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Delegation of power (DoP) is one of the control techniques exercised thro a) Management b) Operating Staff c) Finance Deptt d) HR Department 2. In NTPC Transactions under exrenal commercial Borrowings. (ECBs) are taking Place between a) NTPC & Foreign Bank / Lending Agency directly b) NTPC & Foreign Bank / Lending Agency thro Govt. of India c) NTPC & Foreign Bank / Lending Agency thro World Bank d) None the above 3. Power Bonds issued by NTPC were to tap the a) Capital available in the domestic capital market b) Capital available in the foreign capital market c) Capital available in the share market d) Capital available in the Market 4. Besides the people at the helm of affairs, who are the other parties interested in the Financial statements of NTPC? a) Shareholders & Investors b) Creditors & Labour c) Government & Researchers d) All the above 5. Which is the common denominator for Accounting Records? a) Men b) Material c) Money d) Facts and figures 6. Which is a basis for value of assets? a) Accounts b) Money c) Cost d) None 7. In the Accounting equation which are equal to assets? a) Capital + Liability b) Profit - Loss c) Capital d) Liability 8. Which two concepts are related to profit & Loss Statement? a) Conservation & Materiality b) Realization & Accrual c) Consistency & Disclosure d) None of the above 9. As per Balance sheet Construction work in progress can be termed as. a) Fixed b) Floating Assets c) Assets d) None 10. As per balance sheet Excise duty paid on stocks can be termed as. a) Fixed Assets b) Current Assets c) Assets d) None 11. The higher the amount of working capital then there will be. a) Higher return on investment b) Higher risk due to liquidity c) Lower return on investment d) None 12. The Lower the amount of working capital then there will be. a) Lower risk due to liquidity b) Lower return on investment c) Higher risk due to liquidity d) None 13. According to the financial terms EPS denotes. a) Employee pension Scheme b) Earnings per Share c) Equity Per Share d) Estimate Per Share 14. ROI dentures

a) c)

Rate of Interest Rate of Indent

b) Return on Investment d) None of the above


CAGR denotes

a) Compounded Annual Growth Rate b) Cumulative Annual Growth Rate c) None 16. PAT denotes a) Price at Tariff b) Profit after Tariff c) Profit after tax d) price after tax 17. DCF Technique means a) Discounted cash Flow Techniques b) Direct cash flow Technique 18. Name the Technique used to find out the relationship between volume & costs, Volume & Revenues and Volume and Profit? a) Break-even analysis b) Discounted cash flow Analysis c) Cost Accounting Analysis d) None of the above 19. What is the monthly Retail Ceiling for hiring of company Leased residential accommodation in A-1 class City by and E-5 Executive of NTPC? a) Rs.7480 b) Rs.8320 c) Rs.8920 d) None 20. Examination and verification of records and evidences by and independent person or body of persons so as express their opinion about its genuineness is termed as a) Enquiry b) Investigation c) Auditing d) None 21. Under how many heads audit can be classified ? a) Three b) Two c) Four d) Five 22. What is called EMD ? a) Estimated Money Deposit b) Estimated Monthly Deductions c) Earnest Money Deposit d) Expected Monthly Deposit 23. Dop Means what ? a) Department of Planning c) Delegation of Power b) d) Depreciation on Plants None of the above

24. Which section of Corporate Finance is responsible for preparing cash/funds flow statement(daily/weekly etc.,) investing surplus and borrowing from a consortium ? a) Treasury b) Accounts / Audit c) Establishment d) Concurrence 25. Which section of the Corporate Finance is responsible for arranging foreign syndicated loans, issue of bonds if foreign capital markets and forex risk management? a) International Finance b) Foreign Finance c) Treasury d) IMF

26. Which section of Corporate Finance is responsible for liaison with CERC for tariff fixation, liaison with SEBs for payments against our outstanding bills, debtors reconciliation, interface with coal cos. for fuel supply, fixation of financial terms etc ? a) Treasury b) Accounts/ Audit c) Commercial d) Concurrence 27. Which season of Project Finance is responsible for inventory accounting operating and closing balances and receipt and issue of materials both in quantity and price ? a) Prices Stores Ledger b) Commercial c) Stores bills d) Works bills 28. Which section of Project Finance is responsible for payment and accounting of contractors bills against work orders based on measurement books certified by Engr.-incharge and rates, terms & conditions of Letter of Award ? a) Works bills c) Prices Stores Ledger b) d) Stores bills Accounts/ Audit

29. Which section of Project Finance is responsible for payment and accounting of Suppliers bills against purchase orders and pricing of received materials for taking on stock ? a) Works bills b) Stores bills c) Prices Stores Ledger d) Accounts/ Audit 30. As per IT Act, what is the rate of tax, for women employees, on the income from salary of Rs. 1,35,000/- per annum? a) 10 % b) Nil c) 15 % d) 20 % 31. As per IT Act, what is the rate of tax, on the income from salary of Rs. 2, 50,000/and above per annum? a) 10 % b) Nil c) 30 % d) 20 % 32. Whether the amount paid against leave Encashment, at the time of retirement, to an employee is taxable or not as per the IT Act ? a) Yes b) No c) Partly taxable d) Cant say 33. CBDT stands for a) Credit Book for Deducted Tax c) Central Board of Direct Tax b) Certificate by Department of Tax d) Central Board of Declared Tax

34. As per IT Act, under Tax Deducted at Source from Salary, who has been empowered to adjust loss if any, under the head loss from house property ? a) Employee b) Employer c) Government of India d) IT Department 35. Which was the first Act that regulated the Electricity Sector in India ? a) The Indian Electricity Act, 1900 b) The Indian Electricity Act, 1910 c) The Indian Electricity Act, 1920

d) The Electricity Supply Act, 1948 36. Under which Act State Electricity Boards were created ? a) The Indian Electricity Act, 1900 b) The Indian Electricity Act, 1910 c) The Indian Electricity Act, 1920 d) The Electricity Supply Act, 1948 37. The price charged for the Sale of Electricity from the State Electricity Boards is termed as a) Generation Cost b) Selling Cost c) Unit Rate d) Tariff 38. Cost plus and Market Determined are two types of a) Selling Price b) Generating Cost c) Tariff d) None of the above 39. In India, under which Tariff regime the Electricity Sector is operating ? a) Cost Plus b) Market Determined c) Fixed Regime d) Variable Regime 40. Under two part tariff structure, recommended by K P Rao Committee) what are the charges are covered? a) Fixed charges & variable charges b) Capacity charges and Energy Charges c) Capital cost and UI charges d) None foe the above 41. Under availability Based Tariff Structure (ABT ), what are the charges are covered ? a) Fixed charges & variable charges b) Capacity charges and Energy Charges c) Capital cost and UI charges d) None foe the above 42. In which year, CERC has issued the CERC Terms & conditions of Tariff Regulations that gives the Principle of Tariff Determinations for the period 20042009? a) 2003 b) 2004 c) 2002 d) 2005 43. Name the normative Parameters notified by CERC for the Tariff 2004-2009? a) Heat Rate & APC ( Auxiliary Energy Consumption) b) Normative handling Loses for coal O&M Expenses c) Both a & b d) None of the above 44. Return on equity, Interest on Loan, O&M Expenses, Interest on working Capital, Depreciation & Advance Against depreciation are the components of a) Capacity charges b) Energy charges c) UI charges d) None of the above 45. As per CERC notifications what is the rate of return on equity per annum?

a) 10% b) 12% c) 14% d) 16% 46. As per CERC notifications what is the debt: equity ratio for the older station / a) 60: 40 b) 70:30 c) 50:50 d) 40:60 47. As per CERC notifications what is the debt: equity ratio for the new station ? a) 60: 40 b) 70:30 c) 50:50 d) 40:60 48. As per CERC notifications what is the useful life of coal based plant? a) 25 Years b) 15 Years c) 35 Years d) 10 Years 49. As per CERC notifications, what is the useful life of the gas baes plant ? a) 25 Years b) 15 Years c) 35 Years d) 10 Years 50. As per CERC notifications, what is the useful life of the Hydro power plant ? a) 25 Years b) 15 Years c) 35 Years d) 10 Years 51. Primary Energy Charges, Secondly Energy charges, FPA (Fuel Price Adjustment), MOPE (Monthly Operating Pattern Adj.) (in case of gas plants) are the components of a) Capacity Charges b) Energy Charges c) UI Charges d) None of the above 52. Variation Between actual Generation and scheduled Generation are accounted Through which charges as per CERC Regulation ? a) Capacity charges b) Energy Charges c) UI Charges d) None of the above 53. If frequency is less than 49.02 Hz in a 15 min time block Max UI charges payable are. a) Rs. 5.70/unit b) Rs. 4.70/unit c) Rs.6.70/unit d) Nil 54. If frequency in the 15 min Time Block is more than 50.5 Hz then UI charges payable are a) Rs. 5.70/unit b) Rs. 4.70/unit c) Rs. 6.70/unit d) Nil 55. Unscheduled Interchange (UI) Charges is the mechanism to control the a) GRID Operations b) Stations Operations c) Unit Operations d) SEB Operation 56. How much % of basic pay is paid as field Compensatory Allowance to the employees posted in Green field project before award of main plant order? a) 15 % b) 20% c) 25% d) 10% 57. Upto what period extra ordinary Leave can be granted, on one occasion, on Medical Grounds to an employee? a) 3 months b) 6 months c) 9 months d) 12 months 58. State the Rate of interest on car advance currently prevailing in NTPC? a) 5.5% b) 6.5% c) 7.5% d) 8.5% 59. As per HBA rules for how many cases an employee can give surety? a) Three b) Two c) One d) Four 60. For house building advance amount of Rs. 5.5 lacs and above what is rate of interest being charged in NTPC? a) 7.5% b) 8.5% C) 9% d) 9.5 % 61. How much rate of interest is being charged, on the frontier advanced sanction3d to an employee an NTPC? a) 7% b) 4.5 % c) 3% d) 0%

62. As per furniture Advance rules of NTPC, within how many days of drawl of advance, an employee is required to submit the voucher /bill? a) 30days b) 60days c) 90days d) 120 days 63. For type C Accommodation provided to an employee in the city based companys Township how much amount is deducted as House Rent Recovery? a) 1080 b) 540 c) 870 d) 435 64. How much amount is being paid as Transferred Grant to the Executives transferred in Companys interest? a)15000 b) 10000 c) 5000 d) 200000 65. How much amount is being paid as Baggage Allowance to E2 & E3 level Executives on transfer in company interest? a) Trunk b)1Trunk c) 2 Trunk d) 3 Trunk 66.In which case, executives are not entitled for packing charges, baggage allowance, transfer grant and joining time ? a) Transferred on Employees request b) Transferred on companys interest c) Transferred on employees interest with at least 3 years of service at exiting place of posting ? d) Transferred on companys interest with less than 3 years of se3rvice at existing place of posting 67. Promoters Contribution, Lenders contribution (FIs & Banks), Public Participation through IPO and follow-on equity offerings are termed as a) Equity b) Debt c) Investments d) Project Financing 68. Project Financing, Placements in Capital Markets, Syndicated & Term loans are termed as a) Equity b) Debt c) Investments d) Finance 69.As per CERCs Tariff Regulations governing Power sector , What is the debt: equity ratio? a) 50:50 b) 30:70 c) 70:30 d)60:40 70. In the last IPO, how much percent of shares of NTPC was issued to the public? a) 10.5% b) 11.5% c) 9.5% d) 11% 71. Which was the first company whose securities started trading in both cash and futures & options Segments immediately on listing? a) Infosys b) ONGC c) Reliance d) NTPC 72. Which was the first company to be ranked third by market Capitalization on the day of Listing? a) Infosys b) ONGC c) Reliance d) NTPC 73. DRHP stands for a) Draft red herring policy b) Draft right herring prospects c) Direct red herring policy d) Draft Red herring Prospects 74. SEBI stands for a) Stock exchange board of India b) Securities exchange board of India c) Securities executive board of India d) Stock executive board of India 75. QIB stands for

a) Quorum of Institutional Bidders b) Qualified Institutional Bidders c) Quality of Institutional Bidders d) Quantity of Institutional Bidders 76. FIIs stand for a) Financial Institutions of India b) Finance and Industrial Institutions c) Foreign Institutional Investors d) Foreign Industries Investors 77. NSDL stands for e) National Securities Depository Limited f) National stock Depository Limited g) National Service Depository Ltd. h) National stock Depository Limited 78. CDSL stands for i) Central Depository Ltd. j) Central Depository Ltd. k) Central stock Depository Ltd. i) Central Depository service Ltd. 79. From where loans were taken for Simhadri Project of NTPC ? a) IBRD b) ADB c) JBIC d) KFW 80. Forex Quote SPOT stands for a) Dealt today for delivery tomorrow b) Dealt today for delivery after day after tomorrow c) Dealt today for delivery after 48 hours d) Ready, Delivery on demand Part II Write short notes on any two 1. International Financing in NTPC 2. Key features of Annual Report 3. CERC practices and factors affecting tariff 4. Provision of employee advances in NTPC 5. Highlights & constituents of Balance sheet

1. What stand for SOLI . 2. The full form of MOEF is . 3. EIA stands for . 4. AAS stands for 5. WSSD stand for .. 6. SEAC stands for . 7. SEIAA stands for . 8. What is CSR? ........................................................................................... 9. What is R&R? 10. The thermal power station should be surrounded by an exclusion zone of a. 1.2 km b. 1.4 km c. 1.6 km d. 1.8 km 11. What should be the minimal national standard for condenser cooling water? a. >5degree C of intake water temperature b. <5degree C of intake water temperature c. equal to in take water temperature d. Non of these 12. Tolerance limit of pH values for industrial affluent into inland surface water varies from a. 5.5 -9 b. 4.5-7 c. 7.5 -10 d. 3.5-7.5 13. What is the stack height for 200 MW and more too less than 500 MW Thermal power plants a. 275m b. 250m c. 225m d. 200 14. The ESP limiting efficiency emissions below was in proactive before the enactment of this standards a. 150 mg/ mn3 b. 160 mg/ nm3 c. 170 mg/ nm3 d. 180 mg/ nm3 15. What is cenosphare? a. Tiny solid particles b. tiny gaseous particles c. Tiny solid particles filled with gas d. tiny solid particles filled with liquids 16. What is the plant per hectare NTPC planted for afforestation plan? a. 1000 b. 2000 c. 1500 d. 2500 17. PAPs are divided in to------------------------- category. a. 6 b. 7 c. 8 d. 9 18. In task force, the representative of District administrator shall not be below the rank of a. SDO b. BDO c. Tahsildar d. ADM 19. Which category of PAPs gets no rehabilitation package? a. A b. E c. I d. None of above 20. Each tribal PAP shall get additional financial assistance equivalent to ---------------days MAW for loss of customary rights / usage of forest. a. 365 days b. 500 days c. 450 days d. 180 days

21. HSO will be provided a plot of ----------- sq. mt in the resettlement colony free of cost if not opted for self resettlement a. 150 sq. mt b. 200 sq. mt c. 300sq. mt d 100 sq. mt 22. Cut of date for years of residence in the acquired area before notification is a. 5 yrs. b. 2 yrs. c. 3 yrs. d. 7 yrs. 23. At regional level, the implementation of community development programme is review by Regional ED on ----------------------- basis a. Quaterly b. monthly c. annually d. Half yearly 24. Location of thermal power plant should have a minimum distance from metro cities a. 10 km b. 12 km c. 20 km d. 25km 25. PURA stands for . 26. MAW stands for . 27. DDGS stands for .. 28. ICR stands for .. 29. Multi lagoon is a concept of a. Wet ash disposal b. coal storage c. Effluent water storage d. hazardous waste disposal 30. The passage of plank tonic weekly swimming organisms through the cooling system is called a. plume migration b. entrainment c. reverse osmosis d. entrapment 31. Which one of the following is not eligible for giving public hearing documents? a. District magistrate b. Regional office of MOEF c. Zila perished d. None of the above 32. Appraisal for environmental issues should be completed within ..days of receipt of final EIA report a. 45 days b. 60 days c. 30 days d. 75 days 33. Particulate pollutant may effect the plant growth by a. Changes in epidermal layer of leaves b. Changes in endodermal leaves c. By stopping evapotranspiration d. All of the above 34. What is the minimum level of particulate matter emission in a thermal power station? Of 210 MW or more a. 170 mg/ m3 b. 180 mg/ m3 c. 150 mg/ m3 d. 120 mg/m3 35. Which category project will not require a EIA on constructing TPS a. Category A b. Category B1 c. Category B2 d. None of the above 36. Which of the following is the concerned authority for environment issues for a project having < 500MW capacity a. MOEF b. SEAC c. SEIAA d. WSSD 37. Noise limit in industrial area in day time is a. 90 dB b. 75dB c. 60 dB d. 70 dB 38. Indian coal is rich in a. Sulpher b. arsenic c. mineral matter d. none of these 39. Which part of Thermal power plant collects fly ash? a. Stack b. ESP c. Hoffer d. CHP 40. Meteriologial and air quality study is a part of a. EIA b. PFR c. EMP d. CSR

41. The NOx level is reduced in SOLONOx bumers by a. increasing temperature b. decreasing temperature c. decreasing pressure d. increasing pressure 42. National policy on R&R is introduced in a. 1993 b. 2000 c. 2003 d. 2005 43. Which of the following standards is responsible for environment protection a. ISO 9001 b. ISO 14001 c. ISO 18001 d. ISO 22000 44.) -48. ) Complete the following statement NTPC mission statement on CSR states Be a socially .. corporate entity with thrust on . Protection, ash development, and .conservation Write true / false against following statements (49-55) 49. CSR funding is government funding True /False 50. VDAC is formed by peoples from local community and company true /False 51. NTPC introduced PAP concept in 1993 True /False 52. There are four stages present in an EIA report True /False 53. Hopper has the capacity of around 24 hours true /false 54. Indias desire forest level is 28% True /False 55. NTPC comes out with its environment policy in the year of 1995 True /False 56. RAC stands for .. 57.)-60.) Complete the following statement A Socio Economic Survey (SES) will be conducted by a .. agency to collect detailed . Details of the area and which shall form the basis for the preparation of .. Briefly answer the following question : 61. What is the environment policy of NTPC ? 62. What are the basic differences between CSR and R&R ? 63. What are the project sating criteria for a thermal power plant ? 64. what are the major issues of EIA ? 65. What is displacement and how does it affect common peoples surrounding a Hydropower plant ? 66. What do you mean by Global Compact ? 67. What are the basic elements of CSR ? 68. What are the main functions of EMG ? 69. What are the main principles of R&R ? 70. What do you mean by different categories of PAP ? 71. What do you the different benchmarking policies in CSR ? 72. What do you mean by homested outsees (HSO) ? (72-75) Fill in the blanks . NTPC will take measures for .of . With the objective that the PAP will improve or atleast regain their previous standard of living. A National Policy on Resettlement and Rehabilitation of project Affected Families has recently been issued by Department of Land Resources, Government of India, which aims at laying down basic norms and packages for project Affected Families (PAFs). 76. Any any amendment / modification due site specific

Requirements, while formulating and/or implementing the rehabilitation action plan (PAP) as per the policy, the power to approve such modifications would be exercised By a. GM (R&R) b. ED (HR) c. CMD Head 9VDAC ) 77. NTPC become the first public utility to bring out a comprehensive document entitled NTPC Environment Policy and Environment Management System. Amongst the guiding principle, adopted in the document in year a. 1990 b. 1995 c. 2003 d. 2005 78. NTPC has adopted a online environmental system called 79. What is remedial action plan ? 80. Evidence of status as a PAP is to be provided by a person in the form of a. written legal document or b. reference to a record such as revenue officer certificate , c. ration card d. none of the above e. a, b, c, all ***************************** Key for R & R, CSR and Envt. Mgmt.

Q. No. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23.

Answer Standard of living index Ministry of environment and forests Environment impact assessment Atomic absorption spectrometer World summit sustainable development State expert appraisal committee State environment impact assessment authority Corporate social Responsibility Resettlement and rehabilitation 1.6 km < 5 degree C of intake water temp. 5.5-9 200 m 150 mg/ nm3 Tiny solid particles filled with gas 1000 9 Tahsildar I 500 days 200 sq. mt. 3 yrs Monthly

24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80.

25 km Providing Urban Facilities in Rural Areas Minimum agricultural Wage Decentralized Distributed Generation scheme Implementation completion report Wet ash disposal Entrainment None of the above 60 days Changes in epidermal layer of leaves 150 mg/ m3 Category B2 SEIAA 75 db Mineral matter ESP EIA Decreasing temperature 2003 ISO 14001 4, responsible, environment, utilization, community, energy. False False True True False False True Rehabilitation Advisory committee 60. Professional, demographic, RAP. R&R PAP 2003 Ministry of rural development CMD (b) 1995 Pravaran monitoring system A remedial plan for these projects which came before the R&R policy to bridge the gaps (e) a, b, c, all

Module: Human resource & Organization Behavior Human Resource (Trick the right option ) (All question carry equal marks ) 1.Field compensatory allowance (FCA) for green field projects is equal to of basic pay a. 5% b. 10% c. 15% d. 20% 2. Field compensatory allowance (FCA) for projects under commercial operation is equal to .of basic pays a. 5% b. 10% c. 15% d. 20% 3. Yearly increment rate for executives is a. 2.5 % b. 3% c. 4% d. 5% 4. PF contribution by employee is . Of basic and DA per month a.6% b. 10% c. 12% d. 15% 5. Number of casual leaves per year is a. 8 b. 10 c. 12 d. 15 6. Special casual l eave per year can be taken for a maximum of a. 10 days b. 15 days c. 20 days d. 30days 7. Number of earned Leave credited per year is a. 10 days b. 15 days c. 20 days d. 30days 8. Earned leave can be accumulated for maximum period of a. 50 days b. 100 days c. 200days d. 300days 9. The encashable part of earned leave per year is a. 25% b. 50% c. 75% d. 100% 10. Half pay leave (HPL) credited per year is a. 10 days b. 20 days c. 25 days d. 30days 11. Number of sick leaves credited in a year for trainees is a. 8 days b. 10 days c. 15 days d. 20days 12. Extra Ordinary leave (EOL) is a. With pay and allowance b. Without pay and allowance c. With pay only d. None of the above 13. Maternity leave can be taken for a maximum of a. 100 days b. 120 days c. 135 days d. 150 days 14. Paternity leave can be taken for a maximum period of a. 15 days b. 20 days c. 25 days d. 30days 15.Number of closed or yearly holidays is a. 6 days b. 8 days c. 10 days d. 12 days 16. Number of restricted holidays per year is a. 5 days b. 6 days c. 8 days d. 10days 17. Company sponsored study leave is up to a. 1 year b. 2 year c. 3 year d. 4 year 18. Study leave can be taken for a maximum period of a. 2 year b. 3year c.4 year d. 5 year 19. Conveyance advance for two wheeler and four wheeler can be taken a maximum of

a. 2 minutes b. 3 minutes c. 4 minutes d. 5 minutes 20. The rate of interest of conveyance advance charged for a four wheeler is a. 5% b. 7.5 % c. 10 % d. 12 % 21. The maximum amount that can be taken under house building allowance (HBA) is a. 5 lakhs b. 6 lakhs c. 7.5 lakhs d. 10 lakhs 22. The principle and interested repayment period (In years ) for HBA) is a. 15,10 b. 5,10 c. 10, 15 d. 10,5 23. The maximum amount (Rs.) which can be taken under computer advance is a. 20,000 b. 25,000 c. 40,000 d. 50,000 24. The minimum years of service that an employee should have completed for availing computer advance is a. 1 year a. once a. 2 year b. 2 year b. twice b. 3 years c. 3 year c. thrice c. 4 years d. 4 year d. 4 times d. 5 years 25. The number of times a multipurpose advance can be taken in a year 26. The furniture advance can be taken once in

Organization Behavior
Q.1. Authoritarian leadership is a term often seen in textbooks. What does it mean a. Style of leadership where the leader keeps a very tight control on all information and decision making processes. b. A system of leadership that allows maximum participation by all employees. c. A chain of command that is flat and allows considerable freedom to make decisions. d. The selling of debts to an agency, who take responsibility for their collection. Q.2. What is meant by the term management by objectives? a. A system of giving the authority to carry out certain jobs by those lower down the management hierarchy. b. The system of management that is based on bringing together experts into a team. c. Setting of objectives to bring about the achievement of the corporate goals . d. The control of the organization by those in the head office. Q.3. A manager may delegate any of the following except a. Authority b. Workload

c. Responsibility

d. Attendance at meetings to represent the department

Q.4. Workforce planning involves all of the following except a. Organization the training of staff . b. Forecasting future personal requirements . c. Examination production plans in a factory d. Preparing and maintaining personnel records. Q.5. Which of the following will NOT result following the introduction of a more decentralized system of management ? a. Increased motivation amongst those empowered to make decisions. b. Greater consistency in the decisions made. c. The development of skills amongst the junior members of the management team. d. An increase in the speed at which essential decisions are made. Q.6. Ineffective planning of workforce would be highlighted by a. Recruitment and selection problem. b. The need to out source some of the production . c. A need to offer retraining to current employees. d. An opportunity to increase the use of mechanization. Q.7. Which of the following is one of the factors that might influence the style of leadership used by a firm? a. Accepting that employees who agree are favored. b. Workers should be left to be more in control of their own working environment. c. Offering profit sharing as part of employees remuneration package. d. The skills excepted from each employee. Q.8. What is meant by the term empowerment ? a. A process of giving employees greater autonomy and decision making powers. b. A system that encourage workers to move more freely within the workforce. c. The opportunity to share in the companys profits. d. A formal system of leadership that relies greatly on control. Q.9. Which of the following will influence the method of recruitment and selection used by a company ? a. The state of the economy.

b. The size of the organization. c. The type of training programs used by to company. d. None of the above. Q.10. Which of the following is NOT normally a sign of poor morale amongst a workforce ? a. High levels of absenteeism. b. High levels of turnover. c. Increased levels of personal productivity. d. A poor external image and difficulties attracting good recruits. Q.11. Which of the following IS one of Herzberg s motivational factors ? a. Opportunities to achieve some personal advancement within the organization. b. The application of respected supervision of employees by those responsible for this role within the organization. c. Within organization it is the working of groups that influence codes of behavior. d. People are primarily motivated by money and little else. Q.12. Which of the following is one of Herzberg s hygiene factors? a. Recognition in the workplace. b. A reasonable salary. c. An opportunity to take some responsibility in ones place of work. d. Development a sense of achievement in the working environment. Q.13.---------------------- is permanent change of behavior through experience Q.14. Which of this does not include individual conceptual system a. Factual knowledge b. Values c. Beliefs d. Physical attributes Q. 15. Which of these in not developed through cognitive process ? a. Perceiving b. Imaging c. Thinking d. Acting Q.16. The logical sequence in decision making will be ? a. Analyze the anticipated consequence of each altemative b. Identify various courses of action

c. Identify problem d. Define goa e. Select the most desirable Q. 17. When the decision maker has incorrectly made hypothesis and failed to acct on his prediction, he is. a. Good decision maker a. Satisfying man c. Heroic man members is. a. Motivation a. Lateral strain b. Vertical strain c. Longitudinal strain d. Actual strain Q. 21. The ways and mean, which will help to reduce conflict a. Interaction b. Communication c. Mutual understanding d. all Q.22. Who is the father of T. A. a. Leon Festinger b. Tiffin Macormic c. Eric burn d. Sigmund freud Q.23. The top most ego state in hierarchy a. Parent b. Nascent c. Child d. Adult Q.24. The Parent ego state comprises of a. Nurturing parent, critical parent, authoritative benevolent b. Nurturing parent, critical parent, c. Abusive violent, idiot parent d. Caring nurturing considerate parent Q. 25. When there is a hidden and underlying message involved which kind of transaction it elicits a. Crossed b. Ulterior c. Complementary d. Motivating b. Leadership c. Conflict d. Ego state Q.20. The conflict between various levels of in the hierarchy for power privilege is called b. Wise c. Lucky d. Maniac Q.18. Simon, in his decision making model calls man as b. Economic man d. Merry making man

Q. 19. The behavior by organization members which is expended in opposition to other

Q. 26. Which on of this is not an essential organization function ? a. Communication a. Maaslows theory c. Mc Leland theory a. Hygiene need c. Internal need b. Co-ordination c. Planning d. competing Q.27. Which motivation theory puts importance on prepotency of needs b. Mc Gregors theory d. Victor vroom s theory b. Motivational need d. Self actualization need

Q.28. Need for job enrichment in Herzburg theory is a

Q. 29. If motivational factors are missing then according to herzburg theory a. Person will be dissatisfied b. Person will be unsatisfied c. Person will be frustrated d. Person will be not effected Q.30. According to me Leland achievement oriented people like a. High risk b. Low risk c. Moderate risk d. No risk Q.31. Which is not apart of organizational communication a. Vertical communication b. Lateral communication c. Cross communication d. Interpersonal communication Q. 32. Which structure communication is thought to be the best a. Chain 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. b. Wheel c. Pyramid d. Fragmented Which of the following statement are Right /Wrong A motive causes a person to act in a certain way or develops a propensity for (R (R (R / / / / / W) W) W) W) W) Problem in achieving understanding, in the communication process is that of Needs and motivation are synonymous specific behavior decoding

Henry Murray had propounded the theory hierarchy of needs (R (R

In motivation hygiene concept, environment variables are also known as

motivation factors

Fill in the blanks with suitable words 38. 39. Hierarchy of needs estimates as : Physiological,. Social .and self actualization. Motivation hygiene concept indicates .. factors as strong determinants of job satisfaction recognition, work itself , and 40. 41. 42. Three basic leadership style are .. Blake & mouton propounded the theory of . Communication always requires three basic elements and destination or .. Write short notes on any four Q. 1. What is Mentoring system and what are the benefit of this system to the organization ? Q. 2. Briefly writ the various HR initiatives taken by NTPC ? Q. 3. What is right the various Information act and its advantages and disadvantage to the organization? Q.4. What are various recommendations of project Disha w.r.t. HR function and steps taken by NTPC to implement the same ? Q. 5. Why change management is necessary in todays business scenario ? Q.6. What difference between Organizational change and Organizational transformation ? Q.7. Provision of Various advance for employees Q.8. What is reward and recognition scheme in NTPC. How it can be made for effective Give your suggestion. ************************* Key for Human Resource Q. No. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. Option (d) (a) (d) Answer 20% 50% 4% 12% 12 30 days

7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26.

(d) (d) (b) (b) (b) (a) (b) (b) (a) (b) (b) (b) (a) (a) (a) (d)

30 days 300 days 75% 20 days 10 days Without pay and allowance 135 days 15 days 8 days 6 days 1Year 3Year 3 times 7.5% 7.5 Lakhs 15,10 40,000 1 Year Once 5 Years

PROJECT MANAGEMENT Please tick the correct option

Part Each question carry equal marks

d. None

Q.1. Planning is the subject matter of a. State list b. Central list c. Concurrent list Q.2. What are the 3 stage of project Cycle

Q.3. stage is the most neglected stage of project Planning. a. Project Identification b. Project Formulation c. Project Appraisal Q.4. Feasibility report is part of a. Project Identification b. Project Formulation c. Project Appraisal Q5. Match following a. Man plant area 500 acre b. Township and other facilities 1000 Acre c. Ash Pond area 1200 acre Q.6. Sec 4 notifications for private land acquisition is issued by state govt.revenue Dept. Q.7. notice is issued to the private land owners of Govt. intention for acquiring the private land for Govt. use. Q.8. is a notice issued to the private land owners of definite intention to acquire the specific areas on an urgent basis. Q.9. Administrative overhead s a variable costTrue /False Q.10. Sales and Distribution cost is a fixed costTrue /False Q.11. Depreciation is a fixed costTrue /False Q.12. network involves a graphical portrayal of the interrelationships among the elements of a project and arithmetic procedure which identifies the relative importance of each element in the overall schedule. Q.13. activity represents efforts applied over a period of time which has a definite beginning and end. Q.14. event is a point of time indicating the start or completion of activity. Q.15. dummy Activity does not involve expenditure of resources Q.16. The arrow representing an activity is a vector quantity True/ False Q.17. An event does signify any expenditure of resources True/ False Q.18. Dummy activities are generally represented by doted or solid arrows True/ False Q.19. A dummy activity neither represents any expenditure of resources nor it has got any duration True/ False Q. 20. network is a graphical representation of the interdependency of all the activities of the project. Q.21. total float is the difference between earliest expected and latest allowable time Q.22. CPM was first used by a. Sony b. GE c. DUPONT d. FORD Q.23. PERT was first used by a. Japan Navy b. US Navy c. Indian Navy d. Royal Army Q.24. An event cannot until all the activities leading to it are completed - True/ False Q. 25. An event once occurred can occur again True/ False Q. 26. Length of arrows has no significance with time duration True/ False

Q. 27. Event slack is always positive True/ False Part II Net Working techniques Q.28. L2 level network is finalized by a. Corporate monitoring group (CMG) b. Corporate planning Deptt. (CP) c. Corporate engineering Deptt. D. Corporate contracts Deptt. Q. 29. CRM stands for a. Corporate review meeting b. Contracts review meeting c. Cost review meeting d. Committee review meeting Q. 30. L2 network is a. Non contractual document b. Contractual document c. Judiciary document Q. 31. L3 network is meant for a. Apex level monitoring b. Functional monitoring c. Site level monitoring Q. 32. Zero date of project starts from a. Main plant award date b. Date of start of boiler erection c. Date of first PRT meting d. Date of land acquisition Q.33. Technical co-ordination meeting (TCM) is coordinated by a. Contracts group b. Engineering department c. Corporate monitoring group d. Site monitoring group Q.34. Critical path in thermal power plant normally covers a. Boiler erection b. TG erection c. Electrostatic precipitators d. Water treatment plant Q.35. Top level management is appraised of about criticality of project by means of a. Minutes of PRT meeting b. Exception report generated by CMG c. Minutes of CRM Q. 36. Increase in fuel piece is a. Pass through to the customer b. Not a pass through and has to be born by the generator c. No proper guidelines specified for such increase Part III Write Short Notes on any tw o 1. Site selection for a power station 2. Process of preparation of Feasibility study 3. Project time computation and finding Critical path 4. Issues And challenges in Project Mgmt. CORPORATE PLANNING Marks 14


Max Marks 30 Q. 01. What is the generation of NTPC in billion units during 2005-06 Q.02. NTPC was ranked 6th position among top 10 global thermal generation Q.03. All India generation in billion units for year 2004-05 was 113.46 BUs Q.04. Minimum project completion time for 500MW a. 36 b. 37 c. 38 d. 39 Q.05 Man/Mega watt ratio of NTPC during year 2005-06 was .9

Q.06. Target of NTPC for year 2012


MW capacity

Q.07. JV with railway is situated at Navinagar Q.08.Ramman Hydel project is situated at a. H.P. b. Aurnachal Pradesh c. Uttranchal d. West Bengal Q.09. Lara Project is situated in a. Jharkhand b. Bihar c. Chatisgarh d. Orrisa Q.10. NTPC IPO -2005 was over subscribed by times a. 14.13 b. 13.14 c. 11.34 d. 13.41 Q.11. Share of thermal is target by -2017 -----62000+---------------MW Q.12. Share of hydro in target -2017--------10000-----------MW Q.13. Nuclear share targeted by 2017--------2000---------MW Q.14. What is internal system of annual target setting & evaluation called a. Service level agreement b. Memorandum of understanding c. None Q.15. BCOMIT stands for : B---business ethics------------------C-----customer focus----------------O-------organisational and professional pride--------------M-----mutual respect and trust---------------I--------innovation and speed--------------T-------total quality for excellence--------------Q.16. What is current installed capacity of NTPC : a. Less then 20,000 MW b. Between 20000 to 25000 MW c. more than 25000MW Q.17. Which of these project was taken over by NTPC recently a. Tanda b. Talcher c. Badarpur d. Unchahar Q.18. NTPC is divided into Regions a. Four b. Five c. Six d. Seven Q.19. Name the recently formed joint Venture of GAIL and NTPC created a. Dhabol power co. b. Ratnagiri Gas and power Private Ltd. c. Konkan power corporation d. Reliance power company Q.20. Which of these is a subsidiary set up for power training a. NESCL b. NVVN c. NHL d. NSPCl Q.21. Name of coal mining block allotted to NTPC a. Pakhari Barwadi b. Brahmini c. Utkal d. a&b both Q.22. The exciting nuclear power plants In India are owned by a. Atomic energy Commission b. Bhabha Atomic research center c. Nuclear power corporation of India Ltd. d. None of the above Q.23. The NTPC was the formed in a. 1978 b. 1975 c. 1981 d. 1982 Q.24. How many times of NTPC has achieved Excellent category in the MOU with GOI

a. More then 15 times b. Less then 15 times c. 15 times d. None Q.25. How much of NTPC s equity is held by Govt. of India a. 89.5% b. 100% c. 10.5% d. 50% Q.26. How much % age of total profit generated by CPSU s is contributed by top 10 CPSUs a. More then 50% a. Distribution b. 10% c between 10% and 50% b. Transmission d. Consultancy d. Less then 10% Q.27. By backward Integration in which business is NTPC venturing in to c. Coal mining and coal washeries a. 10 b.6 c.4 d.6

Q.28. Total Number of Functional Directors in NTPC board Q.29. NVVN was formed for NTPC to foray in a. Undertake business of sale and purchase of electric power b. Undertake business of distribution and transmission c. Undertake business of hydro d. Undertake Consultancy Q. 30. NTPC hydro LTD. Was formed to develop hydro electric power projects up to a. 1000MW b 250 MW c. 500 MW d. 660 MW Write short notes on any two 1. Corporate plan 2017 2. Power scenario in NTPC 3. MOU system in NTPC 4. Suggestive steps to meet 100% power requirement in India 5. Steps involved in Project Planning and approval process . *****************

Key for CP& CMG

Q. No. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 1. b. c. All a. Option Answer 123 Top down planning Concurrent list a, b, c, PROJECT Identification

6. 7. 8 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42.

a. b.



c. b.

Social cost benefit analysis Project identification Project formulation Main plant area 1200 Acre Township and other facilities 500 Acer ASH Pond area 1000 Acer Revenue Sec 4 Sec 6&17 Sec 9 False False True Project evaluation review technique Critical path method Critical path method 5-6-1-3-2-4 2 Activity Event False False True True True Network True Slack Mogen walker & James Kelly DuPont Boose Allan & Hamilton US Navy True False False True False Turnover ratio = Annual sales value / Fixed cost Crash cost

Module : Power Plant Familiarization Full Marks: 150 Time : 2 Hrs. Mark the correct answer : ( Total marks : 100) 1. Normally the largest drive in the thermal power station is a. Crusher motor b. Mill motor c. Feed pump motor d. Cooling tower fan Answer : [ ] 2. The following is desirable component of coal a. Mineral matter b. Sulphur c. Volatile d. Moisture Answer : [ ] 3. The thermal efficiency of power plant of is the order of a. 91-95% b. More then 99% c. 75-85% d. 35-45% Answer : [ ] 4. The purpose of primary air in a boiler is a. It is primarily meant for providing combustion air to the coal b. Cooling the boiler walls c. Talking the ash to the ESPs d. Talking the pulverized of flue gases is improved Answer : [ 5. The efficiency of collection in ESP will not improve significantly if a. The temperature of flue gases is reduced b. The pressure of flue gases is reduced c. The velocity of flue gases is reduced d. The ionization of flue gases is improved Answer : [ 6. Teflon tubes in stator winding are used to carry : a. Clarified water b. DM water c. Raw water d. None of above Answer : [ 7. Minimum purity of hydrogen inside the generator casing permissible is : a. 97.8% b. 98.5% c. 99% d. 99.9% Answer : [

8. [isolators operates under a. fault condition b. normal operating condition c. no load condition d. interrupting inductive current Answer : [ ] 9. The maintenance of circuit breaker is possible without an outage in a. main and transfer bus bar arrangement b. single bus bar arrangement c. single bus bar arrangement sectionalize d. none of the above Answer : [ ] 10. For EHV most preferred circuit breaker is a. air blast b. minimum oil c. vacuum d. any of the above Answer : [ ] 11. During normal operating condition, which one is kept ? a. isolator b. earth switch c. circuit breaker d. any of the above Answer : [ ] 12. Lightening arresters are connected between a. two phases b. natural and ground c. phase and ground d. any of the above Answer : [ ] 13. Protection against direct lightening stocks is provided by a. earthing of neutral b. ground wire c. lightening arrester d. both (b) and (c) Answer : [ ] 14.In minimum oil circuit breaker, oil is used for e. insulation and are quenching both f. are quenching only g. insulation only h. none of the above Answer : [ ] 15. AN economizer in a boiler a. increases steam pressure b. increases steam flow c. decreases fuel consumption

d. none of the above Answer : [ ] 16. In a steam generator basic function of drum is a. to act as storage of steam b. to act as storage of water c. to separate salts from water d. to separate steam from water Answer : [ ] 17. The coal requirement per KWhr generation in the thermal power plant is of the order of a. 0.1to 0.2 kg b. 0.2 to 0.4 kg c. 0.6 to 0.8 kg d. 1.0 to 1.5 kg Answer : [ ] 18. Type of coal used in a power plant is a. Non-coking bituminous coal. b. Brown coal. c. Anthracite coal, d. Coking bituminous coal. Answer : [ ] 19. Sulpher in coal result in a. clinkering and slagging. b. corroding air heaters c. spontaneous combustion during coal storage d. all of the above Answer : [ ] 20. Generally in coal fired power plant the ratio of bottom ash and fly ash is a. 1:2 b. 1:3 c. 1:4 d. 1:6 Answer : [ ] 21. Most commonly used cooling tower in a power plant is a. forced draft cooling tower b. natural draft cooling tower c. induced draft cooling tower d. a combination of (a) & (c) Answer : [ ] 22. Instrument air is a used in a power plant for a. light oil atomization b. clearing filters c. burner tilting devices d. all of the above Answer : [ ] 23. The combustion chamber is used chiefly for the following purpose

a. Burning the mixture of air and fuel, with rise in pressure b. Burning the mixture of air and fuel , with rise in temperature alone c. Mixing the fuel and air thoroughly d. For cooling the air after expansion in the turbine Answer : [ ] 24. The efficiency of the combined cycle power plants are typically in the following range a. 45-50% b. 30-35% c. 30-40% d. 60-65% Answer : [ ] 25. The efficiency of the gas turbine in sample cycle is typically in the following a. 28-32% b. 35-40% c. 15-20% d. 20-25% Answer : [ ] 26. For a gas turbine, the Self Sustaining Speed (SSS) is around a. 2100 RPM b. 1800 RPM c. 2500 RPM d. 600 RPM Answer : [ ] 27. The term Thermal barrier coating , is used in context of the following parts of the gas turbine a. Generator windings b. Turbine blading c. Compressor blading d. Cernamic tills of the combustion chamber Answer : [ ] 28. Between the compressor and the turbine of a typical gas turbine, which of the following is true ? a. turbine has more number of stages of blades b. compressor has more number of stage of makes more output Answer : [ ] 29. Out of the following pair of statement, which is true ? a. In summer times, the gas turbine makes more output. b. In winter times the , gas turbine makes more out put. Answer : [ ] 30. Out of the following pair of statements, which is true ? a. In day time, the gas turbine makes more power output b. In night time, the gas turbine makes more output Answer : [ ] 31. Out of the following pair of statement, which is true ? a. The compressor handles more hot gases and air, then the turbine

b. The turbine handles more hot gases and air , then the compressor Answer : [ ] 32. Out of the following pair of statement, which is true ? a. A gas turbine, rated at 150 MW for standard condition, produced more power if installed at Dehradun than Delhi b. A gas turbine, rated at 150 MW for standard condition, produced more power if installed at Delhi then Dehradun Answer : [ ] 33.Out of the following pair of statements, which is true ? a. The pressure of the steam generated from WHRB, is more than the pressure of a conventional coal fired boiler b. The pressure of the steam generated from WHRB, is less than the pressure of a convention coal fired boiler Answer : [ ] 34. The main constituent of Natural gas is a. Ethane b. Propane c. Methane d. Hydrogen sulfide Answer : [ ] 35. Sweetening of Natural gas the process of a. Removal of CO2 and Hydrogen from natural gas b. Addition of LPG in natural gas c. Cold flaring of natural gas d. Elimination of Hydrogen sulfide from natural gas Answer : [ ] 36. Wet natural gas means a. Naphtha b. NGL c. Natural gas with high moisture content d. LNG Answer : [ ] 37. Naphtha storage is an floating roof tanks to a. A void vapor formation below roof b. A void vapor formation above roof c. To increase lubricity of naphtha d. To increase the suction pressure of naphtha forwarding pumps. Answer : [ ] 38. Which factor does not effect the layout of a Hydro project ? a. Topography b. Construction power c. Geology d. Construction period Answer : [ ] 39. Run of the river scheme will necessary have a. Diversion structure

b. Water conductor c. Power house d. All of the above Answer : [ ] 40. A power station is known as peaking station when a. It generates full capacity when required b. It runs on full capacity throughout the day c. Runs at a fixed time during the day d. None of the above Answer : [ ] 41. A scheme known as run-off-river if it is having a. Barrage b. Dam with small storage c. Trench weir d. Any of the above Answer : [ ] 42. Which factor can be attributed to a storage hydro power scheme a. Generation throughout the year b. Peaking generation c. More firm energy d. None of the above Answer : [ ] 43. A pump storage scheme is favoured for a. Generation during night b. Generation during speak demand c. Cheaper cost of generation d. Increased power generation Answer : [ ] 44. A Canal head power house is selected a. When there is huge flow in canal b. When there is fall in the river bed c. When transportation of higher capacity machine is not feasible d. When provision of Forebay or surge tank is not feasible Answer : [ ] 45. Sipe failure is generally associated with a. Concrete dam b. Masonry dam c. Concrete faced Rock fill dam d. Roller compactor concrete dam Answer : [ ] 46. Size of head Race Tunnel depends on a. Design discharge b. Construction period c. Geology of project area d. All of above Answer : [ ]

47. Which of the following is generally used for high head application of Hydro Turbine a. Pelton Wheel b. Bulb turbine c. Deriaz turbine d. Kaplan Turbine Answer : [ ] 48. Which basin of India has the largest hydro potential ? a. Ganga b. Brahmaputra c. Indus d. West flowing Answer : [ ] 49. With increase in load, radiant super heater has a. Drooping characteristic b. Rising characteristic c. Linear characteristic d. Unpredictable Answer : [ ] 50. Water and sediment in fuel oil can be removed by a. Heating the oil in the settling tanks b. Cooling the oil in the settling tanks c. Burning the oil d. Suspension Answer : [ ] 51. The capacity of ID fan compared to FD fan in a boiler a. Same b. More c. Less d. Less or More depending on size of the boiler Answer : [ ] 52.Maximum energy loss in a boiler occurs due to a. Unburnt carbon in ash b. Incomplete combustion c. Radiation losses d. Fuel gases Answer : [ ] 53. Film boiling occurs at a. Very low pressure b. Atmospheric pressure c. Medium pressure d. Very high pressure Answer : [ ] 54. Why is it desirable to turn the ejector on for 15-20 minutes daily when a steam turbine is not running ? a. To increase efficiency

b. To cool the turbine c. To draw moisture out of casing d. To avoid bending of shaft Answer : [ ] 55. A dense white smoke from a chimney indicates a. Insufficient air b. Too much air c. Correct air d. Less turbulence Answer : [ ] 56. A thermal power plant designed to operate in cold climate is operated in hot climates it will develop a. More power b. Less power c. Same power d. More or less depending on the size Answer : [ ] 57. For a given horsepower in impulse turbine, compared to a reaction turbine has a. Less rows of blades b. More rows of blades c. Equal rows of blades d. It can be anything Answer : [ ] 58. Axial shift in steam turbines accurs due to A. Thermal expansion of casing b. Wearing of thrust pad c. Differential expansion of casing and rotor d. Axial thrust Answer : [ ] 59. If the back pressure of condensing steam turbine rises, then heat rate of turbine will a. Increase b. Decrease c. Remain unaffected d. First increase upto a certain limit and then decrease Answer : [ ] 60. The difference between super saturation temperature and the saturation temperature at the corresponding pressure is called a. Degree of super saturation b. Degree of under cooling c. Degree of super heat d. Degree of saturation Answer : [ ] 61. The commonly used material of pipes in condensers a. Mild steel b. Stainless steel c. Cost iron

d. Admiralty Answer : [ ] 62 The compressor capacity with decrease in suction temperature a. Increases b. Decreases c. Remains unaffected d. It depends on compressor capacity Answer : [ ] 63. The air fuel ratio in gas turbines is of the order of a. 15:1 b. 30:1 c. 40:1 d. 50:1 Answer : [ ] 64. The property most important for material used for gas turbine blades a. toughness b. fatigue c. creep d. corrosion resistance Answer : [ ] 65. The safety valve setting at drum of boiler as compared to that at super heater is a. less b. more c. independent d. equal Answer : [ ] 66. For the same draught produced the power requirements of induced draught as compared to forced draught are a. less b. more c. same d. independent of draught Answer : [ ] 67. In a surface condenser for steam power plant a. steam flows through tubes and water across tubes b. water flows through tubes and steam across tubes c. water and steam mix together and flow through tubes to the hot well d. none of the above Answer : [ ] 68. Differential expansion in steam turbine is due to a. thermal expansion of turbine casing b. wearing away of thrust bearing c. unequal expansion of rotor and casing d. both (a) & (b) above Answer : [ ] 69. The water used to cool various equipments is called as

a. CW water b. ECW water c. Service water d. Fire water Answer : [ ] 70. The coal mill has the following function a. stores the coal before firing to boiler b. Crushes the coal into fine powder for proper burning c. Measures the coal and feeds it to the boiler d. All of above Answer : [ ] 71. Some of the gas turbine stations of NTPC receive lean natural gas because a. LPG is removed from natural gas before supply b. Supply pressure of natural gas is low c. Methane is removed from natural gas before supply d. None of the above Answer : [ ] 72. Buchholz relay in a transformer is installed a. inside the transformer oil tank b. between pipe connecting transformer tank and oil conservator c. inside the conservator d. any where above Answer : [ ] 73. oil in transformer is used for a. greasing purpose b. insulation c. cooling d. both (b) & (c) Answer : [ ] 74. In boiler the steam temperature is a. More then the boiler tube metal temperature b. Equal to the boiler tube metal temperature c. Less then the boiler tube metal temperature d. More then the fuel gas temperature at the zone Answer : [ ] 75. Hydrazine (N2 H4) dosing in boiler is carried out to a. Kill algae and bacteria b. Reduce O2 content c. Decrease pH value d. Reduce CO2 content Answer : [ ] 76. Boiler expansion takes place in which direction a. Upward only b. Downward only c. All direction

d. No expansion is allowed Answer : [ ] 77. Periodic measurement of air gap in ht motors is an essential check for a. Motors with sleeve bearings b. Motors with antifriction bearings c. Vertical motors d. (b) & (c) above Answer : [ ] 78. Purpose of booster pump in feed water system is a. To increase the delivery pressure of BFP b. To increase the suction pressure of BFP c. To supply lube oil to BFP d. To give a priming effect Answer : [ ] 79. Condenser tube leakage is detected through the following sensor a. pH of condensate b. Silica in condensate c. Conductivity in condensate d. Hardness in condensate Answer : [ ] 80. Oil flame is sensed in a furnace by the following sensor a. Fire ball scanner b. Discriminating scanner c. Both of the above d. None of the above Answer : [ ] 81. Buchholtz rely is provided in power station for a. Turbine protection b. Generator protection c. Transformer protection d. Bus duct protection Answer : [ ] 82. In the event of a power station block out one of the following equipment must be ensured to be run on DC supply : a. Fan lubricating oil pump b. Scanner air fan c. Seal air fan d. Cooling water pump Answer : [ ] 83. The type of boiling to be maintained in a boiler a. Nucleate boiling b. Film boiling c. Evaporative boiling d. Both (b) & (c) above Answer : [ ] 84. Generator core is laminated to

a. Reduce eddy current loss b. Reduce hysterisis loss c. Reduce ohmic loss d. Reduce dead weight of stator Answer : [ ] 85. Gas turbine use following type of air compressor a. Centrifugal b. Reciprocating type c. Lobe type d. Axial flow type Answer : [ ] 86. In DM plant, the value of pH in DM water produced is a. 5 b. 7 c. 9 d. 10 Answer : [ ] 87. The function of a circuit breaker is to a. Burn the circuit in case of abnormal electrical conditions endangering electrical equipment b. Break the circuit in case of abnormal electrical condition endangering electrical equipment c. Burn itself in case of abnormal electrical condition d. None of the above Answer : [ ] 88. Which one is operated first to isolated an electrical circuit ? a. Fuse b. Isolator c. Earth switch d. Circuit breaker Answer : [ ] 89. Which one I heavier ? a. Bottom ash b. Economiser ash c. Air pre-heater d. All are having equal weight Answer : [ ] 90. During loading coal rake moves under the silo at a speed of a. 0.6 km/hr b. 0.8 km /hr c. 1.2 km /hr d. 2.0 km /hr Answer : [ ] 91. The door operating mechanism of MGR wagon is a. Mechanical b. Pneumatic

c. Electrical d. Electro- pneumatic Answer : [ ] 92. Heavy fuel oil in a thermal power station is heated n the service tank to improve its a. Atomisation b. Calorific c. Pumpability d. Vaporisation Answer : [ ] 93. Rubber disc self clearing idlers are located at a. Head end of the conveyor b. Tail end of the conveyor c. Near gravity take-up area d. Near belt weighers Answer : [ ] 94. In a gas turbine, steam or DM water are injected in the combustion chamber to control a. Nor emission b. Sox emission c. Unburnt fuel d. CO Answer : [ ] 95. Reactor is used in long transmission line for a. Compensation of line resistance b. Compensation of line inductance c. Compensation of line impedance d. Compensation of line capacitance Answer : [ ] 96. Metal detectors are used in coal handling plants to detect a. Magnetic materials b. Non-magnetic materials c. Both (a) & (b) d. Either (a) or (b) depending on the load Answer : [ ] 97. Ash collection in ESP is due to a. gravity b. Electromagnetic induction c. Hitting of ash particles with plates d. Corona effect Answer : [ ] 98. In the normal running of a gas turbine, the maximum load (MW) is restricted by a. Pressure control b. temperature control c. Flow control d. Speed control Answer : [ ]

99. Which of the following equipment is an accessory ? a. Safety valve b. Feed check valve c. Feed water pump d. Stop valve Answer : [ ] 100. The condition of steam in boiler drum is always a. dry b. wet c. saturated d. superheated Answer : [ ] Short questions : ( Total marks :20) 1. The length of blade in a steam turbine keeps on increasing as steam flows from high pressure entrance side to condenser side; why? 2. What is the purpose of a barring gear with steam turbine? 3. What is the function of steam trap? 4. Expand ESSS. 5. Why Micalastic insulation system for stator winding is used ? 6. Arrange the following fuels for use in gas turbine, from MOST PREFERRED TO LEAST PREFERRED: i. Furnace oil ii. Natural gas iii. Naphtha iv. Diesel 7. Why high air-fuel ratio is used in gas turbines ? 8. One kg of steam sample contains 0.8 kg dry steam; what is its dryness fraction ? 9. What are determined by ultimate analysis of coal ? Descriptive question: (Use the backside of the pages) (Total marks: 30) 1. Briefly describe (only through diagram ) the cycle for modern steam power plant. How its efficiency can be improved ? What are the limitations in improving the cycle efficiency ? 2. Briefly describe switchgears of a power plant ? 3. Describe the process of water treatment in a power plant.

Module: Contract and Material Mgmt.

1. Tenders invited b way of advertisement in all leading newspapers and journals a. Open tenders b. Limited tenders c. Single tenders d. multiple tenders 2. Tenders invited from the lone manufacturers of particular items a. Open tenders b. Limited tenders c. Single tenders d. Multiple tenders 3. Tenders invited from only one manufacturer for obtaining supplies a. Open tenders b. Limited tenders c. Single tenders d. Multiple tenders 4. The purchase committee consist of representatives from finance, purchase and a. HR dept. b. Material dept. c. Indenting dept. d. Operation dept. 5. The Orders against which supplies have not been received are a. Closed orders b. Open orders c. Purchase orders d. Limited orders 6. NTPC uses a digit-coding scheme for assigning codes to the stocked materials a. 9 b. 10 c. 11 d. 12 7. SAS in materials management stands for a. Supply accounting system b. Stores accounting system c. Standard accounting system d. Stores annual Synchronization 8. MTN in materials management stands for a. Material transfer note b. Material time note c. Material transport note d. Material transaction note 9. SIV in Materials management stand for a. Supply issue voucher b. Supply indent voucher c. Stores issue voucher d. Stores indent voucher 10. MRN in materials management stands for a. Material return note b. Material requisition note c. material resources note d. Material raising note 11. Categorization method is used for rating a. Dealers b. Vendors c. Suppliers d. Customers 12. Weighted Point method is used for rating a. a. Dealers b. Vendors c. Suppliers d. Customers 13. The validity of vender registration shall be the last working day of the month subsequent to the expiry of .. years from the date of issue of registration certificate a. 1 b.2 c.3 d.4 14. Vendor registration code consist of a. 4 digit b. 5 digit c. 6digit d. 7digit 15. The goods received Sheet GRS is prepared by store in a. 2 copies b. 3 copies c. 4 copies d. 3 copies 16. Physical stock verification is done by a. Warehousing b. Storage c. Both1&2 d. None

17. In periodical stock verification method stock / materials are verified a. Once a year b. Once in 2 year c. Twice in a year d. Monthly 18. In continuous stock verification methods stock / materials are verified a. Once a year b. Once in 2 year c. Twice in a year d. Monthly 19. Head of . Is responsible for achieving the target of 100% stock verification of store during each financial year a. Material b. Finance c. HR d. O&M 20. Insurance/ Risk management group is a part of a. Stores b. Receipt c. Finance d. Materials 21. The technique of maintaining stocks of different categories at adequate levels with minimum in vestment is termed as. a. Inventory control b. material control c. Stock control d. Surplus control 22. GRS in materials management stands for a. Goods registration sheet b. Goods received sheet c. Goods requirement sheet c. Goods raising sheet 23. The basic technique of inventor management is a. ABC analysis b. XYZ analysis c. Stock analysis d. Variance analysis 24. Variety reduction is a very important technique reduction of a. Cost b. Stock c. Inventory d. Material 25. classification of spares is based on the type of utilization foreseen at the time the equipment is initially acquired a. IUC b. XYZ c. ABC d. VED 26. The spares without which the equipment becomes totally in operatable are called as a. Vital spares b. Essential c. Desirable d. critical 27. The spares without which there would be discomfort to the crew but no difficulty in operation is termed a. Vital spares b. Essential c. Desirable d. critical 28. The pattern that stets that all spares do not contribute equally to the total coat over a given period of time is a. VED b. ABC c. XYZ d. LMN 29. The need of material is spelled out through a .by the user department a. Measurement bill b. SRV c. GRS d. Purchase requisition 30. The request ion for items of regular consumption is raised by a. Purchased debt. B. Stores c. Contract d. Finance 31. F.O.R. stands for a. Free on road b. Free receipt c. Free on return d. None 32. The orders against which the supplies have not been received are a. Closed orders b. Open orders c. Market orders d. Limited orders 33. The quotation for a tender should be valid for a minimum period days from the date of openings a tender a. 30 b.45 c.60 d.90 34. Payment should be made within .. days of receipt and acceptance of materials

a. 15 b. 30 c.45 d.60 35. SRV pricing is done by a. Stores b. Contract c. Accounts d. Purchase 36. Preliminary screening of vendors application is done by a. Material dept. b. Finance c. Contract d. Stores 37. analysis is based on the total value of annual consumption of items a. ABC b. VED c.FIFO d. XYZ 38. .administration is an important function of materials management a. Stores b. Budget c. Vendor d. Contract 39. Acquisition cost and ventory- carrying cost is responsible in determining a. EOQ b. Price c. Both d. None 40. Indent is prepared in a. 2 copies b. 4 copies c. 5 copies d. 6 copies 41. Which is the basic document or making payment to the suppliers a. GRS b. SRV c. SIV d. MTN 42. Items of spares parts that are not normally required for routine maintenance but would cause long shutdown of vital equipment or entire plant in case of non-availability when needed for use are a. Unit Assembly b. Insurance spares c. Consumable d. Drivable 43. The method use to know the function of a product, process or service and then to find any unnecessary cost incurred in fulfilling that function is termed as a. ABC analysis b. IUS analysis c. XYZ analysis d. Value analysis 44. The process of keeping the machine nearest to the original condition by programmed and periodical checkup and maintenance is a. Breakdown maintenance b. General maintenance c. Preventive maintenance d. Overall maintenance 45. The negative list of imports consists of prohibited items, restricted items and a. Consumable b. Canalized items c. Perishable items d. General items 46. The parts that wear out or get consumed in service are termed as a. Consumable b. Assemblies items c. Perishable items d. Insurance spares 47. The spare parts that are taken in tender evaluation and ordered along with plant and equipment package is termed as a. Recommended spares b. Commissioning spares c. Mandatory spares d. Insurance spares 48. Spares parts supplied by the manufacturer of the equipments and for which no alternative source is known as a. Recommended spares b. Commissioning spares c. Mandatory spares d. Proprietary spares 49. Items which are used at list once in 4 years is termed as a. Non moving spares b. slow moving spares c. Mandatory spares d. Proprietary spares 50. VED stands for a. Vital, Essential, Desirable b. Vital, Economical c. Vital, Essential, Dead d. 51. The contracts pertaining to project will be classified as ------------ contracts a. A b. B c. C d.. D

52. In DPR development, who is responsible for development of schematics in package design a. Operations Functions b. Contracts functions c. Engineering functions d. Technical services 53. In old system of numbering or codifying a contract how many blocks were used a. 2. b. 1 c. 3 d. 4 54. In revised contract numbering system of a contract how many digits are used in codifying the contract a. 8 .b 9 c.10 d. 11 55. What does DIM mean a. Design initial memorandum b. Design intent memorandum c. Detailed initialed memorandum d. Detail intent memorandum

Contract and material mgmt. Answer Key : Objective type 1. a 2. b. 3.c. 4. c. 5. b. 6. b. 7. b. 8. a. 9. c. 10. a. 11. b. 12.b. 13. c. 14. d. 15.d. 16. c. 17. b. 18. a. 19. b. 20.b. 21.a. 22. b. 23.a. 24. a. 25. a. 26.a. 27. c. 28. b. 29. d. 30. b. 31. a. 32. b. 33. c. 34.b. 35. c. 36. a. 37. a. 38. a. 39.a. 40. c. 41.a. 42. b. 43. d. 44. c. 45.b. 46. a. 47. c. 48. d. 49.b. 50. a. 51. a. 52. c. 53.b. 54.a. 55. b. 56. a. 57. d. 58.d 59. b. 60 a. 61. b. 62.b. 63. b. 64. c. 65. a . 66. d. 67. c. 68. c. 69. d. 70. c. 71.a. 72. a. 73. d. 74. c. 75.b. Fill in the blanks 1. Economic order Quality 2. Acquisition, Inventory carrying 3. Stock Discrepancy voucher 4. Import export code 5. Insurance 6. Consumables 7. Opening stock + Advance 8. History 9. Inventory Management 10. Planning, purchasing, Moving, Storing 11. Inventories 12. Goods and services 13. Supply 14. Quality, price, Delivery and service 15. Introductory, Discussions and agreement 16. Planning and analysis 17. Purchase, finance and stores 18. Purchase and finance 19. Comparative 20. Finance, Purchase and indenting 21. Open and closed 22. Vender 23. Categorization and weighted point 24. Vender 25. Main group, sub-group, sub-sub group, serial number and check digit.

MODULE: QUALITY CONCEPTS All Multiple Question Carry two Mark, 1. We have a sample of EETs pulse-rate with a mean of 80 and standard deviation of 6 beats pre minutes. How would you describe the pulse rate of an EET who recorded 98 beats per minutes in terms of mean and standard deviation. a. 3 SD above mean b. 2 SD above mean c. 1 SD above mean d. None of the above e. It could be anything 2. About what percentage of the observation in a normal distribution will have values grater than 1 SD above the mean. a. 32 b. 36 c. 50 d. More then 50 3. A normal distribution is represented by the process mean and --------------------4. The defect level in a process without mean shifted for 6 sigma level operation is -------------------------------5. The defect level in a process with mean shifted for 6 sigma level operation is -------------------------------6. When the mean shifted, a. It increases the defect level b. It reduces the defect level. c. Can be anything, depending upon the situation 7. How much shifting of mean is allowed, while doing six sigma calculation and data processing ? a. + 1.57 SD b. +1.0 SD c. + 2.0 d. + 1.5 SD e. Depends on the particular process for which calculation is being done 8. Define the process capability Index 9. What is the difference of Cp and Cpk? 10. What is the process capability index for a three and six sigma level of operation ? a. 1 and 2 b. 1.5 and 2.5 c. 3 and 4 d. None of the above 11. You asked your design and engineering staffs to see how there products are manufactured in the factory. In this case, you are implementing the concept of:

a. PDCA/SDCA b. Quality first c. Next process is customer d. Speaks with data 12. Three Ks (3K) are Japanese words referring to conventional perception of work place Kiken- dangerous, Kitanai dirty and Kitsui-stressful. To change these perception, we should first implement : a. 6 sigma b. 5S c. 3 MUs d. SQC 13. When you finally agree upon our main problem, the team leader draw a diagram to further discussed the cause of our problem. The diagram mentioned here is : a. Pareto b. Fault tree c. Scatter d. Fish bone 14. Which of the following is not a QC Tool ? a. Pareto chart b. Check sheet c. Scatter diagram d. Force-field analysis e. Brain storming analysis 15. Improvement ideas from individuals in generally channeled through : a. Quality control b. KAIZEN work-shop c. Small-group activity d. Suggestion systems 16. In one of our Gemba-KAIZEN workshop, we were able to shorten the length of conveyor belt by 60%. This case is commonly associated to the elimination of muda of : a. Waiting b. Motion c. Rework d. Transportation 17. Before you are reckoned as capable to manage QCD ( Quality, Cost, Delivery ) of your company, you have to manage your GEMBA effectively. This principle is in line with KAIZEN concept of : a. Speak with data b. Process versus result c. Quality first d. Market-in 18. Which of the following is a QC tool : a. Histogram b. Brain writing c. 5W, 1H

d. Process-Model sheet 19. What does DMAIC stands for : 20. What is KAIZEN a. Gradual b. Order c. Gradual, orderly and continues improvement d. Continues 21. The search for industry best practices that lead to superior performance is called, a. Bench marking b. Business process reengineering c. Market search d. Kaizen 22. Control limits on a Shewhart control charts corresponds to a. 2 sigma limits b. 3 sigma limits c. 4 sigma limits d. 6 sigma limits 23. When a company moves from 3-sigma quality level to 4 and 5 sigma quality levels, they tend to a. Spend more money on prevention costs b. Spends less money on appraisal cost c. Spend less money on failure cost d. All of the above 24. What is PDCA ? (write the extended from ) 25. What is RPN (write the extended from )

Answer any 10 question 1. Show how PDCA and DMAIC is related to each other graphically ? (5marks) 2. What is 5 S Programme, define each S and give heir meanings ? (5marks) 3. How many types of check sheets are there; give their names ? (5marks) 4. What is FMEA ? (5marks) 5. Write in ordered of importance, the Six Sigma Organization structure: the champion, green belt, master black belt and black belt ? (5marks) 6. Show graphically the kaizen Grid (Innovation, Kaizen, Maintenance) ? (5marks) 7. Complete the definition of Quality (5marks) Quality means Meeting Requirement of And time 8. Customers at a the time. Define & explain the meaning of QCDS ? a. Q b. C cost every (5marks)

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c D d. S Define KAIZEN SIX SIGMA = ---------------------DPMO Define MUDA Explain any four kinds of MUDAs 01.-----------------------------------------------02-----------------------------------------------03------------------------------------------------04------------------------------------------------Define 3 elements of Cost of Quality Define & draw steps of Problem Solving Process ***********************

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