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IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2008 PAPER I PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS
QUESTION PAPER CODE
Time: 3 Hours INSTRUCTIONS:
DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS ON THIS BOOKLET, AWAIT INSTRUCTIONS FROM THE INVIGILATOR
Maximum Marks: 243
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
A. General 1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 66 questions. The booklet has 26 pages. 2. This question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet. 3. This question paper contains 1 blank page for your rough work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
5. Fill in the boxes provided below on this page and also write your Name and Enrollment No. in the space provided on the back page (page no. 26) of this booklet. 6. This booklet also contains the answer sheet (i.e., a machine gradable response sheet) ORS. 7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET. B. Filling the ORS 8. On the lower part of the ORS, write in ink, your name in box L1, your Enrollment No. in box L2 and Name of the Centre in box L3. Do not write these anywhere else. 9. Put your signature in ink in box L4 on the ORS. C. Question paper format: Read the instructions printed on the back page (page no. 26) of this booklet. D. Marking scheme: Read the instructions on the back page (page no. 26) of this booklet.
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Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd.
IIT/STS III/PCM/P(I)/Qns - 1
SEAL
Name: .
Enrollment No.:
SEAL
4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.
PART A : PHYSICS SECTION I Straight Objective Type This section contains questions 1 to 9. Each question has four choices out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 1. A rope of length L is pulled by a constant force F. What is the tension in the rope at a distance x from one end when the force is applied? (A) (C) FL x FL L x (B) (D) F L L Fx L x x
2. A uniform chain of length L and mass M is lying on a smooth table and one third of its length is hanging vertically down on the edge of the table. If g is the acceleration due to gravity, the work done to pull the hanging part on to the table is (A) MgL (B) MgL 3 (C) MgL 9 (D) MgL 18
3. A boat floating in water tank is carrying a large number of stones. If stones were unloaded in water, what will happen to the water level? (A) Water level will come down (B) Water level will go up (C) Water level will remain the same (D) Water level first rises and then come down 4. If the resistance of a circuit having 12 volt source is increased by 4 ohms, the current drops by 0.5 amp. What is the original resistance in the circuit? (A) 8 ohms (B) 6 ohms (C) 10 ohms (D) 4 ohms
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
5. 5.5 10
flux lines are passing through a coil of resistance 10 ohms and number
5
of turns 1000. If the number of flux lines reduces to 5 10 the current induced in the coil. (A) 1 ampere
7
in 0.1 second, find
(B) 0.5 ampere
(C) 2 ampere
(D) 0.75 ampere

7
6. A photoelectric surface is irradiated in turn by waves of = 3.5 10
m and
= 5.4 10 m respectively. The ratio of stopping potential in these two cases is 2 : 1. What is the work function of the metal surface? (A) 1.05 eV (B) 2.1 eV (C) 4 eV (D) 2.8 eV
7. The energy of an excited hydrogen atom is 3.4 eV. Calculate its angular momentum using Bohr s theory. (A) 2.11 10 (C) 10
34 34
Js
(B) 4.22 10 (D) 6.6 10
34
Js
Js
34
Js
8. If R is universal gas constant, the amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of 2 moles of an ideal monoatomic gas from 273 K to 373 K, when no work is done is (A) 100 R (B) 150 R (C) 300 R (D) 500 R
3
9. The frequency of a note next higher to fundamental as given by a rod of an alloy 1 m long clamped at middle is 1000 Hz. If the density is 7500 kg/m , its Young s modulus is (A) (C) 1 2 1 4 10
10
N/ m
(B) (D)
1 3 1 5
10
10
N/ m
10
10
N/ m
10
10
N/ m
SECTION II Assertion-Reason Type This section contains 4 questions numbered 10 to 13. Each question contains STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (A) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is True; Statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement 1. (B) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is True; Statement 2 is not a correct explanation for Statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is False. (D) Statement 1 is False, Statement 2 is True. 10. Statement 1: because Statement 2: There must be a variation in magnetic field with time so that there is a change in magnetic flux with time which is responsible for induced e.m.f. The velocity, wavelength and frequency all undergo a change when a wave travels from one medium into another. The frequency does not change when a wave travels from one medium to another. The gravitational attraction of the moon is much less than that of the earth.
2
A coil of metal wire is kept stationary in a non-uniform magnetic field and an e.m.f is induced in the coil.
11. Statement 1: because Statement 2: 12. Statement 1: because Statement 2:
The gravitational force for a given mass depends upon M/r which is smaller for moon. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
13. Statement 1: because Statement 2:
The total energy of a body in motion is equal to the work it can do in being brought to rest.
It is not the total energy but only the kinetic energy that is used up when the body is brought to rest. SECTION III
Paragraph for Question Nos. 14 to 16 Two boys simultaneously aim their guns at a bird sitting on a tower. The first boy releases his shot with speed 100 m/s at an angle of 30. The second boy is ahead of the first by a distance of 50 m and releases his shot with speed 80 m/s. Both the shots hit the bird simultaneously. 14. After what time the two shots hit the bird? (A) 2.07 s (C) 3.2 s 15. What is the height of the tower? (A) 82.5 m (C) 75 m (B) 100 m (D) 120 m (B) 1.9 s (D) 4 s
16. Assuming the masses of two shots to be identical and the energy of the shot at the time of impact as a measure of the share of each boy, determine their relative shares. (A) 7 : 4 (C) 6 : 5 (B) 5 : 8 (D) 3 : 2
Paragraph for Question Nos. 17 to 19 An object is placed at a distance of x cm from a concave mirror and its real image is formed on a screen at a distance of y cm from the mirror. The focal length of the mirror is z. 17. Which of the following graphs represent the variation of (I) (II) 1 y against 1 x ?
(III)
(IV)
(A) Fig. III
(B) Fig. II 1 y when 1 x
(C) Fig. I is zero? (C) z

2
(D) Fig. IV
18. What is the value of (A) z
(B) z
(D)
1 z
19. What is the magnification m? (A) m = (C) m = z z y y z y (B) m = (D) m = y y y z z z
SECTION IV Matrix-Match Type This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example. If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly bubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows: p A B C D p p p p q q q q q r r r r r s s s s s
20. Column I gives the axis of rotation pertaining to the moment of inertia of a rectangular lamina of mass M, length L and breadth B. Column II is the values of M.I corresponding to Column I. Column I (A) Length of lamina and in its plane Column II (p) M L 12 (q) M (r) ML 3 L
2 2 2 2
3 B 12
2
(B) Breadth of lamina and in its plane (C) Centre of lamina and perpendicular to its plane (D) Centre of length and perpendicular to its plane. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
(s) MB 3
21.
Column I (A) Value of g at a depth h below the earth (B) Value of acceleration due to gravity at a height h (C) Gravitational potential energy of an orbiting body
Column II (p) (q) GMm r GMm 2r h R

2
(r) g 1
(D) Total mechanical energy of an orbiting body
(s) g
R R h
22.
Column I (A) Average K. E. of a molecule per degree of freedom
Column II (p) 3 2 RT P P
(B) Molecular kinetic energy per molecule of a monoatomic gas (C) Work done during the adiabatic process (D) Work done during the isothermal change
(q) 2.303 nRT log 1 2
(r) (s)
kT nR 1 T T
PART B : CHEMISTRY SECTION I Straight Objective Type This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 23 to 31. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 23. Colloid solutions are not purified by (A) dialysis (C) electrophoresis (A) q = + w (C) E = q
1
(B) electrodialysis (D) ultrafiltration (B) q = 0 (D) PV = 0
24. In an adiabatic process, which of the following is true?
25. The enthalpy of formation of CO2(g), H2O(l) and propene are 393.5, 285.8 and 20.42 kJ mol 33.0 kJ mol
1
. The enthalpy of isomerisation of cyclopropane to propene is

1 1 1
. The heat of combustion of cyclopropane at 298 K is (B) 20.91 kJ mol (D) 20.91 J mol
(A) 209.13 kJ mol
(C) 2091.32 kJ mol
26. When CO2 dissolves in water, the following equilibrium is established, CO

2
2H O
2
H O
3
HCO
7
for which the equilibrium constant is 3.8 10 would be (A) 3.8 10 (C) 6.0
13
and pH = 6.0. The ratio
HCO CO
(B) 3.8 10 (D) 7.5920
10
27. 2 litre of 3 M AgNO3 are reacted with 3 litre of 1 M BaCl2 solution. The molarity of NO
3
in the resulting solution will be (B) 1.5 M (C) 0.5 M (D) 1.8 M
(A) 1.2 M
28. Which is a set of acid salts reacting with base? (A) NaH2PO2, Na2HPO3, NaH2PO4 (B) Na2HPO3, NaH2PO3, Na2HPO4 (C) NaHCO3, NaH2PO3, Na2HPO4 (D) All of these. 29. Cl gas is obtained by various reactions but not by
2 heat
(A) KMnO + conc. HCl

4 heat (B) KCl + K2Cr2O7 + conc. H2SO4
(C) MnO2 + conc. HCl (D) KCl + F2 30. by E1 reaction gives
heat
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
11
31.
. The final product Z is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SECTION II Assertion and Reason Type This section contains 4 questions numbered 32 to 35. Each question contains STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement 1. (B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct explanation for statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False. (D) Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
12
32. Statement 1: because Statement 2: 33. Statement 1: because Statement 2: 34. Statement 1: because Statement 2: 35. Statement 1: because Statement 2:
CCl4 is readily hydrolysed by water.
CCl is a covalent halide.

4
Aluminium corrodes at a faster rate than magnesium.
o ox
of magnesium is higher than that of aluminium.
Molecularity of a zero order reaction is not zero.
Rate of zero order reaction is independent of concentration of reactant. Addition of bromine to trans-2-butene gives meso-2,3-dibromo butane.
Bromine addition to an alkene is an electrophilic addition. SECTION III
Linked Comprehension Type This section contains two paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Paragraph for Question Nos. 36 to 38 In alkaline medium, H2O2 supplies oxygen nucleophile as the attacking species for the oxidation. H2O2 is an oxidising agent useful for synthesis. It also catalyses many reactions.
13
H H
O O
O O
H H
OH H 2OH O
O + H2O
O + 2H2O
In acidic medium, it probably forms the conjugate acid of H2O2 which can transfer OH moiety of the protonated H O to the unshared pair of electrons of the element of the substrate.
2 2
H HO
H O
2
36. Styrene is treated with H2O2 and then acidified with sulphuric acid. The products formed are C6H5 CH = CH2
(2) H 2SO 4 (1) H 2O 2
(A) CH3COCH3 and C6H5OH (B) CH3 CHO and C6H5OH (C) C6H5COCH3 and CH3 OH (D) C6H5 CO CH3 and C2H5 OH
14
37. p-hydroxy benzaldehyde is treated with alkaline H2O2. What is the product formed? (A) (B)
(C)
(D)
O 38. CH
3
C = C C R ?
OsO
H O and 2 2 4
H H
The product of the reaction is O (A) CH

3
OH R (B) CH
3
CH OH
CH OH
2
CH OH
CH = C
(C) CH
CH
CH
CH OH
(D) CH
CH = CH
C O
OH
Paragraph for Question Nos. 39 to 41 The change in concentration of reactant or product in unit time is called rate or velocity of a chemical reaction. Ionic reactions are very fast while reaction between molecules has measurable rate. This is because covalent bond breaking as well as SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
15
bond formation are time consuming processes. The rate law equation can be written as n dc = kc where n is called order of the reaction. It is an experimental quantity dt while molecularity is the number of molecules of reactant taking part in each elementary step. When the reaction takes place in multiple steps, the slowest step is the rate determining step. The rate constant depends on the temperature at which the reaction takes place. The relationship between rate constant and temperature is given by Arrhenius equation. 39. Decomposition of ethylene oxide into CH4 and CO follows first order rate law equation. The rate constant of the reaction is given by log k (s
1
) = 14.34
1.25 10 T
. What is the value of activation energy of the
reaction? (A) 239.34 kJ mol (C) 10

14.34 1
(B) 239.34 J mol (D) 10

14.34
40. For which type of reactions, the rate and rate constant are the same? (A) First order (C) Second order
k
(B) Zero order (D) Fractional order

1 2
41. For the reaction, 2NO2 (A) d NO dt d N O

2 4 2
N2O4, the rate of reaction is expressed as (B) 2 d NO dt 1 2 d N O

2 4 2
(C)
dt
= k
NO
2 2
k N O
2 2
(D)
dt
16
SECTION IV Matrix-Match Type This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example. If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly bubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows: p A B C D 42. Column I (A) Isothermal process (B) Adiabatic process (C) Joule-Thomson expansion (D) Cyclic process p p p p q q q q q r r r r r s s s s s Column II (p) T = 0 (q) H = 0 (r) T 0 (s) E 0
17
43.
Column I (A) PCl5 (B) SeO2 (C) NaOH + Iodine (D) CH3 Mg Br
Column II (p) CH CHO

3
(q) CH3 CHOH CH3 (r) C H CO CH

6 5 3
(s) CH3 COOH Column II (p) sp (q) sp (r) linear (s) angular
2
44.
Column I (A) NO (B) NO (C) I

2
(D) SO2
18
PART C : MATHEMATICS SECTION I Straight Objective Type This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 45 to 53. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 45. In any ABC with usual notation, if is any angle, then a cos (B ) + b cos (A + ) is (A) c cos 46. The value of cos (A) 47. If 4 cos 2x cos x (B) c sin
1
(C) a cos
1
(D) b cos is (D) 2
cos 2 cot 5 4
2 (C)
1 3 4
(B)
cos 2 cos
dx = 2 f x
Ax
B, then the ordered pair (f(x), A) is
(A) (sin x, cos ) (C) (sin x, 2 sin )
(B) (sin x, 2 cos ) (D) (sin x, tan )
48. a, b are the position vectors of the point P, Q with respect to the origin. The points R and S divide PQ internally and externally in the ratio 3 : 5 and OR is perpendicular to OS and a = a, b = b. Then (A) 9a = 25b (C) a = b
2 2 2 2
(B) 25a = 9b (D) a = 5b

2 2
19
49. There is a six volume dictionary numbered 1 to 6 among 60 books arranged on a shelf in random order. If the volumes are not necessarily kept side by side, the probability that the volumes occur in increasing order from left to right is (A) 1 6 (B) 1 6
60
(C)
1 60
6
(D)
1 720
50. For k [, 2 ], the number of critical points of f x = (A) 1 1 3 sink tan x (B) 2 a m
3
sin k
1 tan x (C) 0
2
k 8
2 k
is (D) 3
2
51. The line y = mx m is (A) a b (B) 1 x

3
is a tangent to y = 4ax also it is a tangent to x = 4by. Then
b a ln 1 e z x 1 1 x x is
(C)
a b
(D) 1
52. The value of lim
x0
(A) e
(B)
(C) 1 x , z x y y , x
(D) y z z are in
53. If x, y, z are in H.P., then y (A) A.P. (B) G.P.
(C) H.P.
(D) A.G.P.
20
SECTION II Assertion-Reason Type This section contains 4 questions numbered 54 to 57. Each question contains STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement 1. (B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct explanation for statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False. (D) Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True. 54. Statement 1: because Statement 2: The locus of the points of intersection of perpendicular tangents to x a 55. Statement 1: because Statement 2: P(A B) = P(A) + P(B) P(A B).
2 2 2
The angle between the tangents from (3, 4) to the ellipse 9x + 16y = 144 is 90.
2 2
= 1 is the circle x + y = a + b . 2 3 3 15
If P A =
3 5
and P B =
, then P A B
21
cos x
cos
cos x cos
x is independent of x.
If f (x) = 0, then f(x) is a constant. a, b, c are real, and the equation ax + bx + c = 0 has complex roots, then c (a b + c) is greater than zero.
2 2
a, b, c are real, and the equation ax + bx + c = 0 has complex roots, then for any real , f( ) and f() are of the same sign. SECTION III
Linked Comprehension Type This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Paragraph for Question Nos. 58 to 60 The equation to the tangent (x1, y1 ) to the curve y = f(x) is y Equation to the normal to the same curve is y y =
1
y =
1
dy dx
x , y
1 1
x .
1
1 dy dx
x ,y
1 1
x .
1
58. The equation of the tangent to the curve y = e line x = 1 is (A) x + y = 2e (C) x ey + 2 = 0
|x|
at the point where it cuts the
(B) e(x + y) + 1 = 0 (D) x + ey 2 = 0 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
22
59. If tan is the slope of the tangent to the curve e = 1 + x , then (A) | tan | < 1 (C) | tan | 1
2
(B) | tan | > 1 (D) tan < 1

3 3
60. The equation to the normal to the curve x + y = 8xy at the point other than the origin where it intersects y = 4x is (A) y = x (B) y = x (C) y = 4x (D) y = 4x
Paragraph for Question Nos. 61 to 63 z is a complex number and z = r (cos + i sin ), where r 0 and < . 61. If z = 1 + cos + i sin where < < 2, then |z| is (A) 2 + 2 cos (C) 62. If z = (A) 6 6 5 2 cos 3 2
3
(B) 2 cos (D) cos i, then amp z is equal to (B) 3 cos 10 6 5 (C) 3 2
(D)
63. If z = sin 9 10
i 1
, then amp z is 3 5 6 5
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
23
SECTION IV Matrix-Match Type This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example. If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly bubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows: p A B C D Column I 64.(A) If in ABC, (a + b + c) (b + c a) = bc, then A is (B) If in ABC, a = 2b and A then C is (C) The value of tan
sin x
2
q q q q q
r r r r r
s s s s s Column II (p) 60
p p p p
B =
(q) 120
1
2
2 + tan
3 is
(r) 30 (s) 135
(D) If 81 81 = 30, then the least value of x (x 0) is
cos x
24
Column I 65.(A)
Column II sin x
2
x 1 1 sin x sin x 1 2
2
dx
(p)
cos x cos x cos x cos 2x dx

1 3 2
(B)
dx
(q) 2
(C)
(r) 0
cos x
2
(D)
sin x
sin
t dt
cos
t dt
(s) 2
Column I 66. (A) From the point P(a, b, c) perpendiculars PL, PM are drawn to yz and zx planes. Then the equation of the plane through M, L and the origin is (B) A variable plane passes through a fixed point (a, b, c) and intersects the coordinate axes in A, B, C. Then the locus of the point common to the planes through A, B, C parallel to the coordinate planes is (C) The intersection of the line x 2y + 4z + 4 = 0, x + y + z 8 = 0 with the plane x y + 2z+ 1 = 0 is (D) The foot of the perpendicular from the origin to the plane 2x + 3y 4z + 1 = 0 is SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
Column II (p) a x b y c z =1
(q) bcx + cay abz = 0
(r)
2 29
29 29
(s) (2, 5, 1)
25
Name: .
Enrollment No.:
C. Question paper format: 10. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part has 4 sections. 11. Section I contains 9 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is correct. 12. Section II contains 4 questions. Each question contains STATEMENT-1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT2 (Reason). Bubble (A) Bubble (B) Bubble (C) if both the statements are TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is the correct explanation of STATEMENT-1. if both the statements are TRUE but STATEMENT-2 is not the correct explanation of STATEMENT-1. if STATEMENT-1 is TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is FALSE.
Bubble (D) if STATEMENT-1 is FALSE and STATEMENT-2 is TRUE. 13. Section III contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is correct. 14. Section IV contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in 2 columns. Statements in the first column have to be matched with statements in the second column. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled in the ORS as per the instructions given at the beginning of the section. D. Marking scheme: 15. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded. 16. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded. 17. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded. 18. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 6 marks if you darken ALL the bubbles corresponding ONLY to the correct answer. No negative mark will be awarded for an incorrectly bubbled answer.
IIT-JEE 2008 BRILLIANT S STS III/PCM/P(I)/SOLNS HOME BASED FULL-SYLLABUS SIMULATOR TEST SERIES
IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2008 PAPER I - SOLUTIONS PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS PART A: PHYSICS
SECTION I 1. (B) Let L be the length of the string. Let F be the force applied at end B. Mass per unit length = M L
P is a point distant x from B. If T is the tension at P in the rope, it is towards right in the part AP while in the part PB it is towards left. If a is the acceleration in part PB of the rope. F T = mass of PB a FT= M L xa ... (1)
For AP, T = mass of AP a T= a = M L (L x) a
TL M L x T = M L x xT TL = M L x L x
IIT/STS III/PCM/P(I)/Solns - 1
Substituting in equation (1), F

F = T T =
xT L F L L x x
= T
L L x
2. (D) Given the length of hanging part is
M Mg . so that its mass is , weight = 3 3 3 L It is acting through G at a distance from edge of table. 6 Mg 3 L 6
Work done = Increase in P.E. = =
MgL 18
3. (A) Suppose W and w be the weights of boat and stones. When the boat is floating it is displacing (W + w) of water. Secondly we consider that the stones are unloaded. The boat displaces only W 1 c.c of water. It is the w density of stones the volume of water displaced by stones, = . As > 1, w < w. In this case total volume of water displaced is < W w . This shows that the volume of water displaced in the second case is less than that volume of water displaced in the first case. The level of water therefore comes down. W 4. (A) Let R be the amplitude resistance. Then i 1 = 12 R . 12 R 4 w . W w
In the second case i2 = i1 0.5 = Solving, 12 R 1 12 = 2 R 4
(24 R) (R + 4) = 24R R2 + 4R 96 = 0 R = 4 16 2 384 = 4 20 2 =8

5. (B) Change of flux = 2 1 = (5 10
5.5 10 )
5
= 50 10 e = Nd dt = 50 10 0.1 5 10
5
Wb
1000
=5V Current =
0 0
e R
= 0.5 A
6. (A) 2 =
1 2
2 1
Given: 1 = 3.5 10
m, 2 = 5.4 10
7
Solving, 0 = 11.8 10 W = hc
0
m
34
6.6 10 11.8 10
3 10
8 19
eV = 1.05 eV
1.6 10
7. (A) Energy of electron in nth level = 3.4 = 13.6 n n=2

2
13.6 n
2
According to Bohr s theory, the angular momentum =
nh 2
34
= 2 6.62 10 2 3.14 = 2.10 10

34
Js.
8. (C) Since no work is done, there is no change in volume. The specific heat of a 3 monoatomic gas at constant volume is R. 2 Heat needed in this case = 2 3 2 R 373 273
= 300 R
Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS III/PCM/P(I)/Solns - 3
9. (B) In the case of a rod clamped at its midpoint, only odd harmonics can be executed, so that the note next to fundamental has thrice the frequency of fundamental. n = Y = 3 2l Y or 1000 = 3 2 1 Y 7500
10 2 1 10 N m 3
SECTION II 10. (D) 11. (D) 12. (A) 13. (D) SECTION III 14. (A) Let the shots hit the bird at some time t. First shot: horizontal displacement = x1 vertical displacement = h Second shot: horizontal displacement = x2 vertical displacement = h x1 = x2 + 50 and h is the height of tower
h = (100 sin 30) t h = (80 sin )t
1 9.8 t2 2
1 9.8 t2 2
2 2
(100 sin 30) t 4.9 t = 80 sin t 4.9t sin = = sin

1
100 sin 30 80
50 = 0.625 80 cos = 39 = 0.78 8
(0.625)
x1 = (100 cos 30) t and x2 = 80 cos () t

x1 x2 = 50 t(86.6 62.4) = 50 t = 50 = 2.07 s 24.2 1 2 9.8 t

2 2
15. (A) h = 100 sin 30 t
= 50 2.07 4.9 (2.07) = 82.5 m
16. (A) Horizontal component of velocity of the first shot after 2.07 s = 100 cos 30 = 86.6 m/s Vertical component of velocity of first shot after 2.07 s = 100 sin 30 9.8 2.07 = 29.72 m/s Resultant velocity = 86.6
2 2
29.72
v1 = 91.56 m/s Horizontal component of velocity of second shot after 2.07 s = 80 0.78 = 62.4 m/s Vertical component of second shot = 80 0.625 9.8 2.07 = 29.72 m/s Resultant velocity = 62.4
2 2
29.7
= 69.1 m/s
2
Since the masses are identical their energies are proportional to (91.56) and 2 2 2 (69.1) respectively. Thus ratio (91.56) : (69.1) = 1.75 nearly. The shares of the boys are in the ratio 1.75 : 1 = 7 : 4. 17. (A) For concave mirror, 1 y 1 x = 1 z 1 y = 1 x 1. z
So slope should be negative. 18. (D) When 1 = 0, x = x
The object is at infinity. image distance = focal length 1 y = 1 z

19. (A) 1 x y x
1 y
1 z y z
1 =
But magnification m = y x m = y z 1 = z z SECTION IV 20. (A) (s), (B) (r), (C) (q), (D) (p) 21. (A) (r), (B) (s), (C) (p), (D) (q) 22. (A) (r), (B) (p), (C) (s), (D) (q) y
PART B : CHEMISTRY
SECTION I
23. (C) Colloids are not purified by electrophoresis because the charge of colloid is neutralized at the oppositely charged electrode. 24. (B) In an adiabatic process, the system is thermally insulated so that there is no exchange of heat. Hence q = 0. 25. (C) C + O2 CO2(g) H 1
2
H1 = 393.5 kJ mol
1 1
O H2O(l)
2
H2 = 285.8 kJ mol H3 = 20.42 kJ mol
3C + 3H2 C3H6(g) Propene
H = 33.0 (3 393.5) (3 285.8) 20.42 = 2091.32 kJ mol 26. (B) CO2 + 2H2O pH = pKa + log Salt Acid or pH = pK log HCO CO
3 1
H O
3
HCO
6.0 = log 3.8 10
HCO + log CO
log 10
= log 3.8 10
HCO + log CO
log
3.8 10 10
6
= log
HCO CO
2 1
HCO Hence 27. (A) AgNO3 CO
= 3.8 10
(2 3) moles
(3 1) moles
3
BaCl2
Ag + NO
(2 3) moles
+ Ba
2+
+ 2Cl
No. of moles of NO
ion = 6 moles/5 litre

3
Concentration of NO
ions = 1.2 M
28. (C) H2CO3 is dibasic acid; NaHCO3 is acid salt. H3PO3 is dibasic acid; NaH2PO3 is acid salt. H3PO4 is tribasic acid; Na2HPO4 is acid salt. H3PO2 is monobasic acid; NaH2PO2 is normal salt. NaH2PO4 is acid salt. Na2HPO3 is normal salt. 29. (B) KCl + K2Cr2O7 + conc. H2SO4 mixture on heating, gives CrO2Cl2 and not chlorine.
30. (B)
31. (C)
32. (D) CCl4 does not undergo hydrolysis as the carbon atom has no d-orbital in the valence shell.
o ox
33. (D) Since E
of Mg is higher than E
o ox
of Al, magnesium corrodes at a faster rate
than Al.
34. (B) Molecularity represents the number of molecules of reactants undergoing reaction in each step. Hence it cannot be zero. 35. (B) Addition of bromine to an alkene is an electrophilic anti-addition.
36. (B)
37. (C) This reaction is called Dakin reaction.
38. (A)
Syn addition of OH groups (hydroxylation) takes place.
10
39. (A) k = Ae
E RT
a
. E
Taking logarithm, log k = log A log k = 14.34 E

a a
2.303 RT 1.25 10 T = 1.25 10

4 4
Since
2.303 R
or E =
a
2.303 8.314 1.25 10 1000
kJ mol = 239.34 kJ mol
40. (B)
n dc = kc dt
dc dt
= k, when n = 0 .
Hence it is zero order reaction. (Rate = Rate constant) k1 41. (C) 2NO2 Rate = d N O
2 4
k2 1 2
N2O4
2
d NO dt
=
2 2
d N O
2
dt k N O
2
dt
= k
NO
42. A (p), (q); B (q), (r), (s); C (q), (r), (s); D (p), (q) (A) During isothermal process, T = 0 and H = 0. (B) During adiabatic process, heat is not exchanged between system and surrounding. There is a change in temperature and change in internal energy. i.e., T 0, H = 0 and E 0. (C) Joule-Thomson expansion is carried out under adiabatic condition. T 0, H = 0 and E 0. (D) In cyclic process, the system returns to its initial state. T = 0, H = 0.
11
43. A (p), (q), (r), (s); B (p), (r); C (p), (q), (r); D (p), (q), (r), (s) PC l5 (A) CH3 CHO CH3 CHCl2 + POCl3 CH3 CHOH CH3 + PCl5 CH3 CHCl CH3 + HCl + POCl3 C6H5 CO CH3 + PCl5 C6H5 CCl2 CH3 + POCl3 CH3COOH + PCl5 CH3COCl + HCl + POCl3 SeO 2 (B) CH3 CHO OHC CHO SeO 2 C6H5 CO CH3 C6H5 CO CHO (C) Compounds containing CH3CO group undergo iodoform reaction. Isopropyl alcohol also undergoes iodoform reaction as it is first oxidised to acetone. I 2 and NaOH CH3 CHO CHI3 + HCOONa I 2 and NaOH CH3 CHOH CH3I CHI3 + CH3 COONa and NaOH 2 C6H5 CO CH3 CHI3 + C6H5COONa (D) Grignard reagent reacts with aldehydes, ketones, alcohols and carboxylic acids.
12
44. A (q), (r); B (p); C (r); D (p), (s) (A) NO (B) NO (C) I
3 2 3
has sp hybridised nitrogen and is linear. has sp2 hybridised nitrogen.
has sp3d hybridised iodine and is linear.

2
(D) SO2 has sp hybridised sulphur and is angular.
13
PART C : MATHEMATICS SECTION I 45. (A) Expression a [cos B cos + sin B sin ] + b [cos A cos sin A sin ] = cos [a cos B + b cos A] + sin [a sin B b sin A] = cos (c) + sin [2R sin A sin B 2R sin B sin A] = c cos + sin (0) = c cos 46. (C) tan cot
1
2 2
1
1 = 1 = 2
1
8 2 1 8 = 3 8 2 3 8 =
2
cos 2 cot
= cos 3 4 2 cos cos

2
= cos
3 4
Expression = cos 2 cos x

2 2
cos
3 because 3 0, 4 4 1 dx
47. (B) I =
cos x 2 cos x cos x cos x
cos cos
dx
= 2
cos dx (Taking cos x cos )
= 2 sin x + 2 x cos + B 48. (B) OR = 5 a 5 OS = 5a 2

2 2 2
5a 3b 3b = 3 8 3b
OR OS = 0 25 a 9 b =0
2
25a = 9b
14
49. (D) 60 books can be arranged in 60 ways. Number of selections of places of the six volumes = Remaining 54 books can be arranged in 54 ways. Favourable cases = 60C6 54 Number of exhaustive cases = 60
60 60
C6
Required probability = = 50. (C) f (x) = 1 6
C 54
6
60 = 1 720
1 sin k 3tan2 x sec2 x + (sin k 1) sec2 x 3

2
= sec2 x [sin k tan2 x + sin k 1] f (x) = 0 sec x = 0 This is not possible. or sin k tan x = 1 sin k tan x =
2 2
sin k sin k
k [, 2] Numerator > 0 and Denominator < 0 tan2 x is negative, not possible. there is no critical point. 51. (C) Solving, y = mx x = 4b mx x
2 2
a with x2 = 4 by m a m
4b mx
4ab m
= 0
2 2
Because of tangency, 16b m = bm = m =

3 2
16 ab m a m a b
15
52. (C) Required limit =
1 2 1 2 1 2 1 2
lim
x0
ln 1
1 x
ln 1
1 x
1 x
ln lim
x 0
1
1
1 x
ln lim
x0
1 x
= =
ln e ln e 1 e = =
ln e 1 2 ln
1 2 ln e 2
=1 53. (A) 1 1 1 , , are in A.P. x y z i.e., i.e., i.e., x y x y x z x z y x z , z y 1, x , z y z x y z , x x x z x y y , y z , x y z z are in A.P.
are in A.P. 1, y x z , x y z y 1 are in A.P. z are in A.P.
SECTION II 54. (A) The equation of the ellipse is x 16

2 2 2
= 1.
The director circle is x + y = 25 and (3, 4) is a point on it. 55. (D) Statement (2) is the Addition theorem of probability. From this P(AB) P(A) + P(B) 1 [because P(AB) 1] P A B i.e., 3 5 4 15
2 3
16
56. (A) f x = cos x
cos
cos x cos 3 sin
x 3 cos
f x = 2 cos x
sin x
2 cos
x 3 sin
sin
x 3
cos x 3
x 3 3 3
sin x
sin 2x 2 3 3 3
sin 2
2x
sin
2x
sin 2x 2 3 3 2x
sin
2x
2 sin
2x
cos
sin
2x
=
2
sin
2x
sin
= 0
57. (A) f(x) = ax + bx + c f(0) = c f( 1) = a b + c Statement 2 is true Statement 1 is true. SECTION III 58. (C) At x = 1, |x| = x Curve is y = ex Point = y = ex
x dy =e dx
1,
1 e
At x = 1,
dy dx
1 e
17
Equation to the tangent is y 1 e = 1 e x 1
ey 1 = x + 1 x ey + 2 = 0 59. (C) e = 1 + x e
y y 2
dy dx
= 2x 2x 1 x
dy dx
2
= 1
2x x
2
tan =
tan = 1
2
2 x x
2 2
But 1 + |x| 2|x| = [1 |x|] 0 1 + |x| 2|x| |tan | 1 60. (A) Solving the two equations, the points of intersection are (0, 0), (4, 4), (4, 4), (4, 4) does not satisfy x3 + y3 = 8xy and (0, 0) is not required. Now 3x
2 2
3y
dy dx
=8 x
dy dx 3x
2
dy 8y = 2 dx 3y At (4, 4), dy = dx 1
8x
slope of the normal = 1 Equation to the normal is y 4 = 1 (x 4) y=x 61. (C) z = 2 cos = 2 cos
2
2 i sin cos 2
cos
i sin
2
18
Since z = = z = 62. (D) z =
<
< , cos 2 2 2 cos cos 2
2 2
is negative. i sin 2 2
2 cos 2 cos
i sin
2 cos 3 i 5 6
= 2 cos
i sin
5 6
3
z = 8 cos = 8 cos = 8 cos arg (z ) =

3
5 6 5 2 2
i sin i sin i sin 2
5 6 5 2
2 sin 3 5 3 5 3 5 3 5 3 5 3 5 sin sin cos cos cos 9 10 i cos 3 5 2 10 10 i sin 3 5 i cos 10 i sin 3 5 i cos 10 10 2 10
63. (A) z = 2 cos 3 5 = = = = = 2 cos 2 cos 2 cos 2 cos 2 cos
i sin 9 10
19
64. A (q); B (p); C (s); D (r) (A) (a + b + c) (b + c a) = bc (b + c)2 a2 = bc b

2
2bc cos A = cos A = 2 3 2 3 = 120
1 2
(B) a = 2b A > B tan A 2 1 3 cot B = = a a C b cot b 2
C 1 cot 3 2 3 6 C = 3 = 60
C = 2 C 2 =
(C) Since 1 2 3 < 0, tan

1
tan
3=
tan
1
2 1
3 6
= + tan = = 135 (D) 81

sin x
2
( 1) 3 4
81 81
1
sin x
2
= 30
sin y + 81 = 30 y 2 30y + 81 = 0 where y = 81 y
=3
4 sin x
(y 3)(y 27) = 0
20
When y = 3, i.e., 3
4 sin x 2
2
When y = 27, =3 i.e., 3

4 sin x 2
2
=3
i.e., 4 sin x = 1 i.e., sin2 x = 1 4 sin x = 1 3 or 2 2
i.e., 4 sin x = 3 i.e., sin2 x = 3 4
Least value of x = 30 65. A (s); B (r); C (q); D (p)
(A) I = 0
x sin x 1 cos x
2
dx, as
x 1 cos x
2
is an odd function
=2
x sin x cos
2
dx [(a x) rule]
=2
sin x 1
cos x
dx I
2I = 2
sin x 1 cos x
2
dx
I=
sin x 1 cos x
2
dx
Put u = cos x du = sin x dx
21
I=
du 1 u
2
= tan
4 2
=
2
=
2
2
2
(B) I =
sin x sin x
3
cos x cos x
3
dx
Applying (a x) rule,
2
I=
cos x cos x
3
sin x sin x
3
dx = I
f x
0
dx =
f a
0
x dx
2I = 0 I = 0
(C) I =
cos
x dx
0 2
cos x
dx
cos x dx
0 2 2 0
cos x dx
= sin x
sin x
= 1 0 [0 1] =2
22
sin x
2
(D) Let F(x) =
sin
cos x
t dt
cos
t dt
Applying Lebnitz rule, we find F (x) = 0 F(x) = a constant. Put x = 4 4

1 2 1 2
sin
0 1 2
t dt
cos
0 1
t dt
0 0
sin
cos
dt
1 2
dt 2 2 1 2 = 4
66. A (q); B (p); C (s); D (r) (A) O is (0, 0, 0), L is (0, b, c) and M is (a, 0, c) Let the plane be lx + my + nz = 0 passes through (0, b, c) (a, 0, c) l0+mb+nc=0 la+m0+nc=0 By rule of cross multiplication, m l = = bc ca n ab x l y m z = 1. n
The required plane is bcx + cay abz = 0 (B) Let the equation of the plane be It passes through (a, b, c). a l b m c n =1 ... (1)
23
Points of intersection with coordinate axes (l, 0, 0), (0, m, 0), (0, 0, n) Plane parallel to yz is x = l Plane parallel to zx is y = m Plane parallel to xy is z = n Point common to them is (l, m, n) Let it be (x1, y1, z1) x1 = l; y1 = m; z1 = n Substituting in (1), a x Locus is a x 4 2 b y y 1 c z b y
1
c =1 z
1
=1
(C) The equation of the line in symmetric form is x = 4 = z 1 0 = r (say)
Any point on it is ( 2r + 4, r + 4, r) It lies on x y + 2z + 1 = 0 2r + 4 r 4 + 2r + 1 = 0 r=1 Point is (2, 5, 1) (D) Direction ratios of the normal to the plane are (2, 3, 4) Equation of the normal through (0, 0, 0) is x 2 = y 3 = z 4 =r
Any point on it is (2r, 3r, 4r) It lies on 2x + 3y 4z + 1 = 0 4r + 9r + 16r + 1 = 0 29r = 1 r= Point is 2 29 , 3 29 , 4 29 1 29
BRILLIANT S
IIT-JEE 2008 STS III/PCM/P(II)/QNS

IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2008 PAPER II PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS
QUESTION PAPER CODE
Time: 3 Hours INSTRUCTIONS:
DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS ON THIS BOOKLET, AWAIT INSTRUCTIONS FROM THE INVIGILATOR
Maximum Marks: 243
A. General 1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 66 questions. The booklet has 26 pages. 2. This question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet. 3. This question paper contains 2 blank pages for your rough work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
5. Fill in the boxes provided below on this page and also write your Name and Enrollment No. in the space provided on the back page (page no. 26) of this booklet. 6. This booklet also contains the answer sheet (i.e., a machine gradable response sheet) ORS. 7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET. B. Filling the ORS 8. On the lower part of the ORS, write in ink, your name in box L1, your Enrollment No. in box L2 and Name of the Centre in box L3. Do not write these anywhere else. 9. Put your signature in ink in box L4 on the ORS. C. Question paper format: Read the instructions printed on the back page (page no. 26) of this booklet. D. Marking scheme: Read the instructions on the back page (page no. 26) of this booklet.
I have read all the instructions and shall abide by them. ............................................... Signature of the Candidate
I have verified all the informations filled in by the Candidate. ............................................... Signature of the Invigilator
IIT/STS III/PCM/P(II)/Qns - 1
SEAL
Name: .
Enrollment No.:
SEAL
4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.
PART A : PHYSICS SECTION I Straight Objective Type This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 9. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 1. If V denotes the potential difference across the plates of a condensor of capacity C, write down the dimensions of CV (A) Not expressible in MLT (C) M L T
2 2 1 2
(B) MLT
2
2 2
(D) ML T
2. At the instant the traffic light turns green, a car starts with constant acceleration 2 m/s . At the same instant, a truck travelling with a constant speed 10 m/s overtakes the car. How fast will the car be travelling at the instant, when the truck overtakes the car? (A) 10 m/s (B) 20 m/s (C) 30 m/s (D) 40 m/s 3. A small body A starts sliding off the top of a smooth sphere of radius R. The velocity at the break off point of the body is (A) v = 2 3 Rg (B) v = Rg (D) v = Rg 3
(C) v = 3Rg
4. The balance wheel of a watch vibrates with an angular amplitude radian and with a period 0.5 s. What is its angular velocity, when its displacement is one half of the amplitude? (A) radian/s (C) 2 3 radian s
2
(B) 2 radian/s (D)

2
3 radian s
5. The de Broglie wavelength of electron of kinetic energy 100 eV is given to be 1 . What is the de Broglie wavelength of electron of 1600 e V? (A) 1 A 8 (B) 1 A 4 (C) 1 A 2 (D) 1 2 A
6. In the given circuit, when switch S is closed, the time constant with which 1 F capacitor gets charged is
(A) 12 s
(B) 4 s
(C) 3 s
(D) 16 s
7. A parallel plate capacitor is charged to a certain potential difference and the battery used is disconnected. A dielectric slab of dimension equal to the spacing between the plates is inserted. If K is the dielectric constant, then the energy stored in the condensor will (A) increase by a factor K (C) increase by a factor K
2
(B) decrease by a factor
1 K
2
(D) decrease by a factor K
8. What is the ratio of the velocity of sound in monoatomic gas to the root mean square velocity of the molecules? (A) 0.7 (B) 0.6 (C) 0.5 (D) 0.4 9. What must be the stress in a stretched wire of material of Youngs modulus Y, in order that the speed of longitudinal waves shall be ten times the speed of transverse wave? (A) 10 Y (B) Y 10
2
(C) 100 Y
(D) Y
SECTION II Assertion and Reason Type This section contains 4 questions numbered 10 to 13. Each question contains STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement 1. (B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct explanation for statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False. (D) Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True. 10. Statement 1: because Statement 2: 11. Statement 1: The self induced e.m.f will tend to increase or decrease the current in accordance with Lenzs law. A charged particle enters a region of uniform magnetic field at an angle of 45 to the direction of the magnetic field and the path of the particle is a helical. The self induced e.m.f produced by a changing current in a coil always tends to decrease the current.
because Statement 2: The component of velocity of charged particle parallel to magnetic field is not zero.
The velocity of sound is generally greater in solids than in gases at N.T.P.
Solids have a much higher coefficient of elasticity than gases. A quick collisions between two bodies is more violent than a slow collision even when the initial and final velocities are identical.
The force is determined by the rate of change of momentum. SECTION III
Linked Comprehension Type This section contains two paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph three multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Paragraph for Question Nos. 14 to 16 A motorcar is fitted with a convex mirror of focal length 20 cm. A second motorcar 2 m broad and 1.6 m high is 6 m away from the first car. The second motorcar starts moving and overtakes the first at a relative speed of 15 m/s. 14. When the cars are stationary, find the position and magnification of the image of second car seen in the mirror of the first. (A) 19.4 cm, 0.0323 (C) 11.6 cm, 0.038 (B) 9.7 cm, 0.05 (D) 14.8 cm, 0.04
15. What is the breadth of the image of the second car and also the height of the image? (A) 6.4 cm, 3.2 cm (C) 6.4 cm, 3.4 cm (B) 5.8 cm, 3.4 cm (D) 5.8 cm, 4.2 cm SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
16. How fast will the image be moving? (A) 0.016 ms (C) 0.04 ms
1
(B) 0.32 ms
1 1
(D) 0.05 ms
Paragraph for Question Nos. 17 to 19 A particle located at x = 0 at time t = 0 starts moving along the positive x-direction with a velocity v that varies as v = x, where is a constant. 17. How does the velocity vary with time? (A) v = t (B) v = t 2
2
(C) v = t
(D) v =
t 2
18. How does the acceleration vary with time? (A) a = t

2
(B) a =
(C) a =
(D) a =
t 2
19. What is the average velocity of the particle over the first s metres of its path? (A) 2 s (B) s 2
2
(C) (s)
1/2
(D)
SECTION IV Matrix-Match Type This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example.
If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly bubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows:
20.
Column I (A) Root mean square velocity
Column II (p) P Y T m 3P Column II (p) B =

0
(B) Velocity of sound in a gas
(q)
(C) Velocity of sound in a rod
(r)
(D) Velocity of sound in a string 21. Column I (A) Lorentz force (B) Magnetic force on straight current (C) Biot-Savarts law (D) Force on a moving charge in magnetic field
(s)
2i
4 r
(q) F = L B i (r) F = q v B (s) F = q E v B
22.
Column I (A) Average life of radioactive substance
Column II (p) log 2

e
dN dt dN dt = N
(B) Half-life of radioactive element (C) Activity of radioactive element (D) Displacement law of radioactivity
(q)
(r) (s) 1
PART B : CHEMISTRY SECTION I Straight Objective Type This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 23 to 31. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 23. The colour of a sol depends on (A) nature of charge on sol particle (B) physical state of dispersion medium (C) size of colloidal particle (D) magnitude of charge on the sol particle 24. Micelles form is an example of (A) associated colloids (C) macromolecular colloids (B) multimolecular colloids (D) none of these
25. What is the free energy change G, when 1.0 mole of water at 100C and 1 atm pressure is converted into steam at 100C and 1 atm pressure? (A) 540 cal (B) 9800 cal (C) + 9800 cal (D) zero
26. pH of lime water is 12. Number of milliequivalents of Ca(OH)2 present in 250 mL of solution will be (A) 2.00 (B) 2.50 (C) 1.25 (D) 5.00
10
27. Which of the following is not correct for a binary ideal solution of liquids? (A) Smix = 0 (B) Hmix = 0 (C) Vmix = 0 (D) It obeys Raoults law
28. Which is least basic? (A) NF3

2
(B) NCl3
5
(C) NBr3
(D) NI3
29. In Na [Fe(CN) NO] sodium nitroprusside, (A) oxidation state of Fe is + 2 (B) NO acts as ligand (C) both are correct (D) none of these 30. In the reaction, CF3 CH = CH2 + HCl the product formed is (A) CF
3
CH Cl
CH
(B) CF3 CH2 CH2 Cl
(C) CF
C = CH Cl
(D) CF3 CH = CH Cl
11
31. CH
C O
CH Q OH
4 CH P
3
NaBD
NaBH 4 D 2O
H2O
P and Q are respectively OH CH

2
(A) CH
C D
CH and CH
3
C D
CH
CH
OD (B) CH
3
OD CH
2
C D OD
CH and CH
3
C D OH
CH
CH
(C) CH
C H OH
CH
CH and CH
3
C D OD
CH
CH
(D) CH
C D
CH
CH and CH
3
C H
CH
CH
12
SECTION II Assertion and Reason Type This section contains 4 questions numbered 32 to 35. Each question contains STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement 1. (B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct explanation for statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False. (D) Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True. 32. Statement 1: SiCl is hydrolysed by water.
4
because Statement 2: SiCl4 is an ionic compound.. 33. Statement 1: Cuprous ion (Cu ) undergoes disproportionation in aqueous solution. because Statement 2: E
cell
for the reaction, 2Cu
aq
Cu
Cu
2 aq
is positive.
34. Statement 1: Rate of a reaction decreases as the reaction proceeds. because Statement 2: Rate constant of reaction decreases with time.
13
35. Statement 1: I ion has linear geometry.

3
because Statement 2: The central iodine atom is in sp hybrid state. SECTION III Linked Comprehension Type This section contains two paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Paragraph for Question Nos. 36 to 38 Fentons reagent is a mixture of ferrous sulphate or acetate and H2O2. It has been used to oxidise organic compounds. The reagent consists of Fe radical. Fe
2+ 3+
ion, OH ion and OH
+ H2O2 Fe
3+
+ HO + HO
Oxidation is carried out by adding slowly a solution of H2O2 into an ice cold aqueous or alcoholic solution of organic substance and ferrous acetate or sulphate. The reagent causes hydroxylation of aromatic hydrocarbons, coupling producing free radicals and oxidation of -hydroxy acids, glycol and aldoses. 36. . The product P formed is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
14
37. Fentons reagent oxidises lactic acid to (A) CH CHO

3
(B) CH CO COOH
3
(C) CH COOH
3
(D) CH CHOH CHO

3 2+
38. Calcium gluconate is oxidised by H2O2 in the presence of Fe . The product is (A) glucose (B) sorbitol (C) arabinose (D) manitol
Paragraph for Question Nos. 39 to 41 When all the reactants and products in a reversible chemical reaction are in the same phase, it is called homogeneous equilibrium. But if the reactants and products are in different phases, it is called heterogeneous equilibrium. At the equilibrium condition, the composition of the mixture remains constant and equilibrium constant is calculated from the concentration of reactants and products. By adjusting the concentration, the reversible reaction may be shifted towards the product side or reactant side. 39. Ammonium hydrogen sulphide undergoes dissociation as follows NH4 HS(s) NH3(g) + H2S(g) At 25C, when equilibrium was reached, the total pressure was found to be 0.63 atmosphere. Calculate the equilibrium constant Kp. (A) 0.63 atm
2
(B) 1.26 atm
(C) 9.92 10
atm
(D) 9.2 atm
40. 0.8 mole of A and 0.8 mole of B were mixed in a one litre vessel and the following equilibrium was reached after sometime. A+B C+D
The equilibrium mixture contained 0.6 mole of C. What is the value of equilibrium constant? (A) 0.75 (B) 7.5 (C) 9.8 (D) 9.0
15
41. Kp for the reaction, A(g) + 2B(g) 3C(g) + D(g)
is 0.05 atm. What will be the value of Kc at 1000 K? (A) 5 10 R

2 5
(B)
5 10 R
(C) 5R 10 SECTION IV
(D) 5R 10
Matrix-Match Type This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example. If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly bubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows: p A B C D 42. Column I (A) PCl5(g) (B) 2NO2(g) (C) N2 + O2(g) (D) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) N2O4(g) 2NO(g) heat 2SO3(g) + heat p p p p q q q q q r r r r r s s s s s Column II (p) Kc = Kp (RT) (q) Kp = Kc (RT) (r) (s) Kp = Kc Forward reaction is favoured at high temperature
16
43. (A) (B) (C) (D) 44. (A) (B) (C) (D)
Column I AlCl3 Fe HIO

4
Column II (p) (q) (r) (s) Monosaccharides Vic diols Friedel-Craft s reaction Chlorination of benzene Column II (p) (q) (r) (s) nucleophilic addition electrophilic addition cyclic intermediate syn addition
LTA Column I Olefin + bromine in CCl4 Aldehyde + HCN Olefin + OsO4 , Na2SO3 aq. Olefin + Baeyers reagent
17
PART C : MATHEMATICS SECTION I Straight Objective Type This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 45 to 53. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C), (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 45. f(x) = x 1,
2
0<x<2
= 2x + 3, 2 x < 3. Then the quadratic equation whose roots are (A) x + 10x + 21 = 0 (C) x 10 x 21 = 0 46. If z + 1 z
2 2 2
Lt
x 2
f(x) and
Lt
x 2
f(x) is
(B) x 10 x + 21 = 0 (D) x + 10 x 20 = 0
14 2
+ 1 = 0, then the value of z (B) 1 log
1 z
14
is (D) 2
(A) 1
(C) 2 1 6
4
47. The domain f(x) = log2 (A) (0, 16)
1 2
2 is (D) (0, 4)
(B) ( 4, 1)
(C) ( 1, 0) 2
48. The number of solutions of x + 2 tan x = (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2
in [0, 2] is (D) 3
18
49. If m, n, k are positive integers, then the value of

m
C C +
0 k (m + n)
C 1+ k
C C
2 k1
k2
+ .... + C
C is
0 (m + n 1)
(A)
(B)
(m + n)
(C)
(m + n)
k+1
(D)
50. In ABC, B = 2A, C = 4A. Then cos A cos B cos C is (A) 1 8

2
(B)
1 8
2
(C)
1 4
(D)
1 16
51. If y = x + 4x + 5, y = x + 2x + 7 are two curves, then the equation of the line joining the points with minimum ordinates is (A) 5x y + 11 = 0 (C) 3x y + 11 = 0 (B) 4x y + 11 = 0 (D) x + y 11 = 0
2 2 2 2 2
52. There are two circles whose equations are x + y = 9 and x + y 8x 6y + k = 0, k Z. If the two circles have exactly two common tangents, then the number of possible integral values of k is (A) 6 (B) 8 (C) 9 (D) 4 4 3 to the ellipse
53. The area of the triangle formed by a tangent with slope of x

2
18
y = 1 with the axes of coordinates is 32 (B) 32 sq. units (D) 18 sq. units
(A) 12 sq. units (C) 24 sq. units
19
SECTION II Assertion and Reason Type This section contains 4 questions numbered 54 to 57. Each question contains STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement 1. (B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct explanation for statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False. (D) Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True. 54. Statement 1: because Statement 2: 55. Statement 1: sin
1
2
If k = sin
1 2t
> 0, then the integral part of k is 1.
x is defined if |x| 1. x
3
If a, b are non-zero real numbers, , are complex cube roots of unity and x = a + b, y = a + b, z = a + b, then y
3
xyz
=3
because Statement 2: 56. Statement 1: If , are cube roots of unity, 1 + + = 0. If x, y, z are 3 distinct positive real numbers which are in H.P., 3x 2y 3z 2y then > 10. 2x y 2z y 1 a
2 2
because Statement 2: If a is a positive real number 1, then a + SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK > 1.
20
57. Statement 1: because Statement 2:
There exists a positive integer n for which the coefficient of the middle term in the expansion of (1 + x)
(2n 1) 2n
is odd.
Cn is a positive integer for each positive integer n. SECTION III
Linked Comprehension Type This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Paragraph for Question Nos. 58 to 60 (1 + x) = C + C x + C x + .... + C x , C , C , C ... are denoted as C0, C1, ...., Cn . They are called Binomial coefficients. The following are to be noted (1) Cr = Cn r (2) C0 + C1 + ... + Cn = 2
n n1 0 1 2 n 0 1 2 n n n n 2 n n n n n
(3) Sum of the odd coefficients = Sum of the even coefficients = 2 58. The sum (A) 2
40 40
C40 +
40
C1 +
40
C2 + .... +
40
C20 is
39
+ 40 20
40 2
(B) 2
40 20
2
(C) 2
39
C 2
20
(D) 2
40
40
20
21
59. The sum 1 (A) 0
20
C1 2 (B) 2
20
C2 + 3
20
C3 .... 20
19
20
C20 is (D) 2
19
20
(C) 2
60. C0 C1 C2 .... Cn is less than or equal to

n n 1 n
(A) 2 n
(B)
n
2 n
1
n 1
(C)
1 n h h f a f a h
1
(D) 2 n
1 1
Paragraph for Question Nos. 61 to 63 Lt

h0
f a h
is called the right hand derivative of f(x) at x = a.
Lt
h 0
f a
is called the left hand derivative of f(x) at x = a. If LHD = RHD,
the function is differentiable. If they are not equal, the function is not differentiable. 61. If f(x) = a + sin =x, (A) 1 (B) 1 (x + b), x I x < 1 is differentiable at x = 1, then the value of b is (C) 2 (D) 2
62. The left hand derivative of f(x) = [x] sin x at x = k, k an integer, [ ] is greatest integer function is (A) ( 1)
k1 k1
k (k 1)
(B) ( 1) k (D) ( 1) (k 1) SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

k
(C) ( 1)
22
63. If f(x) =
x
2
1 7x 5
when x 1 and when x = 1 then f(1)
(A)
2x 1 = 3 2 9
(B)
2 3
Matrix - Match Type This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example. If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly bubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows: p A B C D p p p p q q q q q r r r r r s s s s s Column II (p) 62 (q) 55 (r) 360 (s) 511
6 SECTION IV
(C)
(D)
1 3
Column I 64.(A) The number of different ways of distributing 12 marks among 3 questions, each question carrying at least 1 mark is (B) The number of ways in which 6 different balls can be put in two boxes of different sizes, so that no box remains empty is (C) The number of numbers greater than 10 lacs that can be formed with 2, 3, 0, 3, 4, 2, 3 is (D) The sides PQ, QR, RP of PQR have 4, 5, 7 interior points respectively on them. The number of triangles that can be formed using these points as vertices is SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
23
Column I 65.(A) If cos

1
Column II
1
x + cos
y + cos
3
1
3
z = 3, z is
3
(p) 2
then the value of x (B) If cot

1
xyz
, k N, then the maximum (q) 6 6 integer value of k is k > (r) 3 (s) 5
(C) The number of solutions of tan x tan 4x = 1, where, 0 < x < is (D) The number of solutions of |cot x| 1 = cot x + , where 0 < x < 2 is sin x Column I 66.(A) The focus of y x 2y + 2 = 0 is (B) If (2, 8) is one end of the focal chord of y = 32 x, then the other end is (C) The tangents at (2, 4) and (8, 8) of y = 8x intersect on the line is (D) The equation of the common tangent of y = 4x and x = 4y is
2 2 2 2 2
Column II (p) (32, 32) (q) 5 4 , 1
(r) x + y + 1 = 0 (s) x = 4
24
25
Name: .
Enrollment No.:
C. Question paper format: 10. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part has 4 sections. 11. Section I contains 9 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is correct. 12. Section II contains 4 questions. Each question contains STATEMENT-1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT2 (Reason). Bubble (A) Bubble (B) Bubble (C) if both the statements are TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is the correct explanation of STATEMENT-1. if both the statements are TRUE but STATEMENT-2 is not the correct explanation of STATEMENT-1. if STATEMENT-1 is TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is FALSE.
Bubble (D) if STATEMENT-1 is FALSE and STATEMENT-2 is TRUE. 13. Section III contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is correct. 14. Section IV contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in 2 columns. Statements in the first column have to be matched with statements in the second column. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled in the ORS as per the instructions given at the beginning of the section. D. Marking scheme: 15. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded. 16. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded. 17. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded. 18. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 6 marks if you darken ALL the bubbles corresponding ONLY to the correct answer. No negative mark will be awarded for an incorrectly bubbled answer.
BRILLIANT S
IIT-JEE 2008 STS III/PCM/P(II)/SOLNS

IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2008 PAPER II - SOLUTIONS PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS PART A: PHYSICS
SECTION I 1. (D) Since the energy stored in a condenser is dimension of energy MLT L = ML2 T
2 2 2 1 CV , the term CV2 has the 2
2. (B) Let the truck overtake the car after t seconds when traffic light turns green. The distance travelled by truck = 10 t The distance travelled by car in this time = 0 + 1 at2 2
2 2 = 1 2 t =t 2
t2 = 10 t
t = 10 s
At this instant the velocity of the car = 0 + 2 10 = 20 m/s 3. (A) At break off point P < AOP = mg cos N = mv R 1 2
2 2
mv = mg AB = mg R 1
cos
IIT/STS III/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 1
When N = 0; at break off position mg cos = 2 (1 cos ) mg cos = 2 3 2 Rg 3
v2 = R g cos =
v = 2 Rg 3 4. (C) Period = = 4 1 2 s
2
i.e.,
1 2
or = 16
Angular velocity when the displacement is

2
a 2
is given by
a 4
16
= 2 2 3 radian s 5. (B) = h , mv 1 2 mv = E
2
2E v2 = 2E or v = m m = h m 2E m = h 2mE h 2mE
1
In the first case, 1 =
In the second case, 2 = E E

1
h 2m E
2
2 1
1 2
100 1 = 1600 4 1 4
2 =
6. (C) When S is closed, the effective resistance in the circuit = Time constant = RC = 3 1 10 = 3 10 = 3 s
6 6
12 4 16
= 3 ohms
7. (B) When battery is disconnected the charge Q remains the same. The electric field and potential decreases on account of opposite field induced due to Q 1 . The capacitance C = increases by K. Hence polarisation by a factor K V 1 energy U = 1 Q decreases by . K 2 C 8. (A) The velocity of sound in monoatomic gas = iP P
2
Root mean square velocity = of the gas. Here i = 3
, where i is the number of degrees of freedom
velocity of sound = root mean square velocity 5 , i=3 3
iP
But =
ratio = 5 = 5 = 0.7 9 3 9. (B) Speed of transverse wave = T = T
m A where A is area of cross section and is density. Speed of longitudinal waves = Y T A Y T A Y , where Y is Youngs modulus. 100 T A
It is given
= 10
or
= =
Y 100
T A
is stress.
2
stress = Y 10
SECTION II 10. (D) If the change in current is positive (increase), the self induced emf will tend to decrease the current. If the current is decreasing (negative change in current) the self induced emf will tend to increase the current in accordance with Lenzs law. 11. (A) 12. (A) 13. (A) The rate of change in momentum is much greater in the first case.
SECTION III 14. (A) f = 20 cm, u = 600 cm 1 v 1 u = 1 f we get, v = 19.4 cm v u = 19.4 600
Magnification =
= 0.0323 15. (A) Breadth = 200 Height = 100 1 v 1 u = 1 f 19.4 = 6.4 cm 600 = 3.23 cm
19.4 600
16. (A)
Differentiating with respect to time, 1 dv v

2
dt dv dt
1 du =0 2 u dt = v u
2 2
du dt
Speed of the image =
v u
2 2
speed of the object

2
= 19.4 600 dx dt
15
= 0.016 m/s towards mirror 17. (B) v = i.e., , but v = x
dx dx = x or = dt dt x Integrating from t = 0 (x = 0) to t = (t) (x = x), we have
x
0
1 2
dx =
dt
0
1 2
1 2 x=
= t
0 2 2
t 4
Differentiating both sides, dx = 2t = t dt 4 2 18. (B) Similarly the time dependance of acceleration is obtained by differentiating both sides of this relation with respect to time. a = dv = dt 2
2
19. (A) To find the average velocity over a distance s metres, we assume that the time taken to cross this distance is p using x =
2
s=
or p =
2 s
4 Average velocity = s = p 2 s
SECTION IV 20. (A) (s); (B) (p); (C) (q); (D) (r) 21. (A) (s); (B) (q); (C) (p); (D) (r) 22. (A) (s); (B) (p); (C) (q); (D) (r)
Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS III/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 5
PART B : CHEMISTRY
SECTION I
23. (C) Colour of a sol is due to scattering of light which depends on size of colloidal particles. 24. (A) Colloidal particles associate to form micelles. 25. (D) At 100C, water and steam are at equilibrium . So G = 0. 26. (B) pH = 12 or pOH = 2 Hence [OH ] = 10 Ca(OH)2 0.5 10
2 2
M Ca2+ + 2[OH ] M 10
2
0.5 10
Number of equivalents of Ca(OH)2 in 250 mL of solution = 0.5 10 0.5 10 2

2
250 2
1000
2
= 2.5 10
No. of milliequivalents of Ca(OH)2 in 250 mL of solution = 2.5 10
103 = 2.5
27. (A) When two liquids are mixed, the volume of mixture is greater than the volume of each liquid. Hence randomness increases and Smix 0. 28. (A) NF3 is least basic, since fluorine is most electronegative among halogens. 29. (C) In Na2 [Fe(CN)5 NO], oxidation state of Fe is + 2 and of NO is + 1. Hence NO acts as ligand. 30. (B) CF3 CH = CH2 + HCl CF3 CH2 CH2Cl It is anti-Markownikoffs addition due to I effect of fluorine atoms.
+
O 31. (D) CH
3
CH
NaBD 4 CH CH 3
O
3
C D
CH
CH
H 2O CH
OH
3
C D
CH (P)
CH
O CH
3
O CH
2
NaBH 4 CH CH
3
C H
CH
CH
D 2O CH
OD
3
CH
CH
H (Q)
SECTION II
32. (C) SiCl4 is a covalent compound. It is hydrolysed by water because silicon atom has vacant d-orbital to increase its covalency from 4 to 6.
cell
33. (A) Cuprous ion (Cu+) undergoes disproportionation in aqueous solution because E for the reaction, 2Cu
aq
Cu(s) + Cu
2+
is positive.
34. (C) Rate constant is independent of concentration of the reactants which changes with time. k depends on temperature only.
3 35. (C) The central atom iodine in I 3 is sp d hybridised, the ion is linear.
SECTION III
36. (A)
O Fe and 37. (B) CH3 CHOH COOH CH C COOH 3 H 2O 2 Lactic acid Pyruvic acid
2+
38. (C) COOCaY 2 CHOH CHOH

2 3
Fe2+ and H 2O 2
CHO CHOH
2 3
CH OH Arabinose NH4HS(s) NH3(g) + H2S(g) , Total pressure 0.63 atm
CH OH Gluconate 39. (C) At equilibrium
0.315 atm 0.315 atm

2
Equilibrium constant Kp = P NH P H
S 2
= 0.315 0.315 atm = 0.0992 atm2 = 9.92 10 40. (D) At equilibrium, 0.8 0.6 0.8 0.6 0.2 M K= 41. (B) A(g) + 2B(g) Kp = P P
C A 3 D 2 B 2
atm2 C 0.6 M + D 0.6 M
A 0.8 M
B 0.8 M
0.2 M = 36 4 = 9.0
0.6 0.6 0.2 0.2
3C(g) + D(g) and
P P C A
3
Kc =
D B
2
n = (3 +1) (1 + 2) = 1 Kp = Kc (RT)1 Since, Kp = 0.05 atm 0.05 = Kc [RT] = KcR 1000

Kc =
0.05 1000 R
5 10 10 R
3
= 5 10 R
SECTION IV 42. (A) (q), (s); (B) (p); (C) (r), (s); (D) (p) (A) PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
Forward reaction is decomposition, which is favoured at high temperature. Since, n = 2 1 = 1 Kp = Kc (RT) (B) 2NO2(g) N2O4(g)
Since, n = 1 2 = 1 Kp = Kc (RT)
1
or Kc = Kp (RT) (C) N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g) heat
Since, n = 2 (1 + 1) = 0 Kp = K c The forward reaction is endothermic and is hence favoured at high temperature. (D) 2SO 2(g) + O 2(g)
1
2SO3(g) + heat
Since, n = 2 (2 + 1) = 1 Kp = Kc (RT)
or Kc = Kp (RT) 43. (A) (r); (B) (s); (C) (p), (q); (D) (p), (q) (A) AlCl3 is used as catalyst in Friedel-Crafts reaction. (B) Fe is used as halogen carrier (catalyst) in chlorination of benzene. (C) HIO4 oxidises monosaccharides and vic diols. (D) Lead tetraacetate, LTA also oxidises monosaccharides and vic diols.
10
44. (A) (q); (B) (p); (C) (r), (s); (D) (r), (s) (A) Addition of bromine to an olefin is an electrophilic addition.
(B) Addition of HCN to an aldehyde is a nucleophilic addition.
(C)
(D)
11
PART C : MATHEMATICS
SECTION I 45. (B) Lt
x 2
f x = 7 ,
Lt
x 2
= 3
Required equation is x2 10 x + 21 = 0 46. (A) z + z + 1 = 0 ; z = , cube root of unity is a root of the equation z
14 2
1 z
14
14
1
14
1
2
1
2

2 2 2
= 6
4
=1
47. (A) log1/2 1 log1/2 1
>2
Evidently x > 0
6
4
<2
2
x 6
4
1 1
4
>
x 6 x
1 2
>4
x<2
x < 16 domain is (0, 16) 48. (D) x + 2 tan x = x 2 tan x = 4 2 4 x 2

tan x =
12
Consider the curves y = tan x y= 4 x 2
The two curves cut at 3 points.
49. (A) There are two groups, one containing m things and the other containing n things. We have to select k things. Possibility group I 0 1 2 k group II k k1 k2 0
Number of ways = mC0 nCk + mC1 nCk 1 + ... + mCk nC0 = (m + n)Ck 50. (B) Now, A + B + C = A + 2A + 4A = A= 7 7 cos cos 4 7 2 7 cos 4 7
cos A cos B cos C = cos 7 cos 2 7 2 7
2 7
cos
4 7
P = cos 7
2 sin
P = sin
cos
13
22sin 23sin
7 7
P = sin P = sin
4 7 8 7
cos = sin
4 7 7 7
= sin P= 51. (A) y = x2 + 4x + 5 = (x + 2) + 1 Minimum is attained, when x = 2 Value = 1 Point ( 2, 1) y = x + 2x + 7 = (x + 1) + 6

2 2 2
1 8
Minimum is obtained when x = 1, Value = 6 Point ( 1, 6) The equation of the required line is y 1 y 5 1 6 1 = x 2 2 2 1
= x
5x + 10 = y 1 5x y + 11 = 0 52. (C) Radius of 2nd circle 16 9

2 2 2
k >0
2
25 k > 0 k <5 Centres (0, 0), (4, 3) Distance d between the centres d = 42
2
5<k<5
... (1)
3 =5
14
r1 + r2 > d > r 3 + 25 25
2
k >5> 3
2
25
k > 2 and 5 > 3 25
25
2
k and 5 > 25 k
2
25 k2 > 4 and 2 > k2 < 21 and 39 > k2 21 < k < 21
k and 8 > 25
k2 25 < 4 and 64 > 25 k2
... (2) 4, 3, 2, 1, 0, 1, 2, 3, 4
From (1) and (2), the integral values i.e., The number of values is 9 53. (C) Here a = 18 , b = 32 y-axis is major, x-axis is minor axis Equation to the tangent,
2 2 2
y=
4 3
18
4 3
32
i.e., 4x + 3y = 24 area = 1 6 8 = 24 2 SECTION II 54. (A) 1 t 2t

2 2
1 + |t| 2|t| 0 1 |t| = 0 t = 1 k = sin

1
|t| = 1 ( 1) = (1) = 2 2 , not possible k > 0
t = + 1 k = sin [k] = 1
55. (A) x + y + z = a (1 + + ) + b (1 + + ) =a0+b0=0 Because of Statement (2), x + y + z = 0

15
x3 + y3 + z3 = 3xyz x
3
y xyz 2xz
z =3
56. (A) y =
x z Substituting, the expression becomes 3 2 7 z 2 x 7 2 z x 3 2 x z 7 x 2 z
=3+ >3
7 2, because of statement (2) 2 Q

2n
i.e., > 10 57. (D) Required middle term = Cn
z 1 x
2n 2n n n 2n n
(2n 1)
1 1 n 1 1 n Cn an even integer
=2 =2
SECTION III 58. (C) Let S = S=

40
C0 +
40
C1 + ..... +
40
40
C20 C20
40
40
C40 +
40
40
C39 + ... +
40
[applying Cr = C n r]
40
Adding, 2S =
C0 +
C1 + ... +
C20 +
C21 + ... +
40
C40 +
40
C20
= 240 + 40C20 S = 239 + 1 2

40
20
59. (A) r nCr = n (n 1)Cr 1 S = 20 [ C0 = 20 (1 1)

19 19
C1 +
19
C2 ....
19
C19]
19
=0
16
60. (C) C1, C2 .... Cn are all positive. A.M. G.M.

n
... n
(C1 C2 .... Cn)
1/n
C C ... C
1 2
1 n n n
C1 C2 .... Cn 2
1 n
n
C0 C1 C2 .... Cn 2
, because C0 = 1
61. (B) f(x) is differentiable at x = 1. RHD = LHD at x = 1 1 1 1 b

2
=1
(1 + b)2 = 0
b=1
62. (D) Now, [k h] sin (k h) = (k 1) [sin k cos h cos k sin h] = (k 1) [0 ( 1) sin h] required L.H.D. = Lt
h 0 k
1 h
sin h
= (k 1) ( 1)k Lt
h 0
sin h h
= (k 1) ( 1)k
17
63. (A) f(x) =
x x 1 3 1
1 2x 5
1 2x 5
, when x 1 f 1 h h f 1
f(x) =
, when x = 1 1
f(1) = Lt 1 5 h 3
h 0
f(1) = Lt
h 0
2 1
1 = Lt
h 0
2h
3 h 2h
1 3
= Lt
h 0
3h 2h
2 9
SECTION IV 64. (A) (q); (B) (p); (C) (r); (D) (s) (A) After giving 1 mark to each question, the remaining 9 marks are to be distributed among 3 questions. required number of ways = coefficient of t9 in (t0 + .... + t9)3
3
= coefficient of t in
9
1 1
10
t
3
= coefficient of t in (1 t) =
(3 + 9 1)
C9
= 11C9 = 11C2 = 11 10 1 2 = 55
(B) For each ball, there are 2 choices, Number of ways = 26 Out of these, in 2 ways one box is empty.
18
the required number of ways = 26 2 = 64 2 = 62 (C) The number should be of 7 digits. Numbers beginning with 2 = 6 3 6 2 2 6 3 2 ; [3 is repeated thrice] = 120
Numbers beginning with 3 =
; [3 is repeated twice, 2 is repeated twice] = 180
Numbers beginning with 4 = Total numbers = 360
; [2 is repeated twice, 3 is repeated thrice] = 60
(D) Total number of points = (4 + 5 + 7) = 16 total number of ways of selecting 3 points from these = 16C3 = 16 15 14 1 2 3
= 560 To form a triangle we have to exclude 3 collinear points out of this selection. required number of triangles = 560 (4C3 + 5C3 + 7C3) = 511 65. (A) (r); (B) (s); (C) (s); (D) (p) (A) Since 0 cos
1 1
x z
0 cos
0 cos
We get from the equation cos
x = cos
y = ; cos
z=
x = cos x=y=z=1 x
3
y = cos z = cos
y xyz
3 =3 1
19
(B) cot
k
1
> k 3
6 < cot 6
cot cot k <
k< 3 Maximum value of k is 5 (C) Equation is sin x cos x sin 4x cos 4x =1
cos 5x = 0 5x = (2n + 1) x = 2n Values in 0 < x < are 10 , 3 10 , 5 10 , 7 10 , 9 10 2 10
the number of values is 5 (D) If cot x is positive, cot x = cot x + 1 sin x
1 = 0, not possible sin x 1 sin x
cot x is ve cot x = cot x + 2 cot x +
1 =0 sin x 1 2 4 3
2 cos x + 1 = 0 [sin x 0] cos x = x= 2 3 ,
20
66. (A) (q); (B) (p); (C) (s); (D) (r) (A) The given equation can be written as (y 1)2 = x 1 which is a parabola with vertex (1, 1) and Latus rectum 1
Focus S is 1 (B) 4a = 32 a=8
1 4
, 1 =
5 4
, 1
2 8 t1 = 8 t1 = 1 2 t2 = 1 =2 t
1 2 2 2
Other end = at , 2at (C) 4a = 8 a=2 2at1 = 4 4t1 = 4 t1 = 1 4t2 = 8 t2 = 2
(32 , 32)
The tangents intersect at (at1t2 , a(t1 + t2)] i.e., (4, 6) (22, 2) (4, 6) which lies on x = 4
21
(D) Any tangent to y2 = 4x is y = mx + 1 m
Solve with x2 = 4y x2 = 4 (mx + 1 m )
mx2 4m2x 4 = 0 If is a tangent to the II parabola, Roots are equal m(m + 1) = 0 m = 1 (Q m 0)

4 2 16m + 16m = 0 3 3
m (m + 1) = 0 m0 m3 + 1 = 0 m=1 The common tangent is y=x1 x+y+1=0

Brilliant Tutorials IIT-JEE 2008 STS III PCM P (I)

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IIT-JEE 2008 STS III/PCM/P(I)/QNS

HOME BASED FULL-SYLLABUS SIMULATOR TEST SERIES

Maximum Marks: 243

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in 0.1 second, find

(B) 0.5 ampere

(D) 0.75 ampere

6. A photoelectric surface is irradiated in turn by waves of = 3.5 10

(B) 4.22 10 (D) 6.6 10

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11. Statement 1: because Statement 2: 12. Statement 1: because Statement 2:

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13. Statement 1: because Statement 2:

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(A) Fig. III

(B) Fig. II 1 y when 1 x

(C) Fig. I is zero? (C) z

18. What is the value of (A) z

19. What is the magnification m? (A) m = (C) m = z z y y z y (B) m = (D) m = y y y z z z

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Column II (p) (q) GMm r GMm 2r h R

(D) Total mechanical energy of an orbiting body

Column I (A) Average K. E. of a molecule per degree of freedom

(q) 2.303 nRT log 1 2

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(B) electrodialysis (D) ultrafiltration (B) q = 0 (D) PV = 0

24. In an adiabatic process, which of the following is true?

. The enthalpy of isomerisation of cyclopropane to propene is

(A) 209.13 kJ mol

(C) 2091.32 kJ mol

26. When CO2 dissolves in water, the following equilibrium is established, CO

and pH = 6.0. The ratio

(B) 3.8 10 (D) 7.5920

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(A) KMnO + conc. HCl

(C) MnO2 + conc. HCl (D) KCl + F2 30. by E1 reaction gives

(D) SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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. The final product Z is

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CCl4 is readily hydrolysed by water.

CCl is a covalent halide.

Aluminium corrodes at a faster rate than magnesium.

of magnesium is higher than that of aluminium.

Molecularity of a zero order reaction is not zero.

Bromine addition to an alkene is an electrophilic addition. SECTION III

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The product of the reaction is O (A) CH

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