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Quick Start to Preparation for ISTQB CTAL Test Analyst or Technical Test Analyst Exam Have you achieved

an advanced point in your career in software testing? or Your functional role is that of a tester or test analyst or test engineer or test consultant or test manager or user acceptance tester or a software developer? or You want a deeper understanding of software testing, like that of a project manager or quality manager or software development manager or business analyst or IT director or a management consultant? & You are already holding the Foundation Level Certificate (CTFL)? & You have sufficient practical experience to be considered Advanced Level qualified? If Yes !!! Come on & read further. A) Important Facts you must know: 1) ISTQB offers three types of certifications under the generic name CTAL (Certified Tester Advanced Level); i.e. a) Advanced Level Test Analyst Short Name CTAL TA b) Advanced Level Technical Test Analyst Short Name CTAL TTA c) Advanced Level Test Manager Short Name CTAL TM 2) ISTQB Certified Tester Advanced Level Syllabus had been updated in 2007. Following quick start tips are based upon this latest syllabus. 3) ISTQB Advanced Level exam is intended to check your knowledge of the entire discipline of software testing covered in the Advanced Level Syllabus as well as the Foundation level syllabus. 4) The ISTQB Certified Tester Advanced Level Syllabus V2007 is available for download freely from Latest Advanced Level Syllabus B) K-Levels related to topics in the Advanced Level Test Analyst or Technical Test Analyst Exam Syllabus: Every topic in the Advanced Level Syllabus corresponds to certain level of understanding, represented by the term K1, K2, K3 or K4 like in Foundation Level Syllabus.

1) Level K1 refers to the ability to recall, so that you should be able to remember but not necessarily use or explain. 2) Level K2 refers to the ability to explain a topic or to classify information or make comparisons. 3) Level K3 refers to the ability to apply a topic in a practical scenario. 4) Level K4 refers to the ability to analyze a situation or a set of information to determine what action to take. 5) In Test Analyst or Technical Test Analyst Exam all parts of the advanced level syllabus are examinable at a K1 level as well. C) K-Levels & associated levels of difficulty: 1) K1, K2, K3 and K4 levels do not reflect on being easy, moderate or hard. The K level identifies the level of understanding being tested, not the difficulty of the question. 2) It is possible that K2 questions might be more difficult (in the sense of being more challenging to answer) than a K3 question. 3) Generally K1 questions will be the most straightforward and if you are aware of the content of the syllabus, you wont have difficulty in answering any K1 question. D) Breakup of Questions in the CTAL Test Analyst or Technical Test Analyst Exam: 1) Three-hours (180 Minutes) exams comprises of 65 multiple-choice questions. 2) The questions can carry different weightage like 1, 2 or 3 points. 3) Passing marks are 65%. There are no negative marking for the wrong answers. 4) The exam is highly structured & is primarily based upon the syllabus and is aimed at checking the practical knowledge of the aspirant. 5) The questions are aimed at applying the concept described in the syllabus to the actual work place situations. 6) Before appearing in the CTAL Test Analyst or Technical Test Analyst Exam, it is essential to brush up your knowledge on Foundation Level Syllabus, since you are likely to get many questions out of the CTFL syllabus you have already studied & passed the exam. E) Main Sections of Syllabus applicable to the CTAL Test Analyst or Technical Test Analyst Level exam:

The following ten sections of the syllabus shall be applicable for Test Analyst or Technical Test Analyst Exam. Time you are expected to devote towards each section is indicated alongwith an approximate %age of the study time required for the entire content as per the syllabus. For CTAL Test Analyst Exam: 1) Introduction to CTAL Test Analyst Syllabus (Including revision of ISTQB Foundation Level syllabus) (Recommended Study Time 60 Minutes); 3% of total time 2) CTAL Syllabus Chapter 1: Basic Aspects of software testing; (Recommended Study Time 30 Minutes); 1% of total time 3) CTAL Syllabus Chapter 2: Testing Processes; (Recommended Study Time 180 Minutes); 9% of total time 4) CTAL Syllabus Chapter 3: Test Management; (Recommended Study Time 120 Minutes); 6% of total time 5) CTAL Syllabus Chapter 4: Test Techniques; (Recommended Study Time 1080 Minutes); 51% of total time 6) CTAL Syllabus Chapter 5: Testing of Software Characteristics; (Recommended Study Time 210 Minutes); 10% of total time 7) CTAL Syllabus Chapter 6: Reviews; (Recommended Study Time 180 Minutes); 9% of total time 8) CTAL Syllabus Chapter 7: Incident Management; (Recommended Study Time 120 Minutes); 6% of total time 9) CTAL Syllabus Chapter 9: Test Tool Automation; (Recommended Study Time 90 Minutes); 4% of total time 10) CTAL Syllabus Chapter 10: People Skills Team Composition; (Recommended Study Time 30 Minutes); 1% of total time Note: CTAL Syllabus Chapter 8 on Standards & Test Improvement Process is not applicable for the Test Analyst exam. For CTAL Technical Test Analyst Exam: 1) Introduction to CTAL Technical Test Analyst Syllabus (Including revision of ISTQB Foundation Level syllabus) (Recommended Study Time 60 Minutes); 3% of total time

2) CTAL Syllabus Chapter 1: Basic Aspects of software testing; (Recommended Study Time 30 Minutes); 1% of total time 3) CTAL Syllabus Chapter 2: Testing Processes; (Recommended Study Time 180 Minutes); 9% of total time 4) CTAL Syllabus Chapter 3: Test Management; (Recommended Study Time 120 Minutes); 5% of total time 5) CTAL Syllabus Chapter 6: Test Techniques; (Recommended Study Time 930 Minutes); 45% of total time 6) CTAL Syllabus Chapter 6: Testing of Software Characteristics; (Recommended Study Time 240 Minutes); 12% of total time 7) CTAL Syllabus Chapter 6: Reviews; (Recommended Study Time 180 Minutes); 9% of total time 8) CTAL Syllabus Chapter 7: Incident Management; (Recommended Study Time 120 Minutes); 5% of total time 9) CTAL Syllabus Chapter 9: Test Tool Automation; (Recommended Study Time 210 Minutes); 10% of total time 10) CTAL Syllabus Chapter 10: People Skills Team Composition; (Recommended Study Time 30 Minutes); 1% of total time Above recommendations of study times are approximate, however the exam questions are by & large structured as per these & are quite close to these proportions as far as possible. More the time you devote towards the study of these topics, better understanding & confidence to crack the exam you will develop. Note: CTAL Syllabus Chapter 8 on Standards & Test Improvement Process is not applicable for the Technical Test Analyst exam. F) Tips for better performance in the exam: 1) Read the syllabus carefully & you should be quite familiar with it. Generally the questions come directly from the syllabus and usually even the wording too is similar to that used in the syllabus. 2) Solve as many example questions as you can so that you become familiar with the wording of questions as well as types of questions. 3) Although It is a long duration exam, still you will feel that it is difficult to study the entire paper in depth. Hence to begin with, study the entire paper answering those questions that are straightforward and for which you know the answer.

After finishing this simple task you will have a smaller task to complete and you will probably have taken less than a minute for each question that you have already answered, giving you more time to concentrate on those that you will need more time to answer. 4) If you have prepared well, you can answer 65 questions in less than 100 minutes. G) How to prepare for the CTAL Test Analyst or Technical Test Analyst Exam in the shortest possible time & without any formal training: Step 1: Deep study of the chapters applicable to the latest CTAL Test Analyst or Technical Test Analyst Exam Syllabus. Step 2: Study the Objective Type Questions especially prepared as per the latest CTAL Test Analyst or Technical Test Analyst Exam Syllabus.

Begin from the First Set of Sample Question Papers


Step 3: Prepare from set of 80 descriptive questions (Set of 8 Parts) explaining the topics in greater depth.

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Step 4: Prepare from the series of articles especially written to address different topics of the CTAL Test Analyst or Technical Test Analyst exam.

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H) Abilities you will acquire after clearing the CTAL Test Analyst or Technical Test Analyst exam: Certification of CTAL Test Analyst implies that you have acquired following abilities: 1) Ability to structure the tasks defined in the test strategy in terms of business domain requirements 2) Ability to analyze the system in sufficient detail to meet the user quality expectations 3) Ability to evaluate the system requirements to determine domain validity 4) Ability to prepare and execute the adequate activities, and report on their progress 5) Ability to provide the necessary evidence to support evaluations 6) Ability to implement the necessary tools and techniques to achieve the defined goals Certification of CTAL Technical Test Analyst implies that you have acquired following abilities:

1) Ability to structure the tasks defined in the test strategy in terms of technical requirements 2) Ability to analyze the internal structure of the system in sufficient detail to meet the expected quality level 3) Ability to evaluate the system in terms of technical quality attributes such as performance, security, etc. 4) Ability to prepare and execute the adequate activities, and report on their progress 5) Ability to conduct technical testing activities 6) Ability to provide the necessary evidence to support evaluations 7) Ability to implement the necessary tools and techniques to achieve the defined goals

K-Level wise topics for CTAL Test Analyst Exam as per the CTAL syllabus ISTQB Certified Tester Advanced Level Syllabus had been updated in 2007. Following K-Level wise topics recommended for study for the Test Analyst exam are based upon this latest syllabus. (A) CTAL Test Analyst Exam Syllabus Chapter 1: Basic Aspects of Software Testing Testing in the Software Lifecycle Level K2: Describe how testing is a part of any software development and maintenance activity Level K4: Analyze software life-cycle models and outline the most appropriate tasks/test activities to be executed. (distinguish between test and development activities) Specific Level K2: Explain by giving examples the specifics of testing systems of systems Systems

Level K2: Explain why the three main outcomes of testing safety critical systems are required to demonstrate compliance to regulations Metrics & Level K2: Describe and compare the standard testing related metrics Measurement

Level K3: Monitor testing activities by measuring the test object(s) and the test process

(B) CTAL

Test

Analyst

Exam

Syllabus

Chapter

2:

Testing

Processes

Test Analysis & Design Level K2: Explain the causes of functional testing taking place in specific stages of an applications life cycle

Level K2: Exemplify the criteria that influence the structure and level of test condition development Level K2: Describe how test analysis and design are static testing techniques that can be used to discover defects Level K2: Explain by giving examples the concept of test oracles and how a test oracle can be used in test specifications Test implementation & execution Level K2: Describe the pre-conditions for test execution, including: testware; test environment; configuration management; and defect management Evaluating Exit Criteria and Reporting Level K3: Determine from a given set of measures if a test completion criterion has been fulfilled.

(C) CTAL Test Analyst Exam Syllabus Chapter 3: Test Management Risks Based Testing Level K3: Prioritize test case selection, test coverage and test data based on risk and document this appropriately in a test schedule and test procedure Level K2: Outline the activities of a risk based approach for planning and executing domain testing

(D) CTAL Test Analyst Exam Syllabus Chapter 4: Test Techniques Specification based Level K2: List examples of typical defects to be identified by each specific specificationbased techniques, provide corresponding coverage criteria Level K3: Write test cases from given software models using the following test design techniques (The tests shall achieve a given model coverage) a) Equivalence partitioning b) Boundary value analysis c) Decision tables d) State Transition Testing e) Classification Tree Method f) Pairwise testing g) Use cases Level K4: Analyze a system, or its requirement specification, in order to determine which specification-based techniques to apply for specific objectives, and outline a test specification based on IEEE 829, focusing on functional and domain test cases and test procedures Defect and Experience Based

Level K2: Describe the principle and reasons for defect-based techniques and differentiate its use from specificationand structure-based techniques Level K2: Explain by examples defect taxonomies and their use Level K2: Understand the principle of and reasons for using experienced-based techniques and when to use them Level K3: Specify, execute and report tests using exploratory testing Level K2: Classify defects to be identified by the different types of software fault attacks according to the defects they target Level K4: Analyze a system in order to determine which specification-based defect-based or experienced-based techniques to apply for specific goals.

(E) CTAL Test Analyst Exam Syllabus Chapter 5: Test of Software Characteristics Quality Attributes for Domain Testing Level K4: Explain by examples what testing techniques listed in chapter 4 are appropriate to test of accuracy, suitability, interoperability, functional security, and accessibility characteristics. Level K3: Outline, design, specify and execute usability tests using appropriate techniques and covering given test objectives and defects to be targeted. Quality Attributes for Technical Testing Level K2: Explain the reasons for including efficiency, reliability and technical security tests in a testing strategy and provide examples of defects expected to be found Level K2: Characterize non-functional test types for technical testing by typical defects to be targeted (attacked), its typical application within the application life-cycle, and test techniques suited to used for test design. (F) CTAL Test Analyst Exam Syllabus Chapter 6: Reviews Level K3: Use a review checklist to verify code and architecture from a testers perspective Level K3: Use a review checklist to verify requirements and use cases from a testers perspective Level K2: Compare review types with each other and show their relative strengths, weaknesses and fields of use. (G) CTAL Test Analyst Exam Syllabus Chapter 7: Incident Management Level K4: Analyze, classify and describe functional and non-functional defects in understandable defect reports (H) CTAL Test Analyst Exam Syllabus Chapter 9: Test Tools & Automation Test Tool Concepts Level K2: Compare the elements and aspects within each of the test tool concepts "Benefits & Risks", "Test Tool Strategies", "Tool Integration", "Automation Languages", "Test Oracles", "Tool Deployment", "Open Source Tools", "Tool Development", and "Tool Classification"

Test Tool Categories Level K2: Summarize the test tool categories by objectives, intended use, strengths, risks and provide examples Level K2: Map the tools of the tool categories to different levels and types of testing

(I) CTAL Test Analyst Exam Syllabus Chapter 10: People Skills Team Composition Communication Level K2: Describe by example professional, objective and effective communication in a project from the tester perspective. You may consider risks and opportunities.. Note: CTAL Syllabus Chapter 8 on "Standards & Test Improvement Process" is not applicable for the Test Analyst exam.

ISTQB Advanced Level Test Analyst & Technical Test Analyst Exam - Sample Paper: Q. 1 to 10 Deep study of this set of 80 questions shall be of great help in getting success in ISTQB CTAL Advanced Level Test Analyst & Technical Test Analyst Exam. All these questions are based upon ISTQB Certified Tester Advanced Level Syllabus V 2007. Set of 10 Questions (Q. 1 to 10) Sample Questions in context of CTAL Syllabus Chapter 1: Basic Aspects of Software Testing Q. 1: Which of the following test techniques can detect defects in the requirements specification at the earliest possible time? A. Inspection B. Performance testing C. Equivalence partitioning D. Unit testing <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 2: You are designing tests for an integrated system that will use three off-the-shelf components to manage a bank's accounts-receivable system. You have been given a state transition diagram from the business analysts that shows the sequence of states an invoice moves through from generation to ultimate payment or laic thereof. You have also been given a design document from the system architects that shows which tables are used to store various portions of the invoice and its related information. You intend to create a set of end-to-end tests that cover all major use cases and workflows associated with processing invoices. Which of the following is the best solution to the oracle problem for this test? A. Use only the state transition diagram as the oracle, since this should be a black-box test. B. Use only the design document as the oracle, since this should be a white-box test.

C. Use both the design document and the state transition diagram as oracles. D. Use neither document as an oracle, but rely entirely on your understanding of the system. <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 3: Which of the following is a black-box (behavioral) test design technique discussed in BS 7925/2? A. Classification trees B. Orthogonal arrays C. Statement coverage D. State transition diagrams <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 4: When should standards be applied to testing? A. Whenever useful B. Only when required C. On all projects D. On regulated projects <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 5: Which of the following statements about the IEEE 1028 standard is true? A. It requires the use of inspections B. It addresses only management reviews and audits C. It requires the use of pair programming and pair testing D. It defines inspections, walkthroughs, and technical reviews <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 6: Which of the following statements are correct? I. IEEE 1028 is an international standard on reviews. II. Early reviews are very cost effective in finding defects. III. Review is considered a static testing IV. All types of documents can be reviewed (source code, requirements document, test plan document) A. I, II and III true B. I, III and IV true C. I, II, III and IV true D. II, III and lV true <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 7: You are testing a product for which you will receive few if an), specification documents. The usual approach to development is to get an idea and start building something, letting the idea evolve as it proceeds, while writing very little down. You decide to use exploratory testing as a primary testing technique.

Which of the following statements is true about your test condition document or documents? A. It will have three levels. The first level will be classic quality risks, the second will be level failure modes, and the third level will be the effects of those failure modes. B. It will have three levels. The first level will be ISO 9126 quality characteristics, the second level will be ISO 9126 sub characteristics, and the third level will be quality risk items. C. It will have two levels. The first level will be user requirements and the second level i8rill be system requirements. D. It will have one level. It will be a set of test charters, where each test charter states the test objectives to be covered and gives some ideas about how to test those objectives. <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 8: Assume you are working at a bank. The management of the information technology group is concerned about potential security problems in the code that runs the bank's critical infrastructure. What kind of tool is likely to be useful in evaluating the risk? A. Test execution B. Test management C. Static analysis D. Fault injection <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Sample Questions in context of CTAL Syllabus Chapter 2: Testing Processes Q. 9: Which of the following classifications spans all four steps in the IEEE 1044 classification process? A. Recognition B. Investigation C. Impact identification D. Disposition <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 10: As a test analyst, which of the following roles would you expect to play in test estimation? A. Participating in a wide-band Delphi session B. Performing Test Point Analysis C. Researching industry averages D. Obtaining management commitment to a test budget

ISTQB Advanced Level Test Analyst & Technical Test Analyst Exam - Sample Paper: Q. 11 to 20 Deep study of this set of 80 questions shall be of great help in getting success in ISTQB CTAL Advanced Level Test Analyst & Technical Test Analyst Exam. All these questions are based upon ISTQB Certified Tester Advanced Level Syllabus V 2007.

Set of 10 Questions (Q. 11 to 20) Correct Answers of earlier Q. 1 to 10 are at the end of this page: Q. 11: The main Objective of Test Analysis and Design phase is to; A. Create test strategy and test plan B. Design and create the test environment C. Identify test conditions and create test cases D. Archive test results, logs and reports in the configuration management system <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 12: Which of the statements are true about test cases? I. All test cases should be automated II. Test cases should be repeatable III. Test cases should be traceable back to requirements IV. Test cases should have expected results A. I,II and III are true, IV is false B. II,III and IV are true, I is false C. III and IV are true , I and II false D. All of them are true <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 13: According to the ISTQB syllabus, Test Analysis and Design phase metrics include, A. Percentage of requirements covered by test conditions, percentage of test conditions covered by test cases and number of defects found during test analysis and design. B. Percentage of requirements covered by test conditions, percentage of test conditions covered by test cases and percentage of test cases automated. C. Percentage of requirements covered by test conditions, percentage of test cases automated and percentage of test environment configured. D. Percentage of test cases automated, percentage of test cases executed and percentage of test environment configured. <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 14: Objectives of test implementation phase are; I. Create test procedures. II. Finalize and create test data and set up environment III. Create a test execution schedule / order IV. Check test level entry criteria

A. I and II true. III and IV false B. II, III and IV true. I false C. I, II, III and IV true. D. III and IV true, I and II false <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 15: Select the correct answer; A. If the expected and actual results do not match, it is always because of a defect in the software under test. B. Customers should not be involved in any level of test execution. C. Collecting test evidence / test logging is always up to the tester to decide. D. Actual and expected results comparison is part of test execution phase. <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 16: Select the correct answer; I. IEEE 829 contains a standard for test summary report. II. Test reporting can occur at the end of the testing effort. III. Percentage of test time lost due to blocking events is not a valid metric to monitor. IV. Test summary report may contain summary of testing activities, versions of the software tested and management approvals. A. I, II and III are true, IV false B. I and II true, III and IV are false C. I, II and IV are true, III false D. I and IV are true, II and III are false <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 17: The testing department of a leading company delivered a software, which included the three new features along with the test qualification report. They also archived their test results, logs, and other test artifacts in company documentation database. Scheduled a lessons learned meeting with the software testers, project managers and software developers. The testing department is describing; A. Test analysis activities B. Test planning activities C. Test closure activities D. User acceptance testing activities <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 18: Which of the following statements are true? I. Percentage of test data loaded is a metric to monitor during test closure activities

II. Test coverage is a metric to monitor during test closure activities. III. Cause Effect Analysis of defects can be done as part of test closure activities. IV. Identification of potential process improvement can be done as part of test closure activities. A. II, III and IV true, I is false B. I true, II, III and IV false C. II and III true, I and IV false D. II and IV true, I and III false <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Sample Questions in context of CTAL Syllabus Chapter 3: Test Management Q. 19: Which of the statements are true about a test policy document? Test policy document; I. Is a high level document which describes the company philosophy towards quality assurance. II. Contains the company values, goals related to testing and test process. III. May contain activities for test process improvement IV. May contain information about how to evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of testing. A. I and II true, III and IV false B. III and IV false, I and II true C. I, II and IV true, III false D. All of them are true <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 20: Test Strategy; A. Includes organization's methods of testing, risk management and high level activities of testing. B. Cannot be preventive or reactive. C. Includes the application of the test strategy to a project. D. Describes desired quality targets.

ISTQB Advanced Level Test Analyst & Technical Test Analyst Exam - Sample Paper: Q. 21 to 30

Deep study of this set of 80 questions shall be of great help in getting success in ISTQB CTAL Advanced Level Test Analyst & Technical Test Analyst Exam. All these questions are based upon ISTQB Certified Tester Advanced Level Syllabus V 2007. Set of 10 Questions (Q. 21 to 30) Correct Answers of earlier Q. 11 to 20 are at the end of this page: Q. 21: Which of the statements are true about Test Strategy approaches? I. Company can use analytical strategy (risk based) for their test strategy. II. Company can use dynamic strategy for their test strategy. III. Company may combine two or more test strategies for their test activities. IV. Company may not have a test strategy document. A. I and II true B. I III and III true C. I, II, III and IV true D. I, II, IV true <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 22: Master test plan may contain; I. Items to be tested, out of scope test items II. Testing schedule, budget III. Entry and exit criteria for each level and relationship among each level IV. Business value of testing A. I, II true. B. II, III true C. I,III, IV true D. I, II, III, IV true <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 23: Which of the statements are true about test documentation? I. IEEE 829 standard contains test documentation template II. Level test plan is a more detailed document, which has information about testing tasks and milestones. III. Test plan structures may vary depending on the organization and project. IV. Test strategy or test plan is not required for safety critical projects. A. I,II,III true B. I, II, IV true

C. II, III, IV true D. III, IV true <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 24: Which of the following is correct about test progress monitoring? I. According to ISQTB syllabus, Product Risks, Defects, Tests, Coverage and Confidence are 5 dimensions that can be used to monitor test progress. II. Confidence is measured via surveys and questionnaires and outcome is subjective to the person responding. Ill. Various metrics are used to measure the product risks, tests and coverage. IV. One outcome of the progress monitoring could be to relax the test exit criteria. A. All of the above is true B. All of the above is false C. I, II and III true. D. I and II true. <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 25: Which of the statement are true about risk based testing; I. All risks have equal weights / concerns. II. The level of risk is influenced by likelihood of the risk and impact of the risk. III. All risks must be mitigated. IV. Main developer quitting, during the coding phase of the project can be a project risk. A. I and II true B. I and III true C. II and IV true D. III and IV true <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 26: Select the correct matching pair. According to the ISTQB Syllabus; I. Risk Identification II. Risk Analysis III. Risk mitigation a. Methods include: Expert interviews, checklists, brainstorming and past experience. b. Technical factors include: Training issues, tools and technology, conflicts within the team

c. Business factors include: Damage to the image, loss of license, legal issues A. I-a,II-b,III-c B. I-a,II-b,III-b C. I-b,II-c,III-a D. I-c,II-b,III-a <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 27: According to the ISTQB syllabus, major ways to handle risks are: I. Mitigate the risk through preventive measures. II. Make contingency plans to reduce impact if risk occurs. III. Transfer the risk to someone else to handle. IV. Ignore and accept the risk. A. I, II and III true B. I, II and IV true C. II, III, IV true D. I, II, III, IV true <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 28: Failure Mode and Effect Analysis (FMEA) should be applied; A. In safety critical systems B. Only on underground systems C. Only on air traffic systems D. In all systems <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 29: Innovative software solutions have adopted a new way of testing their software. Testers set up the test environment, scan the software and look for problems for about 3 hours every week on Mondays and Wednesdays (in addition to their normal test activities). They create a session sheet and record testers name, date and time started, issues found, task breakdown and defects found at the end. Then the test manager holds a meeting with the testers and reviews the session sheet. Manager asks the testers for their outlook, results, what happened during the testing and their feelings about past 3 hours. What type of testing activity is described above? A. Risk based testing B. Exploratory Testing C. State transition Testing D. Decision Testing <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 30: A development house (DH) uses the V model for its projects. It delivers systems to the energy industry. In response to consumer demands, DH has been asked to create an online system for consumers to switch energy suppliers easily.

There are already offerings in the marketplace for this service, but DH thinks it can provide a service which is easier to use. It will request more detailed information on homes and occupant lifestyles in order to accurately predict likely bills per quarter, and will update users if a cheaper tariff becomes available. For this new service, the specifications have been defined, code has been created, and system testing is about to start. Which of the following could form part of the entry criteria into system testing? I. 100 per cent decision coverage of all tariff calculations. II. 100 per cent functional specification coverage of all household types. III. Outstanding defects at integration testing highlighted. IV. Test summary report for system testing produced. V. Business requirements signed off. A. I, II and III B. II, III and IV C. I and III D. I, III and IV Explanation in favor of the correct Answer: Option I, 100 per cent decision coverage of tariff calculations, could form part of the exit criteria from unit and integration testing, which could then become part of the entry criteria for system testing. Therefore, this is a suitable option. Option II, 100 per cent functional specification coverage, would form part of the exit criteria from system testing. Therefore, this is unsuitable. Option III, outstanding defects highlighted at integration testing, could form part of the exit criteria from integration testing, and thus form part of the entry criteria into system testing. Option IV, test summary report produced for system testing, will be done at defined check points and at the end of system testing, not at the beginning. Therefore, this would not be part of the entry criteria into system testing. Option V, sign-off of the business requirements, would form part of the entry criteria into acceptance testing, not system testing. For getting the correct answer browse down to the end of this page

ISTQB Advanced Level Test Analyst & Technical Test Analyst Exam - Sample Paper: Q. 31 to 40 Deep study of this set of 80 questions shall be of great help in getting success in ISTQB CTAL Advanced Level Test Analyst & Technical Test Analyst Exam. All these questions are based upon ISTQB Certified Tester Advanced Level Syllabus V 2007.

Set Correct

of Answers

10 of earlier

Questions Q. 21 to 30

(Q. are at

31 the end

to of this

40) page:

Q. 31: A development house (DH) uses the V model for its projects. It delivers systems to the energy industry. In response to consumer demands, DH has been asked to create an online system for consumers to switch energy suppliers easily. There are already offerings in the marketplace for this service, but DH thinks it can provide a service which is easier to use. It will request more detailed information on homes and occupant lifestyles in order to accurately predict likely bills per quarter, and will update users if a cheaper tariff becomes available. For this new service, the specifications have been defined, code has been created, and system testing is about to start. Which of the following would form part of the entry criteria into unit testing (which will be followed by integration testing)? I. 100 per cent decision coverage of all tariff calculations. II. Signed-off program specification. III. Signed-off technical specification. IV. 100 per cent program specification coverage. V. Compiled code. A. I, III and V B. II and V C. I, II and III D. III, IV and V Explanation in favor of the correct Answer: Option I, 100 per cent decision coverage, would form part of the exit criteria out of unit testing, not the entry criteria. Option II, a signed-off program specification, is valid as an entry criterion into unit testing (although very rare in the real world!). Option III, a signed-off technical specification, would apply at integration testing. Option IV, 100 per cent coverage of the program specification, would form part of the exit criteria out of unit testing. Option V, complied code, should be a given, but is relevant as an entry criterion into unit testing. For getting the correct answer browse down to the end of this page <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 32: A local council employs its own IT staff; there are 40, most of whom have been with the council for over 10 years.

The council uses the Agile development methodology. Each project has between five and nine team members, all of whom work very closely together. At the start of each iteration, the requirements are loosely defined. These are then built, tested and refined. The IT Department has been asked to upgrade the council website to include: # Information on recycling targets; # Amounts recycled per month; and # Energy usage in the recycling effort. The project will be undertaken in three iterations, one for each requirement defined above. Which two of the following methods of test estimation would be most appropriate in this situation? I. Making use of a work breakdown structure. II. Taking 30 per cent of the total iteration time. III. Calculating the time required using test point analysis. IV. Gaining consensus from the team. A. I and II B. II and III C. I and IV D. II and IV Explanation in favor of the correct Answer: Option I, a work-breakdown structure, could be used here because we have experienced staff and requirements definitions (albeit loosely defined at first). Option II, taking a random percentage of development time, is not ideal because we do have experience. The scenario does not suggest that the iteration time is known upfront, and in iterative development is likely to change. Option III, using test point analysis, is very time-consuming and requires fully defined specifications. The scenario states that these will evolve. Option IV, gaining consensus, is useful since the team does work closely together. For getting the correct answer browse down to the end of this page <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Sample Questions in context of CTAL Syllabus Chapter 4: Test Techniques Q. 33: Which of the following are "white-box" test techniques?

I. Decision Testing II. Condition Testing III. LCSAJ (loop testing) IV. State transition testing A. I, II true.III, IV false B. I, III, IV true, II false C. I, II, III true, IV false D. All of the above <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 34: According to the ISTQB Syllabus, which of the following are test techniques? I. Experienced based II. Defect based III. Static and dynamic analysis IV. Structure based A. III is true. I, II, IV false B. I, IV true. II, III false C. All of the above D. None of the above <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 35: Software Testers in a software development company installed the new release on test systems and started the testing phase. Testers verified the new functionality, performed necessary security testing and completed planned regression tests. During the last week of testing, testers noticed that the memory utilization was more than 95% on two of the test servers (out of 4 servers). This behavior was not observed during the first weeks of the testing phase. As a test analyst, what would you do? A. Ignore the problem because other two servers are okay (memory utilization is normal) B. Report the problem to the developer immediately and create a defect report because it could be a problem related to memory leak. C. Reboot the system so that memory utilization will come back to normal. Not report it as a problem. D. Create a defect report and reboot the system to correct the memory problem. <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 36: Select the correct statement related to test techniques; I. Software program should be running to perform dynamic analysis II. Software program should be running to perform static analysis III. Control flow analysis is part of dynamic analysis IV. Data flow analysis is part of static analysis

A. I, II true. III, IV false B. I, III true. II, IV false C. I, IV true. II, III false D. I true. II, III, IV false <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 37: You and two junior testers have been assigned to a new project qualification by your manager. Development of the code started two weeks ago and now you are invited to attend a code review meeting by development manager. Meeting agenda is to cover following items. # Verify code compliance to coding standards # Verify comment usage frequency # Review number of function calls # Review logical decision points in the application What is the purpose of this meeting? A. Perform a Static Analysis of the code with the intention of finding bugs early. B. Explain the testers how the program should work. C. Get an agreement to release the partially completed software to the testing department. D. Explain the complexity of the code. <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 38: Integrated Solutions Inc. is a software testing company with 20 testers. One of their clients provided a software release and requested to test the software within 2 weeks. The client did not provide any specifications of the software or any documentation. However, Integrated Solutions Inc. testers have tested similar releases from the same client in the past. As a Senior Software Tester, what is your best approach? A. Test the product using "Defect and Experienced Based" techniques like error guessing, exploratory and attacks. B. Request for more time. C. Explain the client why you cannot test the software. D. Test only performance of the software. <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 39: A software company developed a software application for a Life Insurance Company. The testers of the software company were given the release to test. The software application calculates the annual life insurance cost based on customers' age. Life insurance cost is as follows per year;

# Age 18 or less: US $ 300 # Age over 18 or less than 70: US $ 500 # Person has to be at least 1 year old to purchase insurance If a customer enters any other age, the software prints an error message. The Application accepts only positive integer values (no decimals). Given above scenario, how many valid test cases at minimum can you derive using equivalence partitioning? A. 4 B. 3 C. 5 D. 2 Explanation in favor of the correct Answer: Equivalence partitioning test technique helps to identify the minimum number of black box test cases by providing reasonably good test coverage. In this scenario following shows the equivalence partitions: ------------ I -------------- I -------------- I ----------Age: 1 18 70 Invalid I valid I valid I Invalid So there are 2 invalid partitions (age less than 1, age more than 70) and 2 valid partitions (age 1-18, 19 - 70). Since the application is accepting only positive integers, we can ignore the age less than 1 (first invalid partition). Hence there are 2 valid partitions and you can create 1 test case from each group to cover this scenario. For getting the correct answer browse down to the end of this page <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 40: A software company developed a software application for a Life Insurance Company. The testers of the software company were given the release to test. The software application calculates the annual life insurance cost based on customers' age. Life insurance cost is as follows per year; # Age 18 or less: US $ 300 # Age over 18 or less than 70: US $ 500 # Person has to be at least 1 year old to purchase insurance

If a customer enters any other age, the software prints an error message. The Application accepts only positive integer values (no decimals). How many boundary value test cases can you derive for the life insurance application? A. 9 B. 10 C. 6 D. 3 Explanation in favor of the correct Answer: Boundary Value (BV) Analysis helps to find test cases at the boundary of each input In this scenario following shows the equivalence partitions: ------------ I -------------- I -------------- I ----------Age: 1 18 70 Invalid I valid I valid I Invalid BV tests: 0,1, 2, 17, 18, 19, 69, 70, 71 For getting the correct answer browse down to the end of this page

Set Correct

of Answers

10 of earlier

Questions Q. 31 to 40

(Q. are at

41 the end

to of this

50) page:

Q. 41: A software company developed a software application for a Life Insurance Company. The testers of the software company were given the release to test. The software application calculates the annual life insurance cost based on customers' age. Life insurance cost is as follows per year; # Age 18 or less: US $ 300 # Age over 18 or less than 70: US $ 500 # Person has to be at least 1 year old to purchase insurance If a customer enters any other age, the software prints an error message. The Application accepts only positive integer values (no decimals). How many test cases at minimum can you derive using both Boundary Value analysis and Equivalence partitioning to test the life insurance application? A. 9 B. 10 C. 6 D. 3

Explanation in favor of the correct Answer: Using Equivalence Partitioning (EP), (since the question does not mention valid/invalid partitions), we have to consider both. EP tests: 0, 2, 20, 75 (two from valid partition and two from invalid partition.) BV tests: 0, 1,2, 17,18,19, 69, 70, 71 Now let's see the unique number of tests that we can get: 0, 1,2,17,18,19,69,70,71 So the total number of tests are: 9 Why did we ignore 20 and 75 ? Because 20 and 19 both in the same valid partition and 19 is in the boundary. Therefore, we picked 19. 75 and 71 both in the same invalid partition and 71 is in the boundary. Therefore, we picked 71. For getting the correct answer browse down to the end of this page <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 42: A Car sales company is financing their customers' vehicles. Financing interest rates are as follows: (I) For all motorcycles: a) Customer Credit score 300 - 550 # Annual income US$ 40K-80K - Interest rate 15% # Annual income US$ 81K-100K- Interest rate 12 % # Annual income US $ 101K or more - Interest rate 9 % b) Customer Credit score 551- 680 # Annual income US$ 40K-80K - Interest rate 12% # Annual income US$ 81K-100K- Interest rate 9 % # Annual income US $ 101K or more - Interest rate 7 % c) Customer Credit score 681 or more # Annual income US$ 40K-80K - Interest rate 10% # Annual income US$ 81K-100K-Interest rate 6 # Annual income US $ 101K or more - Interest rate 5 %

(II) For all other vehicles the interest rate is 1 % less (from the values given above) for each category mentioned. a) Ex: Customer Credit score 300 - 550 Annual income US$ 40K-80K - Interest rate 14% and so on. Select the correct decision table from the decision tables given below for the above scenario

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 43: A Car sales company is financing their customers' vehicles. Financing interest rates are as follows: (I) For all motorcycles: a) Customer Credit score 300 - 550 # Annual income US$ 40K-80K - Interest rate 15% # Annual income US$ 81K-100K- Interest rate 12 % # Annual income US $ 101K or more - Interest rate 9 % b) Customer Credit score 551- 680 # Annual income US$ 40K-80K - Interest rate 12% # Annual income US$ 81K-100K- Interest rate 9 % # Annual income US $ 101K or more - Interest rate 7 % c) Customer Credit score 681 or more # Annual income US$ 40K-80K - Interest rate 10% # Annual income US$ 81K-100K-Interest rate 6 # Annual income US $ 101K or more - Interest rate 5 % (II) For all other vehicles the interest rate is 1 % less (from the values given above) for each category mentioned. a) Ex: Customer Credit score 300 - 550 Annual income US$ 40K-80K - Interest rate 14% and so on. What is the minimum number of test cases required to test the above application? (Hint: derive test cases using decision table technique using the decision table described in Q. 42 above)

A. 9 B. 18 C. 20 D. 2 Explanation in favor of the correct Answer: Count the number of columns in the correct decision table in Q.42 Option -A to get the answer For getting the correct answer browse down to the end of this page <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 44: Select the correct state transition diagram for the following train door open/close scenario. When the train is moving, the train doors are closed. After train stops at a station, doors will be opened by the operator, passengers take off and new passengers board the train. Doors will be opened for 40 seconds at the train station. Train doors will be closed when the train is not in service.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 45: Each number represents a state in the following online shopping cart state transition diagram. Select the correct pair.

A. 1- Initial state, 2- event, 3 - transition, 4 - state, 5 - Final State B. 1- Initial state, 2- event , 3 - states, 4 - transition, 5 - event C. 1- Initial state, 2- transition, 3 - event, 4 - state, 5 - Final State D. 1- Final state, 2- transition, 3 - event, 4 - state, 5 - Initial state <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 46: Use the following code; x=1 y=2 z=3 If { print } else { print } z=x if { print } else { print }

(x "Hi

= There

2) !";

"Good + (z "Welcome

bye"; y; ==4) Back!";

"Thank

you";

How many test cases, at minimum, are required for statement coverage? A. 4 B. 2 C. 3 D. 8 Explanation in favor of the correct Answer: In this case, we need to find how many test cases are required to cover each statement of the code.

One of the ways to find that number is to draw a flow chart as follows;

Nodes (circles) represent: each statement of the code Edges (lines) represent: links between the nodes (circles) In statement coverage, you need to cover all the nodes (circles). When looking at the above flow chart, we can see that 2 test cases are sufficient to cover the code (see the two bold lines). For getting the correct answer browse down to the end of this page <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 47: Use the following code; x=1 y=2 z=3 If { print } else { print }

(x "Hi

= There

2) !";

"Good

bye";

z=x if { print } else { print }

+ (z "Welcome

y; ==4) Back!";

"Thank

you";

How many test cases at minimum are required to test branch / decision coverage? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 1 Explanation in favor of the correct Answer:

To calculate the number of test cases required for branch coverage, you need to cover all the edges (lines). So from the above flow chart, we can cover all the lines / edges with two test cases. For getting the correct answer browse down to the end of this page <<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 48: Use the following code; x=1 y=2 z=3 If (x = = 2) { print "Hi There !"; } else { print "Good bye"; } z=x + y; if (z ==4) { print "Welcome Back!"; } else { print "Thank you"; } How many test cases at minimum are needed to test the path coverage? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 1 Explanation in favor of the correct Answer: To calculate the number of test cases required for path coverage, you need to cover all paths in the program considering one decision at a time. There are 3 ways to find the path coverage; (1) Using McCabe's technique. Number of Paths = e - n + 2 e - Edges (lines) n - Nodes (circles) From the above example: Number of Paths = 10 (lines) -9 ( circles) + 2 = 3 (2) Calculate the regions of the flow chart (area enclosed by lines is a region).

Always add outside region. So in this case, the number of paths = 3. (3) Calculate the decisions (true/false, etc) in the flow chart Number of Paths = Decisions + 1 There are two decision points in the above chart (if statements) So the number of paths = 2 + 1 = 3 You can use one of the techniques and find the number of paths. It is better to confirm the answer by using another method. The key is to draw the flow chart correctly. For getting the correct answer browse down to the end of this page <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 49: A College Enrollment application used by ABC College calculates the amount each student has to pay for gym and computer lab usage. The application asks for Student ID, Name and Student's major. Then the application calculates the fee. If student's major is Computer Science, they have to pay the full computer lab fee. If the student's major is not Computer Science, they have to pay only 1/3 rd of the computer lab fee. All students have to pay for the gym membership.

How many tests are required for path coverage of the above application? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 10 Explanation in favor of the correct Answer: You can draw the flow chart as follows:

So, using the first method; Number of paths = e-n+2 = 5-5+2 = 2 You can confirm the answer using one of the other two methods mentioned above. For getting the correct answer browse down to the end of this page

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 50: Consider the following perl code; $x = 100; If ($account > 100) { for ($deposit = 1 ; $deposit > 3 ; $deposit ++) {$x=$x+1; } if ($account <= 100) { for ($withdraw = 0; $withdraw > 2 ; $withdraw ++) { $x=$x-1; }

} $x=$x+100; How many test cases at a minimum are needed to test the path coverage? A. 6 B. 5 C. 4 D. 3 Explanation in favor of the correct Answer:

Path coverage: e - n + 2 = 15-12 +2 = 5 Q. 51: Consider the following perl statement. How many test cases are required at a minimum for condition coverage? $a=$x||$y A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 Explanation in favor of the correct Answer: Test cases are as follows: x = True, y = (True/False; does not matter because there is at least one True) x = False, y =True x = False, y = False For getting the correct answer browse down to the end of this page <<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 52: Select the correct classification tree diagram for the following Children Learning Program. The program displays three shapes; circle, square and triangle and two color choices (red & blue). The child has to identify the shape and the color and press the appropriate button on the screen. The computer program verifies the selection and provides a score at the end of the game. Which classification tree diagram displays the program choices?

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 53: An internet service provider (ISP) offers its services mainly to home users. With this group, a major target is home users with children. One of its key selling points is its Parental Control (PC) system. The PC system allows the user with Master rights to set the internet access privileges of the other users. Its categories of user are: Mature Teen (M), General Teen (G), Kids only (KO). # A Mature Teen can have 24-hour access, can access websites in the M category and can visit chat rooms. # A General Teen can have 95 access, can access websites in the G category and can visit chat rooms. # A Kid can have access up to 1 hour per day, can access websites in the KO category only, but cannot visit chat rooms. Which of the following provides the best description of a test condition for this system? A. The system will allow a user to have Master rights. B. The system will allow a General Teen to have 24-hour access. C. The system will allow Kids access to the M category of websites. D. The system will allow a Mature Teen to access only specified chat rooms. Explanation in favor of the correct Answer: Answers B-D do not match the scenario described. Answer B - General Teens should have 95 access. Answer C - Kids should have access to the KO category of websites only. Answer D - The specification is not clear on whether all chat rooms should be available to Mature Teens. This would need to be clarified. For getting the correct answer browse down to the end of this page <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 54: An internet service provider (ISP) offers its services mainly to home users. With this group, a major target is home users with children. One of its key selling points is its Parental Control (PC) system. The PC system allows the user with Master rights to set the internet access privileges of the other users. Its categories of user are: Mature Teen (M), General Teen (G), Kids only (KO). # A Mature Teen can have 24-hour access, can access websites in the M category and can visit chat rooms. # A General Teen can have 95 access, can access websites in the G category and can visit chat rooms. # A Kid can have access up to 1 hour per day, can access websites in the KO category only, but cannot visit chat rooms. Which of the following test design techniques would be best suited to testing that a General Teen can have only 95 access to the system?

A. State transition testing B. Equivalence partitioning C. Path testing D. Statement testing Explanation in favor of the correct Answer: Answer A - State transition testing is best suited to state-based systems. Answer C - Path testing is a white-box testing technique. It will test that all paths through the code can be executed, not that the outcomes are as defined in the specifications. Answer D - The statement is also a white-box technique. It will check that every executable statement can be executed, but as for path testing, not that the outcome is correct against the specification. For getting the correct answer browse down to the end of this page <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 55: An internet service provider (ISP) offers its services mainly to home users. With this group, a major target is home users with children. One of its key selling points is its Parental Control (PC) system. The PC system allows the user with Master rights to set the internet access privileges of the other users. Its categories of user are: Mature Teen (M), General Teen (G), Kids only (KO). # A Mature Teen can have 24-hour access, can access websites in the M category and can visit chat rooms. # A General Teen can have 95 access, can access websites in the G category and can visit chat rooms. # A Kid can have access up to 1 hour per day, can access websites in the KO category only, but cannot visit chat rooms. Which of the following types of testing would be best suited to checking the source code for data flow errors? A. Static analysis B. Dynamic analysis C. Performance testing D. Boundary value analysis Explanation in favor of the correct Answer: Answer B - Dynamic analysis is used to test the code, while it is running, for defects such as memory leaks. Answer C - Performance testing is used on software which is running, checking for issues with loading. Answer D - Boundary Value Analysis is also used on software which is running, to check for defects around defined boundaries. For getting the correct answer browse down to the end of this page

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 56: An internet service provider (ISP) offers its services mainly to home users. With this group, a major target is home users with children. One of its key selling points is its Parental Control (PC) system. The PC system allows the user with Master rights to set the internet access privileges of the other users. Its categories of user are: Mature Teen (M), General Teen (G), Kids only (KO). # A Mature Teen can have 24-hour access, can access websites in the M category and can visit chat rooms. # A General Teen can have 95 access, can access websites in the G category and can visit chat rooms. # A Kid can have access up to 1 hour per day, can access websites in the KO category only, but cannot visit chat rooms. For which of the following would decision testing be most suited? A. To check that the system allows the creation of a Master user. B. To check that the Master user can set access privileges. C. To check that the code relating to the Master user can be fully executed. D. To check that the Master user can be changed to a different user. Explanation in favor of the correct Answer: Answers A, B and D are related to the system definition, they would be tested using black-box techniques. Answer C relates to the code itself, and would be tested by a white-box technique, such as decision testing. For getting the correct answer browse down to the end of this page <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 57: A car manufacturer is updating its airbag deployment system for its family cars. It has increased the number of airbags from four to nine. This has necessitated an upgrade to the airbag control software (ACS) to allow deployment of the extra airbags where appropriate. The car manufacturer receives information from on-board sensors. From this, it calculates the amount of deployment needed (minimal, medium and full), and from which airbag(s). For this upgrade, it will receive information from extra sensors to be used in its calculations. The car manufacturer employs its own in-house software development team. It uses the V model for its software development. There are four stages of testing, from unit through to factory acceptance testing. The development team is made up of project, programming and test managers. The programmers use object-oriented methods for development. The car manufacturer wishes to be first to market with the extra airbags, which will allow it to increase the safety ratings for its family cars, thereby increasing sales in a very competitive market. Which of the following are risks associated with the use of the V model for this upgrade?

I. The sensors may not be responsive enough in impacts. II. The manufacturer may not be able to process the information received from the sensors quickly enough. III. The time required to create the high- and low-level designs may mean that insufficient time can be spent on system testing. IV. The system may fail factory acceptance testing, necessitating costly rework. A. I and II B. II and III C. III and IV D. I and IV Explanation in favor of the correct Answer: Option I refers to the functionality of the application. It is not life cycle dependent. Option II also refers to application functionality, thus is not dependent on the life cycle being used. Option III refers specifically to the V model requirement for high- and low-level designs, and thus is applicable. Option IV refers to rejection at the final stages of validation, a key risk of the V model. For getting the correct answer browse down to the end of this page <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 58: A car manufacturer is updating its airbag deployment system for its family cars. It has increased the number of airbags from four to nine. This has necessitated an upgrade to the airbag control software (ACS) to allow deployment of the extra airbags where appropriate. The car manufacturer receives information from on-board sensors. From this, it calculates the amount of deployment needed (minimal, medium and full), and from which airbag(s). For this upgrade, it will receive information from extra sensors to be used in its calculations. The car manufacturer employs its own in-house software development team. It uses the V model for its software development. There are four stages of testing, from unit through to factory acceptance testing. The development team is made up of project, programming and test managers. The programmers use object-oriented methods for development. The car manufacturer wishes to be first to market with the extra airbags, which will allow it to increase the safety ratings for its family cars, thereby increasing sales in a very competitive market. Which of the following is a risk associated with the development approach? A. Information hiding may pose extra testing challenges.

B. System testing may take longer than planned. C. The calculations may become overly complex due to the increase in the number of sensors. D. Testers may not be able to write the factory acceptance tests at the start of development Explanation in favor of the correct Answer: Answer B refers to a project risk, it is not specific to the use of object-oriented methods. Answer C refers to application functionality and its complexity. This is not specific to the use of object-oriented methods. Answer D is a risk associated with the use of the development life cycle, the V model, not the development approach. For getting the correct answer browse down to the end of this page <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 59: A car manufacturer is updating its airbag deployment system for its family cars. It has increased the number of airbags from four to nine. This has necessitated an upgrade to the airbag control software (ACS) to allow deployment of the extra airbags where appropriate. The car manufacturer receives information from on-board sensors. From this, it calculates the amount of deployment needed (minimal, medium and full), and from which airbag(s). For this upgrade, it will receive information from extra sensors to be used in its calculations. The car manufacturer employs its own in-house software development team. It uses the V model for its software development. There are four stages of testing, from unit through to factory acceptance testing. The development team is made up of project, programming and test managers. The programmers use object-oriented methods for development. The car manufacturer wishes to be first to market with the extra airbags, which will allow it to increase the safety ratings for its family cars, thereby increasing sales in a very competitive market. Which of the following is a product risk of the upgrade described? A. The extra airbags may restrict the visibility of the driver. B. The manufacturer may not be awarded its desired safety rating. C. There may be a need to use modeling tools at unit testing. D. The ACS may not be able to process the extra sensor data quickly enough, causing incorrect deployment of the airbag(s). Explanation in favor of the correct Answer:

Answer A refers to usability of the airbags in the car. The upgrade is concerned with airbag deployment, not its impact in use (although this should of course have already been considered before the upgrade was requested). Answer B refers to an activity independent of the challenges of development. It refers to the finished product, not specifically the ACS upgrade. Answer C refers to a project risk of a requirement for use of a tool, which may increase costs and introduce a need for training. For getting the correct answer browse down to the end of this page <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Sample Questions in context of CTAL Syllabus Chapter 5: Testing of Software Characteristics Q. 60: Select the correct answer; I. Verifying "what" the product does is part of functional testing. II. Usability Testing is a domain/functional testing technique. III. Inspection, evaluation and reviews are usability test techniques. IV. Understandability, learnability and attractiveness are attributes of usability A. I, II, III true, IV false B. II, III, IV true. I false C. I, II true. III, IV false D. All of the above true

Q. 61: According to the ISTQB syllabus, domain testing quality attributes are; I. II. III. Accuracy, Reliability, Performance, of of II Suitability, Maintainability, load, the the true. III Interoperability Portability Adaptability above above false

A. All B. None C. I and D. I true. II, III false <<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 62: Select the correct statement(s). According to the ISTQB Syllabus; I. Unauthorized access & copying, buffer overflow, logic bombs are part of Technical Security Testing. II. Fallback, backup and restore activities are part of recoverability testing. III. Verifying whether a system can handle peak loads at or above maximum capacity is called stress testing.

IV. Verifying whether a system can "meet future efficiency requirements" is called scalability testing A. I, II and III true. IV false B. I, IV true. II, III false C. II, III true. I, IV false D. All of the above are true <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 63: A Software Test Analyst at ABC company. received a new software release and the installation guide from Development. He followed the installation guide and successfully installed the software. Then he followed the fallback instructions and performed a successful fallback. After verifying that the software has completely fallen back as desired, he re-installed the software. What type of testing activity did he do? A. Portability testing B. Efficiency testing C. Reliability testing D. Usability Testing <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Sample Questions in context of CTAL Syllabus Chapter 6: Reviews Q. 64: Which of the following statements are correct? I. IEEE 1028 is an international standard on reviews. II. Early reviews are very cost effective in finding defects. III. Review is considered a static testing IV. Most documents can be reviewed (source code, requirements document, test plan document) A. I, II and III true B. I, III and IV true C. I, II, III and IV true D. II, III and IV true <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 65: You are a test analyst for XYZ Company. CEO of XYZ sent a meeting entry to you and your manager for a past project evidence and test deliverables review. A person from an external company would like to interview you regarding the previous project. This activity has a very high visibility from upper management. What type of review is described above? A. Management Review B. Technical Review C. Audit D. Inspection

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 66: What type of a review meeting is described below? "You were invited to attend a meeting next week. Meeting moderator included set of metrics and a document to be reviewed along with the meeting agenda. One of the meeting agendas is to find defects in the document sent. You and the other attendees were asked to review the document prior to the meeting". A. Informal Review B. Inspection C. Walkthrough D. None of the above <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 67: Select the matching pair; I. Contractual Review II. Requirement Review III. Design Review a. Involve Managers, customers and technical staff. Review contract milestones. b. Involve customers and technical staff. Review design solutions, test cases. c. Involve auditor. Review compliance to processes and regulations. d. Involve customers and technical staff. Reviewing functional and non functional requirements, test conditions. A. I-a,II-d,III-b B. I-c,II-b,III-a C. I-a,II-b,III-c D. I-b,II-c,III-d <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Sample Questions in context of CTAL Syllabus Chapter 7: Incident Management Q. 68: Select the correct pair; I. "Unexpected occurrence that requires a further investigation" II. "Recognition of failure caused by a defect" III. Requires a change to the work item a) Incident b) Defect c) Bug d) Failure A. I-a,II-a,III-b B. I-a,II-d,III-b C. I-b,II-c,III-d D. I-c,II-d,III-b

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 69: Which of the following statements are correct? I. A failure can be detected only by dynamic testing technique. II. Defects can exist in test environment. III. All incidents require a software change. IV. Code and design reviews can reveal defects A. I, II, III true B. I, II, IV true C. II, III, IV true D. II, IV true <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 70: IEEE 10440-1993 specifies a standard for defect reporting. Which of the following attributes should be in a defect report as per ISTQB Syllabus? A. Complete, concise, accurate and objective report. B. Compete and accurate. Does not have to be concise or objective. C. Complete and objective. Does not have to be accurate. D. Accurate. Does not have to be complete, concise or objective. Q. 71: A Junior software tester at ABC Inc. found a defect while testing release 2 of the eForm application. The eForm application does not accept more than 5 characters for its' "Last Name" field. Tester created a defect report. The defect report contains following information; "eForm application does not accept more than 5 characters for its' "Last Name" field" Select the correct statement regarding the defect report; A. Defect report is complete, accurate and concise. B. Defect report is accurate but not complete. C. Defect report is complete but not accurate. D. Defect report is complete but not concise. <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 72: A major bank has recently outsourced all of its software development in an effort to reduce its fixed costs. The new supplier will be responsible for all new developments as well as enhancements to existing ones. The bank has retained its own management team for its projects. There will be an inhouse project manager, development manager and test manager for each project. Some staff may work on more than one project, depending on the overall size. An enhancement is being made to allow existing customers to authorise their own loans online, from 1k to 10k by answering a series of questions. You are a test manager with the bank and you have written a test strategy for the outsourced team to follow. Unit testing has begun but informal conversations with the developers have revealed that they have not received a signed-off specification from the bank for the enhancement. They do know how loans work though and have created code from conversations with bank staff alongside their own knowledge.

How could a strategy have helped to avoid this situation? A. The test strategy would have identified bank staff with the right knowledge for consultation on the loan requirements. B. The test strategy would have laid out the process for capturing how the loan process would work which the outsourced team would have followed. C. The test strategy would have specified that a signed-off specification would be made available to the coding team prior to the start of development. D. The test strategy would have requested that the outsourced team take part in specifying the requirements, to make use of their knowledge. Explanation in favor of the correct Answer: Option A is about requirements capture, not testing. It may appear in a test plan, which may show how reviews of specifications may be carried out, but would not appear in the test strategy (it will say that reviews will be carried out, but would not name specific individuals). Answer B is again about requirements capture, it would not appear in the test strategy. Answer D is also about capturing the requirements. For getting the correct answer browse down to the end of this page <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 73: The aircrew of a national air defence force has requested changes to the existing aviation software that provides on-board information about the combat environment. The air force is currently engaged in a peace-keeping mission in another country and has come under unexpected threats. The development life cycle is the V model. The software house needs to change their test management process to ensure delivery at the right time and quality. The software changes are coming in as the aircrew request them, as a result of their engagements with hostile forces. The aircrew have requested that the changes are made as quickly as possible. The project manager has decided to revisit the test management process. The changes will come as small change requests. The team have worked on the project for over 25 years, with little staff turnover. Which of the following test measures should be emphasised during the crisis? I. Readiness of the test environment for each run. II. Number of high-priority defects being found. III. Number of defects being found per tester. IV. Number of hours overtime being worked by staff. V. Number of change requests tested versus number passed.

A. I, II and V B. II, III and IV

C. II, III and V D. I, II and III Explanation in favor of the correct Answer: Option I, readiness of the test environment, while it may be a given, should always be monitored. Option II, number of high-priority defects found is a good indicator of product quality and should be included. Option III, number of defects found per tester may be useful, but it would need to be combined with other data, such as requirements tested to be of any real value. Option IV, number of overtime hours worked by testers is unlikely to be of much concern here. Option V, number of change requests passing should be monitored. For getting the correct answer browse down to the end of this page <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Chapter 8: Standards & Test Improvement Process Not Applicable for Test Analyst & Technical Test Analyst exams

Sample Questions in context of CTAL Syllabus Chapter 9: Test Tools & Automation Q. 74: Which of the following is NOT a true statement? A. Cost benefit analysis should be done before purchasing test tools and analysis should show a good potential return on investment. B. Bid bang approach is the best way to rollout test tools to an organization. C. Maintenance fees, support fees, licensing fees and learning curve should be considered before introducing test tools to an organization. D. Scripted / automated tests can be executed faster during test execution phase. <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 75: Which of the following statements are true about risks of introducing test automation tools? I. Poorly designed test cases automated "as is" results in execution errors. II. Reduce defect detection due to limited manual testing by a tester. III. Too many dependencies to integrate test tools and test tool limitations. IV. Unrealistic expectations from management.

A. I, III true B. II, IV true C. All of them are true D. None of them are true <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 76: Which of the following statements are true? I. Test automation tools can be used only for one project. II. Test data comparison tool can be used to avoid human data comparison mistakes. III. A company can utilize multiple test tools to efficiently perform their test activities. IV. Purchasing suite of test tools from the same vendor guarantees that the tools will work together. A. II, III true. I, IV false B. I, II true. III, IV false C. II, III, IV true. I false D. I, II, IV true. III false <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 77: Select the correct pair from the following Test Tool Categories? Test Tools Category: I. Test Management Tool II. Web Tools III. Keyword-Driven Test Automation Tools Features of Test Tools Categories: a. Supports organization of test artifacts b. Less likely to modify c. Help to monitor SLA (service Level Agreements) compliance A. I-a,II-c,III-b B. I-b,II-a,III-c C. I-b,II-c,III-a D. I-c,II-b,III-a <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 78: What is NOT an objective of using a Test Execution Tool? A. Reduce effort or time related costs B. Run more tests C. Repeat tests easily D. Automate all new features that are going to be delivered in next release. <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Sample Questions in context of CTAL Syllabus Chapter 10: People Skills - Team Composition

Q. 79: XYZ Company develops websites for individual users / companies. The testing team tests each build of the software once development releases it. Once testers complete the testing, they also work on coding the next build of the software. All testers and developers report to project manager. What type of independency is achieved above as per ISTQB syllabus? A. "No independent testers" B. Testing is done by a tester who is part of the development team C. "External Test specialists perform testing" D. "Testing is done by an organization external to the company" <<<<<< =================== >>>>>> Q. 80: Which of the following is NOT a challenge with outsourcing? A. Cultural differences B. Quality C. Employee turnover D. Low cost

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