1. Using the principles of standard precautions, the nurse would wear gloves in what nursing interventions? A.

Providing a back massage B. Feeding a client C. Providing hair care D. Providing oral hygiene 2. The nurse is preparing to take vital sign in an alert client admitted to the hospital with dehydration secondary to vomiting and diarrhea. What is the best method used to assess the clients temperature? A. Oral B. Axillary C. Radial D. Heat sensitive tape 3. A nurse obtained a clients pulse and found the rate to be above normal. The nurse document this findings as: A. Tachypnea B. Hyper pyrexia C. Arrythmia D. Tachycardia 4. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to use a wide base support when assisting a client to get up in a chair? A. Bend at the waist and place arms under the clients arms and lift B. Face the client, bend knees and place hands on clients forearm and lift C. Spread his or her feet apart D. Tighten his or her pelvic muscles 5. A client had oral surgery following a motor vehicle accident. The nurse assessing the client finds the skin flushed and warm. Which of the following would be the best method to take the clients body temperature? A. Oral B. Axillary C. Arterial line D. Rectal 6. A client who is unconscious needs frequent mouth care. When performing a mouth care, the best position of a client is: A. Fowlers position B. Side lying C. Supine D. Trendelenburg

7. A client is hospitalized for the first time, which of the following actions ensure the safety of the client? A. Keep unnecessary furniture out of the way B. Keep the lights on at all time C. Keep side rails up at all time D. Keep all equipment out of view 8. A walk-in client enters into the clinic with a chief complaint of abdominal pain and diarrhea. The nurse takes the clients vital sign hereafter. What phrase of nursing process is being implemented here by the nurse? A. Assessment B. Diagnosis C. Planning D. Implementation 9. It is best describe as a systematic, rational method of planning and providing nursing care for individual, families, group and community A. Assessment B. Nursing Process C. Diagnosis D. Implementation 10. Exchange of gases takes place in which of the following organ? A. Kidney B. Lungs C. Liver D. Heart 11. The chamber of the heart that receives oxygenated blood from the lungs is the: A. Left atrium B. Right atrium C. Left ventricle D. Right ventricle 12. A muscular enlarge pouch or sac that lies slightly to the left which is used for temporary storage of food A. Gallbladder B. Urinary bladder C. Stomach D. Lungs 13. The ability of the body to defend itself against scientific invading agent such as baceria, toxin, viruses and foreign body

A. Hormones B. Secretion C. Immunity D. Glands 14. Hormones secreted by Islets of Langerhans A. Progesterone B. Testosterone C. Insulin D. Hemoglobin 15. It is a transparent membrane that focuses the light that enters the eyes to the retina. A. Lens B. Sclera C. Cornea D. Pupils 16. Which of the following is included in Orems theory? A. Maintenance of a sufficient intake of air B. Self perception C. Love and belonging D. Physiologic needs 17. Which of the following cluster of data belong to Maslows hierarchy of needs A. Love and belonging B. Physiologic needs C. Self actualization D. All of the above 18. This is characterized by severe symptoms relatively of short duration. A. Chronic Illness B. Acute Illness C. Pain D. Syndrome 19. Which of the following is the nurses role in the health promotion A. Health risk appraisal B. Teach client to be effective health consumer C. Worksite wellness D. None of the above 20. It is describe as a collection of people who share some attributes of their lives. A. Family B. Illness

C. Community D. Nursing 21. Five teaspoon is equivalent to how many milliliters (ml)? A. 30 ml B. 25 ml C. 12 ml D. 22 ml 22. 1800 ml is equal to how many liters? A. 1.8 B. 18000 C. 180 D. 2800 23. Which of the following is the abbreviation of drops? A. Gtt. B. Gtts. C. Dp. D. Dr. 24. The abbreviation for micro drop is A. gtt B. gtt C. mdr D. mgts 25. Which of the following is the meaning of PRN? A. When advice B. Immediately C. When necessary D. Now 26. Which of the following is the appropriate meaning of CBR? A. Cardiac Board Room B. Complete Bathroom C. Complete Bed Rest D. Complete Board Room 27. One (1) tsp is equals to how many drops? A. 15 B. 60 C. 10 D. 30

28. 20 cc is equal to how many ml? A. 2 B. 20 C. 2000 D. 20000 29. 1 cup is equals to how many ounces? A. 8 B. 80 C. 800 D. 8000 30. The nurse must verify the clients identity before administration of medication. Which of the following is the safest way to identify the client? A. Ask the client his name B. Check the clients identification band C. State the clients name aloud and have the client repeat it D. Check the room number 31. The nurse prepares to administer buccal medication. The medicine should be placed A. On the clients skin B. Between the clients cheeks and gums C. Under the clients tongue D. On the clients conjuctiva 32. The nurse administers cleansing enema. The common position for this procedure is A. Sims left lateral B. Dorsal Recumbent C. Supine D. Prone 33. A client complains of difficulty of swallowing, when the nurse try to administer capsule medication. Which of the following measures the nurse should do? A. Dissolve the capsule in a glass of water B. Break the capsule and give the content with an applesauce C. Check the availability of a liquid preparation D. Crash the capsule and place it under the tongue 34. Which of the following is the appropriate route of administration for insulin? A. Intramuscular B. Intradermal C. Subcutaneous D. Intravenous

35. The nurse is ordered to administer ampicillin capsule TID p.o. The nurse should give the medication A. Three times a day orally B. Three times a day after meals C. Two time a day by mouth D. Two times a day before meals 36. Back Care is best describe as: A. Caring for the back by means of massage B. Washing of the back C. Application of cold compress at the back D. Application of hot compress at the back 37. It refers to the preparation of the bed with a new set of linens A. Bed bath B. Bed making C. Bed shampoo D. Bed lining 38. Which of the following is the most important purpose of handwashing A. To promote hand circulation B. To prevent the transfer of microorganism C. To avoid touching the client with a dirty hand D. To provide comfort 39. What should be done in order to prevent contaminating of the environment in bed making? A. Avoid funning soiled linens B. Strip all linens at the same time C. Finished both sides at the time D. Embrace soiled linen 40. The most important purpose of cleansing bed bath is: A. To cleanse, refresh and give comfort to the client who must remain in bed B. To expose the necessary parts of the body C. To develop skills in bed bath D. To check the body temperature of the client in bed 41. Which of the following technique involves the sense of sight? A. Inspection B. Palpation C. Percussion D. Auscultation 42. The first techniques used examining the abdomen of a client is:

A. Palpation B. Auscultation C. Percussion D. Inspection 43. A technique in physical examination that is use to assess the movement of air through the tracheobronchial tree: A. Palpation B. Auscultation C. Inspection D. Percussion 44. An instrument used for auscultation is: A. Percussion-hammer B. Audiometer C. Stethoscope D. Sphygmomanometer 45. Resonance is best describe as: A. Sounds created by air filled lungs B. Short, high pitch and thudding C. Moderately loud with musical quality D. Drum-like 46. The best position for examining the rectum is: A. Prone B. Sims C. Knee-chest D. Lithotomy 47. It refers to the manner of walking A. Gait B. Range of motion C. Flexion and extension D. Hopping 48. The nurse asked the client to read the Snellen chart. Which of the following is tested: A. Optic B. Olfactory C. Oculomotor D. Troclear 49. Another name for knee-chest position is:

A. Genu-dorsal B. Genu-pectoral C. Lithotomy D. Sims 50. The nurse prepare IM injection that is irritating to the subcutaneous tissue. Which of the following is the best action in order to prevent tracking of the medication A. Use a small gauge needle B. Apply ice on the injection site C. Administer at a 45 angle D. Use the Z-track technique

Answers for this Exam

Answers for the questions are in bold 1. Using the principles of standard precautions, the nurse would wear gloves in what nursing interventions? A. Providing a back massage B. Feeding a client C. Providing hair care D. Providing oral hygiene 2. The nurse is preparing to take vital sign in an alert client admitted to the hospital with dehydration secondary to vomiting and diarrhea. What is the best method used to assess the clients temperature? A. Oral B. Axillary C. Radial D. Heat sensitive tape 3. A nurse obtained a clients pulse and found the rate to be above normal. The nurse document this findings as: A. Tachypnea B. Hyper pyrexia C. Arrythmia D. Tachycardia 4. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to use a wide base support when assisting a client to get up in a chair? A. Bend at the waist and place arms under the clients arms and lift B. Face the client, bend knees and place hands on clients forearm and lift C. Spread his or her feet apart D. Tighten his or her pelvic muscles 5. A client had oral surgery following a motor vehicle accident. The nurse assessing the client finds the skin flushed and warm. Which of the following would be the best method to take the clients body temperature? A. Oral B. Axillary C. Arterial line D. Rectal 6. A client who is unconscious needs frequent mouth care. When performing a mouth care, the best position of a client is: A. Fowlers position B. Side lying C. Supine D. Trendelenburg 7. A client is hospitalized for the first time, which of the following actions ensure the safety of the client? A. Keep unnecessary furniture out of the way B. Keep the lights on at all time C. Keep side rails up at all time D. Keep all equipment out of view 8. A walk-in client enters into the clinic with a chief complaint of abdominal pain and diarrhea. The nurse takes the clients vital sign hereafter. What phrase of nursing process is being implemented here by the nurse?

A. Assessment B. Diagnosis C. Planning D. Implementation 9. It is best describe as a systematic, rational method of planning and providing nursing care for individual, families, group and community A. Assessment B. Nursing Process C. Diagnosis D. Implementation 10. Exchange of gases takes place in which of the following organ? A. Kidney B. Lungs C. Liver D. Heart 11. The Chamber of the heart that receives oxygenated blood from the lungs is the? A. Left atrium B. Right atrium C. Left ventricle D. Right ventricle 12. A muscular enlarge pouch or sac that lies slightly to the left which is used for temporary storage of food A. Gallbladder B. Urinary bladder C. Stomach D. Lungs 13. The ability of the body to defend itself against scientific invading agent such as baceria, toxin, viruses and foreign body A. Hormones B. Secretion C. Immunity D. Glands 14. Hormones secreted by Islets of Langerhans A. Progesterone B. Testosterone C. Insulin D. Hemoglobin 15. It is a transparent membrane that focuses the light that enters the eyes to the retina. A. Lens B. Sclera C. Cornea D. Pupils 16. Which of the following is included in Orems theory? A. Maintenance of a sufficient intake of air

B. Self perception C. Love and belonging D. Physiologic needs 17. Which of the following cluster of data belong to Maslows hierarchy of needs A. Love and belonging B. Physiologic needs C. Self actualization D. All of the above 18. This is characterized by severe symptoms relatively of short duration. A. Chronic Illness B. Acute Illness C. Pain D. Syndrome 19. Which of the following is the nurses role in the health promotion A. Health risk appraisal B. Teach client to be effective health consumer C. Worksite wellness D. None of the above 20. It is describe as a collection of people who share some attributes of their lives. A. Family B. Illness C. Community D. Nursing 21. Five teaspoon is equivalent to how many milliliters (ml)? A. 30 ml B. 25 ml C. 12 ml D. 22 ml 22. 1800 ml is equal to how many liters? A. 1.8 B. 18000 C. 180 D. 2800 23. Which of the following is the abbreviation of drops? A. Gtt. B. Gtts. C. Dp. D. Dr. 24. The abbreviation for micro drop is A. gtt B. gtt C. mdr D. mgts

25. Which of the following is the meaning of PRN? A. When advice B. Immediately C. When necessary D. Now 26. Which of the following is the appropriate meaning of CBR? A. Cardiac Board Room B. Complete Bathroom C. Complete Bed Rest D. Complete Board Room 27. 1 tsp is equals to how many drops? A. 15 B. 60 C. 10 D. 30 28. 20 cc is equal to how many ml? A. 2 B. 20 C. 2000 D. 20000 29. 1 cup is equals to how many ounces? A. 8 B. 80 C. 800 D. 8000 30. The nurse must verify the clients identity before administration of medication. Which of the following is the safest way to identify the client? A. Ask the client his name B. Check the clients identification band C. State the clients name aloud and have the client repeat it D. Check the room number 31. The nurse prepares to administer buccal medication. The medicine should be placed A. On the clients skin B. Between the clients cheeks and gums C. Under the clients tongue D. On the clients conjuctiva 32. The nurse administers cleansing enema. The common position for this procedure is A. Sims left lateral B. Dorsal Recumbent C. Supine D. Prone 33. A client complains of difficulty of swallowing, when the nurse try to administer capsule medication. Which of the following measures the nurse should do?

A. Dissolve the capsule in a glass of water B. Break the capsule and give the content with an applesauce C. Check the availability of a liquid preparation D. Crash the capsule and place it under the tongue 34. Which of the following is the appropriate route of administration for insulin? A. Intramuscular B. Intradermal C. Subcutaneous D. Intravenous 35. The nurse is ordered to administer ampicillin capsule TID p.o. The nurse shoud give the medication A. Three times a day orally B. Three times a day after meals C. Two time a day by mouth D. Two times a day before meals 36. Back Care is best describe as: A. Caring for the back by means of massage B. Washing of the back C. Application of cold compress at the back D. Application of hot compress at the back 37. It refers to the preparation of the bed with a new set of linens A. Bed bath B. Bed making C. Bed shampoo D. Bed lining 38. Which of the following is the most important purpose of handwashing A. To promote hand circulation B. To prevent the transfer of microorganism C. To avoid touching the client with a dirty hand D. To provide comfort 39. What should be done in order to prevent contaminating of the environment in bed making? A. Avoid funning soiled linens B. Strip all linens at the same time C. Finished both sides at the time D. Embrace soiled linen 40. The most important purpose of cleansing bed bath is: A. To cleanse, refresh and give comfort to the client who must remain in bed B. To expose the necessary parts of the body C. To develop skills in bed bath D. To check the body temperature of the client in bed 41. Which of the following technique involves the sense of sight? A. Inspection B. Palpation

C. Percussion D. Auscultation 42. The first techniques used examining the abdomen of a client is: A. Palpation B. Auscultation C. Percussion D. Inspection 43. A technique in physical examination that is use to assess the movement of air through the tracheobronchial tree: A. Palpation B. Auscultation C. Inspection D. Percussion 44. An instrument used for auscultation is: A. Percussion-hammer B. Audiometer C. Stethoscope D. Sphygmomanometer 45. Resonance is best describe as: A. Sounds created by air filled lungs B. Short, high pitch and thudding C. Moderately loud with musical quality D. Drum-like 46. The best position for examining the rectum is: A. Prone B. Sims C. Knee-chest D. Lithotomy 47. It refers to the manner of walking A. Gait B. Range of motion C. Flexion and extension D. Hopping 48. The nurse asked the client to read the Snellen chart. Which of the following is tested: A. Optic B. Olfactory C. Oculomotor D. Troclear 49. Another name for knee-chest position is: A. Genu-dorsal B. Genu-pectoral C. Lithotomy D. Sims

50. The nurse prepare IM injection that is irritating to the subcutaneous tissue. Which of the following is the best action in order to prevent tracking of the medication A. Use a small gauge needle B. Apply ice on the injection site C. Administer at a 45 angle D. Use the Z-track technique

Question 1 The Tetanus Toxoid vaccine is given to protect women against tetanus and also prevent neonatal tetanus in their newborn infants. The TT5 vaccine gives this duration of protection for the mother: a. 3 years b. 5 years c. 10 years d. lifetime You answered "lifetime". This is the correct answer. Reference: The TT2 vaccine gives 3 years protection, the TT3 vaccine gives 5 years and the TT4 vaccine gives 10 years. Question 2 The minimum interval between doses of Oral Polio vaccines: a. 4 weeks b. 6 weeks c. 3 weeks d. 2 weeks You answered "4 weeks". This is the correct answer. Reference: There are three (3) doses of the oral polio vaccine (OPV) and the minimum interval between doses is four (4) weeks. Question 3 The BCG vaccine is a: a. live, attenuated bacteria b. killed bacteria c. weakened toxin d. weakened virus. The correct answer is: "live, attenuated bacteria"

Reference: The pertussis vaccine is a killed bacteria, the diphtheria and tetanus vaccines are weakened toxins and the oral polio vaccine (OPV) is a weakened virus.

Question 4 The drug of choice for Leptospirosis is: a. Doxycycline b. Ethambutol c. Isoniazid d. Pyrazinamide You answered "Doxycycline". This is the correct answer. Reference: Ethambutol, isoniazid, and pyrazinamide (also rifampicin and streptomycin) are all first-line anti-tuberculosis drugs.

Question 5 A Gram-positive bacteria commonly isolated from the throat in people who do not have pneumonia: a. Streptococcus pneumoniae b. Staphylococcus aureus c. Pseudonomas aeruginosa d. Legionella pneumophila You answered "Streptococcus pneumoniae". This is the correct answer. Reference: All the rest ARE NOT Gram-positive bacteria's.

Question 6 What is the dosage in mL of DPT, Hepatitis B and Measles vaccines? a. 0.5 mL b. 0.2 mL c. 0.05 mL d. 0.8 mL The correct answer is: "0.5 mL" Reference: The Hepatitis B and Measles vaccines dosage is 0.5 mL. Question 7 A World Health Organization (WHO) program with the goal to make vaccines available to all children throughout the world:

a. Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI) b. National Immunization Days (NID) c. Garantisadong Pambata (GP) d. Knock-Out Polio (KOP) The correct answer is: "Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI)" Reference: The World Health Organization (WHO) initiated the Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI) in May 1974 with the objective to vaccinate children throughout the world. National Immunization Days (NID), Knock Out Polio (KOP) and Garantisadong Pambata (GP) are special campaigns by the DOH to further improve the implementation of WHO's EPI program.

Question 8 A condition/category of pneumonia in patients with recent close-contact with the health care system but are not hospitalised: a. healthcare-associated pneumonia (HCAP) b. community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) c. hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP) d. ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) The correct answer is: "healthcare-associated pneumonia (HCAP)" Reference: Healthcare-associated pneumonia (HCAP) is a category of pneumonia in patients with recent close contact with the health care system. HCAP is a condition in patients who are not hospitalised (similar to community-acquired pneumonia, CAP) but its causes, prognosis, prevention and treatment are more similar to hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP).

Question 9 A term used to describe one of several diseases in which individuals who have not recently been hospitalized develop an infection of the lungs (pneumonia): a. community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) b. healthcare-associated pneumonia (HCAP) c. hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP) d. ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) The correct answer is: "community-acquired pneumonia (CAP)" Reference: Community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) is a term used to describe one of several diseases in which individuals who have not recently been hospitalized develop an infection of the lungs (pneumonia). CAP is a common illness and can affect people of all ages. CAP often causes problems like difficulty in breathing, fever, chest pains, and a cough. CAP occurs because the areas of the lung which absorb oxygen (alveoli) from the atmosphere become filled with fluid and cannot work effectively.

Question 10 One (1) dose of the Measles vaccine is given at this age: a. at birth or anytime after birth b. 6 weeks c. 9 months d. 12 months The correct answer is: "9 months" Reference: The Measles vaccine is given to a child of 9 months of age. The DPT vaccine and Oral Polio vaccine is given at 6 weeks. The BCG vaccine is given at the earliest possible age. A child is said to be fully-immunized after receiving the seven (7) vaccine-preventable diseases before 12 months of age.

Question 11 The herpes simplex virus (HSV) is seen mainly in: a. newborns b. toddlers c. school-age children d. infants The correct answer is: "newborns" Reference: The herpes simplex virus (HSV) is MORE COMMON IN NEWBORNS more than in any other age group mentioned.

Question 12 DPT vaccine stands for: a. Diphtheria-Pertussis-Tetanus Vaccine b. Diphtheria-Polio-Tetanus Vaccine c. Diphtheria-Pertussis-Toxoid Vaccine d. Diphtheria-Polio-Toxoid Vaccine The correct answer is: "Diphtheria-Pertussis-Tetanus Vaccine" Reference: DPT stands for "Diphtheria-Pertussis-Tetanus". Question 13 The earliest possible age that the BCG vaccine can be given: a. at birth or anytime after birth b. at least 6 weeks later c. at least 9 weeks later d. as early as possible during pregnancy

You answered "at birth or anytime after birth". This is the correct answer. Reference: The Bacillus Calmette-Gurin (BCG) vaccine given at earliest possible age protects the possibility of TB meningitis and other TB infections in which infants are prone. The DPT vaccine and Oral Polio vaccine is given at 6 weeks while the Measles vaccine is given at 9 months. The Tetanus Toxoid vaccine (TT1) is given to the mother as early as possible during pregnancy.

Question 14 The most common cause of pneumonia in children: a. virus b. bacteria c. fungi d. parasite You answered "virus". This is the correct answer. Reference: BACTERIAS are the most common cause of pneumonia in ADULTS. Fungi and parasites are less common causes of pneumonia. Question 15 Herpes simplex virus and varicella-zoster virus infections are usually treated with: a. aciclovir b. no known treatment c. ribavirin d. ganciclovir The correct answer is: "aciclovir" Reference: GANCICLOVIR is used to treat cytomegalovirus (CMV) while RIBAVIRIN may be used to treat respiratory syncytial virus (RSV).

Question 16 A child is said to be fully-immunized after completing THE FOLLOWING SET OF DOSES of vaccines before 12 months of age: a. 1 dose of BCG vaccine, 3 doses of DPT vaccine, 3 doses of Oral Polio vaccine, 3 doses of HB vaccine and 1 dose of measles vaccine b. 1 dose of BCG vaccine, 2 doses of DPT vaccine, 3 doses of Oral Polio vaccine, 3 doses of HB vaccine and 1 dose of measles vaccine c. 1 dose of BCG vaccine, 3 doses of DPT vaccine, 3 doses of Oral Polio vaccine, 1 dose of HB vaccine and

1 dose of measles vaccine d. 3 doses of BCG vaccine, 3 doses of DPT vaccine, 3 doses of Oral Polio vaccine, 1 dose of HB vaccine and 1 dose of measles vaccine You answered "1 dose of BCG vaccine, 3 doses of DPT vaccine, 3 doses of Oral Polio vaccine, 3 doses of HB vaccine and 1 dose of measles vaccine". This is the correct answer. Reference: A fully-immunized child (FIC) is supposed to have received 1 dose of BCG vaccine, 3 doses of DPT vaccine, 3 doses of Oral Polio vaccine (OPV), 3 doses of Hepatitis B vaccine and 1 dose of Measles vaccine.

Question 17 The route of administration of the Diphtheria-Pertussis-Tetanus (DPT) Vaccine: a. Intradermal b. Intramuscular c. Subcutaneous d. Oral The correct answer is: "Intramuscular" Reference: The DPT vaccine is given intramuscularly, BCG is given intradermally, the measles vaccine is given subcutaneously and the polio vaccine is given orally.

Question 18 A pneumonia caused by a virus is called: a. viral pneumonia b. influenza virus c. respiratory syncytial virus d. human parainfluenza virus The correct answer is: "viral pneumonia" Reference: All the rest are COMMON CAUSES of viral pneumonia.

Question 19 Pneumonia occurring more than 48 hours after patients have been intubated and received mechanical ventilation via tracheostomy or endotracheal tube: a. ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) b. hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP) c. community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) d. healthcare-associated pneumonia (HCAP)

The correct answer is: "ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)" Reference: Ventilator-associated pneumonia is defined as pneumonia occurring more than 48 hours after patients have been intubated and received mechanical ventilation.

Question 20 Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) may be treated with: a. ribavirin b. aciclovir c. ganciclovir d. no known treatment

The correct answer is: "ribavirin" Reference: Herpes simplex virus and varicella-zoster virus infections are usually treated with ACICLOVIR, while cytomegalovirus (CMV) is treated with GANCICLOVIR.

Question 21 The name of the vaccine that protects the possibility of TB meningitis and other TB infections in which infants are prone: a. Bacillus Calmette-Gurin (BCG) b. Bacillus cereus c. Bacillus anthracis d. Bacillus thuringiensis The correct answer is: "Bacillus Calmette-Gurin (BCG)" Reference: Bacillus Calmette-Gurin (or Bacille Calmette-Gurin, BCG) is a vaccine against tuberculosis that is prepared from a strain of the attenuated (weakened) live bovine tuberculosis bacillus, Mycobacterium bovis, that has lost its virulence in humans by being specially cultured in an artificial medium for years. Bacillus cereus is an endemic, soil-dwelling, Gram-positive, rod-shaped, beta hemolytic bacterium. Some strains are harmful to humans and cause foodborne illness, while other strains can be beneficial as probiotics for animals. Bacillus thuringiensis (or Bt) is a Gram-positive, soildwelling bacterium, commonly used as a biological alternative to a pesticide. Bacillus anthracis is a Gram-positive spore-forming, rod-shaped bacterium that causes anthrax. Question 22 Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is seen mainly in people with: a. immune system problems b. high-grade fever c. internal hemorrhage d. brain and spinal cord injury

You answered "immune system problems". This is the correct answer. Reference: Those patient's whose immune systems have been weakened by disease or drug treatment such as organ transplant recipients (immunosuppressed) or people infected with HIV are susceptible to CMV.

Question 23 All are Gram-negative bacteria, except: a. Haemophilus influenzae b. Klebsiella pneumoniae c. Escherichia coli d. Staphylococcus aureus The correct answer is: "Staphylococcus aureus" Reference: Staphylococcus aureus is THE ONLY Gram-positive bacteria in the choices given. Question 24 Any pneumonia contracted by a patient in a hospital at least 48 to 72 hours after being admitted. It is usually caused by a bacterial infection, rather than a virus. a. healthcare-associated pneumonia (HCAP) b. community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) c. hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP) d. ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) The correct answer is: "hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP)" Reference: Hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP) or nosocomial pneumonia refers to any pneumonia contracted by a patient in a hospital at least 4872 after being admitted. It is usually caused by a bacterial infection, rather than a virus. Question 25 The most common cause of pneumonia in adults: a. bacteria b. fungi c. parasite d. virus The correct answer is: "bacteria" Reference: VIRUSES are the most common cause of pneumonia in CHILDREN. Fungi and parasites are less common causes of pneumonia.

Nursing Research Practice Test

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Question 1 Nursing Research can be classified according to the time frame the research study has been made. As a nurse, you know that the study entitled Knowledge and practice of Staff Nurses in preventing needle prick injuries in a private hospital in Manila is classified as: Basic Research Historical Research Descriptive Research Experimental Research Question 1 Explanation: Descriptive Research This type of research describes the current situation in a given period of time. Question 2 Nursing Research has a lot of purposes. Which of the following category do the study about sociodemographic profile of nursing students and their risk for depression belong? Prescription Exploration Prediction and control Explanation Question 2 Explanation: Exploration Exploratory research is an extension of descriptive research and is more oriented towards the discovery of relationship. Prescription research is intended for both research and practice. Prediction and control may contain prediction of casualty, and control of occurrence of casualty. Explanation research is a type of research that sought after predictions that should be tested with research. Question 3 In an experimental research, as a nurse there must be an essential activity wherein the participants of the study will be able to understand the whole experimental design. This term is called: Desensitization Experimental Proper . Research Proper Debriefing Question 3 Explanation: Debriefing This is the process wherein the subjects of the research must be able to understand what are they about the undergo. This is the fundamental right of being informed. Question 4 Ethics in Nursing Research has always been an issue when it comes to the identity of the respondents. When the topics of research are very sensitive, which of the following rights of individual participants must be ensured when the researcher cannot link the information given by the respondent from the source of the information? Confidentiality Anonymity Virility Volunteerism

Question 4 Explanation: Anonymity This is the fundamental right of individuals who participate in a research. Being anonymous may place the individual respondents information to be free from prejudice. Linking the information from the source or participant is prohibited. Question 5 In starting a focused group discussion, Nurse Dina wants to stress out the confidentiality of the topics that they will be discussing. Which of the following instruction convey confidentiality? This discussion should not only be confined within this group of people. Any information discussed should be told publicly. This discussion should only be confined within this group of people. Any information discussed should not be told publicly. This discussion should not be confined within this group of people. Any information discussed should not be told publicly. This discussion should only be confined within this group of people. Any information discussed should be told publicly. Question 5 Explanation: This discussion should only be confined within this group of people. Any information discussed should not be told publicly. Confidentiality of information means that any information discussed in a certain period of time should not be made available publicly. Question 6 No. 6 10. Situation No.1 Knowledge and practice of prevention of needle prick injuries of Staff Nurses in a certain private hospital in Metro Manila Based on the research title which of the following will be the general objective? This study aims to determine the level of knowledge and practice of prevention of needle prick injuries of Staff Nurses in a certain private hospital. This study aims to determine if there is a significant relationship between levels of knowledge regarding prevention of needle prick injuries and sociodemographic of Staff Nurses in a certain private hospital. The study aims to determine the levels of knowledge regarding prevention of needle prick injuries of Staff Nurses in a certain private hospital. This study aims to determine the sociodemographic of Staff Nurses in a certain private hospital. Question 6 Explanation: This study aims to determine the level of knowledge and practice of prevention of needle prick injuries of Staff Nurses in a certain private hospital. A general objective involves the broad concept of the study. The other options were examples of specific objectives. Question 7 All of these are specific objectives except: This study is for nursing researchers in the future. This study aims to determine if there is a significant relationship between levels of knowledge regarding prevention of needle prick injuries and sociodemographic of Staff Nurses in a certain private hospital. The study aims to determine the levels of knowledge regarding prevention of needle prick injuries of Staff Nurses in a certain

private hospital. This study aims to determine the sociodemographic of Staff Nurses in a certain private hospital. Question 7 Explanation: This study is for nursing researchers in the future. This is not a specific objective rather it is a statement of who will be able benefit the study. Question 8 As a nurse, you know the appropriate data gathering tool, this is? Survey Questionnaire Structured Discussion Interview Method Question 8 Explanation: Questionnaire This is the best data gathering tool. A structured questionnaire can gather the precise information. Question 9 As a nurse, these are the following topics in the scope and limitations except: Limited to the hospital personnel of a private hospital Limited only to the practice of preventing needle prick injuries of nursing personnel The scope of the study involves the knowledge about prevention of needle prick injuries The scope of the study involves the sociodemographic profile of nursing personnel Question 9 Explanation: Limited to the hospital personnel of a private hospital - The study is focused only in nursing personnel. The statement about includes hospital personnel which is not specific. Question 10 Which of the following is not a null hypothesis? There is no relationship between the level of knowledge and practice of prevention of needle prick injuries There is no relationship between the practice of prevention of needle prick injuries and sociodemographic profile of staff nurses There is a significant relationship between the knowledge and sociodemographic profile of staff nurses All of the above. Question 10 Explanation: There is a significant relationship between the knowledge and sociodemographic profile of staff nurses This is positive statement of a hypothesis. Question 11 Which of the following would correspond to Intervene in Nursing Process? Select design plan Report findings Implement planned study Select a plan analysis Question 11 Explanation:

Implement planned study - This is similar to the part of nursing process intervenes. This activity involves consideration with ethical standards. Question 12 Which of the following would correspond to Plan in Nursing Process? Select design plan . Report findings Implement planned study Change the objectives after implementation Question 12 Explanation: Select a design plan As the item denotes, there is a clue already plan. Question 13 When it comes to steps in Problem Solving, which of the following would be similar in research where in you implement the planned study? Theorize about facts and possible relationships Gather, analyse relevant information Report findings Determine information needs Question 13 Explanation: gather, analyse relevant information Gathering and analysing the information can lead to selecting the best solution, this is where implementing the planned study comes in when using the Research perspective. Question 14 Using the Research perspective, when is the time that a nurse makes inferences? Define purpose of review of literature Formulate a problem, define variables Select design sample Report findings Question 14 Explanation: Formulate a problem, define variables A hypothesis is a scientific guess which is similar to making inferences when it comes on the Nursing Process perspective. Question 15 Which of the following is does not belong to the group? Assess: Identify the problem Plan: Theorize Intervene: Gather relevant information Evaluate: Outcomes Question 15 Explanation: Plan: Theorize Planning stage in nursing process involves determining information needs to the problem Question 16 In selecting a problem, these are the following consideration except: Time Factor Talents Cost Data availability Question 16 Explanation: Talents Research skills rather than using the term talent is more appropriate. In research all of the ideas must be stated in a technical form rather than in flowery words.

Question 17 These are the purpose of Review of Related Literature except: Reveal investigations Reveal sources of data Reveal what is the problem Reveal the significant research personalities Question 17 Explanation: Reveal what is the problem This is the purpose of introduction of a research paper. The review of related literature would only place the picture properly whether there is a need for further research or not. Question 18 As a nurse, you know the following a functions of theoretical framework, except: Specifies relationship among the concepts Give a graphic view of the data Clarifies the concept on which the study is built States assumptions Question 18 Explanation: Give a graphic view of the data This is the functions of tables and graphs which are important in showing the results of the study in an organized format. Question 19 Which of the following would not be Qualitative Research? Case study of Myocardial Infarction A Review on Corona Trial A Review on the Nursing Uniform A Review on the Performance in Related Learning Experience of student nurses Question 19 Explanation: A Review on the Performance in Related Learning Experience of student nurses - this is not a qualitative research since it uses measurement tools in order to present the data. Question 20 Using statistics in nursing research is a very vital tool in presenting the data. As a nurse you know the definition of sampling as: Taking certain areas of the population dividing the areas into sections Process of selecting a portion of the population to represent the entire population Using every Nth name from the list of participants Taking any sample as long as it comes up with the quota Question 20 Explanation: process of selecting a portion of the population to represent the entire population It involves many types of sampling as the other definitions would describe stratified random sampling, systematic sampling, purposive sampling. Question 21 In gathering information, as a nurse these are the reliable sources except: Interview Observation Grapevine Records

Question 21 Explanation: Grapevine Rumours are not reliable sources of information. The other items would guarantee reliable results. Question 22 As a nurse educator, you want to know the reasons behind the leave of absences of student nurses. These tool can be used except? Interview Records Pre-Test & Post-Test Questionnaire Question 22 Explanation: e-Test & Post-Test This is not an appropriate tool in gathering the needed data. Since this type of research is descriptive in nature, the other three options can be utilized. Question 23 Upon gathering the data, which of the following can describe the most number of reasons of leave of absence? Median Mode Frequency Deviance Question 23 Explanation: Mode This is numerical value in a distribution that occurs frequently. Question 24 If you want to know the average age of the nursing students who has the most number of leave of absence you will need: Median Mode Mean Deviance Question 24 Explanation: Mean The point on the scale that is equal to the sum of scores divided by the number of scores. Question 25 After all the data presented, what part of descriptive statistics will you use in order to place a systematic arrangement of numerical values from lowest to highest? Deviance Central Tendency Mode Frequency Distribution Question 25 Explanation: Frequency Distribution Deviance shows how disperse a group of samples can from the middle value. Central tendency shows how clustered groups can be in a middle value; mode is an example of central tendency