cell tumor marker 1.inhibin 2.CA-19-9 3.CA 5 Q28 Most common germ cell tumor is a) Teratoma b) Choriocarcinoma c) Endodermal sinus tumor d) Mixed germ cell tumor Q29 False about chemokines a. Pleotropic b. Produced by single type of cells c. Specific action d. Involved in inflammation Q30 In 18 year old man with unilateral testicular swelling and unilateral gynaecomastia, diagnosis is a) Sertoli cell tumor b) Leydig cell tumor c) Lepromatous epidydimo orchitis d) Seminoma Q31 Which of the following is dimorphic fungi a) Histoplasma b) Tricholphyton c) Cryptococcus d) Candida

Review: Microbiology-MYCOLOGYQ32 DNA virus is a) Polio type I b) Polio type II c) Echovirus d) Adeno virus

Review:Microbiology-VirologyQ33 The commonest fungal lesion of the eyelid is a) Candida b) Aspergillosis c) Sporothrix d) None q34 Which of the following is a nonculturable fungus a) Rhinosporidium b) Candida c) Sporothrix d) Penicillium Review:Microbiology-MycologyQ35 Catheter induced UTI is most commonly due to a) E.coli b) Pseudomonas c) Proteus d) Acinetobacter q36 Bremelanotide used for 1. Erectile dysfunction 2.LUTS 3.PROSTATE CANCER 4.METASTATIC RENAL CANCER q37 Cetuximab (an EGFR antagonist) can be used in a) Palliation in head and neck cancer

b) Anal canal carcinoma c) Gastric cancer d) Small cell lung carcinoma Review:Pharmacology-Q38 Which antiepileptic drug acts by increasing Gamma-amino butyric acid (GABA)? a) Sodium valproate b) Phenobarbitone c) Carbamazepine d) Cycloserine q39 The following drugs are used in obesity except? A. Orlistat B. Sibutaramine C. Olestra D. Neuropeptide Y Agonist Q40 Mercury will affect which part of the renal tubule A. PCT B. Loop of Henle C. DCT D. CT Explanation Mercury poisoning (also known as hydrargyria or mercurialism) is a disease caused by exposure to mercury or its compounds. Q41 Preservation of brain is not required in A. Heavy metal poisoning B. Organophosphorus poisoning C. Volatile organic poisoning D. Alkaloid poisoning

Q42 Patella completely ossify by the age of a) 6 years b) 10 years c) 14 years d) 21 years Review:Forensic-Q43 Which of the following is used for chromosomal sex determination a) Cells of buccal mucosa b) Neutrophils c) Skin biopsy d) Cellular casts Review:Forensic Medicine-SEX DETERMINATIONQ44 All are components of gun powder except a) Charcoal b) Lead peroxide c) Potassium Nitrate d) Sulphur Review:FM-Injuries & WoundsQ45 Maggots appear in body in rainy season within a) 24 hrs b) 1-2 days c) 2-3 days d) 3-4 days Review:FM-Death,Post Mor. Changes & AutopsyQ46 epistaxis after ligating ECA a.ethmoidal artey b.greater palatine artery c. superior labial artery d.lingual artey q47

Vidian Neurectomy is done in: a) Vasomotor rhinitis b) Rhinitis sicca c) Allergic sinusitis d) Epistaxis Review:ENT-Nose,PNS,Nasopharynx & TonsilsQ48 The postero superior retraction pocket, if allowed to progress, will lead to: A. Tympanoscelerosis B. Tertiary cholesteatoma C. Secondary cholesteatoma D. Sensori neural hearing loss

Q49 Dengue hemorrhagic fever is caused by a) Type I secrotype b) Re-infection with the same serotype of dengue virus c) Re-infection with the different serotype of the dengue virus d) Re-infection in immunocompromised host Review:SPM-Q50 Homologous reservoir is exemplified by a) Rabies b) Japanese encephalitis c) Cholera d) Histoplasmosis Review:SPM-Epidemiology Q51 Which of the following statement about Japanese Encephalitis is not true: (AI 1989) a. Culex Triataeniorhyncus is the vector b. Epidemic in Karnataka c. Pigs are intermediate host d. Herons are primary host q52 A pt present with sudden b/l loss of vision

with loss of light perception. The loss is more on right side. Pupillary reflex, optokinetic nystagmus are normal. Pt can touch to his finger on closing his right eye but not on closing lt. What is diagnosis? a. Optic neuritis b. Anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy c. CMV retinitis d. Functional visual loss q53 Cherry red spot is seen a) Retinopathy of prematurity b) Metachromatic luekodystrophy c) CRV occlusion d) Retinitis pigmentosa Q54 True stereopsis is perceived due to the following: A. Motion parallax B. Bi-nasal disparity C. Linear perspective D. Overlay of contours

Q55 Cricket player hit his base of right thumb while catching a ball. For which of the following muscle will you investigate further? a. Abductor pollicis longus b. Flexor pollicis brevis c. Ulnar collateral ligament d. Volar plate q56 A 15 year old boy is injured while playing cricket. X-rays of the leg rule out of a possible fracture. The radiologist reports the boy has an evidence of aggressive bone tumor with both bone destruction and soft tissue mass. The bone biopsy reveals a bone cancer with neural differentiation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Neuroblastoma B. Chondroblastoma C. Ewings sarcoma D. Osteosarcoma

Q57 Chondrocalcinosis is seen in a) Ochronosis b) Hypoparathyrodism c) Rickets d) Hyper vitaminosis D q58 Purple skin lesions are characteristically seen in a) Kaposi's sarcoma b) von Recklinghausen's disease c) Cutaneous lupus erythematosus d) Both A &C

Review: Q59 Lichen nitidus is characterized by a) May predipose to malignancy b) Violaceous colour c) Penile lesions d) Hyperpigmented sequelae Review: Dermatology-Q60 Koebner's phenomenon is seen in all except a) Psoriasis b) Pemphigoid c) Warts d) Lichen planus Review: Dermatology-GENERALQ1 Which one of the following statements, concerning persistent hyperplastic primary vitreous (PHPV) is true? A. It may calcify B. It is most easily differentiated from retinoblastoma by the presence of

exophthalmos or cataract C. It is generally unilateral (Correct Answer) D. Visual prognosis is usually good

Q2 True about Lymphokines: (Kerala 2005) a. Alpha-interferon activates macrophages b. Interleukin 2 (IL-2) is a T-cell growth factor c. The action of lymphokines is not antigen specific d. All CD4+ T-cells do not produce the same Lymphokines e. Colony stimulating factors (CSF) stimulate bacterial growth.ans q3 Which one of the following ECG changes is associated with Wolff-Parkinson White syndrome? a) Long QT b) P wave inversion c) 'J' waves d) Short PR interval ..ans Q4 The symptoms of parkinson's disease include all, except a) Flaccidity ..ans b) Short steps c) Mask face d) Increased tone Review:General Medicine-NeurologyQ5 Paralysis agitans is the syndrome a) Tabes dorsalis b) Cerebral diplegia c) Parkinson's disease .ans d) Internal capsular paralysis Q6 Which of the following statement regarding botulism is correct? a) Pin point pupil is a characteristic finding b) PG is the drug of choice once symptoms appear c) The spores of the organism are readily killed by dry heat at 100 degree C d) The toxin blocks transmission of cholinergic nerve fibres .ans

Q7 Which is not seen in botulism a. Vomiting b. Diarrhea ,,,,ans c. Constipation d. Weakness Q8 Malignant hyperthermia and neuroleptic malignant syndrome share each of following characteristics EXCEPT a) Generalized muscular rigidity b) Hyperthermia c) Effectively treated with dantrolene d) Flaccid paralysis after administration of vecuronium .ans Q9 Biphasic respiratory depression is usually seen after a) Neurolept anesthesia .ans b) Regional anesthesia c) Halothane anesthesia d) Isoflurane anesthesia Q10 which is not correct match 1.DUKE CRITERIA- INFECTIVE ENDOCARDITIS 2.SAPPORO CRITERIA-APS 3.STUDIFORD - PRIMARY ABDOMINAL PREGNANCY 4.SPIGELBERG cervical PREGNANCY..ans q11 A baby presenting with multiple deformities, cleft lip, cleft palate, microcephaly, small eyes, scalp defect and polydactyly. Probable diagnosis is? A. Trisomy 21 B. Trisomy 13 (Your Answer) .ans C. Monosomy 2 D. Trisomy 18

Q12 Most common presentation of gonococcal infection in females Acute cervicitis..ans

Acute urethritis Vaginitis Bartholinitis Q13. Which of the following match is incorrect a. Vermis: - Plans the Movements, ..ans b. Cerebrocerebellum: - Receives the Rubrocerebellar Connections, c. Spinocerebellum: - Proprioception, d. Vestibulocerebellum: - Controls Eye Movements. Q14 The fascia separating rectum from coccyx is called A) Scarpa's fascia B) Waldeyer's fascis ans C) Denonvillier's fascia D) Colle's fascia Q15 Which is not a part of waldeyers ring? a. Lingual tonsil b. Palatine tonsil c. Adenoids d. Thyroid glandans Q16 Vitamin A intoxication causes injury to A. Lysosomes ans B. Mitochondria C. Microtubules D. Endoplasmic reticulum

Q17 Two vitamins whose derivatives are involved in transformation of serine to glycine are a) B6, B12 b) B, Niacin c) Folic acid, B 12 d) Folic acid, B6 ..ans Q18 The reaction inhibited by thiamine deficiency is

a) Pyruvate to Acetyl CoA .ans b) Citrate to alpha ketoglutarate c) Succinyl CoA to fumarate d) None Q19 Tryptophan Load test helps in the evaluation of deficiency of a) Niacin b) Riboflavin c) Pyridoxine ..ans d) Folic acid Review:Biochemistry-VitaminsQ20 Acetyl CoA can directly lead to the formation of all except a) Glucose .ans b) Triglyceride c) Ketone bodies d) Cholesterol Q21 When Spinal cord is secured at the level of brainstem, the effect on respiration will be a. Caeses, b. Normal, c. Irregular, d. Apneic..ans q22 CO2 affects respiratory center via a) CSF H concentration ..ans b) Carotid body c) Inflation and deflation reflex d) Aortic body Review:Physiology-RespiratoryQ23 Pretectal nucleus is responsible for a) Accomodation reflex b) Light reflex ..ans c) Conjugation reflex

d) None Q24 chylomicrons protein core+ a. triglyceride only b. triglyceride+ cholesterol..ans c.triglyceride+ cholesterol+phopholipid q25 Normal body temperature can be raised by a) Androgens b) Gonadotropins c) Oestrogens d) Progesterone ..ans Review:Physiology-EndocrinologyQ26 C-MYC translocation is seen in which of the following tumors ? A) Burkitt lymphoma ..ans B) Neuroblastoma C) Malignant melanoma D) Breast cancer Q27 Granulosa cell tumor marker 1.inhibin ..ans 2.CA-19-9 3.CA 5 Q28 Most common germ cell tumor is a) Teratoma b) Choriocarcinoma ..ans c) Endodermal sinus tumor d) Mixed germ cell tumor Q29 False about chemokines a. Pleotropic b. Produced by single type of cells ..ans c. Specific action d. Involved in inflammation Q30

In 18 year old man with unilateral testicular swelling and unilateral gynaecomastia, diagnosis is a) Sertoli cell tumor ..ans b) Leydig cell tumor c) Lepromatous epidydimo orchitis d) Seminoma Q31 Which of the following is dimorphic fungi a) Histoplasma ..ans b) Tricholphyton c) Cryptococcus d) Candida Review: Microbiology-MYCOLOGYQ32 DNA virus is a) Polio type I b) Polio type II c) Echovirus d) Adeno virus ..ans Review:Microbiology-VirologyQ33 The commonest fungal lesion of the eyelid is a) Candida..ans b) Aspergillosis c) Sporothrix d) None q34 Which of the following is a nonculturable fungus a) Rhinosporidium.ans b) Candida c) Sporothrix d) Penicillium Review:Microbiology-MycologyQ35 Catheter induced UTI is most commonly due to a) E.coli b) Pseudomonas......ans c) Proteus

d) Acinetobacter q36 Bremelanotide used for 1. Erectile dysfunction .ans 2.LUTS 3.PROSTATE CANCER 4.METASTATIC RENAL CANCER q37 Cetuximab (an EGFR antagonist) can be used in a) Palliation in head and neck cancer ..ans b) Anal canal carcinoma c) Gastric cancer d) Small cell lung carcinoma Review:Pharmacology-Q38 Which antiepileptic drug acts by increasing Gamma-amino butyric acid (GABA)? a) Sodium valproate ans b) Phenobarbitone c) Carbamazepine d) Cycloserine q39 The following drugs are used in obesity except? A. Orlistat B. Sibutaramine C. Olestra D. Neuropeptide Y Agonist ..ans Q40 Mercury will affect which part of the renal tubule A. PCT ..ans B. Loop of Henle C. DCT D. CT Explanation Mercury poisoning (also known as hydrargyria or mercurialism) is a disease caused

by exposure to mercury or its compounds. Q41 Preservation of brain is not required in A. Heavy metal poisoning (Correct Answer) ans B. Organophosphorus poisoning C. Volatile organic poisoning D. Alkaloid poisoning

Q42 Patella completely ossify by the age of a) 6 years b) 10 years c) 14 years .ans d) 21 years Review:Forensic Q43 Which of the following is used for chromosomal sex determination a) Cells of buccal mucosa..ans b) Neutrophils c) Skin biopsy d) Cellular casts Review:Forensic Medicine-SEX DETERMINATIONQ44 All are components of gun powder except a) Charcoal b) Lead peroxideans c) Potassium Nitrate d) Sulphur Review:FM-Injuries & WoundsQ45 Maggots appear in body in rainy season within a) 24 hrs b) 1-2 days ..ans c) 2-3 days d) 3-4 days

Review:FM-Death,Post Mor. Changes & AutopsyQ46 epistaxis after ligating ECA a.ethmoidal artey.ans b.greater palatine artery c. superior labial artery d.lingual artey q47 Vidian Neurectomy is done in: a) Vasomotor rhinitis ..ans b) Rhinitis sicca c) Allergic sinusitis d) Epistaxis Review:ENT-Nose,PNS,Nasopharynx & TonsilsQ48 The postero superior retraction pocket, if allowed to progress, will lead to: A. Tympanoscelerosis B. Tertiary cholesteatoma C. Secondary cholesteatoma D. Sensori neural hearing loss (Your Answer) ..ans

Q49 Dengue hemorrhagic fever is caused by a) Type I secrotype b) Re-infection with the same serotype of dengue virus c) Re-infection with the different serotype of the dengue virus .ans d) Re-infection in immunocompromised host Review:SPM-Q50 Homologous reservoir is exemplified by a) Rabies b) Japanese encephalitis c) Cholera.....ans d) Histoplasmosis Review:SPM-Epidemiology

Q51 Which of the following statement about Japanese Encephalitis is not true: (AI 1989) a. Culex Triataeniorhyncus is the vector b. Epidemic in Karnataka c. Pigs are intermediate host d. Herons are primary host..ans q52 A pt present with sudden b/l loss of vision with loss of light perception. The loss is more on right side. Pupillary reflex, optokinetic nystagmus are normal. Pt can touch to his finger on closing his right eye but not on closing lt. What is diagnosis? a. Optic neuritis b. Anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy c. CMV retinitis d. Functional visual loss ans q53 Cherry red spot is seen a) Retinopathy of prematurity b) Metachromatic luekodystrophy ..ans c) CRV occlusion d) Retinitis pigmentosa Q54 True stereopsis is perceived due to the following: A. Motion parallax B. Bi-nasal disparity (Correct Answer) .ans C. Linear perspective D. Overlay of contours

Q55 Cricket player hit his base of right thumb while catching a ball. For which of the following muscle will you investigate further? a. Abductor pollicis longus b. Flexor pollicis brevis c. Ulnar collateral ligament.. ans d. Volar plate

q56 A 15 year old boy is injured while playing cricket. X-rays of the leg rule out of a possible fracture. The radiologist reports the boy has an evidence of aggressive bone tumor with both bone destruction and soft tissue mass. The bone biopsy reveals a bone cancer with neural differentiation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Neuroblastoma B. Chondroblastoma C. Ewings sarcoma (Correct Answer) ans D. Osteosarcoma

Q57 Chondrocalcinosis is seen in a) Ochronosis..ans b) Hypoparathyrodism c) Rickets d) Hyper vitaminosis D q58 Purple skin lesions are characteristically seen in a) Kaposi's sarcoma b) von Recklinghausen's disease c) Cutaneous lupus erythematosus d) Both A &C ans Review: Q59 Lichen nitidus is characterized by a) May predipose to malignancy b) Violaceous colour c) Penile lesions.ans d) Hyperpigmented sequelae Review: Dermatology-Q60 Koebner's phenomenon is seen in all except a) Psoriasis b) Pemphigoidans c) Warts d) Lichen planus Review: Dermatology-GENERAL-

Q1 Exposure of left subclavian artery by supraclavicular approach does not require cutting of :

A. Sternocleidomastoid B. Scalenus anterior C. Scalenus medius (Correct Answer) .ans D. Omohyoid

Q2 Which sinus is closely related to Tentorium cerebelli a) Straight sinus b) Transverse sinus .ans c) Inferior petrosal sinus d) Occipital sinus Review:-Q3

Injury to the male urethra below the perineal membrane causes urine to accumulate in :

A. B. Deep perineal pouch B. C. Space of retzius C. D. Pouch of douglas D. A. Superficial perineal pouch (Correct Answer) ans

Q4

Most common site of Morgagni Hernia is?

A. D. Left posterior B. C. Right anterior (Correct Answer) ans C. B. Right posterior

D. A. Left anterior

Q5 The binding of 2,3 BPG to Hemoglobin is to a) Carboxyterminal b) Amino terminal ..ans c) Sulphydryl groups d) None of the above Review:Biochemistry-ProteinsQ6 Which inhibits adenyl cyclase enzyme a) Somatostatin ..ans b) Calcitonin c) Epinephrine d) Thyroxine Review:Biochemistry-GeneralQ7 The extracellular matrix and the cytoskeleton communicate across the cell membrane through which of the following? A. Proteoglycans B. Integrins ..ans C. Cadherins D. Intermediate filaments

Q8 All of the following have receptors which are transcription factors, except? A. Insulin ans B. Estrogen C. Glucocorticoids D. Vitamin D

Q9 Krebs cycle requires a) Thiamine.ans

b) Riboflavin c) Vitamin-C d) Zinc Review: Biochemistry-carbohydrate metabolismQ10 Riboflavin nutritional status is assessed by a) Xanthine oxidase levels in RBC's b) Glutathione reductase activation in RBC's .ans c) Urine excretion of Riboflavin d) Cytochrome- C-reductase levels in kidneys Review:Biochemistry-VitaminsQ11 Parasympathetic affects cardiovascular system mainly by altering a) Vascular resistance b) Vascular complience c) Force of contraction of heart d) heart rate.ans Review: Physiology-ANSQ12 Estrogen in the post menopausal woman is metabolized mostly into a) Estrol b) Estrone..ans c) Estradiol d) Androstenedione Review: Physiology-ENDOCRINEQ13 In volume cycled respiration the inspiratory flow rate is set at: a) 140-160 L/min b) 110-130 L/min c) 60-100 L/min.....ans d) 30-50 L/min Review:-Q14 Sensations of crude touch are carried by a) Posterior columns b) Lateral spinothalamic tract c) Ventral spinothalamic tractans d) Spinotectal tract Review:Physiology-CNS-

Q15 Simmond's disease is characterized by following except a) Infertility.ans b) Lowered ability to bear illness c) Fall in BMR d) Polyuria Review:Physiology-CNSQ16 Concentric myocardial hypertrophy is seen in a) Endomyocardial fibrosis b) Endocardial fibroelastosis c) Congestive cardiomyopathy..ans d) RHD Review:Pathology-CVSQ17 Which is not associated with sickle cell anemia a) Ankle ulcer b) Cardiomegaly c) Leucopeniaans d) Fish mouth vertebra Review:Pathology-Red Blood cell and Bleeding DisordersQ18 Aschoff Bodies in Rheumatic heart disease show all the following features except a) Antischokow cells b) Epitheloid cells .ans c) Giant cells d) Fibrinoid necrosis Review:Pathology-HeartQ19 Which of the following statements about exudate and transudate is true? a) A transudate results from rupture of the vessel wall in a noninflammatory process b) An exudate contains more protein than transudate ..ans c) A transudate contains more cells than exudate. d) A transudate is usually purulent. Q20 Which of the following epithelia is most resistant to gonorrhea? a) Vagina in prepubertal girls b) Vagina of sexually mature womenans c) Endocervix

d) Endometrium Review:Pathology-GynecologicQ21 Which one of the following causes visceral larva migrans? a) Toxocara canis.ans b) Ancylostoma caninum c) Gnathostoma spinigerm d) Strongyloides larva Review:Microbiology-parasitologyQ22 50-years-old Kamala has brain abscess with foul smelling necrotic debris and the organism shows red fluorescence of UV light. Likely cause of this is: a) Bacteroids .ans b) Peptostreptococci c) Staph aureus d) Acanthomobea Review:Microbiology--Frontal lobe Q23.The characteristic features of El tor Cholera are all except a) More of subclinical cases b) Mortality is less c) Secondary attack rate is high in family..ans d) Eltor vibrio is harder and able to survive longer q24 Senescent RBC's are mainly attacked in a) Vivax malaria b) Ovale malaria c) Falciparum malaria d) Quartan malariaans Review: Microbiology-ParasitologyQ25 Endemic relapsing fever is caused by all except; a) Duttonii b) B.hermsii c) B.recurrentis..ans d) B.parkeri Review:MICROBIOLOGY-Q26 Ethambutol toxicity causes

a) Blue colour blindness ..ans b) Grey colour blindness c) Red green colour blindness d) None of the above Review:PHARMACOLOGY-Q27 Mechanism of action of chloramphenicol in prokaryotes a) Interferes DNA synthesis b) Interferes with cell wall synthesis c) Binds with 50 S ribosome .ans d) Causes m-RNA misreading Review:Pharma-ChemotherapyQ28 The mechanisms of action of lithium hypothesized include all except a) Substitution of sodium in membrane transport system by lithium b) Inhibition of GABA degradation .ans c) Interference of uptake of calcium through inhibiting calcium ATPase d) Inhibition of adenylate cyclase linked messenger systems and also by reducing sensitivity of possible hypersensitive dopamine receptors in brain Q29 Vitamin K is required for: (PGI 80, AIIMS 81) a. Overdosage of Dindevan..ans b. Overdose of Heparin c. Haemophilia d. Christmas disease q30 Which of the following is a prodrug A. Clonidine B. Dipyridamole C. Ticlopidine (Correct Answer) .ans D. Aspirin

Q31 Sections 85 & 86 IPC describe the Criminal responsibility of persons who are a) Acutely intoxicated.ans

b) Chronically intoxicated c) Insane d) Same Review:-Q32 Le Facies sympathique is seen in a) Traffic Accident b) Hanging.ans c) Strangulation d) Myocardial infarction Review:FM-AsphyxiaQ33 Which of the following is the most reliable method of estimating blood alcohol level? a) Cavett's test b) Breath alcoho anaylzer c) Gas liquid chromatographyans d) Thin layer chromatography Review:FM Q34 True regarding vocal cord is a. Rima glottis is diamond shape during phonation, ans b. Partial lesion of recurrent laryngeal nerve causes adduction of vocal cord, c. Posterior cricoarytenoid causes adduction of vocal cords, d. Lateral cricoarytenoid causes abduction of vocal cords. Q35) In elective tracheostomy, incision is taken on a) cricothyroid membrane b) C1 & C2 c) c2 & c4..ans q36 In a patient hoarseness of voice was found to be having pachydermia larygnis.All of the folowing are true except a) It is a hyperkeratotic lesion present within the anterior 2/3rd of the vocal cords .ans b) It is not premalignant lesion c) Diagnosis is made by biopsy d) On microscopy it shows acanthosis and hyperkeratosis Q37 The type of breast carcinoma characterized by a pushing border

A) Invasive ductal B) Invasive lobular ..ans C) Mucinous D) Medullary Q38 Bishop-Koop operation done for A) Meconium ileus ans B) Hirschprung's disease C) Duodenal atresia D) Meckel's diverticulum Q39 Which type of breast carcinoma is multicentric and bilateral? a. Ductal b. Lobular ans c. Colloid d. Medullary Q40 Post operative ileus maximum in: 1.stomach ..ans 2.duodenum 3. ileum 4. Colon Q41 Commonest cause of duodenal fistula is: a) As a complication of gastrectomy ..ans b) An abscess connected with perforated duodenal ulcer c) Traumatic rupture of duodenum d) As a complication of right colectomy Review:Surger-Esophagus & StomachQ42 True with regard to Peptic Ulcer Disease: a) Duodenal ulcers are 10 times more common than gastric ulcers b) The most appropriate initial investigation is testing for Helicobacter pylori ans c) This patient requires urgent endoscopy d) Smoking is not a risk factor for its development Review: Surgery-Esophagus & StomachQ43 Surgical treatment of cryptochidism of right testis with normally descended left

testis can be done a) Immediately b) At 2 yrs of ageans c) At 4 yrs before going to school d) At puberty Review:Paediatrics-EndocrinologyQ44 The goal of National Leprosy Eradication Programme is to bring the prevalence of leprosy to 1 per what population? a. 100 b. 1000 c. 10,000..ans d. 1,00,000 q45 The current Global strategy for Malaria control is called: (Kar 2001) a. Modified Plan of Operationans b. Malaria Eradication programme c. Malaria Control programme d. Roll back malaria q46 Which of the following is not true about National AIDS Control Programme? (Kerala 2004) a. Sentinel surveillance methodology has been adopted b. Community based screening for prevalence of HIV taken up..ans c. Early diagnosis and treatment of STD is one of the main strategy to control spread of HIV d. Formulating guidelines for blood banks, blood donors and dialysis units q47 Regular monitoring, analysis and review of a programme is a) Network analysis b) Programme evaluation c) PERT ..ans d) CPM Q48 To a child under 3 years of age, ICDS provides: (a) 300 Kcal energy and 8-10 g protein .ans (b) 300 Kcal energy and 16-20 g protein

(c) 500 Kcal energy and 8-10 g protein (d) 500 Kcal energy and 16-20 g protein. q49 M/C site of ectopic pregncy? A.ampullary portion of fallopian tube .ans B.Isthmus C.Interstitium D.Abdomen q50 Earliest ectopic to undergo rupture is a. Interstitial b. Isthmic ..ans c. Ampullary d. Ovarian q51 In heart patient the worst prognosis during pregnancy is seen in a) Mitral regurgitation b) Mitral valve prolapse c) Aortic stenosis .ans d) Pulmonary stenosis Review: Q52 The expelled products in ectopic pregnancy originate from a) Decidua basalis b) Decidua vera.ans c) Decidua capsularis d) Chorionic villi Review:O&G-ECTOPIC PREGNANCYQ53 Risk factors in the development of acute salpingitis include all the following except; a) An age of 15 to 24 yrs b) Oral contraceptives ..ans c) Presence of an intrauterine device d) Multiple sex partners Q54 Wilm's tumor is associated with all except a) Hemihypertrophy b) Aniridia c) Polycystic kidney ans

d) Beckwith syndrome Q55 Which of the following Tanner SMR stage correspond to maximum or highest increase in height in a boy? a) Stage 1 b) Stage 2 c) Stage 3 ans d) Stage 4 Review:Paediatrics-Growth & DevelopmentQ56 "Cherry red spot" of the macula and hepato splenomegaly may be seen with all except: a) GMI gangliosidosis b) Niemann Pick's disease c) Tay sach's disease ..ans d) Sandoff's disease Review:Paediatrics-Metabolic Disorders & GeneticsQ57 An elderly male with dry skin and fissuring scaly skin is likely to have a) nummular eczema .ans b) venous eczema c) asteatotic eczema q58 Cardinal sign of eczema is a) Erythema b) Scaling c) Vesication..ans d) Exfoliation Review ermatology--

Q59 In which of the following conditions Parakeratosis most frequently occurs? A. Actinic keratoses (Your Answer) .ans B. Seborrheic keratoses C. Molluscum contagiosum (caused by pox virus) D. Basal cell carcinoma

Q60 True about atopic dermatitis is following except a) Tendency to white dermographism b) Itching predominant c) Lichenoid patches d) Nail involvement..ans Review ermatology