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1. Visual approach is. a.

An approach made by an IFR flight when either part or all of an instrument app roach procedure is not completed. b.An approach made by VFR flight. c.Executed in visual reference to terrain. d.a and c. 2. Estimated time of arrival is. a.The time at which it is estimated that the aircraft will rome. b.The time at which it is estimated that the aircraft will nated point, defined by reference to navigation aids, from that an instrument approach procedure will be commenced. c.The time at which it is estimated that the aircraft will d.a and b. 3. Airway means (ICAO rules). a.A b.A c.A ith d.A defined space which an aircraft uses for its flight. profile of an actual track of an aircraft. control area or portion thereof established in form of a corridor equipped w radio navigation aids. control area or portion thereof established in form of a corridor. arrive over the aerod arrive over the desig which it is intended land on the runway.

4. The current flight plan is. a.The flight b.The flight he reporting c.The flight ces. d.The flight plan that the pilot has submitted to the ATS reporting office. plan that the pilot has submitted to the ATS reporting office and t office has checked and approved. plan which comprises all possible changes due to subsequent clearan plan concerning repetitive flights.

5. Clearance limit means. a.The point to which an aircraft is granted an air traffic control clearance. b.The destination airport at which an aircraft plans to arrive. c.The flight level at which an aircraft plans to fly. d.To point at which an aircraft is going to hold. 6. IFR flights shall be carried out in compliance with. a.General rules of the air b.Instrument flight rules. c.Visual flight rules and general rules. d.Instrument flight rules and general rules 7. The request to change from IFR flight to VFR flight is. a.Made by the pilot- in - command b.Suggested by ATC when VMC exist c.a and b d.a or b 8. Which aircraft along the following has first priority. a.Departing aircraft

b.Taxiing aircraft c.Arriving aircraft on final approach d.Arriving aircraft in the traffic pattern 9........ shall be given priority over other aircraft listed below a.VIP aircraft b.Military aircraft c.Hospital aircraft d.Emergency aircraft 10. International general aviation airplanes shall be equipped with a pressure a ltitude reporting transponder certified by the appropriate state authority as me eting the provisions of Annex 10. a.Starting 1 January 2000 b.Starting 1 November 2001. c.Starting 21 February 2002. d.Non of the above 11. What is the date applicable for the latest Amendment number of Annex 15? a.22 b.01 c.30 d.16 Nov Nov Nov JUL 2007 2007 2007 2007.

12. After departure, an IFR aircraft loses two-way communications. What should t he pilot's course of action be a.Continue to fly to the destination airport, whatever the weather conditions ar e. b.Return to the departure airport immediately, whatever the weather conditions a re. c.Return to the departure airport immediately if the weather is VMC or continue the flight to destination airport if the weather is IMC. d.Land at the most suitable nearest aerodrome while en route. 13. RNAV is ----------- which permits aircraft operation on a any desired flight path within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids or within the li mits of the capacity of self-contained aids, or a combination of these. a.A b.A c.A d.A method of navigation procedure of navigation system of navigation rule of air traffic control.

14. Two-way communication between aircraft and stations on the surface of the ea rth. That is definition of. a.CPDLC (Controller Pilot Data Link Communication) b.Air-ground communication c.Air- to - ground communication d.Air -Air Traffic Service communication. 15. The accuracy value is expected to be achieved at least....... per cent of th e time by the population of aircraft operating within the RNP-10 airspace. a.99 b.95 c.90

d.100. 16. The ground component of the DME system shall be referred to a.As transponder b.As transceiver. c.As interrogator. 17. All current civil SSR system use a.The same Hz for the b.The same Hz for the c.The same frequencies i.e. 1030MHz for the ground to air transmission and 1090M air to ground transmission. frequencies i.e. 1090MHz for the ground to air transmission and 1030M air to ground transmissions. frequency i.e. 1030MHz for transmissions on both directions.

18. The sequence of emergency phases are. a.ALERFA, INCERFA, DETRESFA. b.INCERFA, ALERFA, DETRESFA. c.DETRESFA, ALERFA, INCERFA. d.No difference. 19. When providing alerting service, phase where in there is reasonable certaint y that an aircraft and its occupants are threatened by grave and imminemt danger or require immediate assistance is called. a.Alert phase b.Emergency phase c.Distress phase d.Warning phase. 20. If an arriving aircraft is making a complete instrument approach, a departin g aircraft may take off in any direction until. a.The arriving inal approach. b.The arriving c.The arriving d.The pilot of aircraft has started its procedure turn or base turn leading to f aircraft has commenced initial approach. aircraft has entered ILS glide path. the arriving aircraft has observed the departing aircraft

21. The standard controller- pilot phraseology for a controller to ascertain the RVSM approval status of an aircraft is. a.( call b.( call c.( call d.Non of sign ) confirm RVSM approved. sign ) affirm RVSM. sign ) do you have RVSM approval. the above.

22. Aircraft reports at FL 100 but the radar display shows FL115. What action sh ould the radar controller take ? a.Draw the pilot's attention on the difference in levels b.Inform the pilot of the difference and request him to check his altimeter sett ing and confirm his level c.Request the pilot to stop mode C transmission d.Inform the pilot of the difference and request him to keep his mode C on. 23. What should a radar controller do if the code displayed on the radar screen is different from the code he has just asked the pilot to squawk ?

a.Request b.Request c.Request d.Request

the the the the

pilot pilot pilot pilot

to to to to

stop squawk confirm that he has correctly set the assigned code recycle the assigned mode and code switch the transponder from on to standby

24. Air traffic clearances are issued by. a.Area control centre b.Approach control unit c.Aerodrome control tower d.All the above. 25. Aerodrome control tower shall provide departing aircraft with information re lated to the operation of aircraft. a.Prior b.Prior c.Prior d.Prior to to to to engine start - up taxiing for take - off line - up acceleration for take - off.

26.Recording tapes of air-ground communication shall be normally kept for at lea st. a.10 b.15 c.20 d.30 days days days days.

27. Co-ordination between ACCs is based on. a.Letter of agreement between them b.ICAO rules of the air c.En-route flight procedures d.Regional supplementary procedures 28. Without prior arrangements made by appropriate ATS authority, APP unit shall clear........ to aerodrome control tower. a.All arrivals which reach transfer of control point. b.Not more than one arrival. c.As many arrivals as possible. d.Up to two arrival. 29. The pilot of an aircraft experiencing two- way radio communication failure s et his transponder to code. a.A/3 b.A/3 c.A/3 d.A/3 7400 7500 7600 7700

30. An aircraft will be considered to be maintaining FL190 when SSR mode C deriv ed level information indicates. a.195 b.197 c.193 d.196

31. Whenever a code is assigned to an aircraft, the setting of this code shall b e verified by controller. a.At b.At c.At d.At the the the the First contact Second communication appropriate opportunity earliest opportunity

32. Manoeuvring area is a.That part of an aerodrome aircraft. b.That part of an aerodrome aircraft, including aprons. c.That part of an aerodrome excluding aprons. d.That part of an aerodrome aircraft, excluding aprons. to be used for the take-off, landing and taxiing of to be used for the take-off, landing and taxiing of to be used for the landing and taxiing of aircraft, to be used for the take-off, landing and taxiing of

33. Touchdown zone is a.The portion of a runway, beyond the threshold, where it is intended landing ai rplanes first contact the runway. b.The portion of a runway, at the threshold, where it is intended landing airpla nes first contact the runway. c.The beginning of a runway where it is intended landing airplanes first contact the runway. d.The portion of a runway where it is intended landing airplanes first contact t he runway 34. The missed approach point (MAPt) in a procedure may be. a.the point of intersection of an electronic glide path with the applicable DA/H . b.a fix or navigation facility. c.a specified distance from the final approach fix (FAF). d.all are correct. 35. Air traffic means. a.All aircraft in the air. b.All aircraft in flight or operating on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome. c.All aircraft and helicopters flying within a FIR. d.All aircraft in the air, aircraft on apron, and aircraft operating in a hangar 36. Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, VFR flights shall not take off or land at an aerodrome within a control zone, or enter the aerodrome t raffic zone or traffic pattern. a.When the ceiling is less than 450 m (1.500ft) b.When the ground visibility is less than 5 km c.a or b d.a and b. 37. When two or more aircraft are at the same cruising level, the........ aircra ft shall normally have priority. a.Preceding b.Succeeding c.Fastest d.Biggest. 38. Which facility among the following provides aircraft with its azimuth and di stance. a.NDB

b.VOR/DME c.ILS d. DVOR. 39. Aerodrome control radio station is a station providing radio communication b etween. a.An Aeronautical station and aircraft or mobile aeronautical stations b.An Aerodrome control tower and aircraft or mobile aeronautical stations c.An Aeronautical fixed station and aircraft or mobile aeronautical stations. 40. Application of the Mach number technique should always be based on. a.Ground speed b.Mach number c.True air speed (TAS) d.Indicate air speed (IAS). 41. The RADIO of an aircrafts true air speed to the speed of the sound is. a.Relative wind b.Ground speed c.Indicated air speed (IAS) d.Mach number. 42. The wing bar of a PAPI shall be constructed and arranged in such a manner th at, a pilot making an approach and being on the approach slope will see. a.All 4 units as red. b.All 4 unit as white. c.1 unit nearest to the RWY as red and 3 units farthest from the RWY as white an d when further above the approach slope see all 4 units as white. d.2 units nearest to the RWY as white and 2 units farthers from the RWY as red. 43. VASIS is one of the landing aids that we have in our airport.When an aircraf t flies on the correct slope what colour does the pilot see when descending? a.Intermittent RED and WHITE. b.Intermittent BLUE and WHITE c.RED colour only. d.WHITE colour only. 44. Which item on flight plan indicates RNP10- approved aircraft. a.Item 1/R b) Item 10/R c) Item 18/R d) Item 18/NAV/R 45. RNAV distance- based saperation may be applied between RNAV equipped aircraf t When. a.Operating on designed RNAV routes b.Operating on ATS routes difined by VOR. c.On all of ATS routes d.a or b. 46. What type of separation must be maintained at all times between aircraft hol ding pattern? a.Vertical b.Lateral c.Longitudinal d.A combination of lateral and vertical. 47. An aircraft making a radar approach should be advised to consider executing a missed approach if the aircraft is not visible on the radar display for signif icant interval during the last...... of the approach.

a.5 NM b.4 NM c.3NM d.2NM 48. The tolerance value which should be used to determine that mode C derived le vel information displayed to the controller is accurate shall be. a. 200 Ft b. 300 Ft c. 500 Ft d. 1000 Ft. 49. The standard minimum radar separation in Vietnam is. a.5NM within 40NM fromTSN, DAN and NBA airports and 10NM elsewhere. b.5NM within 40NM from TSN, DAN and NBA airports; the 10NM between 40NM to 80N M from those airports and 15NM elsewhere. c.5NM within 80NM from TSN, DAN and NBA airports and 15NM elsewhere. d. 5NM within 40NM from TSN, DAN airports and 10NM elsewhere. 50. A transferring centre shall forward an accepting centre. a. Necessary flight plan b.Control information c. a and b d. a or b. 51. ta, ing a. b. c. d. When should the specified element of information including meteorological da runway- in-use and other data be transmitted by approach control to an arriv aircraft? During the initial contact When the arriving aircraft reports over the holding point. When the arriving is on final approach As early as practicable after the communication has been established.

52. During a tour of duty a Watch Supervisor in any ATS unit should be responsib le for. a.Training controllers in new procedures and operating techniques b.The disposition of the personnel on duty and the adjustment of the function of operating positions so as to meet the traffic demand in a satisfactory manner. c.Maintaining continuous watch on all visible operations on and in the vicinity of the aerodrome. d.All the above 53. The radar controller should inform the pilot of his position except in the following case. a.The aircraft reports over a navaid b.The requests position information c.The aircraft resumes its own navigation d.The controller observes that the aircraft has deviated from its intended route . 54. An aircraft system based on secondary surveillance radar (SSR) transponder s ignals which operates independently of ground-based equipment to provide advice to the pilot on potential conflicting aircraft that are equipped with SSR transp onders. That is definition of. a.Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) b.Automatic Dependent Surveillance (ADS) c.Airborne collision Avoidance System (ACAS) d.Precision Approach Radar (PAR). 55. Which of the following levels are NOT displayed in an ADS track.

a.CFL b.MCL c.PRL

d.ADL.

56. An aircraft can maintain ADS connections (include Airlines Operation Control AOC) and send ADS reports to. a.Up to ten ground stations b.Up to five ground stations c.Any number of ground stations within satellite coverage d.Only one ground station at atime. 57. The direction in which the longitudinal axis of an aircraft is pointed, usua lly expressed in degrees from North (true, magnetic, compass or grid). That is d efinition of . a.Track b.Bearing c.Heading d.Desired Track. 58. If the magnetic Track is 146do and variation is 3doW , the true bearing is.. a.149do b.143do c.164do d.140do. 59. What is the correct presentation of coordinate 025732N 1041610E? a.0258N 10416E b.0258N 1041610E c.0257.5N 10416E d.0257N 1041610E. 60. 1 Degree = 60NM, a.60NM b.62NM c.1NM d.58NM. 60munite =..NM?

61. On a map, 1 degree and 46 munites is equal to a distance of. a.106km b.146NM c.106NM d.146km. 62. In radio communications, the correct way to describe an altitude of 9,500 fe et is a."Ninety-five hundred feet" b."Nine-thousand fiver hundred feet" c."Niner-thousand five hundred feet" d."Nine point five feet". 63. The correct phraseology to issue traffic information in a radar environment is. a."Unidentified target to your north, closing fast" b."Traffic 12 o'clock, 5 miles, southbound, Cessna 150, 3 thousand feet " c."Target 5 miles west of your position, Cessna 150, southbound " d. "Conflict approaching from the north. A Cessna on converging course." 64. A radar beacon target is observed on code 7600. This would indicate that. a.The radar is in radar contact and under the control of an approach control fac ility

b.The aircraft is experiencing a radio failure c.The aircraft is being hijacked d.The pilot is lost and request assistance. 65. Circling approach is. a.An extenuation of an instrument approach procedure which provides ircling of aerodrome prior to landing. b.An extenuation of an visual approach procedure which provides for ing of aerodrome prior to landing c.An extenuation of an instrument approach procedure which provides ircling of aerodrome prior to missed approach. d.An extenuation of an instrument approach procedure which provides ircling of aerodrome after landing. for visual c visual circl for visual c for visual c

66. An aircraft altimeter is set with standard pressure reference (760 mm Pb or 1.013,2 h Pa). Circle the correct report from the aircraft. a.Maintaining 5000 feet, VN 790 b.Maintaining 1500 metres, VN 790 c.Maintaining FL 50, VN 790 d.None of the above. 67. The MEA of W2 in the portion between DAN and QUANG NGAI is. a.FL 100 b.FL 090 c.FL080 d.FL110. 68. ATC replies to aircraft's request to start up. a.VN 790, cleared start up b.VN 790, clear to start up c.VN 790, start up approved d.VN 790, approved start up. 69. In the even of a radio failure, an Air Traffic Control Tower may use a Ligh t Gun to signal aircraft and/or vehicles on or near the airport. The Light Gun i s capable of signaling 3 different colours. They are a.red, white, blue b.red, green, white c.red, yellow green d.orange, white, blue. 70. When an aerodrome controller desires to inform an aircrfat with radio failu re to move off the landing area or taxiway and watch out for aircraft, he would use. Light signals. a.Green flased. b.Steady green. c.red flased. d.Seady red. 71. Runway markings shall be. a.yellow b.green c.red d.white. 72. Taxiway markings and aircraft stand markings shall be. a.yellow b.green c.red d.white. 73. TWY edge lights shall be. a.Red b.Yellow c.Blue d.White.

74. Who is most directly responsible for the avoidance of collisions a.The aerodrome traffic controller. b.The approach controller c.The pilot d.All of the above. 75. Who are the users of aeronautical information? a.The pilot, operators of airlines b.The air traffic services, chart and document prodcsing agencies c.Both a, b d.None of all. 76. d at a.10 c.10 77. and a.15 c.15 Track separation between aircraft using the same VOR is at least........ an a distance of............... or more from the facility. degrees, 18,5 km (10NM) b.15 degrees, 18,5 km (10NM) degrees, 28 km (15NM) d.15 degrees, 28 km (15NM) Track separation between aircraft using the same NDB is at least........... at a distance of.......... or more from the facility. degrees, 18,5 km (10NM) b.30 degrees, 18,5 km (10NM) degrees, 28 km (15NM) d.30 degrees, 28 km (15NM).

78. Put the following AFTN message indicators. FF,GG,SS,KK,DD in correct order of priority. a.FF, KK b.SS c.DD, KK d.SS DD, GG GG, KK SS, DD, FF SS DD, FF GG, FF GG, KK. 79. Normally AIS message are assigned a priority indicator in accordance with A NEX 10, Volum II, that is.? a.KK b.DD c.FF d.GG. 80. An AFS message used for special Distribution is given the priority prefix.. ? a.FF b.GG c.DD d.SS. 81. The minimum ceiling required for standard operations using Visual Flight Ru les in a control zone is a.3 miles c.3000feet b.1 miles d.1500 feet. 82. An authorization by ATC, for the prupose of preventing collision between kn own aircraft to proceed under specified traffic condition within controlled airs pace is called a/an a.ATC clearance b.Pilot briefing c.Flight plan d.Course. 83. Who is directly responsible for, and is the final authorityon, the safe ope ration of an aircraft? a.The aircraft owner b.The air traffic controller in contact with the flight c.The flight dispatcher d.The pilot in command of that aircraft. 84. During an instrument approach, the pilot reached the Decision Height (DH) a nd visual reference to the runway environment is insufficient to complete the la nding. The pilot would be expected to. a.request a 180 degree turn for return to the starting point

b.execute a missed approach and advice ATC c.continue the approach and land without visual reference d.proceed to the holding pattern for another approach. 85. Which of the following is a precision approach? a.ILS b.VOR c.NDB d.LLZ only. 86. Minimum sector altitude provide a minimum clearance thin a sector of a circle of a.300m (1000ft) ; 46km b.150m (500ft) ; 46km c.300m (1000ft) ; 75km d.600m (2000ft) ; 75km is the lowest altitude which may be used which will of . Above all objects located in an area contained wi .. radius centered on a radio aid to navigation. (25NM) (25NM) (40NM) (40NM)

87. An IFR flight may be cleared to execute a visual approach provided that the pilot can maintain visual reference to the terrain and. a.the reported ceiling is at or above the approved initial approach level for th e aircraft so cleared b.the pilot reports at the initial approach level or at any time during the inst rument approach procedure that the meteorological conditions are such that with reasonable assurance a visual approach and landing can be completed. c.(a) and (b) d.(a) or (b). 88. Succeeding aircraft shall be cleared for approach when the preceeding aircr aft. . a.has reported that it is able to complete its approach without encountering ins trument meteorological conditions b.is in communication with and sighted by the aerodrome control tower and reason able assurance exits that a normal landing can be accomplished c.(a) or (b) d.None of the above. 89. Speed control should not be aplied after a point of .. miles from the thresh old on final approach. a.2 b.3 c.4 d.5. 90. The final clearance should be gaven at. a. 5 miles b. 4 miles c. 6 miles d. 8 miles. 91. a.VN b.VN c.VN d.VN An APP unit issues VN 790 instructions for straight in Approach runway 25L. 790 straight in Approach runway 25L approved 790 straight in Approach approved 790 cleared straight in Approach runway 25L 790 cleared straight in Approach.

92. The take-off clearance shall be issued when the aircraft is a.Ready for take-off b.Approaching the runway_i n_use c.The traffic situation permits d.All of the above.

93. An IFR may request. a.A straight-in approach c.A visual approach

b.An ILS approach d. All the above.

94. The distance between a taxi-holding position and the center line of a non-p recision approach runway of an aerodrome code 3 shall be. a.40m b.60m c.75m d.90m. 95. Aerodrome control tower shall provide arriving with information related to the operation of aircraft. a.Prior to issuing of landing clearance b.Prior to aircrafts passing abeam outer marker. c.Prior to aircraft entering the traffic circuit d. Prior to having the aircraft in sight. 96. RCF message is. a.Coordination message b.Supplementary message c.Emergency message d. Filed flight plan and associated update message. 97. CNL - DLH773 VVTS - VTBSmean. a.Cancel the flight plan of the aircraft identification DLH773 from VVTS to VTBS b.Cancel the flight DLH773 from VVTS to VTBS c.Delay the flight DLH773 from VVTS to VTBS d.None is correct. 98. Filed flight plan message and associated update message comprise. a.Filed flight plan message,delay message and flight plan cancellation messag e b.Modification message c.Departure message and arrival message d.All of them. 99. What do you do in the first action if you receive the information hijack on the aircraft from the pilot_in_command of the taxiing aircraft. a.Stop taxi b.Taxi the aircraft to apron c.Taxi to the separate place d.Clear for take-off.

100. In the case of an aircraft is approaching FIR(or boundary of the two areas of responsibility) but the co-ordination has not been successfully made,the tra nsferring center shall. a.Hold the aircraft within the transferring center area until co-ordination can be effected with the adjacent center b.Release the aircraft to the adjacent center then make co-ordination as require d c.Request the aircraft itself to communication. d.Send the aircraft back to the aerodrome of departure. 101. According to the regulation of TAN SON NHAT International Airport Authorit y, maximun speed of Vehicles operating in the manoeuvrings area is. a.20km/h b.25km/h c.30km/h d. 35km/h. 102. When approaching an aircraft,maximun speed of all Vehicles is. a.5km/h b.8km/h c.10km/h d.15km/h. 103. Preventing all domestic animals from entering the movement area is the res ponsibility of.

a.Airside Operation Center b.Airport Authority Department c.Aviation Security Center d.All of the above. 104. When emergency case occurs in the movement area,Wich gate is used. a.Gate number 1(the gate next to the VIP A hall) b.Gate number 5(The entrance to the apron) c.Gate of the fuel farm d.All of the above. 105. The tow-truck is towing the aircraft ATR72 from the parking number 3 to ma intenance base(A75).The special service truck is carrying a patient from the par king number 24 to the domestic terminal.They meet each other at the intersection of the North South Taxiway and Service Road 4. Which truck has priority? a.Special service truck b.Tow-truck c.None of the above d.All of the above. 106. To save time, the second refueling tank refuels for the first tank wich is refueling for an aircraft so that the first one can continue its refueling.What is your opinion? a.It is very convenient,fast for aircraft,saving total time from staing at the p arking. b.Not permitted, due to safety c.Permitted when time is needed for serving another aircraft d.Permitted when the airport authorities approved. 107. In which case,the ground equiment operating staff must reduce to minimun o r stop immediately to ensure the safety. a.When an aircraft is taxiing b.When driving to the intersection Service Road 4 and the taxiway c.When passing by the parking aircraft area,loading area. d.All of the above. 108. When a VIP aircraft operating at TSN International Airport,the time limit is. a.Before 5 minutes and after 5 minutes b.Before 10 minutes and after 10 minutes c.Before 10 munites and after 15 munites d. Before 15 minutes and after 10 munites. 109. Are ground equipment and Vehicles permitted to turn the high beam of the h eadlights in the foggy condition or at the night time? a.Permitted b.Not permitted at any time c.Depending on practical situation. It is not stipulated by the airport authorit ies d. I not necessary the headlights must be changed into the hight beam can be tur ned on When necesssary,if not,the low beam shall be used. 110. According to th regulations of aviation law,each airport has its own Vicin ity to ensure the safaty of airport activities and the local residents in the vi cinity.The limitation of the vinicity is. a.8 km from the border line of the airport perimeter b.8 km from the reference point c.15 km from the reference point d. 30km from the reference point.

111. According to the current regulations,what is the parking number used for u nfawful interference aircraft? a.North South TWY b.Parking 50 c.Parking 70 d.All of the above. 112. What is the minimun safety distance of a Vehicle following an operating ai rcraft? a.80m b.125m c.200m d.250m 113. Who is responsible for establishing the prohibited area and restricted aer a in Viet Nam. a.President b.Prime Minister c.Minister of National Defense Ministry d.Minister of Transport and Communication Ministry. 114. When an aircraft(take off or landing) is having an incident on the Runway, the TOWER laterally solves the problem, not inform the airport authorities,Is th at right or wrong? a.Right. Because the Runway is controlled by the Southern Air Management Center b. Right. Because the Tower controller is only liable for reporting to the South ern Air Management centre c. Both (a)&(b) d.Wrong. The Tower has responsibility to inform Tan Son Nhat International Airpo rt Authority all the Technical Incidents of Aircraft as coordinated. 115. Which is the safety distance for an aircraft taxiing on the taxi lane from an obstacle around? a. 42m b. 42.5m c. 47m d. 47.5m. 116. The speed of the Tow-Truck when towing an aircraft is. a.10km/h b.15km/h c.20km/h d. 25km/h.

117. All of the new terminal air bridges are equipped with potable water supply system, electric and refueling system as well.if a certain airline does not nee d all these availible services but uses other kind of services(For example. do n ot use potable water supply service),is it acceptable? a.Acceptable. If they use any services,they have to pay for that services b.Acceptable. All the attached equipments are service.These services are used on demand and are not used if not necessary c.Unacceptable. All the above equipment have been installed with the reducing th e number of Vihicles moving on the ramp for a better safety d.Unacceptable. Airport Authority has already had the regulations. 118. In the follwing cases,which one has the priority? a.The aircraft is ready for take off to do its search and rescue operation b.Aircraft that reports that he is in nearly short of fuel situation and request s emergency landing c. Hospital aircraft carrying patient requests landing d. Military aircraft carrying ammunitions, equipment request take-off. 119. For engine- test and compass test, the aircraft operator shall. a.Establish a plan first and inform Ground control for co-ordination b.Establish a plan first and inform the duty Manager and get approved by General Director of SAA c.Establish a plan first and inform ATC Tower for Co-ordination d. All of the above.

120. Critical positions of aircraft in the aerodrome traffic and taxi circuits are. a.Where an aircraft receives aerodrome information,taxi-off or landing clearanc e. b.Where an aircraft operating on maneuvering area may experience dangerous condition. c.Where an aircraft within an aerodrome needs urgent from an aircraft unit. d. None of the above. 121. Airfield lighting system CAT I consists of. a.Approach lights, RWY edge lights, RWY threshold lights, RWY end lights, apron edge lights, PAPI, TWY egde lights, apron egde lights b.Approach lights, RWY center lights, RWY threshold lights, RWY edge lights RWY end lights, touch down zone lights, PAPI, TWY egde lights, TWY center lights. c.And apron flood lights. d. None of the above. 122. Expected approach time is. a.The time at which ATC expects that an arriving aircraft, following a delay wil l leave the holding point to complete its approach for landing b.The time at which the pilot of an arriving aircrfat expects to leave the holdi ng point to complete its approach for landing c.The time at which it is estimated that an arriving aircraft will commence its approach for landing d.All the above. 123. Altitude mean. a.The vertical distance of a point or an object considered as a point measured f rom the ground level. b.The vertical distance of a point or object considered as a point measured from the aerodrome level c.The vertical distance of a point or an object considered as a point measured f rom the mean sea level d.The vertical distance of a point or an object considered as an point measure f rom the highest obstacle within a radius of 8 km from estimated position of the aircraft. 124. Missed approach procedure is. a.The procedued to be follwed if an aircraft can not land b.The procedued which aircraft uses when there are many obstacle on the RWY-in -use c.The procedued to be commenced by aircraft dicision height d.The procedued to be follwed if the approach can not continued 125. Unless authorized by the appropriate ATS AUTHORITY, VFR fight shall not be operated. a.Above minimum flight level b.Below minimum flight level c.Above FL 200 d.Below FL 200. 126. In an ATS route designator a supplementary letter may be added to indicate the type of service provided.An added letter Y indicates. a.RNP 1 route at and above FL240 b.Flight information service only provided c.RNP 1 route at and above FL 200 127. The vertical seperation minimum shall be norminal 300 metres(1000ft). a. Below an altitude of 8850 metres(29.000ft) b.Below flight level 290

c. At or below flight level 290 d. a and b. 128. An IFR flight requests maintain own VMC separation? a.Below FL100 b.Below FL200 c.The hours of daylight d.Visibility at least 5km. 129. An FIR flight may be request to fly maintaining own saperation while in VMC if. a.Below FL 200 b.During the hours of daylight c.Visibility it at least 5km d.Below FL100. 130. The air traffic services comprise. a.Area control service, approach control service,aerodrome control service. b.Air traffic control service, search and rescue service c.Air traffic control service, aeronautical telecommunication service and a eronautical meteorological service d. Air traffic control service, flight information service, alerting service . 131. When an aircraft has been cleared into a centers control aera at a cruising level which is below established minimum cruising level for a subsequent portio n of the route, the ACC shall immediately. a.Request the aircraft to maintain the level b.Issue a revised clearance to the aircraft for acruising higher than minimum c.Infrom the adjacent ACC d. Infrom approach control unit. 132. In so far as practicable for two aircraft flyng to the same destination,hi gher cruising level shall be assigned. a. To the aircraft, which arrives first b. To the aircraft,which arrives latter c.In a manner that will be correct for an approach sequence at destination d. To the aircraft, which first enters the area of responsibility. 133. Aerodrome control tower is responsible for controlling the traffic of on the maneuvering area. a.Aircraft b.Vihicles c.Pedestrians d.All the abo ve 134. Red pyrotechnic directed by tower to an aircraft in flight mean. a.Return for landing b.Not with standing any previous instrution, do not land for the time being c.Give way to other aircraft and continue circling d.Clearance to and to taxi will be given in due course. 135. A ground controller shall instruct an aircrasft which is known or believed to be subjected to unlawful interference to.. a.A holding point b.Terminal apron c.A stand for VIP aircraft d.An isolated parking position. 136. An aircraft has been cleared to land and fails to land within five munites of the estimated time of landing and communication has not been re-established. The aircraft should be considered in.

a.Uncertainty phase b.Alert phase c.Distress phase d.Emergency phase. 137. VVR35 GND 1500m The above indicates. a.Prohibited area number 35 within Vietnam territory from ground up to 1500m b.Restricted area number 35 within Vietnam territory from ground up to 150 0m c.Danger area number 35 within Vietnam territory from ground up to 1500m d.None of the above. 138. VVVV P2 GRD 1500 m. The above indicated. a.Prohibited area number 2 within Vietnam territory from ground up to 1500 m. b.Restricted area number 2 within Vietnam territory from ground up to 1500 m. c.Danger area number 2 within Vietnam territory from ground up to 1500 m. d.Not sure. 139. The Prohibited Area VVP4 is. a.Cam Ranh Airport b.Bien Hoa Air base c.Ho Chi Minh City d.May Tao Firing Area. 140. Vertical . a.From ground/ b.From ground/ c.From ground/ d.From ground/ limitation of the prohibited area over Ho Chi Minh city (VVP4) is water water water water surface surface surface surface up up up up to to to to 3000m 2700m 1500m unlimited.

141. The Danger Area VVD32 is. a.Su 22 MOA (Military Operation Area) b.Su 27 MOA(Military Operation Area) c.May Tao Firing Area d.MIG 21 MOA( Military Operation Area). 142. The upper limit of VVR19 is. a.8000m b.7000m c.6000m d.9000m.

143. The Restricted Area VVR19 is located over. a.Cam Ranh Airport b.Bien HOA Airbase c.Ho Chi Minh City d.May Tao Firing Area. 144. The upper limit of VVP4 is. a.4000m b.2000m c.3000m 145. The upper limit of VVD32 is. a.FL150 4550m b.FL250 7600m d.5000m. c.FL200 6100m d.Unspecified.

146. The first ATS unit receiving a flight plan shall. a.Check it for complian with the format and data convention b.Check it for copleteness and to the axten possible for accuracy c.Take action, if necessary, to make it acceptable to the air traf

fic services. d.All of above. 147. In the event of a delay of.minutes in excess of the estimated off-block time for a controlled flight or delay ofminutes for an uncontrolled flight for wich a flight plan has been submitted, the flight plan shoud be amended or a new flight plan submtted and the old flight plan cancelled, wichever is applicable. a.30, 30 b.30,60 c.60,30 d.60,60. 148. Transfer of control for arriving aircraft shall be forwarded by Tan Son Nh at APP to Tan Son Nat TWR at. a.5000 feet b.2000 feet c.7000 feet d.10000 feet. 149. Transfer of control information of overflight(below 10000ft) shall be noti fied by the transferring until to Tan Son Nhat APP at least 20 minutes prior to the estimated time over the transfer of control point.The trasfer message shall contain information in the following format. a.Aircraft identification and type; Deprture point and destination; Estimated ti me over the transfer of control point; flight level or Atitude b.Aircraft identification and type; Estimated time over the transfer of control point; Altitude; Any other necessary information. c.Aircraft identification and type; Departure point; Estimated time over the tra nsfer of control point; Flight level. d.Aircraft identification and type; Depatrure point and destination; Altitude; A ny other necessary information. 150. The holding pattern over AC is denoted in word as follows. a.+Inbound track 259 degree; outbound 079 degree, Left hand pattern; outbound 1 minute; altitude 1500m b.+Inbound track 079 degree; outbound 259 degree, Left hand pattern; outbound ti me 1 minute; altitude 1500m. c.+ Inbound track 259 degree; outbound 079 degree; Right hand pattern; outbound time 1 minute; altitude 1200m. d.+Inbound track 079 degree; outbound 259 degree, Right hand pattern; outbound t ime 1 minute; altitude 1200m. 151. The holding pattern over VTV is denoted in word as follows. a.+Inbound track 315 degree, outbound 135 degree; Left hand patern, outbound tim e 1 minute; altitude 1500m. b.+Inbound track 135 degree, outbound 315 degree; Left hand patern; outbound tim e 1 minute; altitude 1500m c.+Inbound track 315 degree outbound 135 degree; Right hand pattern; outbound ti me 1 munite; altitude 900m. d.+Inbound track 135 degree, outbound 315 degree; Right hand pattern; outbound t ime 1 minute; altitude 900m. 152. The missed approach procedure of NDB denoted in words as follows. a.Maintainn RWY heading clim to 300m, then follow ATC intructions. b.Maintainn RWY heading clim to 900m, then follows ATC instructions c.Maintainn RWY heading clim to 450m, then TC instructions. d.Maintainn RWY heading clim to 600m, then follow ATC instructions. SG RWY 07L Tan Son Nhat aerodrome is turn left to join holding pattern or turn left to join holding patturn or turn left to join patturn or follow A turn left to join holding pattern or

153. Tan Son Nhat TWR CONTROLLER isnt allowed to issue landing clearance for air craft in case of. a.Obstacles on runway;

b.Weather condition is below minimum for approach procedure conducted by aircraf t; c.There are dangerous phenomena in the landing area affected to the air safety d.All above. 154. There are. Holding patterns in the Tan Son Nhat airport area. a. 5 b. 3 c. 4 d. 6. 155. How many activities are considered to violate The ATS Regulation of Vietna m? a. 8 b. 9 c. 10 d. 11. 156. How many actions shall the civil officer on duty take when strange aircraf t appear(s) in the responsibility area? a.3 b. 5 c. 4 d. 6. 157. The time validation of permission for arriving/departure aircraft in Vietn am is.. hour(s) after the astimated time of arrival/depature time accepted in the flight permission. a.1 b. 24 c. 12 d. 72. 158. The time validation of permission for over- flight aircraft in Vietnam is.. hour(s) after the estimated time over the FIR entry point accepted in the fligh t permission. a.1 b.72 c.12 d. 24. 159. The overall width of domestic airway over the Vietnams airspace is a.10 km b.20 km c.30 km d.40 km 160. The overall width international airways is.. a.10 km b.30 km c.20 km d.40 km. 161. The width of international route over China Sea in Vietnam FIR.? a.90kmb.30kmc.20kmd.40km. 162. The area of responsibility (AOR) of the BUON ME THUOT TWR limited by the c ircle within the following details. a.Center point is BU NDB, R=60km, GND- FL100(3050m) b.Center point is BU NDB, R= 30km, GND- FL090(2750m) c.Center point is BU NDB, R= 60km, GND- FL110(3350m) d.Center point is BMT VOR, R=30km, GND- FL090(2750m). 163. The phrase cleared flight planned route shall not be used. a.When clearance limit is within the same area of responsibility b.For aircraft on air filed flight plan c.When granting a re-clearance d.All a) b) c) are incorrect. 164. The Area of responsipility (AOR) of the TUY HOA TWR limited by the circle with the following details. a.Center point is reference point R=30km, GND- FL090 (2750m) b.Center point is TH NDB R=60km , GND- FL090 (2750m) c.Center point is TH NDB R=30km , GND- FL090 (2750m) d.Center point is reference point R=60km , GND- FL110 (3350m). 165. The Area of responsipility (AOR) of the CAM RANH TWR limited by the circle with the following details. a.Center point is CRA DVOR/DME R= 30km, GND- FL090(2750m) b.Center point is CRA DVOR/DME R= 30kn, GND- FL100(3050m) c.Center point is CR NDB, R=30km, GND-FL090(2750m)

d.Center point is reference point, R=30km, GND-FL090(2750m). 166. The Area of responsipility (AOR) of the LIEN KHUONG TWR limited by the cir cle with the following details. a.Center point is LKH DVOR/DME, R=30km, GND- FL100 (3050m) b.Center point is reference point R=30km, GND- FL100 (3050m) c.Center point is DL NDB R=30km, GND- FL090 (2750m) d.Center point is DL NDB R=30km, GND- FL100 (3050m) 167. The MEA of W1 in portion between PK and DAN is. a.FL100 b.FL110 c.FL090 d.FL120. 168. The Area of responsipility (AOR) of the PHU QUOC TWR limited by the circle with the following details. a.Center point is PQ NDB, R=30km, GND- FL070 (2100m) b.Center point is PQ NDB, R=30km, GND- FL050 (1500m) c.Center point is reference point, R=30km, GND- FL070 (2100m) d.Center point is reference point, R=60km, GND- FL070(2100m). 169. The Area of ith the following a.Center point is b.Center point is c.Center point is d.Center point is responsipility (AOR) of the CA MAU TWR limited by the circle w details. QL NDB, R=30km, GND- FL070 (2100m) QL NDB, R=30km, GND- FL050 (1500m) reference point R=30km, GND- FL070 (2100m) reference point R=30km, GND- FL050 (1500m).

170. The Area of responsibility (AOR) Of the CAN THO TWR limited by the circle with the following details. a.Center point is reference point R=30kn, GND- FL050(1500m) b.Center point is trn VOR/DME R=30km, GND- FL070 (2100m) c.Center point is CT NDB R=30km, GND- FL070 (2100m) d.Center point is reference point, R=30km, GND- FL070 (2100m). 171. The Area of responsibility (AOR) of the CON SON TWR limited by the circle with the following details. a.Center point is reference point R=30km, GND- FL070(2100m) b.Center point is CS NDB R=30km, GND- FL070(2100m) c.Center point is CS NDB R= 30km, GND- FL050(1500m) d.Center point is reference point R=30km, GND- FL050(1500m). 172. The distances of TORA and TODA of RWY 07L declared in theFlight regulation in the Tan Son Nhat aerodrome area are. a.3408m and 4100m b.3540m and 3800m c.3059m and 3538m c.3048m and 3358m. 173. At Tan Son Nhat airport, TORA of runway 25L is. a.3036m b.3059m c.3800m d.4100m. 174. TORA is a.take-off distance available b.take-off run available c.take-off available d.take-off distance. 175. Which statement is correct a.Ommidirectional lights showing b.Showing green in the direction c.Ommidirectional lights showing d.Showing green in the direction regarding Runway threshold lights? red of the runway green of Approach the runway.

176. TORA is 2000m, ASDA is 2300m, TODA is 2300m, LDA is 2000m the runway has a . a.Displaced threshold b.Stopway c.Clearway d.Stopway and Clearway. 177. What does a white painted transverse stripe drawn across a runway indicat e? a.The threshold b.The beginning of the aiming point marking c.A temporarity permanently displaced threshold d.1000ft from runway end. 178. An obstacle that is quiered to be marked in the vicinity of an aerodrome w here night operations are carried out is 180 meters high. How is it to be marked ? a.High intensity white flashing lights b.Red flashing lights c.Steady(non flashing)red lights d.A combination of red lights every 50 meters and high intensity flashing white lights at 90 meters and 180 meters. 179. nona.A runway s b.A runway ts c.A runway edues d.A runway Instrument Runway. intended for the operation of aircraft using visual approach procedue intended for the operation of aircraft using visual approach equipmen intended for the operation of aircraft using instrument approach proc intended for the operation of aircraft using visual SIDs.

180. Dependent parallel approaches. simultaneous approaches to parallel or near. . runways where radar separation minima between aircraft on adjacent extended ru nway centre lines are prescribed a.Separated instrument b.Parallel instrument c.Seperated non- instrument parallel non- instrument. d.parallel non- instrument. 181. What are the decleared distances of the aerodrome indicated in the AIP-VN? a.CWY b.TWY c.TODA , ASDA d.RWY. 182. TODA shall be a.The length of RWY b.The length of RWY c.Distance from THR d.The length of RWY 183. TORA shall be a.The length of RWY b.The length of RWY c.Distance from THR d.The length of RWY 184. LDA shall a.The length of b.The length of c.The length of d.Distance from calculated equal..? and SWY to end of RWY and CWY. calculated equal.? and SWY to end of RWY and CWY.

be calculated equal? RWY and SWY(stopway) RWY RWY and CWY THR to end of RWY (THR. Threshold).

185. ASDA shall be a.The length of RWY b.The length of RWY c.The length of RWY d.Distance from THR

calculated equal? and SWY and CWY(clearway) to end of RWY.

186. When two aircraft are executing a visual approach, the succeding aircraft must. a.Have the airport in sight b.Be sight by tower c.Have the RWY in sight d.Have both RWY and preceding ACFT in sight. 187. Aircraft taking- off can positively a.Within 5 miles of the upwind end of the b.Within 3 miles of the upwind end of the c.Within 1 miles of the upwind end of the d.Actually leaving the runway. identification only if they are seen. runway runway runway

188. Wind shear warning be issued when expected existence of wind shear.? a.between runway level and 500m above that level b.between runway level and 1500m above that level c.at any level d.in thunderstorms. 189. The elevation of the RWY 07R displacement threshold specified in theFight r egulation in the Tan Son Nhat aerodrome area are. a. 7.2 m b.7.3 m c.7.4m d.7.5 m. 190. The separated distance between center lines of RWY 25R/07L and RWY 25L/07R specified in the Flight regulation in the TAN SON NHAT aerodrome area are. a.356m b.365m c.536m d.563m. 191. The dimension of the runway strip of RWY 25L/07R specified in the Flight regulation in the TSN aerodrome area are. a.3358m x150m b.3668m x 150m c.3358m x 300m d. 3358m x 300m. 192. The operational altitude(s) of VVR 86 specified in the Flight regulation in the TSN aerodrome area are. a.From 600m to 6000m c.From 300m to 1000m b.From 50m to 1000m d.From 2100m to 6000m. 193. The position of the glide path transmitter (GP) of RWY 25R specified in th e Flight regulation in the TSN aerodrome area are. a. 314m from RWY 25R threshlod and offset 120 m from RWY 25L centerline b.314m from RWY 25R threshold and offset 120m from RWY 25R centerline c. 300m from RWY 25R threshold and offset 112m from RWY 25R centerline d. 300m from RWY 25R threshold and offset 112m from RWY 25L centerline. 194. The weather equipment used to measure wind direction and speed , visibilit y ,RVR, cloud ceiling ,temperature ,dew point ,altimer setting ,precipitation sp ecified in the. Flight regulation in the TSN aerodrome area are. a.DWSR 93C b.AWOS II c.WAFS- SADIS d.GMS-5.

195. The AFTN addresses of TSN TWR and APP specified in the Flight regulation i n the TSN aerodrome area are. a.VVTSZTZX and VVTSZAZX b.VVTSYFYX and VVTSYQYX c.VVTSZRZX and VVTSZAZX d.VVTSYQYC and VVTSYQYX. 196. Which on of the following should not be used in an AFS message? a.A comma b.An oblique c.A colon d.Roman letters. 197. When an AFS message is corrupted, the following message appears at the end of it? a.CFM b.DUPE c.QTA d.COR. 198. Which one of the following appears at the heading of an AFS message? a.NNNN b.ZCZC c.FM d.EEE. 199. Address indicator of Singapore international NOTAM office is..? a.WSSSYNYX b.WSSSSIAOc.WSSSYOYXd.WSSSYAYX. 200. In DOC 7910 , Location indicators to which messages cannot be addressed vi a the AFS are indentified by.? a.A semi-colon sign b.A colon sign c.Hex sign ( # ) d.An asterisk sign (* ). 201. Airbone conllision a avoidance system is. a.An aircraft system based on secondary sueveillance transponder signals. b.An aircraft system based on GPS SIGNALS. c.An aircraft system which provides advice to the pilot of potential conflictin g aircraft that are equipped with SSR transponder. d. a and c. 202. Cruising levels at which a flight is to be conducted mean. a.Flight levels. b.Altitudes. c.Flight level for flights at or above the lowest usable flight level or altitudedes for flights below the lowest usable flight level. d.Flight level used for en-route flight. 203. In normal cirumstances, for flight on route not defined by designated sign ificant point, position report shall be made. a.As soon as possible after the first half hour of flight. b.At hourly intervals there after. c.a or b. d.a and b. 204. The procedures to be applied for the provision for aai traffic services to aircraft equipped with ACAS (airbone conllision avoidance system) shall be. a.Difference from those applicable to non- acas equipped aircrfat. b.Identical to these applicable to- non Acas equipped aircraft. c.better for ATC, because they release ATC from responsibility to provide s eparation between aircraft equipped with ACAS d.a and b.

205. Mean which ATC can use for flow control are. a.Flow control restriction message. b.Flow delay advice message. c.Flow control cancellation messgage. d. All the above. 206. Upon receipt of information that an aircraft making an emergency descent t hrough other traffic, ATC shall immediately. a. Instruc all aircraft within the specified areas to maintain own navigation . b.Take all possition actions to safeguard all aircraft concerned. c.Issue climb clearance to all aircraft, whose flight level or altitude may b e crossed. d. Inform the ATC unit which shall receive control transfer of the emmergency aircraft. 207. A pilot who estimated an arrival time of 0750 over the facility serving hi s destination,was estimated over the facility at 0744 by the center.Earlier he w as given an expected approach time 0747 which he acknowleged, but when cleared f or an approach at 0745 no reply was received and contact with him cannot be re-e stablised.To minimize an possibility of collision with the unreported airfraft, unil what time other traffic be restricted? a.0814 b.0820 c.0815 d.0817. 208. If a pilot who has experienced two-way radio failure during an IFR flight proceeds according to his latest clearance, which was to the navigationl aid ser ving his destination airport, where shoud he commence his descent for landing? a.When he is 80 miles from the airport. b.When he enters the TMA. c.When he is over the airport. d.From the navigation aid serving his destination. 209. An aircraft is considered to be in the phrase of INCERFA when. a.no communication has been established within 30 minutes from the time there should have communication. b.Information received reveals that the operation efficiency of aircraft has been impaired but not to extend that a forced landing is necessary. c. it is believed that the fuel on board is not enough to fly to the dest ination safety. d. It is believed that a forced landing has been made. 210. In the case of an aircraft is approaching FIR boundary(or boundary of the two areas of responsibility) but co-ordination has not been seccessfully made,th e strasferring center belong to. a.The accepting center b.The trasfering center. c.Both centers d. None of them. 211. Time of take-off shall be specified by the ACC when it is neccesary to. a.CO-ordinate the departure with traffic not released to the unit providing APP control services b.Provide en-route seperation between departing aircraft following the same route c.a and b d.a or b. 212. co-ordination between ACCs is resposibility of.. a.D controller. c.R controller.

c.a or b

d. a and b.

213. In the event a position report is not received at the expected time, when shall action taken to obtain the airport if it is likely to have any bearing in the control of the other aircraft? a.Immediately. b.03 minutes after the expected time over the reporting point. c.05 minutes after the expected time over the reporting point. d.A reasonable time later. 214. When an aircrfat is being held in flight, when should vertical seperation be provided between holding aircraft and en-route aircraft? a.When the en-route aircraft is within 5 minutes flying time of the holding poin t. b.When the en-route aircraft is within 5 minutes holding areas. c.When the en-route aircraft is within 5 miles of the holding areas. d.When the en-route aircraft within 15 minutes of the holding areas. 215. Under what circumstances would the center need to notify an ATC unit prov iding approach control service of a restrition relative to the time of take-off of an aircrafrt? a.The Center wants to provide seperation betweet departing aircraft following th e same route. b.The Center wants to provide seperation between departing aircraft an aircraft not released to approach control c.All of the above. 216. What the purpose behind the requirement that a pilot execute the entire ap prved approach precedure even though visual reference with the ground is establi shed prior to completing of the procedure. a.For seperation. b.For expediting arriving traffic c.To make sure that the pilot can land even he is encounters bad weather d.All the above. 217. Which groud of code should Ho Chi Minh use for AFR 175 from Tan Son Nhat t o Bangkok. a.5500- 5577 b.1700- 1777 c.5700- 5777 d.4100- 4177. 218. Which groud of code should Ha Noi ACC use for VN741 from to Tan Son Nhat. a.5500- 5577 b.5700- 5777 c.4700- 5777 d. 4100- 4177. 219. If you intructed an aircraft, which you though to be the response on your display, to turn and it did not do so, what action should you take? a.Continue vector the aircraft in the hope that it will be eventally take the tu rn. b.Turn the aircraft back to the orginal heading. c.Repeat the message to the pilot and ask him to read back the new heading. d.Turn the aircraft to the reciprocal heading. 220. In the case that the radar fails, but communication is still good, the rad ar controller should. a.Instruct aircraft to maintain level and VMC. b.Inform aircraft that radar fails and maintain own separation. c.Instructed aircraft to change to APP frequency. d.Mark position of identified aircraft and take mesure to provide non-radar sepe ration. 221. The phraseology used when an aircraft with trasmmitter failure has been gi ven a turn and the echo is seen to follow instruction is.

a.Turn observed, will continue to pass instructions. b.Reply not received, will continue instructions. c.Turn observed, continue visually. d.I have one-way contact with you, will continue to control you. 222. In the event of a complete radar failure, the radar controller should. a.Band all traffic back to the procedural controller immediately. b.Do his best to provide procedural seperation for the aircraft under his conttr ol and then hand them back to the procedural controller. c.Tell all aircraft under hid control to standby to ask the radio technician to take immediate action to repair the radar. d.Continue to control his traffic by asking the resume own navigation. 223. Air traffic control ratings should normally be approved by. a.AAC chief. b.TWR chief c.Director of air traffic Services Center. d.Director of Aviation Authority of his authorized body. 225. .Is responsible for management of organization and operation of the air route , the airspace of civil airportin Viet Nam? a.Civil Aviation Administration Of Vietnam b.Vietnam Air Traffic Management c.Ministry of transport of Vietnam d.Ministry of defense. 226. In Vietnam, The establishment of the air route is decided by.? a.Ministry of defense b.Civil aviation Administration of Vietnam c.Ministry of transport of Vietnam d.Prime Minister. 227. The primary responsibility for the control of airfraft wich has already ha d communication with the accepting center but is still operating within the cont rol area of tranfering center, belong to. a.The accepting center. b.The transfering center. c.Both centers. d.None of them. 228. VHF band specified for air ground communication is. a.From 1080 MHz to 117,975 MHz. b.From 118 MHz to 137 MHz. b.From 145 MHz to 190 MHz. d.All frequencies higher than 190 MHz. 229. The frequencies used for survival radio equipment are. a. 121,5 MHz and 243 MHz b.121,5 MHz and 423 MHz c. 120,5 MHz and 243 MHz d. 120,5 MHz and 423 MHz. 230. The frequency of DAN (Danang) DVOR/DME is. a.115.1Mhz/ CH 98X b.114.4Mhz/ CH 91X c.115.5Mhz/ CH 102X d.112.1Mhz/ CH 58X. 231. a.HUE b.PCA c.TSN d.PTH Frequency 114.1Mhz/ CH 88X coverage 210km is the parameter of VOR/DME. Phu Bai Phu Cat Tan Son Nhat Phan Thiet.

232. The identification and frequency of CAMAU NDB is. a.QL 305khzb.CM 333khz c.CM 305khz d.QL 33khz. 233. The identification and frequency of DALAT NDB is. a.DA 517khzb.LH 386khz c.DL 330khzd.LK 330khz. 234. The identification and frequency of COSON NDB is. a.CS 333khz b.CO 333khz c.CC 333khzd.CN 33khz. 235. The identification and frequency of CANTHO NDB is. a.CO 305khzb.CN 420 khzc.CA 212khz d.CT 420khz. 236. The identification and frequency of Buon Me Thuot NDB is. a.BT 420khz b.BU 386khzc.BU 420khz d.BM 210khz. 237. The identification and frequency of Pleiku NDB is. a.PL 282khz b.PK 386khz c.PK 282khz d.PK 330khz. 238. a.DAN b.BMT c.TSN d.PCA Frequency 112.1 Mhz/CH 58X, coverage 300km is parameter of DVOR/DME. Danang Ban Me Thuot Tan Son Nhat Phu Cat.

239. ATC unit may use the following means of communication for co-ordination pu rposes. a.AFTN. b.Data- exchange circuits c.Direct speech circuits d.All of the above. 240. Circle the correct spelling acording to number by transmitting procedure f or radio telephony communication. a.FL 290. Flight level two hundred and ninity. b.FL 290. Flight level two niner zero. c.FL 290. Flight level two ninety. d.FL 290. Flight level two nine thousand feet. 241. a.Arrival b.Arrival c.Arrival d.Arrival of of of of ZCZC GHA 273 070407 FF VVNBZPZX(ARR-HVN 322-VVTS-VVDN 0359) The message informs. HVN 322 flight to VVTS at 03.59 UTC. HVN 322 flight to VVNB at 03.59 UTC. HVN 322 flight from VVTS to VVND at 03.59 UTc. HVN 322 flight from VVNB to VVDN at 03.59 UTC.

242. ILS reference datum is. a.A point at a specified height located vertically above the intersection of the runway center line and the threshold and though which the downward extended str aight portion of the glide path passes. b.A line at a specified height located vertically above the intersection of the runway center line and threshold and through which the downward extended straigh t portion of the glide path passes. c.A point at a specified height located vertically above the intersection of the runway center line the threshold and through which the upward extended straight portion of the glide path passes. 243. The airbone VOR equipment is reffered to. a.As airbone VOR receiver. b.As airbone VOR trasmitter c.As airbone VOR transceiver.

244. Ground to air communication is. a.One-way communication from stations or location on the surface of the earth to aircraft. b.One-way communication from aircraft to station on the surface of the earth to aircraft. c.Two-way communication between aeronautical station and the aeronautical mobile service. 245. The phraseology used to decrease the speed of an aircraft to 180 IAS is. a.Reduce speed to ONE EIGHT ZERO KNOTS b.Decrease the speed to ONE EIGHTY. c.If feasible reduce to ONE EIGHT ZERO KNOTS d.Decrease your speed to ONE EIGHT ZERO PRACTICABLE. 246. Using mode A for. a.Automatic presure altitude information b.Civil and Military identification c.Research and future development. 247. a.the b.the c.the d.the what is the aerodrome elevation? elevation of the highest point of elevation of the highest point of elevation of the highest point of elevation of the highest point of the the the the threshold runway aerodrome landing area.

248. what is an air traffic control clearance? a.clearance to be provided by air traffic control unit for an aircraft to follow under coditions b.authorization for an aircraft to proceed under conditions specified by an air traffic control unit c.clearance to be provided by air traffic controler to the pilot on aircraft d.authorization of the traffic control unit gives to an aircraft to proceed unde r condition of the air traffic control service. 249. movement area means. a.that part of an aerodrome to be used for the take off, landing and taxiing of aircraft. b.that part of an aerodrome to be used for the take off, landing and taxiing of aircraft, consisting of the manoeuvring area and the apron(s). c.that part of an aerodrome to be used for the take off, landing and taxiing of aitcraft including restricted area. 250. what is an air traffic control unit? a.a generic term meaning variously, area control center, approach control office or aerodrome control tower. b.A generic term meaning variously, air traffic control service, flight informat ion service, alerting service, air traffic advisory service. c.A generic term meaning variously, air traffic control centre, flight informati on centre or air traffic service reporting office. 251. what is the flight plan? a.Specified information provided to air traffic information centers, relative to an intended flight or portion of flight of an aircraft. b.Specified information provided to air traffic services units, relative to an i ntended flight or portion of a flight of an aircraft. c.Specified information provided to air traffic information centers, relative to an intended flight or portion of flight of an aircraft. d.A flight information provided to air traffic control units relative to flight of an aircraft.

252. what is an Aerodrome control service? a.air traffic service, flight information service, meteorological anf communicat ion service. b.air traffic control service for aerodrome traffic. c.Control service for the aircraft and vehicles in the aerodrome area. d.The service to be provided by aerodrome control tower. 253. a.the b.The c.The d.The 254. a.The b.The c.The d.The 255. a.The b.The c.The d.The what is VFR? name used to designate the visual flight condition symbol used to designate the vectoring flight radar symbol used to designate the visual flight rules symbol used to designate the instrument flight rules what is IFR? symbol used symbol used symbol used sign used to to designate the instrument flight rules. to designate the information flight region. to designate the information flight region. designate the information flight region.

what is VMC ? sign used to designate the visual meteorological flight. symbol used to designate the visibility minima cloud. symbol used to designate the instrument meteorogical condition. symbol used to designate the visual meteorological condition.

256. An IFR Flight may be cleared to excute a visual approach provided the pilo t can maintain visual reference to the terrain and the reported ceiling is .the l evel of the beginning of the initial approach segment for the aircraft so clear d; or the pilot report at the level of the.or at any time during the instrument a pproach procedure that the meteological condition are such that with reasonable assurrence a visual approach and landing can be completed. a.Below.final approach segment b.At or above.innitial approach segment c.Uppermissed approach procedure d.Below.intermediate approach segment. 257. what types of an altimeter setting to be provided by air traffic control t ower? a.QNH and QFE b.QFE and QNE c.QNH, QNE and QFE d.QNH or QFE. 258. give a meaning of the expected approach time. a.The time at which air traffic controller expects that an arriving aircraft fol lowing a delay, will leave the holding point to complete its approach for a land ing. b.The time at which air traffic controller gives the clearances for the aircraft to complete its approach. c.The time at which air traffic controller expects that an arriving aircraft com mences initial approach and completes its approach. d.The time at which aircraft will get a clearance to make an approach to land at the aerodrome. 259. give a meaning of a light signal Green flashed ? a.Permission to cross landing area or move onto taxi way. b.Stop. c.Vacate maneuvering area in accordace with local instruction. d.Move off the landing area or taxi way and watch out for aircraft.

260. give the meaning of base turn ? a.A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of downwind leg the beginning of the base leg. b.A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of downwind leg the beginning of final leg. c.A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of outbound track and the beginning of intermediate or final approach track are no t reciprocal. d. A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of outbound track and the beginning of the inbound track. 261. how many positions of aircraft are in the aerodrome traffic and taxi circu its? a.4 positions b.5 positions c.6 positions d.7 positions. 262. Airborne collision avoidance system (ACAS) is. a.An aircraft system based on secondary surveillance radar transponder signals. b.An aircraft system based on GPS signals. c.An aircraft system which provides advice to the pilot of potential conflicting aircraft that are equipped with SSR transponders. d. a and c. 263. A transmission from one station to another station in circumstances where two-way communication cannot be established but where it is believed that the ca lled station is able to receive the transmission. That is definition of. a. Broadcast transmission b. Announcement transmission c. Blind transmission d. Station transmission. 264. Flight visibility means. a.The horizontal distance at which prominent objects may be seen from the cockpi t b. The maximum distance at which prominent objects may be seen from the cockpit c. The visibility of an aircraft in flight d. The visibility forward from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight. 265. Holding procedure is. a.A predetermined manoeuvre which keeps an aircraft within a specified airsp ace while awaiting further clearance b.A predetermined manoeuvre which keeps an aircraft within a specified area whil e awaiting further clearance c.A predetermined manoeuvre which keeps an aircraft within a specified zone while awaiting further clearance d. A predetermined manoeuvre which keeps an aircraft within a specified reg ion while awaiting further clearance. 266. Measures designed to adjust the flow of traffic into a given airspace, alo ng a given route, or bound for a given aerodrome, so as to ensure the most effec tive utilization of the airspace. That is definition of. a.Flow Management Control (FMC) c. Flow Management System (FMS) b.Flow Control Center d. Flow Control 267. Near - parallel runways are. a. Non - intersecting runways whose extended centre lines have an angle of conve

rgence/ divergence of 10 degrees or less. b.Non - intersecting runways whose extended centre lines have an angle of conver gence/ divergence of 15 degrees or less. c.Non - intersecting runways whose extended centre lines have an angle of conver gence/ divergence of 20 degrees or less. d.Non - intersecting runways whose extended centre lines have an angle of conver gence/ divergence of 25 degrees or less. 268. Cruising level means. a.A level maintained during the cruise b.A level maintained during the whole flight c.A level maintained during a significant portion of a flight d.A level assigned by air traffic control. 269. Clearance to land of alternative instruction shall be passed to the aircra ft before it reaches. a. 1NM c. 3NM b.2NM. 270. Radar identification may be achieved for departing aircraft if provide tha t. a. The identification is achieved within 1 NM from the end of the RWY b. The departure instruction issued to the aircraft by TWR control c. The runway used d. All above. 271. The responsibilities of an air traffic controller includes. a. Investigating reports of non - compliance with regulations and procedures b. Issuance of unit operating instructions c. The control of air traffic within that airspace for which he is responsible d. Approving ATS orders and instructions to the field. 272. The distance between a taxi - holding position and the centre line of a ru nway of an aerodrome code 4A shall be. a. 40m b.60m c. 75m d. 90m. 273. Where is post-flight report form available. a.Areodrome AIS unit b.CAA office c.ATS unit d.AIS headquarter. 274. For precision approach runway visual range (RVR) is report when. a.Visibility or RVR is less than 1500m b.RVR is less than 1000m c.RVR is less than 1500m. 275. Minimum flight altitude ensures (according to Viet Nam rules of the air). a.At least 300m (1000 ft) above MSL b.At least 300m (1000 ft) above terrain. c.At least 300m (1000 ft) above highest obstacle in plain area, 600 (2000ft) abo ve highest obstacle in mountain area. d.Non of the above. 276. Minimum flight altitude has been establish for ATS routes. a.At least 600m above MSL b.At least 300m above terrain c.At least 300m,above the highest obstacles in plain area, 600m above the highes t obstacles in mountain area

d.At least 600m above the highest obstacles in the plain area, 900m above the hi ghest obstacles in mountain area. 277. Minimum flight altitude has been established for ATS routes (ICAO rules). a.At least 300m (1000 ft) above MSL b.At least 300m (1000 ft) above terrain c.At least 300m (1000 ft) above highest obstacle in plain area, 600m (2000 ft) a bove highest obstacle in mountain area d.All the above. 278. Transition level is. a.300m (1000 ft) above transition altitude b.The lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude c.The lowest flight level an aircraft can use during its flight d.The lowest flight level that can be given to arriving aircraft by air traff ic unit. 279. An arriving aircraft is descending for approach. The pilot of the aircraft is to change altimeter setting from Standard air pressure (760 mm Pb) to QNH (o r QFE) ___ a.At above transition level. b.Below transition level but above transition altitude c.At transition altitude d.Below transition altitude. 280. The altitude at which or below which the position of an aircraft is contro lled by reference to altitudes.That is definition of. a.Transition Altitude b.Transition Level c.Minimum Sector Altitude ( MSA) d.Minimum En-route Altitude (MEA). 281. Except when necessary for take-off or landing or except when specifically authorized by the appropriate authority, an IFR flight shall not be flown at. a.A level below minimum flight level b.A level above minimum flight level c.A level above FL 150 d.A level below FL 150. 282. When a pressure type altimeter is set to a QNH altimeter setting, it shall indicate. a.Flight level b.Altitude c.Height d.Pressure on runway surface. 283. Minimum descent altitude (MDA) is. a.A specified height in non-precision approach or circling approach below which descent must not be made without the required visual reference b.A specified height in precision approach or circling approach below which desc ent must not be made without the required visual reference c.A specified altitude in non-precision approach or circling approach below whic h descent must not be made without the required visual reference d.A specified altitude in precision approach or circling approach below which de scent must not be made without the required visual reference. 284. When a pressure type altimeter is set to a QFE Altimeter setting, it shall indicate. a.Flight level b.Altitude c.Height d.pressure on runway surface. 285. QFE Means. a.Atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation

b.Altimeter sub-scale to obtain elevation When on the ground c.All are correct d.None is correct. 286. Which of the following statements is likely true about QNH? a.Pressure at mean sea level b.Pressure to mean sea level at same condition c.Pressure level in accordance with ICAO standars d.All the above. 287. show the correct defination of the decision altilude/height (OCA/OCH) ? a.A specified altitude or height (A/H) in the non precision approach at which a missed approach must be initiated if required visual reference to continue the a pproach has not been established b.Alowest altitude or height in the non precision approach at which a missed app roach commences in the initial segment c.A specified altitude in the precision approach at which a missed approach must be initialed if the required visual reference to continuethe approach the appro ach has not been established d.A specified altitude or height (A/H) in the precision approach at which a miss ed approach must be initialed if the required visual reference to continuethe ap proach the approach has not been established. 288. What are the international aviation urgency signals? a.SOS b.MAYDAY c.PANPAN d.All the above. 289. A radiotelephony distress message transmitted by an aircraft should commen ce with the word "............." preferably spoken three times. a.SOS b.MAYDAY c.PAN PAN d.EMERGENCY. 290. An ILS CAT I can guide an arriving aircraft to. a.Decision height of 30 m. b.Outer marker. c.Middle marker. d. Decision height of 60 m. 291. An ILS CAT II can guide an arriving aircraft to. a.decision height of 30m b.Outer marker c.Middle marker d.Desion height of 60m. 292. In an approach lighting system CAT I the distance between crossbars shall be. a.60m b.100m c.150m d.200m. 293. In the CPDLC uplink messages , up to how many (ELMT) elements can you incl ude. a.4 b.2 c.3 d.5. 294. How many ground station are able to be the CPDLC controlling authority for an aircraft? a.Up to five ground stations b.Up to ten ground stations c.Any number of ground stations within satellite coverage d.Only one ground station at time. 295. An aircraft can maintain CPDLC communication to. a.Any number of ground the stations within satellite coverage b.Up to ten ground stations c.Only one ATSU active at Current Data Authority(CDA) and one other inactive as next Data Authority (NDA)

d.As much as the same with the ADS connections. 296. What does are + in the track label mean. a.CPDLC connected as Current Data Authority (CDA) b.Aircraft has CPDLC capability c.CPDLC connected As Next Data Authority (NDA) d.CMA logon. 297. The decleared distances are shown in the a.Aerodrome Obstacle Chart- Type A b.Aerodrome Obstacle Chart-Type B c.Aerodrome Obstacle Chart- Type C d.Both a and c. 298. .. is a Mandatory Chart. a.Aerodrome Obstacle Chart-Type A b.Aerodrome Obstacle Chart-Type B c.Aerodrome Obstacle Chart-Type C d.Standar Instrument Departure (SID) Chart. 299. The missed approach procedure is show in the a.Aerodrome Obstacle Chart- Type A b.Aerodrome Obstacle Chart-Type B c.En-route Chart d.Instrument Approach Chart. 300. There are 3 ways of indicating chart scale a.Representative fraction (R.F), calculation and statement b.Linear, scale and calculation c.Representative, fraction (R.F), statement in words and linear d.Statement, Representative, fraction (R.F) and linear or bar scale. 301. Which one of the following printing menthods requires a paper printing pla te? a.Photolithogphy b.Photocopying c.Offset d.Letterpress. 302. A scale of 1.5000 is bigger than. a.1.250b.1.2500c.1.500c.1.50000. 303. show the correct minimum certificated take off mass of the category aircra ft. HEAVY(H). a.All aircraft types of 134.000 kg or more. b.All aircraft types of 136.000 kg or more. c.All aircraft types of 138.000 kg or more d.All aircraft types of 140.000 kg or more. 304. show the correct minimum certificated take off mass ft. MEDIUM(M). a.Aircraft types less than 140.000 kg but more than 9.000 b.Aircraft types less than 138.000 kg but more than 8.000 c.Aircraft types less than 136.000 kg but more than 7.000 d.Aircraft types less than 134.000 kg but more than 6.000 of the category aircra kg kg kg kg.

305. show the correct minimum certificated take off mass of the category aircra ft. LIGHT. a.Aircraft types of 6000 kg or less b.Aircraft types of 7000 kg or less

c.Aircraft types of 8000 kg or less d. Aircraft types of 9000 kg or less. 306. An aircraft class of "Heavy" indicates the aircraft is capable of takeoff weights of a.136 tons b.126.000 kg or more c.more than 136.000 kg d.(a) or (c). 307. To determine effect of wake turbulence, aircraft are grouped into the foll owing categories. a.CAT I, CAT II, CAT III b.SMALL, MEDIUM, LARGE c.LIGHT, MEDIUM, HEAVY d.CAT A, CAT B, CAT c. 308. The aerodrome forecasts have the validity period of. a.9, 12, 18 or 24 hours b.2 hours c.(a) and (b). 309. The meteorological information provided to ATS units contains. a.METAR (with TREND), SPECI (with TREND) b.TAF, landing forecast, take-off forecast c.SIGMET (AIRMET if appropriate) d.(a),(b) and (c). 310. At aerodrome the weather observations and reports include. a.Routine observations and reports at hourly or half hourly intervals, special ( selected) observations and reports b.Reports for take-off and landing c.(a) and (b). 311. The aerodrome forecasts are presented in the following formats. a.TAF code, abbreviated plain language form b.ROFOR code, tabular (using abbreviated plain language)form c.Abbreviated plain language, TAF code, tabular (using abbreviated plain languag e) form. 312. In METAR, SPECI reports, the surface wind is encoded as VRB/VV refer to 10 - minute period preceding the observation. a.The mean speed 2 mps b.The wind direction has varied 60 and the mean speed 2 mps; or wind direction has varied > 180 and the mean speed 2mps c.The wind direction has varied 180, mean speed 2mps. 313. When no significant changes to any elements concerned surface wind, visibi lity, weather and cloud are expected within 2 hours, the TREND forecast is indic ated by the abbreviation. a.NO SIG b.NO CHANGE c.SKC d. CAVOK. 314. ATIS broadcasts shall be provided at aerodrome where there is a required.. .. a.to reduce the communication load on the ATS VHF air ground communication chann els b. to assist the air traffic controllers to know information about weather at aerodrome c.to notice the information about the condition of runway in use

d.to announce information about departing and arriving aircraft to passengers. 315. The wind direction is encoded as VRB only if. a.The wind speed is 2 MPS or less b.The wind speed is higher and the wind direction is varying by 180 degr ees or more and a single direction is impossible to determine c.Both (a.) and (b.) 316. At aerodrome the weather a.Routine observations pecial (selected) observations b.Reports for take-off c.(a) and (b) observations and reports include. and reports at hourly or half hourly intervals, s and reports and landing.

317. The term "CALM" in METAR/SPECI reports is encoded as. a.00000 followed by the abbreviation for the wind speed units. b.00000. c.CALM. 318. In the METAR/SPECI reports, the minimum horizontal visibility will be repo rted in metres using four figures, when. a.There is NO marked directional variation in visibility b.There is marked directional variation in visibility c.When the visibility is less than 1500 metres and the in another direction is m ore than 5000 metres. 319. Which of the following weather phenomena will reduce the visibility? a.rain b.fog c.haze d.all of above. 320. An electrical discharge from a thunderstorm. a.Linghtning b.thunder c.rain d.mist.

321. At Tan Son Nhat airport, Validity of the TAF is. a.6h b.12h c.36h d. 24h 322. Which cloud may give thunderstorm and moderate (MOD) or severe(SEV) turbul ence and ice. a.Sc-Stratocumulus b.Cb-Cumulonimbus c.Cu-Cumulus d.St-Stratus. 323. Which phenomenon always reduces Visibility below 1 km. a.HZ b.BR c.FG d.TSRA. 324. You notice that the barometer that air pressure has been decreasing rapidl y. The type of weather that would normally be expected to occur would be. a.Drizzle b.Clear skies c.Thunderstorm d.Fog. 325. A METAR is. a.An aerodrome routine Weather report b.An area routine Weather report c.An aerodrome routine Weather forecast d.An area forecast. 326. A TAF is. a.An aerodrome routine Weather observation b.An aerodrome routine Weather forecast c.An aerodrome special Weather report d.An aerodrome amended Weather forecas.

327. METAR VVTS 021230Z 13012G26KT 1200NW +SHRA BKN010 SCT015CB 28/27 Q1002= a.The observation time is 0212Z b.The observation time is 1230Z c.The observation time is 0212LT d.The observation time is 1230LT. 328. METAR VVTS 021230Z BKN010 SCT015CB 28/27 Q1002= a.The present Weather is b.The present Weather is c.The present Weather is d.The present Weather is 329. SPECI VVBB 080320Z SCT015CB 24/23 Q1000= a.Cloud amount and cloud b.Cloud amount and cloud c.Cloud amount and cloud d.Cloud amount and cloud 13012G26KT 1200NW +SHRA heavy light heavy heavy rain shower rain thunderstorm With rain shower rain.

25019KT 3000 TSRA SCT013 base base base base of of of of CB CB CB CB are are are are 2..>3 3..>4 2..>3 3..>4 oktas oktas oktas oktas and and and and 1500m 1500m 1500ft 1500ft.

330. TAF VVTS 200330Z 200624 23010KT 9999 BKN017 TEMPO 0814 1500+TSRA SCT013 SCT015CB= a.The periou-of validity of forecast is 1-2hours b.The periou-of validity of forecast is 18hours c.The periou-of validity of forecast is 24hours d.The periou-of validity of forecast is 15hours 321. TAF VVTS 200330Z 200624 23010KT 9999 BKN017 TEMPO 0814 1500+TSRA SCT013 SCT015CB= a.9999 mean forecast horizontal Visibility is 9999m b.9999 mean forecast vertical Visibility is 9999m c.9999 mean forecast horizontal Visibility is 10 lan or more d.9999 mean forecast Vertical Visibility is 10 lan or more. 322. TAF VVTS 200330Z 200624 23010KT 9999 BKN017 TEMPO0814 1500+TSRA SCT013 SCT015CB= a.The forecast Wind direction and Wind speed are 10KT and 230 degree b.The forecast Wind speed and Wind direction are 10KT and 230 degree c.The forecast Wind direction and Wind speed are 230KT and 10 degree d.The forecast Wind speed and Wind direction are 230KT and 10 degree. 323. Holding aircraft at FL100 aircraft cat B, what is max. speed. a.190kts b.210kts c.230kts d.170kts. 324. The closest layer of the atmosphere to the earth is called. a.Troposphere b.Stratosphere c.Lower d.Neither of the above. 325. SCT 020 mean. a.Cloud 3__4/8, Ceiling b.Cloud 5__7/8, Ceiling c.Cloud 3__4/8, Ceiling d.Cloud 5__7/8, Ceiling 2000ft 2000ft 2000m 2000m.

326. VVTS 242130Z 250018Z 24003MPS 9999 SCT020 BEMG 0708 FEW 017 BKN 020 TEMP 1 013 21005G14MPS 2000 TSRA Validity of the TAF is.

a.From 242130Z b.From 250018Z c.From 242130Z to 250018Z d. None is correct. 327. The air density generallywith height a.Increases b.Remains the same c.Decreases d.Rises. d.Increases d.Falls

328. Temperature generally. As altitude is gained a.Stay the same b.Decreases b.Rises 329. Atmospheric pressure.with height a.Does not change b.Increases c.Rises

330. The smaller the spread between temperature and dew point the.. will be the r elative humidity. a.Smaller b.Lower c.Higher d.Longer. 331. A SPECI is. a.An aerodrome corrected weather report b.An aerodrome routine weather report c.An aerodrome special weather report d.An aerodrome amended weather report. 332. Atrend-type landing forecast is. a.A take-off forecast b.Atake-off report c.A complete landing forecast d.A self- contain landing forecast. 333. Wich of the following statements is likely true a METAR? a.An aviation weather report b.An aviation weather forecast c.An aerodrome warning d.An AIRMET information. 334. In the METAR/SPECI, when the RVR has increased during the 10 minutes prece iding the observation,the tendency is indicated by. a.U b.D c.N d.P 335. In the METAR/SPECI,when the RVR has decreased, the tendency is indicated b y. a.U b.D c.N d.P 336. In the METAR/SPECI,when the RVR no distinct change,the tendency is indicat ed by. a.U b.D c.N d.P 337. Landing forecast-TREND type as. a.TREND forecasts appended to METAR or SPECI b.TREND forecasts appended to METAR c.TREND forecasts appended aerodrome forecast d.All wrong. 338. TREND forecast contain specific information presented in afixed order.the information and order are as follows. a.Change indicator; Surface wind; Visibility; Weather phenomena; Cloud or vert ical visibility b.Surface wind; Visibility; Weather phenomena;Cloud or vertical visibi lity

c.Change indicators; Surface wind; Visibility; Weather phenomena d.Surface wind; Visibility; Weather phenomena. 339. WMO data type designator used for OPMET data, wich of the follwing stateme nts is likely tru WS? a.SIGMET b.SIGMET for TC c.SIGMET for VA d. VAA. 340. WMO data type designator used for OPMET data, wich of the following statem ents is likely true FK? a.Tropical cyclone advisories b.Air-report c.Aerodrome forecast d. Administraive. 341. WMO data type designator used for OPMET data,which of the following statem ents is likely true WC? a.SIGMET b.SIGMET for TC b.SIGMET for VA d. TCA 342. A tropical cyclone has wind speeds. a.34 kt or more b.32 kt or more c.33 kt or lessd. 31 kt or more 343. The period of validity of a SIGMET message shall be not more than.? a. 4 hours b. 6 hours c. 12 hours d. 18 hours. 345. WMO date type designator used for OPMET date, which of the following state mens is likely true SA? a.Aerodrome report b.Aerodrome forecast c.Volcanic ash advisorie d.Administrative. 346. WMO date type designator used for OPMET date,which of the following statem ents is likely true FT? a.TAF b.TCA c.METAR d.VAA. 347. WMO data type designator used for OPMET data which of the following statem ents is likely true SP? a.Administrative b.Special report, including trend-type c.Aerodrome forecasts d.Tropical cyclone advisories. 348. WMO data type designator used for OPMET data which of the following statem ents is likely TRUE FC? a.TCA b.TAF (vilid for 9 to 12 hours) c.VAA d.TAF (vilid 12 to 24 hours). 349. WMO data type designator used for OPMET data which of the following statem ents is likely true WV? a.VVA b.TAF c.SIGMET information for volcanic ash d.TCA. 350. WMO data type designator used for OPMET data which of the following statem ents is likely true FV? a.VVA b.TCA c.Volcanic ash advisory message

d.TAF. 351. WMO data type designator used for OPMET data which of the following statem ents is likely true UA? a.VVA b.Area forecasts(AIREP) c.TCA d.Volcanic ash and advisory message. 352. WMO data type designator used for OPMET data which of the following statem ents is likely true FA? a.Area forecasts(GAMET forecast) b.TCA c.TAF d.VVA. 353. WMO data type designator used for OPMET data which of the following statem ents is likely true FR? a.TCA b.Route forecast(in the ROFOR code form) c.Colcanic ash advisory message d.VVA. 354. The first stage of a thunderstorm is the ? a.Cumulus stage b.Mature stage c.Dissipating stage c.All the above. 355. The most likely stage for large hail and damaging winds is the.of a thunder storm. a.Dissipating stage b.Mature stage c.Cumulus stage d.All the above. 356. OPMET bullentins trasmitted via AFTN, priority indicator FF used for OPMET date as follow. a.SIGMET b.AIREP SPECAL c.VAA,TCA and TAF AMD d.All are correct. 357. A tornado over water is called a. a.waterspout b.mixer c.washer d.all the above.

358. The information concerning meteorological services provided to aircraft in flight as. a.METAR, SPECI, TAF, TREND, SIGMET; b.Forecast of upper wind and upper air temperattures information, aircraft obse rvation and report c.Both a and b d.None of the above. 359. Which of the following statements is likely true about RVR. a.Runway Visual Range b.Runway Visibility Range c.Runway Visual Rule d.Prevailing Visibility. 360. If the cloud amount is 4 oktas, how to report the pilot about it? a.OVc. b.BKN. c.SCT. d.All the above. 361. The gas which comprises most of the atmosphere is ?

a.oxygen c.nitrogen

b.carbon d.Helium.

362. Required transit times of AFTN messages and bulletins containing OPMET inf ormation (SIGMET messages, volcanic ash and tropical cyclone advisory infonnatio n and special air-reports) should achieve transit times of less than the followi ng. a.5 minutes c.10 minutes b.1 minute d.15 minutes.

363. The term CAVOK is used when. a.visibility is 10 km or more b.no cloud of operational significance c.no weather of significance to aviation d.all of above conditions occur simultaneously at the time of observation. 364. In the METAR and SPECI reports, the term vicinity (VC) shall be understood as. a.Between approximately 8 and 16 km of the aerodrome reference point b.Not further away than approximately 8 km of the aerodrome reference point c.Further away than approximately 16 km of the aerodrome reference point d. Between approximately 6 and 8 km of the aerodrome reference point. 365. Aerodrome forecasts contain specific information presented in a fixed orde r. The information and order are as follows. a.Identification groups; Surface wind; Prevailing Visibility; Weather; Cloud (or vertical visibility if appropriate); Expected significant changes b.Identification groups; Surface wind; Prevailing Visibility; Weather; Cloud c.Surface wind; Prevailing Visibility; Weather; Cloud d. Identification groups; Surface wind; Prevailing Visibility; Weather. 366. In the aviation meteorological sevice Cloud of operational significance shal l be understood as. a.a cloud with the height of cloud base below 1500 m (5000 ft) b.a cloud below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is greater c.a cumulonimbus cloud or a towering cumulus cloud at any height d. all correct. 367. TAF is the name of the code for the aviation routine report is issued. a.At any time when certain criteria are met b.At hourly or half hourly c.Every 3 hours d. Every 6 hours. 368. In the METAR/SPECI reports, intensity of present weather phenomena is indi cated as. a.light, moderate, heavy b.(-), (+) c.Both a and b. 369. In the METAR/SPECI reports, RVR group up to a maximum may be reported. a.3 groups b.4 groups c.As once wishes. 370. In the METAR and SPECI report Temperature below o dgree Celcius is preceed ed by. a.P b.M c.MS d.

371. In the Local Routine and special report Temperature below o dgree Celcius is preceeded by. a.b.M c.MS d.P. 372. Mist is report when. a.Visibility is at last 800m, but not more than 3000m b.Visibility is at last 1500m, but not more than 4000m c.Visibility is at last 1500m, but not more than 5000m d.Visibility is at last 1000m, but not more than 5000m. 373. Fog is a.Visibility b.Visibility c.Visibility d.Visibility reported when. is less than 800m, except when qualified by MI, BI, PR or VC is less than 500m, except when qualified by MI, BI, PR or VC is less than 600m, except when qualified by MI, BI, PR or VC is less than 1000m, except qualified by MI, BI, PR or VC.

374. Small hail and/ or snow pellet is reported when. a.Deameter of largest hailstones is less than 5 mm b.Deameter of largest hailstones is less than 4 mm c.Deameter of largest hailstones is less than 3 mm d.Deameters of largest hailstones is less than 2 mm. 375. Hail a.Deameter b.Deameter c.Deameter d.Deameter is of of of of reported when. largest hailstones largest hailstones largest hailstones largest hailstones is is is is 4 2 5 3 mm mm mm mm or or or or more more more more.

376. The criteria used for the inclusion of change groups in TAF or for the ame ndment of TAF when cumulonimbus cloud are. a.Forecast to dissipate b.Forcast to develop c.Forcast to develop and dissipate d.All are correct. 377. The criteria used for inclusion of changes groups in TAF or amendment of TAF, when the visibility is improving, forcast changes to, or passes through on e or more of the values below; or when the visibility is deteriorating , forcast changes through one or more of the values below. a.80 , 150 , 600 , 800 , 1500 or 3000m b.100 , 350 , 600 , 800 , 1500 or 3000m c.60 , 150 , 600 , 800, 1500 or 3000m d.150 , 350 , 600 , 800 , 1500 or 3000m. 378. Special reports in the SPECI code form are issued when the sky is obscured and the vertical visibility improving and changes to or passed through or more of the following values , or when vertical visibility is deteriorating and passe s through one or more of the following values. a.60 , 80 , 150 or 300 m (200, 250, 500 or 1000ft) b.80, 100, 150, or 300 m (250, 350, 500 or 1000ft) c.30, 60, 1500 or 300 m (100, 200, 500 or 1000ft) d.100, 150, 300, 600 m (350, 500, 1000, or 1000ft). 379. Special reports in SPECI code form are issued when the mean surface wind speed has changed from that given in the lastest repot in accordance with the fo llowing criteria. a.By 30km/h (15kt) or more b.By 10km/h(or 5kt) or more c.By 40km/h(or 20kt)or more d.By 20km/h(or 10kt)or more.

380. Special report in the SPECI code form are issued when the RWY visual range is improving and changes to or passes through or more of the following values o r when the visibility is deteriorating and passes through one or more of the fol lowing values. a.350, 600, 800 or 1000m b.600, 800, 1000 or 1500m c.350, 600, 800 or 1500m d.150, 350, 600 or 800m. 381. Special report in the SPECI code form are issued when the vissibility is i mproving and changes to or passes through or more of the following values or whe n the visibility is deteriorating and passes through one or more of the followin g values. a. 1000, 800 or 1500m a.600, 350 or 800m b.600, 800 or 1500m c.1500 800 or 3000m. 382. In Local routine ange shall be reported a.The RWY visual range b.The RWY visual range c.The RWY visual range d.The RWY visual range 383. In Local routine ange shall be reported b.The RWY visual range c.The RWY visual range d.The RWY visual range e. The RWY visual and special report and METAR and SPECI , the RWY visual r in steps of 100m when. is more than 1000m is more than 800m is more than 500m is more than 500m and 800m. and special report and METAR and SPECI , the RWY visual r in steps of 50m when. is between 400m and 500m is between 800m and 1500m is between 500m and 1500m range is between 400m and 800m.

384. In Local routine and special report and METAR and SPECI , the RWY visual r ange shall be reported in steps of 25m when. a.Visibility or Rwy visual range is between 400m and 800m b.The Rwy visual range is less than 400m c.The Rwy visual range is less than 500m d.The Rwy visual range is less than 800m. 385. The observed visibility min VIS is 3000m in the SW; max VIS is 4000m in t he SE, select the right way to report the METAR visibility group among three pos sible choices. a.3000 b.3000SW 4000SE c.3000SW. 386. The observed visibility. min VIS is 6000m in the E; max VIS is 8000m in t he NE, select the right way to report the METAR visibility group among three pos sible choices. a.6000 b.6000E 8000NE c.6000E. 387. The observed visibility. min VIS is 2600m in the S ; max VIS is 4000m in the N , select the right way to report the METAR visibility group among three po ssible choices. a.2600S b.2600S 4000N c.2600. 388. The obsever Clouds. 2/8 Sc at 900m ; 3/8 Ac at 2700m. These Clouds groups shall be reported in the METAR. a.FEW030 SCT090 b.BKN090 c.SCT030 SCT090. Qeustion 389. The obsever Clouds. 1/8 St at 100m ; 4/8 Sc at 1500m. 4/8 Ac at 33

00m These Clouds groups shall be reported in the METAR. a.FEW003 SCT050 b.SCT050 c.SCT003 SCT050. 390. The obsever Clouds. 1/8 Cu at 600m ; 1/8 Ci at 1200m. These Cloud groups s hall be reported in the METAR. a.FEW020 b.SCT020 c.FEW020 FEW040. 391. The observed visibility. min VIS is 1800m in the N ; max VIS is 4000m in the NE , select the right way to report the METAR visibility group among three p ossible choices. a.1800N b.1800N 4000NE c.1800. 392. The observed visibility. Min VIS is 1200m in the E ; max VIS is 6Km in th e NW , select the right way to report the METAR visibility group among three pos sible choices. a.1200E b.1200E 6000NW c.1200. 393.. The observed visibility. Min VIS is 1000m in the NE ; max VIS is 2000m i n the SE , select the right way to report the METAR visibility group among three possible choices. a.1000NE b.1000NE 2000SE c.1000. 394. The observed visibility. Min VIS is 8Km in the South ; max VIS is 14km in the East , select the right way to report the METAR visibility group among thre e possible choices. a.8000 b.8000S 9999E c.8000S. 395. Aeronautical Meteorological information supplied to ACC are. a.METAR/SPECI with TREND, TAF and amendments there to SIGMET and AIRMET. b.Volcanic ash advisory, upper wind and upper air temperature forcast, significa nt en-route weather forcast chart,. c.a and b. 396. Aeronautical Meteorological information supplied to APP are. a.METAR/SPECI with TREND, TAF and amendments thereto b.Windshear warning, aerodrome warning, SIGMET and AIRMET c.a and b. 397. Aeronautical Meteorological information supplied to TWR are. a.METAR/SPECI with TREND, TAF and amendments thereto, Aerodrome warning b.Wind shear warning , SIGMET and AIRMET,. c.a and b. 398. The Wind is expected to be gusty, when the Maximun gust speed likely to ex ceed the main speed by. a.30km/h (15kts, 7mps) or more b.6km/h (3kts, 2mps) or more c.20km/h (10kts, 5mps) or more. 399. If an arriving aircraft is making a straight-in approach, a departing airc raft may take off in any direction until......... before the arriving aircraft i s estimated to be over the instrument runway. a. 10 minutes b.2 minutes c. 5 minutes d. 3 minutes. 400. If two departing aircraft of the same type propose to follow the same trac k and the following aircraft will be flown through the level of the preceding ai rcraft. Action must be taken to ensure that the........ separation will be maint ained or increased when cruising levels are crossed. a.5 minutes b.3 minutes c.2 minutes d.10 minutes.

401. A light aircraft is approaching for landing behind a heavy aircraft, the t ime separation minima between them must be. a.1 minute b.2 minutes c.3 minutesd. 4 minutes 402. A medium aircraft is approaching for landing behind a heavy aircraft, the time separation minima between them must be. a.1 minute. b.2 minutes. c.3 minutes. d.4 minutes. 403. Time separation minima between holding aircraft in a holding pattern and e n-route aircraft which are on the same flight level is. a.10 minutes b.5 minutes c.3 minutes d. As long as outbound time is. 404. When an aircraft will pass through the level of another aircraft on crossi ng tracks, the longitudinal separation minima is........... when the level is cr ossed. a.10 minutes if preceding aircraft is 74 km/h (40kt) or more faster than the fol lowing. b.10 minutes if the tracks are 30 degrees or more divergent. c.15 minutes d.b and c. 405. Air traffic services unit clocks and other time-recording devices shall be checked as necessary to ensure correct time to within plus or minus........... of UTC at all times. a.10 seconds b.20 seconds c.30 seconds d.1 minute. 406. A revised expected approach time shall be transmitted to the aircraft with out delay whenever it differs from that previously transmitted by.......... minu tes or more. a.5c. 2 b.3 d. 15 407. Pilots should notify air traffic control a revised estimated time if the r eported estimate for the reporting point is found to be in error in excess of. a. 5 minutes b. 4 minutesc. 3 minutes d. 2 minutes. 408. If two departing aircraft of the same type propose to follow the same trac k and the preceding aircraft is 74 km/h (40kt) or more faster than the following aircraft, the separation between their take-off is. a.1 minute b.2 minutes c.3 minutes d.4 minute s. 409. If two aircraft have departed from the same aerodrome and the preceding a ircraft is 37 km/h (20kt) or more faster than the succeeding aircraft speed, the longitudinal separation minima between the aircraft is. a.10 minutes b.5 minutes c.3 minutes d.2 minutes. 410. Longitudinal separation minima for aircraft at the same cruising level and on the same track is. a.15 minutes b.10 minutes c.10 minutes if aircraft are of the same type d. 10 minutes if aircraft have the same Mach number 411. Longitudinal separation minima between aircraft flying on crossing track w ith no navigational aids is. a.10 minutes if navigational aids permit b.10 minutes c.10 minutes if aircraft have the same TAS d.15 minutes.

412. When an aircraft will pass through the level of another aircraft on the sa me track, the longitudinal separation minima must be...............when the leve l is crossed. a.10 minutes b.10 minutes if aircraft are of the same type c.10 minutes aircraft have the same Mach number d.10 minutes if navigational aids permit frequent determination of position and speed. 413. For traffic on reciprocal tracks where lateral separation is not provided, vertical separation shall be kept for at least ___ prior to and after the time the aircraft are estimated to pass, or are estimated to have passed. a.10 minutes b.5 minutes c.15 minutes d.As long as the aircraft are estimated to have passed each other. 414. A flight plan for a flight to be provided with air traffic control service shall be submitted at least.. before departure. a.60 minutes b.30minutes c.15 minutes d.10 minutes . 415. Information on arriving aircraft shall be forwarded by ACC to APP not less than minutes before EAT. a.5 minutes b.10 minutes c.15 minutes d.20 minutes. 416. Information of arriving aircraft shall be forwarded by ACC to APP not less than minutes before ETO. a.5 minutes b.10 minutes c.15 minutes d.20 minutes. 417. Where lateral saperation is not provided, how long should vertical saperat ion be provided for opposite direction traffic? a.15 minutes prior to and after the time they are estimated to have passed b.10 minutes prior to and after the time they are estimated to have passed c.05 minutes prior to and after the time they are estimated to have passed d.Untill they are estimated to have passed. 418. What is the minimum time sepration between aircraft flying at the same lev el on the same or converging track where navigation aids permit frequent determi nation of position and speed. a.5 minutes b.10 minutes c.15 minutes d.20 minutes. Qustion 419. Aircraft flying on the same track and at the same level may not arr ive over the same position with less than the following seperation. a.3 minutes if the proceding aircraft is 40 km/m faster than the succeeding airc raft b.3 minutes if the preceding aircraft is 25 km/m faster than the succeeding airc raft c.10 minutes if navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and sp eed. 420. Times speration minima between aircraft in holding pattern is. a.15 minutes. b.10 minutes c.5 minutes d.None the above. 421. which minimum separation between departing aircraft if aircraft are fly on tracks diverging by at least 45 immediately after take off? a.30 seconds b.1 minutes

c.2 minutes d.minutes. 422. If two aircraft are converging at approximately the same level, the aircra ft, which shall give the way is. a.The one that has the other on its left b.The one that has the other on its right c.The one that has the other in sight first d.The one that is faster than the other. 423. When two aircraft are approaching head-on or approximately so and there is danger of collision, each shall alter its heading....... a.To the left b.To the right c.Upwards d. Downwards. 424. What action a.He should alter b.He should alter c.He should climb d.He should climb should a pilot take to overtake another aircraft. his course to pass the other's right his course to pass the other's left to pass above the other aircraft to pass under the other aircraft.

425. Aeroplane A with an air traffic clearance is flying in VFR condition withi n a controlled aera.Aeroplane B with no air traffic clearance is approach at app roximately the same altitude and on converging course.Which has the right-of-way ? a.Airplane A regardless of the direction form which airplane B is approaching b.Airplane B regardless of the direction from which airplane A is approachin c c.Airplane A if it has airplane B on its right d.Airplane B if it has airplane A on its left. 426. Which International Airport in Viet Nam have provided Ground Control Servi ce. a.Tan Son Nhat b.Tan Son Nhat and Noi Bai c.Da Nang d.Tan Son Nhat, Noi Bai and Da Nang. 427. Choose the correct statement from the following. a.A control zone extends from a specified height above sea level and also has an upper limit b.An airway is a control area and extends from ground level to specified limit c.An advisory route is a corridor from ground level to specified upper limit d.An control zone extends from ground level to a specified upper limit 428. If an identified aircraft is approach head- on the controlled aircraft, wh at action should be taken by the radar controller? a.Immediately turn the controlled aircraft to the right b.Decend the controlled aircraft to fly below the un indentified aircraft c.When the aircraft is 5 miles apart turn the controlled aircraft to the right d.Immediately climb the controlled aircraft. 429. Radar is an a.Radio Detecting b.Radio Detection c.Radio Detecting acronym of. And Range And Range And Ranging.

430. In an SSR system, the interrogator transmission are made on a frequency of . a.1090 MHz. b.1030 MHz. c.1003 MHz d.1009MHz.

431. In an SSR system the transponder responds an interrogator signal with a tr ansmission on a frequency of. a.1090MHz b.1030MHz. c.1003MHz. d.1009 MHz. 432. An aircraft will considered to have reached the level to which it has been cleaed when. a.Level information derived by mode C indicated that it is within 90 m(300 ft) o f its assigned level b.After three consecutive renewals of mode C derived level information c.As long As mode C derived level information indicated that it is within plus o r minus 90 m(300 ft) d.Three consecutive renewals of mode C derived level information have indicated that it is within 90 m(300 ft) of its assigned levels. 433. When initial climb sectors altitude have not been promulgated, aircraft sh all not be radar vectered untill. a.When ceiling visibility is OK b.By day only c.Reaching a level at least 1000 ft above the highest obtacle within 5 NM of the aircraft. 434. How many reason why miss- identification occur? a.3 b.7 c.9 d.11. 435. How many methods using for identification by PSR? a.3 b.4 c.5 d.6. 436. give meaning of approach sequence ? a.A number in which aircraft cleared to approach. b.The clearance in which two or more aircraft are cleared to approach to the aer odrome. c.The order in which aircraft are cleared to make approach. d.The order in which two or more aircraft are cleared to approach to land at the aerodrome. 437. In a primary radar system the energy is. a.Transmitted continuously and sent out in the form of pulses b.Not transmitted continuously but is sent out in the form of pulses. c.Transmitted continuously and sent out in the form of continuous waves 437. Radar position symbol includes. a.PSR symbols b.SSR symbols c.combined PSR/SSR symbols d.all the above. 439. Primary RADAR mean. a.A RADAR system wich provides primary information of air traffic to ATC unit. b.A RADAR system which uses reflected radio singal c.A RADAR system which uses primary in for action from aircraft and displays them on the RADAR screen. d.A RADAR system which ATC uses first to determine aircraft position in dista nce and azimuth. 440. Secondary RADAR can provide. a.Aircraft position information azimuth and range b.Aircraft identification code c.Aircraft pressure altitude d.All the above.

441. Where SSR is used, tranfer of radar identify shall be affected by. a.Instructing the pilot(by the accepting controller) to operate the SPI feature. b.Instructing the pilot(by the tranfering controller) to operate the SPI feature . c.Observing(by the accepting controller) to operate the SPI feature. d.b and c. 442. Radar seperation shall only be applied between identified aircraft when. a.The aircraft are equipped with trasponders b.There is reasonable assuranse that identification will be maintained c.There are radar position symbols when depicted on the radar display d.There is enough distance between identified aircraft. 443. Radar seperation based upon primary radar shall by the distance. a.Between the edges of the radar blips b.Between the center of the radar blips c.Between the edges of one blip and the center of the other d.Between the nearest edges of the blips. 444. Before providing radar service to an aircraft, the radar controller shall be. a.Established radar identify of that aircraft b.Provide the radar information c.Request the pilot to change heading 30 degrees or more d.Instruct the pilot to operate SPI feature. 445. Transfer of identity of a radar blip from the radar controller to another should be attemted when it is considered that. a.The aircraft is over common boundary b.The aircraft is on the frequency of the accepting controller c.The aircraft is within the converage of the accepting controller in radar disp lay d.The aircraft reports over the last fix displayed on the radar display of trasf erring controller. 446. Radar controller should a.Relative bearing - distance b.Relative bearing - distance c.Relative bearing - distance d.Relative bearing - aircraft give traffic information in the following form. - direction - level- aircraft type - heading - altitude - speed -level- speed - aircraft type type - heading - level speed.

447. The process of correlating a particular radar blip or radar position symbo l with a specific aircraft is. a.Radar monitoring b.Radar identification c.Radar vectoring d.Radar separation. 448. Radar separation is. a.The separation used when aircraft equipped with airborne radar b.The separation used when aircraft operating in radar coverage area c.The separation used by an air traffic controller having radar control rating d.The separation used when aircraft position information is derived from radar s ources. 449. Radar position symbol includes. a.PSR symbols b.SSR symbols c.combined PSR/SSR symbols d.all the above.

450. The surveillance radar normally used by ATC does not display altitude info rmation unless the aircraft is equipped with an altitude encoding transponder. T his is referred to as. a.DME b.Mode B c.Mode C d.Altimeter. 451. The range of primary radar depends on. a.Transmitted power ; altitude and level of aircraft b.Size ; level and material of aircraft c.Transmitted power ; size altitude and material of aircraft d.Transmitted power ; altitude and material of aircraft. 452. The range of re as follows. a.SSR. 200NM, PSR. b.SSR. 200NM, PSR. c.SSR. 250NM, PSR. d.SSR. 250NM, PSR. the SSR ? PSR radar station located at Tan Son Nhat airport a 30NM. 200NM. 40 NM. 80NM.

453. Radar vectoring for departing aircraft shall not be terminated untill. a.Reaching the sectors MA and establishing on a track where the pilot can conduct own navigation b.Passing the flight level of transition c.Passing the trasition altitude d.All above. 454. Radar monitoring shall not be terminated until. a.The aircraft has established radio contact with tower controlvisual separation is applied b.The aircraft has landed, or in case of missed approach, is at least 2 km ( 1 NM) beyond c.The departure end of the runway and adequate separation with any other traffic is established d.(b) or (c). 455. The minimum horizontal radar separation is 5 NM (9.3 km) within from Danan g airport. a.60 NM b.50 NM c.40 NM d.35 NM. 456. What is the minimum angle of turn necessary to identify an aircraft? a.15 degrees b.25 degrees c.30 degrees. d.45 degrees. 457. Vector an arriving aircraft to intercept the final approach course at an a ngle not greater than. a.15 degrees b.20 degrees c.30 degrees d.45 degrees. 458. In a standard holding pattern the bank angle or turn a.45 degrres or 4 degrres pr second, whichever requies the b.20 degrees or 2 degrres pr second, whichever requies the c.30 degrees or 3 degrres pr second, whichever requies the d.25 degrees or 3 degrres pr second, whichever requies the rate should be. lesser bank lesser bank lesser bank lesser bank.

459. Radar seperation may be applied between an aircraft taking off and other r adar controlled flights provided there is reasonable assurance that. a.The taking-off aircraft will be identified within 1 NM from the end of the run way and at the time the required radar seperation will exist. b.The taking-off aircraft is at or above the minimum flight altitude of minimum

safety altitude. c.Both taking-off aircraft and other radar controller flight are being identifie d. 460. a.The b.The c.The ach d.All Radar vectoring of an arriving aircraft shall be terminated when. aircraft request and is granted permission to cancel IFR and proceed VFR aircraft request and is cleared for visual approach aircraft reports established on final approach path of an instrument appro the above.

461. Aircraft being radar vectered for an approach as soon as practicable, be i nformed of. a.The type of approach to be anticipated and the runway in use. b.The traffic on the aerodrome circuit. c.The lastest landing condition. d.Both a and c. 462. What is the maximum range at which an aircraft should use the ILS glide pa th for descent guidance? a.30 NM b.40NM c.25 NM d.20 NM. 463. According to the LOA between Hochiminh AAC and Tan Son Nhat AAP, the recei ving until shall notify the transferring until in the event that communication w ith aircraft is not established within.. of the estimated over the transfer of co ntrol point. a.30 minute b.10 minute c.20 minute d.15 minute. 464. According to the LOA between Hochiminh AACC and Tansonnhat APP, the respon sibility of Hochiminhinh ACC for the deviated flights from the ATS route is. a.To coordinate with the flight control and Management Centre III prior to issui ng cleanrance for deviation. b.For safety reason, Hochiminh ACC can approve for deviation or level change pri or to informing The Flight Control and Management Centre III. c.a or b. d.a and b. 465. What should a radar controller do if he observes an aircraft under his con trol. Significantly from its intended route? a.Inform the pilot of the aircrafts position b.Inform the pilot of the deviation from the intended route c.Request the pilot to squawk ident d. Request the pilots intention. 466. Definition of holding procedure. a.A predetermined manoeuve with descents an aircraft within a specified airspac e while awaiting further clearance. b.A predetermined manoeuve with keeps an aircraft within a specified airspace wh ile awaiting further clearance. c.A predetermined manoeuve with climbs an aircraft within a specified airspace w hile awaiting further clearance. d.A predetermined manoeuve with keeps an aircraft out of a specified airspace wh ile awaiting further clearance. 467. Standard instrument arrival (STAR). a.A designated instrument flight rule (IFR) arrival point , normally on an ATS route, with a point from roach procedure can be commenced b.A designated instrument flight rule (IFR) arrival point , normally on an ATS route, with a point from route linking a significant which a published visual app route linking a significant which a published Instrument

approach procedure can be commenced c.A designated Visual flight rule (VFR) arrival t , normally on an ATS route, with a point from roach procedure can be commenced d.A designated Visual flight rule (VFR) arrival t , normally on an ATS route, with a point from h procedure can be commenced. 468. UTC stand for. a.Correct universal time b.Coordinated universal time c.Using control time d.Usage control time.

route linking a significant poin which a published Instrument app route linking a significant poin which a published Visual approac

469. Expect for aircraft in a state of emergency, or during communication faile r or unlawful interference situations, and unless otherwise agree by regional ai r navigation agreement or between a transferring and an accepting ATC unit, the transferring unit shall assign. a.Code A2000 to a controlled flight prior to transfer of communications b.Multiple code to a controlled flight prior to transfer of communications c.Code A2000 to a controlled flight prior to terminate the radar service d.Code A2000 to a controlled flight prior to accept the control. 470. For aircraft in the heavy wake turbulence category the word Heavy shall be included immediately after the..in the initial radiotelephony contact between suc h aircraft and ATS units. a.Aircraft callsign b.Greeting c.Establishment d.Leaving. 471. The generation for minimum safe altitude warnings is a function of an ATC radar data-processing system. The objective of the MSAW function is to assist in the prevention of controlled flight into.accidents by generating in a timely man ner, a warning of the possible in fingement of a minimum safe altitude. a.Trafficb.Mountainc.Terraind.Balloon. 472. When an aircraft operating within controlled airspace needs to dump fuel, the flight crew shall advice ATc.The ATC unit should then coordinate with the fl ight crew the following. the route to be flown, which, if possible, should be cl ear of cities and towns, preferably over water and away from areas where thunder storms have been reported or are expected; the duration of the fuel dumping; the level to be used, which should be not less than..? a.1800m(6000ft) b.1500m(5000ft c.12000m(4000ft) d.9000m(3000ft). 473. Vertical separation if other known traffic behind aircraft dumping fuel wi thin 15 minutes flying time or a distance of 93 km (50NM) by. at least 300m(1000 ft) if above the aircraft dumping fuel; and a.At least 600m (2000ft) if below the aircraft dumping fuel b.At least 300m (1000ft) if below the aircraft dumping fuel c.At least 900m (3000ft) if below the aircraft dumping fuel d.At least 1200m (4000ft) if below the aircraft dumping fuel. 474. Use of surface movement radar (SMR). a.Monitor the movement of aircraft and vehicles on the manoeuvring area; Provide directional information to pilots and vehicle drivers as necessary; b.Provide advice and assistance for the safe and efficient movement of aircraft and vehicles on the manoeuvring area c.Both 1 and 2 d.1 or 2. 475. What does a white painted transverse stripe drawn across a runway indicat e?

e. f. g. h.

The threshold The beginning of the aiming point marking A temporarity permanently displaced threshold 1000ft from runway end.

476. An obstacle that is quiered to be marked in the vicinity of an aerodrome w here night operations are carried out is 180 meters high. How is it to be marked ? e. High intensity white flashing lights f. Red flashing lights g. Steady(non flashing)red lights h. A combination of red lights every 50 meters and high intensity flashing white lights at 90 meters and 180 meters. 477. nona.A runway es b.A runway ts c.A runway edures d.A runway Instrument Runway. intended for the operation of aircraft using visual approach procedur intended for the operation of aircraft using visual approach equipmen intended for the operation of aircraft using instrument approach proc intended for the operation of aircraft using visual SIDs.

478. AIP supplements contain information... a.With graphics only b.Of an administrative nature c.With extensive text only d.Of temporary changes of long duration and or information requiring graphics. 479. Aerodrome identification sign. a.The designated geographical location of an aerodrome b.The elevation of the hightest point of the landing area c.A sign placed on the aerodrome to aid in identifying the aerodrome from the ai r d.Aeronautical beacon used to indicate the location of an aerodrome from the air . 480. Before providing radar service to an aircraft, the radar controller shall be. a.Established radar identify of that aircraft b.Provide the radar information c.Request the pilot to change heading 30 degrees or more d.Instruct the pilot to operate SPI feature. 481. If an aircraft is in Radar coverage, NOT logged on, what time of track(s) will be displayed? a.An ADS track only b.A Radar track, with a flight plan track and an ADS track(if equipped) c.A Radar track only d.A flight plan track only. 482. How many parts are there in the new AIP-VN? a.6 parts c.3 parts b.8 parts d.5 parts. 483 . How many sections are there in Part 1 (GEN) of the AIP Viet Nam. a.Two Sections b.Three Section c.Four Section d.Five Section.

484. How many sections are there in Part 2 (ENR) of the AIP Viet Nam. a.Three Section b.Five Section c.Seven Section d.Eight Section. 485. Which section of the AIP show information of FIRs, TMA, CTA? a.ENR 2 b.ENR 3 c.ENR 4 d.ENR 1. 486. What pages in AIP-VN is ATS route described ? a.ENR 3.1 b.ENR 2 c.GEN 4 d.ENR 5. 487. How many sections are there in Part 3 (AD) of the AIP Viet Nam. a.Two Section b.Three Section c.Four Section d.Five Section. 488. Which section AIP VN show the detail information about aerodrome, includin g helicopter landing Areas? a.AD 0b.AD 1c.AD 2 d.AD 3. 489. Which section AIP VN show the information of heliports? a.AD 0b.AD 1c.AD 2d.AD 3. 490. Which section AIP VN show the details information about aerodrome, includi ng helicopter landing Areas? a.AD 0b.AD 2 c.AD 1d.AD 3. 491. Which section AIP VN show the information of heliports? a.AD 0b.AD 3c.AD 2d.AD 1. 492. Which section AIP VN show the detailed information about aerodrome chart ( standard depature chart, instrument approach chart)? a.AD 0b.AD 2c.AD 3d.AD 1. 493. What is titled of Annex 11. a.Aeronautical Information Services b.Search and Rescue c.Air Traffic Services d.Rules of the Air. 494. differences from ICAO standars are included in page....of AIP. a.ENR 1.7b.GEN 1.7 c.GEN 2.7 d.ENR 2.7. 495. In which section of the AIP can you find the location indicators used in a state? a.AD b.ENRc.GEN and AD d.GEN. 496. Which section of the AIP VN show the information of charges for aerodrome/ heliports? a.GEN 1b.GEN 2c.GEN 3d.GEN 4 (GEN 4.1). 497. Which section of the AIP VN show the information of charges for air naviga tion services? a.GEN 1b.GEN 2c.GEN 3d.GEN 4 (GEN 4.6). 498. Which section of the AIP VN show the information of EN-Route chart. a.ENR 1 b.ENR 2 c.ENR 5 d.ENR 6.

499. In which section of the AIP can you find the lateral limits of restricted Areas? a.GEN and ENR b.GEN c.AD d.ENR. 500. Whenever you are given an AIP amendment to insert into an AIP, you must up date the record of AIP amendment on page a.GEN O.3 -1 b.GEN 0.2 -1 c.GEN 0.2 -1d.GEN 0.1 -1. 501. In order to calculate the landing and parking fees of an aircraft at a par ticular aerodrome you have to refer to the.. a.GEN section of the AIP of that country b.GEN section of any AIP c.AD section of the AIP of the country d.AD section of any AIP. 502. "A0135 910726 VIE/UFN. RWY 25R/07L closed due to repair". The above is. a.A NOTAM CLASS A b.A NOTAM CLASS 1 c.A NOTAM CLASS 2 d.AN AIRAC. 503. What are the significant dates associated with the AIRAC system? a.The effective date b.The publication date c.The latest date for the raw data to reach AIS d.All of a); b); c). 504. Advantages of AIP Supplements are. a.Wider circulation and more scope for expression b.Maps and diagrams can be included c.It provides a long time record d.All of above. 505. NOTAM contain information of concern to long or medium range flight, given selected international distribution. a.A series b.B series c.C series d.none of above. 506. The AIRAC AIP Amendments or supplements should be reached recipients at least.in advance of the effective date? a.28 days b.14 days c.42 days d.56 days. 507. The AIRAC AIP Amendments or supplements shall be distributed at least..in a dvance of the effective date? a.28 days b.14 days c.42 days d.56 days. 508. The minimum difference between the AIRAC publication date and effective da ted is at least. a.42 days b.28 days c.7 days d.56 days. 509. The schedule of AIRAC effective dates must be based on interval of? a.14 days b.28 days c.42 days d.56 days. 510. The NIL AIRAC notification must be issued at least ..before the AIRAC effec tive date concerned. a.14 daysb.28 daysc.56 daysd.42 days. 511. As regulated in regulation on the aeronautical information services of VIE T NAM (2007 edition), the latest date for raw material to reach the AIS associat ed with AIRAC system is..? a.14 daysb.28 daysc.56 daysd.42 days.

512. AIRAC stands for a.Aeronautical Information Regulation and Control b. Aeronautical Information Regulation and Check c. Aeronautical Information Rules and Control d. Aeronautical Information Rules and Check. 513. A list of AIRAC effective dates, publication dates and latest dates on whi ch material has to reach the AIS must be published on yearly basic in the form o f..? a.A list of valid NOTAM b.An AIC c.A NOTAM d.None of above. 514. NOTAM With series C used for. a.Domestic flight b.International flight c.Both of them 515. The International Routes are used for? a.Domestic flights b.International Flights c.Military Flights d.International and Domestic Flights. 516. Intergraded Aeronautical Information Package includes. a.AIP,AIP Amendment, AIC and AIPSUP b.NOTAM and PIB c.CHECK LIST and SUMMARY d.All of above. 517. The changes to AIP should be published by? a.AIP AMDT b.AIP SUP , AIPAMDT and NOTAM c. AIC d. All the elements. 518. a.The b.The c.The d.All The significant date(s) associated with the AIRAC system is(are) effective date latest date for raw material to reach AIS publication date the above. d.None of them

519. What is the Unit of meansurement used to express radius in the Q line(NOTA M format)? a. NM b. M c.KM d.FT. 520. How often is the Regular Amendment to AIP-VN issued? a.twice a year b.on 25 MAR and 25 OCT c.based on AIRAC effective dates d.once every four months. 521. How long should NOTAM remain in force? a.six month b.one years. c.one month d.not more that three month

522. Inter grated aeronautical information package consists of. a.AIP, including AIP Amendment and AIP Sup b.NOTAM and PIB. c.AIC, checklists and summaries. d.All of elements above.

523. ASHTAM means. a.A special series NOTAM concerning activities of volcano b.A NOTAM series consists of SNOWTAM and NOTAM c.A navigation warning d.A series for aircraft operation. 524. A1844/07 NOTAMR A1835/07. WEF 0709090705 TILL 0709121000 in the VTBB FIR P JE will take place WI 5 NM radius of 123825N 1005723E. FMGDN to 15.000ft above m ean sea level. a.After 0709121000 at the aerodrome VTBD resume NML OPS b.After 0709121000 at the area of 123825N 1005723E resume NML OPS c.Before 0709121000 at the area of 123825N 1005723E resume NML OPS. 525. A0310/07 NOTAMN. WEF ble. a.AFTER 0710042359, NDB PK b.AFTER 0710042359, NDB PK c.AFTER 0710042359, NDB PK d.AFTER 0710042359, NDB PK 0710020100 TILL 0710042359 NDB PK 285 KHz Unservicea NOT AVAILABLE DO NOT USE A WAITING FLTCK RESUMED NML OPS.

526. A0415/07 NOTAMN. WEF 0710020100 TILL 0710042359 RWY 11L ILS/GP 329.6 ON T EST, DO NOT USE. a.AFTER 0710042359 ILS/GP UNSERVICEABLE b.AFTER 0710042359 ILS/GP ON TEST, DO NOT USE UNTIL THIS NOTAMC c.AFTER 0710042359 ILS/GP AVAILABLE d.AFTER 0710042359 ILS/GP OPERATING WITHOUT IDENTIFICATION. 527. A0615/07 NOTAMN. 34L U/S due to main. a.After 0709192200 ILS b.After 0709192200 ILS c.After 0709192200 ILS RJTG FIR WEF 0709191800 TILL 0709192200. ILS FOR RWY for RWY 34L NOT AVAILABLE for RWY 34L U/S for RWY 34L NML OPS.

528. (A0137/07 NOTAMC A0135/07 Q) VVTS/QFAXXX//A/000/999/ A) VVDN B) 0703300125 E) CNL INFOR) Which correct answer is it ? a.NOTAM A0137/07 is a cancellation NOTAM b.NOTAM A0137/07 is a replacement NOTAM c.NOTAM A0137/07 is a new NOTAM d.NOTAM A0137/07 will be valid after 0100 UTC 30th March 2007. 529. A0531/05 NOTAMN. WEF 0510150000 TILL 0511261259 BTN 0800/1200 DAILY . ACFTSTAND NR 19 CLOSED FOR REPAIR. a.ACFT STAND NR 19 CLOSED FR 0510150000 TO 0511262359 b.ACFT STAND NR 19 CLOSED FR 0510150800 TO 0511261200 c.ACFT STAND NR 19 CLOSED ON 15 OCT 05 AND ON 26 NOV 05 BTN 0800/1200 d.NOTAM A0531/05 NOT EFECTIVE AFTER 0511261259. 530. A0134/07 NOTAMC A0120/07. WEF 0710150300. VOR/DME NOB 116.1 MHx OKAY. a.VOR/DME NOB 116.1 MHz U/S b.VOR/DME NOB 116.1 MHz NOT AVBL c.VOR/DME NOB 116.1 MHz RESUMED NML OPS d.VOR/DME NOB 116.1 MHz DO NOT USE. 531. A0230/07 NOTAMN. WEF 0710010001 TILL 0711032359 RWY 11R/29L U/S FOR RE PAIR. BNT 0001/0200, 2200/2359 DAILY ON 01/25 OCT AND 01/03 NOV. a.RWY 11R/29L CLOSED FOR ALL OPERATION ON 26 TO 31 OCT AND 01 TO 03 NOV

b.RWY 11R/29L CLOSED FOR ALL OPERATION ON 01/25 OCT AND 01/03 NOV BTN 0001/020 0, 2200/2359 DAILY c.RWY 11R/29L AVAILABLE ON 26 TO 31 OCT d.RWY 11R/29L AVAILABLE FR 01 OCT TO 03 NOV BTN 0001/0200, 2200/2359 DAILY ON 0 1/25 OCT ANF 01/03 NOV. 532. A0321/99 NOTAMN. WEF 0907022359 TILL 990702359 TRIGGER NOTAM REF AIRAC A IP-SUP A1/99 revision of operational procedures in TMA HANOI/NOI BAI, effective DATE 17 JUN 1999. a.AFTER 9907022359 NOTAM A0321/99 STILL IN FORCE b.AFTER 9907022359 NOTAM A0321/99 NOT IN FORCE c.AFTER 9907022359 NOTAM A0321/99 NOT IN CORPORATED INTO THE VIETNAM AIP d.AFTER 9907022359 NOTAM A0321/99 CANCELLED BY OTHER NOTAM. 533. post flight information received at aerodrome/heliports information Concer ning the state and operation of Air navigation facilities noted. a.By operators b.By aircrews c.By airlines d.By ATC. 534. the ICAO NOTAM code ICAO abbreviations are those contained in. a.Annex 15 b.Doc 8216 c.Doc 8400 d.Doc 8108. 535. What is the title of Doc 9674? a.World Ground System b.Guidelines for Electronic Terrain c.World Geodetic System 1984 (WGS) Manual d.Obstacle and aerodrome Mapping information. 536. What is the title of Doc 9881? a.Obstacle and aerodrome Mapping information b.Guidelines for electronic Terrain c.Guidelines of aerodrome Mapping information d.Guidelines for electronic terrain, obstacle and aerodrome Mapping information. 537. Which ICAO document provides the standares NOTAM format? a.Doc 7383 b.Annex 15 c.Doc 8126 d.Doc 8585. 538. In which ICAO document can you find the AIRAC effective dates? a.Doc 8126 b.Doc 4444 c.Doc 8585 d.Doc 7910. 539. Which Annex contains the standard and recommended practices for all type o f aeronautical charts? a.Annex 14 b.Annex 5 c.Annex 4 d.Annex 15. 540. In which ICAO document can you find the postal address of AIS of states? a.Doc 8126 b.Doc 7383 c.Doc 7910 d.Doc 8585. 541. In Which ICAO Document contains the Location indicators? a.Doc 8400 b.Doc 7910 c.Doc 8585 d.Doc 7383. 542. In which ICAO Document can find the Q code. a.Doc 7910 b.Doc 8400 c.Doc 8698 d.Doc 7383. 543. Which ICAO Document titles aeronautical chart Catalogue? a.Doc 8126 b.Doc 7101 c.Doc 8697 d.Annex 4.

544. What is the title of Annex 14? a.0peration Of Aircraft b.Facilitation c.Aerodromes d.Security. 545. What is the latest Amendment number of Annex 15? a.Amendment 33 b.Amendment 34 c.Amendment 35 d.Amendment 32. 546. A checklist of NOTAM currently in force shallbe issued. a.By postal address b.Over AFTN c.By telex d.By FAX. 547. which type bulletins can made available from within an automated system. a.IFR, PIB information b.A11 PIB information c.VFR PIB information d.(a), (b) and (c). 548. PIB will be prepared with the following information. a.Departure aerodrome b.Arrival aerodrome c.En- route, alternate aerodrome and NAV warning d.All of information above. 549. which administrative bulletins must be provided. a.Checklist of all current NOTAM by country /FIR/ Aerodrome b.01 NOTAM input since a specified date/air/group. This procedure greatly facili tates briefings c.Aerodrome type bulletins. 550. which PIB must be prepared in the following. a.A heading (identify of origination, area covered and for whom prepared) b.En- route information c.Aerodrome information d.NAV warning e. (a), (b), (c), (d). 551. IN Vietnam NOTAM are distributed by the international NOTAM office (NOF) i n series. a.Series A and C NOTAM b.Series A and B NOTAM c.Series B and C NOTAM d.Series A and series C and series B NOTAM. 552. What kind of NOTAM which doesnt need Item C? a.Trigger NOTAM b.NOTAM cancel c.NOTAM Replace d.NOTAM N. 553. In AIP Vietnam, the uint wind speed is definite as. a.Meter per second b.Kilometer per hour c.Knot.

554. Usual validity period of SIGMET information is. a.02 hours b.Not more than 06 hours, preferably not more than 4 hours c.Not more than 12 hours. 555. which aerodrome in Vietnam provided ATIS? a.Noibai, Tansonnhat, Danang b.Phubai, Nhatrang, Catbi c.Noibai, Tansonnhat d.Tansonnhat. 556. rea? a.ENR b.ENR c.ENR d.ENR What are the pages in AIP-VN described Prohibited, Restricted and Danger a 5.1 AND 5.2 5.1-1 to ENR 5.1-5 5.1 5.1 to 5.

557. In the TREND forecast , to indicate a change of clear sky, the abbreviatio n replacing the cloud or vertical visibility group is indicated by. a.NOSIG b.NO c.SKC. 558. In the TREND forecast , to indicate the end of the occurrence of significa nt weather phenomena, the abbreviation replacing the group w w is indicated by. a.NOSIG b.NIL c.NSW. 559. In the TREND forecast , when changes are forecast to take place at midnigh t UTC the time is indicated as follows. a.By 0000 when associated with FM and TL b.By 2400 when associated with TL c.a and b. 560.. In the TREND forecast when the significant change is expected in one or s everal of the observed element(surface wind, visibility, weather, cloud or verti cal visibility) one of the following change indicators in used. a.NOSIG b.NSW c.BECMG or TEMPO. 561. For a radius of 7.3 NM, the data in the Q- Line will be..? a.073 b.070 c.007 d.008. 562. a.005 b.004 c.001 d.041 563. a.The b.The c.The d.The NOTAM with radius 0.41NM is indicated as.? in the qualifier line in the qualifier line in the qualifier line in the qualifier line. In order to issue a NIL AIRAC NOTAM, item A of the NOTAM should be..? local indicator of the aerodrome where the AIS office located local indicator of any aerodrome in the country local indicator of The FIR, of the NOTAM office first 2 letters of the location indicator of the country, followed by XX.

564. What are the fourth and fifth of the NOTAM Code of a Trigger NOTAM ? a.AK b.AL c.TT d.XX. 565. An AFS NOTAM checklist indicates .? a.Current NOTAM issued for the last 3 months b.All current NOTAM c.Current NOTAM issued for the month

d.All current NOTAM with indications of the latest AIP Amendment, AIP supplement and AIC. 566. What 3 letter with group will be used to. Request missing NOTAM? a.RQNb.RQL c.RQMd.RQR. 567. What is the validity of Trigger NOTAM (item C) relative to AIRAC AIP AMDT? a.UFN b.PERM c.On effective date +14 days d.42 days later. 568. What is the validity of Trigger NOTAM (item C) relative to AIRAC AIP SUP? a.Publication date + 3 months b.Effective date +14 days c.End date of the supplement d.PERM. 569. In a pre- flight operational test the tolerance for QNH setting for an a ltimeter with a test rang of 0-50.000ft shall be. a.+/- 50ft b.+/- 60ft c.+/- 80ft d.+/-100ft. 570. When SSR radar is not available, radar identification may be achieved by i nstructing the aircraft to make heading changes of at least. a.10 degrees b.20 degrees c.30degrees d.45 degrees. 571. Alerting service shall be provided by. a.The ATS unit responsible for the aircraft b.The ATS unit responsible for the aircraft, when provided by frequency 121.5MHz c.The lar area control center d.Only by ATC units. 572. A clearway is defined rectangular area established to. a.Reducing risk of the damage to aircraft if leaving the RWY b.Protect the aircraft in take off and landing c.Permit the aircraft to stop in case of abandoned take-off d.Protect the initial climb out after take- off. 573. Which statement is correct regarding Runway end lights? a.Omnidirectional light showing red b.Showing red in the direction of the runway c.Omnidirectional lights showing green d.Showing green in the direction of the runway. 574. Aircraft departing for the same runway and following the same track. To us e a separation of 2 minutes the first aircraft has to be how may knots (TAS) f aster than the following aircraft. a.20kt b.30kt c.40kt d.50kt. 575. A part of the flight information Service provided by ATS unit is to infor m about valid SIGMET. What portion of the route should it cover? a.30 minutes flying in time ahead of the aircraft b.60 minutes flying in time ahead of the aircraft c.2 hours flying in time ahead of the aircraft d.3 hours flying in time ahead of the aircraft. 576. IFR and VFR flights are permitted; IFR flights are subject to ATC service and are separated form other IFR flights. All flight receive traffic information as far as practical. With airspace classification. a.Class B b.Class C c.Class D d.Class E.

577. A-near collision requiring an avoidance maneuvers to avoid collision is by the investigation board categorized as. a.Incident b.Serious incident c.Accident d.Minor incident. 578. What is most correct regarding the aeronautical information publication (A IP)? a.A notice containing information that does not qualify for the origination of a NOTAM or for inclusion in an AIC b.A publication containing aeronautical information of a lasting character essen tial to air navigation c.A publication issued by the appropriate authority containing aeronautical info rmation of a short basis essential to air navigation d.AIPs are navigation information issued in two volumes by each contracting state . 579. Each NOTAM shall deal with only. a.One subject b.One condition of the subject c.a and b d.a or b. 580. In NOTAM format, the field Purpose in Q item (Q line) containing letters NB O Means. a.NOTAM selected for the immediate attention of aircraft operators b.NOTAM selected for PIB entry c.NOTAM concerning flight operation d.All of above. 581. In NOTAM format, the lower/upper limit shall be expressed in.? a.Flight level b.Height c.Elevation d.Altitude. 582. Items B of NOTAM expressed by? a.Using abbreviation WEF b.Using abbreviation UFN c.Using abbreviation WIE d.Using the ten-figure group given year, month day and hour in UTC. 583. Item C of NOTAM expressed by.? a.Using abbreviation WEF b.Using abbreviation WIE c.Using the ten-figure group given year, month day and hour in UTC or using abbr eviation PERM d.Using abbreviation UFN. 584. How many letters are there in a Q NOTAM code? a.3 Letters b.4 Letters c.5 Letters d.6 Letters. 585. If correction is necessary, how do you correct the erroneous NOTAM? a.The erroneous NOTAM cancelled and a new NOTAM issued to follow b.The erroneous NOTAM cancelled c.A new NOTAM issued d.The erroneous NOTAM corrected.

586. Checklist of IAC currently in force shall be issued at least a.Once in 3 months b.Once in 6 months c.Once a months d.Once a year. 587. What are the series of AIC Vietnam? a.A and C b.A and B c.A d.No series.

588. AIC must be given the same Distribution as the. a.NOTAM, PIB, and AIP AMDT b.AIP, AIP SUP and PIB c.AIP, AIP AMDT and AIP SUP d.AIP, NOTAM, AIP SUP. 589. AIC a.White b.White c.White d.White should have the colour code by subject as. Administrative Maps and Chart air traffic control Safety. d.A and C.

590. What are the series of Vietnam AIP Supplement a.B and C b.A, B and C c.A and B 591. When shall the NOTAM with c) PERM be invalid? a.After 3 months b.After its information is incorporated into the AIP AMDT c.Both a and b.

592. Temporary changes of long duration (3 months or longer) to the AIP shall b e published as. a.AIC b.AIP supplements(Doc 8126) c.AIP amendments d.AIRAC AIP amendments. 593. Each AIP amendments Page, including the cover sheet, shall display. a.The date when information is sent to AIS unit b.A publication date( Doc 8126) c.An effective date d.All a, b, c. 594. Information of short duration which contains extensive and/ or graphics sh all be published as. a.AIP Amendments b.NOTAM c.AIP Supplements(Doc 8126) d.AIC. 595. Temporary changes to the AIP which doesnt contain extensive and/ or graphic s and needs to be distributed timely shall be published as. a.AIP Supplements b.NOTAM c.AIP Amendments d.AIC. 596. The element that isnt contained in the content for a TRIGGER NOTAM is. a.The reference number of the amendment or supplement b.A brief description of the content of the amendment or supplement c.The publication date

d.The effective date. 597. Which information that shall be distributed by AIC? a.Work in progress on the RWY b.Restricted Area established c.Notification of Air Crew License Examination (DOC 8126) d.Standard instrument departure procedures established. 598.The AIP is an aeronautical document that contains information of. a.Administrative nature b.Temporator nature c.Permanent nature (Annex 15) d.Advisory nature. 599. The NOTAM format includes. a.The serial number b.Q-line and the Item A to G c.Both a and b d.NOTAM code. 600. What are the default values of lower/upper limit in Q Line of a NOTAM? a.GND b.UNTIL c.MSL d.000/999. 601. The EUROCAT-X system. How many electronic strip are there for each flight? a.Electronic strips are only turning on- off by supervisors b.One strip per controller c.One strip per turning point d.Up to eight strips per controller. 602. The EUROCAT-X system. The air situation Display (ASD) can be oriented to e ither TRUE or MAGNECTIC North This Is. a.At all work stations within the center b.Defined off- line and indicated in the General information Window(GIW) c.Selected by the controller (Ecs or PLCs) d.Selected by the supervisor at OPSUP position. 603. The EUROCAT-X system. electronic strips in a strip window can be sorted by . a.Level Alpha 0r time-as selected by controller b.Randomize c.Position report d.Strips color. 604. The EUROCAT-X system. The compass rose can be displayed in which window? a.The second window only b.The main screen only c.Both the main screen and the second window d.The flight plane window. 605. The EUROCAT-X system. To create flight plan route for a FDR by clicking on reporting point on ASD, which button in the flight plan window would you use. a.RTEb.MODc.CRE d.CRTE. 606. The EUROCAT-X system. When the HOLDING function has been initiated at curr ent position for a flight plan track. a.Only the holding strip window is displayed b.The flight plan track is frozen and holding strip is displayed c.Only flight plan track is frozen d.Nothing happens to the flight plan track.

607. The EUROCAT-X system. The responsible controller of an FDR can Initiate ho lding via HLD button. a.Eithei at a current position or at a future position along the flight plan rou te b.Only at a future position along flight plan route c.Either at a the future position along the flight plan route or at a position n ot on the flight plan route d.Only at current position. 608. The EUROCAT-X system. Which of the following statements is true about the warning window? a.Automatically closed when all messages have been acknowledged b.Automatically close after a off defined time c.Manual close when all messages have been acknowledged d.Non of the above. 609. Manila is +7 hours ahead of UTc.When the UTC time is 2330. What is the Man ila time? a.1630Tb.0630LTc.0600LTd.0830LT. 610. Greece is +2 hours ahead of UTc.When the local Greece is 0130. What is the UTC time? a.2330 Previous dayb.1130 Previous day c.0330 d.1530. 611. Ecuador -5 hours behind of UTC, when the UTC time is 0730. What is the Loc al Ecuador time? a.1230 b.0230 c.0030 d.1430. 612. Costarica is 6 hours behind of UTc.Guam is +10 hours ahead of UTc.When the Local Costarica time is 0745. What the Local Guam time? a.1345b.2045 c.1745 d.2345. 613.......Are semicircles joining the North and South Poles. a.Equators b.Longitudes c.Latitudes d.All of the above. 614. The weather operation minima(ceiling/visibility) for ILS/DME approach RWY 25R at Tansonnhat aerodrome is. a.60m/800m b.80m/600m c.120m/2000m d. 80m/1000m. 615. The weather operation minima(ceiling/visibility) for ILS/DME approach RWY 25L at Tansonshat aerodrome is. a.85m/1000m b.120m/2000m c.85m/1200m d. 120m/2400m. 616. What is the minimum Visibility for Cat (D) aircraft using VOR/DME approach procedures for RWY 25R/L at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome? a.120/1200m b.120/2000md.120/1000m d.120 / 2400m. 617. The weather operation minima(ceiling/visibility) for VOR/DME approach RWY 07L Cat (A,B) at Tansonnhat aerodrome is. a.130m/2400mb.130m/2000mc.120m/2800m.d.120m/2400m. 618. The weather operation minima(ceiling/visibility) for VOR/DME approach RWY 07L Cat. (C) at Tansonnhat aerodrome is. a.130m/2000m b.130m/2400m c.130m/2800md.130m/3000m. 619. The weather operation minima(ceiling/visibility) for VOR/DME approach RWY 07L Cat. (D) at Tansonnhat aerodrome is. a.130m/2800m b.130m/2000m c.120m/2000md.120m/2400m. 620. The weather operation minima(ceiling/visibility) for VOR/DME approach RWY

07R Cat (A,B) at Tansonnhat aerodrome is. a.120m/2000m b.120m/2800m c.130m/2400m

d. 130m/3200m.

621. The weather operation minima(ceiling/visibility) for VOR/DME approach RWY 07R Cat (C) at Tansonnhat aerodrome is. a.120m/2000m b.130m/3200m c.130m/2800md.120m/2400m. 622. The weather operation minima(ceiling/visibility) for VOR/DME approach RWY 07R Cat (D) at Tansonnhat aerodrome is. a.120m/2000m b.120m/2400m c.130m/2800m d. 130m/3200m. 623. The weather operation minima(ceiling/visibility) for NDB approach RWY 25R/ L Cat. (A,B,C) at Tansonnhat is. a.120m/2000m b.120m/2000m c.120m/1000m d. 120m/2800 m. 624. The weather operation minima(ceiling/visibility) for NDB approach RWY 25R/ L Cat. (D) at Tan Son Nhat is. a.120m/2400m b.120m/2800m c.130m/2400m d. 130m/2800 m. 625. The weather operation minima(ceiling/visibility) for GN NDB approach RWY 0 7R Cat. (A,B) at Tansonshat aerodrome is. a.120m/2000m b.145m/2000m c.130m/2400m d. 120m/1000 m. 626. The weather operation minima(ceiling/visibility) for GN NDB approach RWY 0 7R Cat. (C) at Tansonnhat aerodrome is. a.130m/2000m b.145m/2000m c.130m/2400m d. 145m/2400 m. 627. The weather operation minima(ceiling/visibility) for GN NDB approach RWY 0 7R Cat. (D) at Tannonnhat aerodrome is. a.145m/3200m b.145m/2000m c.145m/2400m d. 145m/2800 m. 628. The weather operation minima(ceiling/visibility) for GN NDB approach RWY 0 7L Cat. (A,B ) at Tansonnhat aerodrome is. a.145m/2000m b.145m/2400m c.145m/2800m d. 145m/3200 m. 629. The weather operation minima(ceiling/visibility) for GN NDB approach RWY 0 7L Cat. ( C ) at Tansonnhat aerodrome is. a.130m/2000m b.130m/2400m c.145m/2400m d. 145m/2800 m. 630. The weather operation minima(ceiling/visibility) for GN NDB approach RWY 0 7L Cat. ( D ) at Tansonnh aerodrome is. a.130m/3200m b.130m/2400m c.145m/2400m d. 145m/3200 m. 631. the minimum visibility for Cat (A,B,C) aircraft using LOC(ONLY) Approach p rocedures runway 25R at Tansonnhat aerodrome. a.120m/2400m b.120m/1000m c.120m/2800md.120m/2000m. 632. the minimum visibility for Cat (D) aircraft using LOC(ONLY) approach proce dures runway 25R at Tansonnhat earodrome? a.120m/2000m b.120m/2800m c.120m/2400m d.120m/1000m. 633. The weather operation minima(ceiling/visibility) for Cat (A,B,C) aircraft

using LOC(ONLY) approach procedure RWY 25L at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome is. a.155m/2500mb.155m/3000 c.155/3500m d/155/4000m 634. The weather operation minima(ceiling/visibility) for Cat (D) aircraft usin g LOC(ONLY) approach RWY 25L at Tansonnhat aerodrome is. a.155m/1500m b.155m/2000m c.155m/2500m d.155m/3000m.

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