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REHABILITASI MEDIK FK UNPAD / RS HASAN SADIKIN BANDUNG A 10-year old female subluxed her left patella while jumping

rope at school. There was immediate pain and a localized effusion which resolved with the use an immobilizer, intermittent ice packs, and rest over a 7-day period. The physical examination 2 weeks later after the patient reported no pain show a residual stiffness and sensation of weakness in the knee joint. Impression of the examination is quadriceps inhibition secondary to injury and immobilization Question: 1. What muscle that usually use as target muscle if we want to use biofeedback for analyzed quadriceps mechanism ? a. Vastus medialis b. Vastus lateralis c. Rectus Femoris d. Iliotibal band e. Vastus intermedius 2. The pattern of motor unit recruitment varies depending on : a. Speed of contraction b. The force required during the resting c. Duration of contraction d. Type of motor unit, smaller motor units are recruited first e. Larger motor units generate same tension 3. The most correct statement for biofeedback is: a. Biofeedback measures muscle contraction b. Biofeedback measures electrical activity of muscle c. Biofeedback directly measure muscle contraction d. The various stages of membrane activity generate a biphasic electrical signal e. Electrical activity of the muscle is measured in watts 4. In muscle reeducation with biofeedback, the most appropriate statement is: a. Biofeedback is not used to indicate the electrical activity associated with that muscle contraction b. The patient should maximally contract the target muscle isotonically c. A period of 5-10 minutes working with a single muscle or muscle group is most desirable d. As increases in electrical activity occur, the patient should develop the ability to rapidly activate motor units. This can be accomplished by setting the sensitivity level to 50-60% of maximum isometric activity e. Stronger muscles generally should be given endurance exercises rather than biofeedback 5. Modern burn care may be divided into : a. 3 phase : acute, sub acute, chronic b. First phase : accomplished typically by a series of staged operations that are completed during the first few days after injury c. Initial wound excision and biologic closure are done at the late phase d. Definitive wound closure is done at the third phase e. Maneuver that changes the natural history of the disease is accomplished at the first phase

6. This rapid process (look at the Image) can be prevented by : a. Active ROM without precaution b. Antigravity positioning c. Splinting that should check at least once a day d. Passive ROM with precaution e. Strengthening exercise 7. Statement below that is not a principal components of acute burn rehabilitation program : a. Continued active ROM without precaution b. Initial scar management c. Minimizing edema d. ADL training e. Preparing for work or play or school 8. Extreme pruritus is a frequent part of burn wound healing: a. Typically begins shortly after the wound has healed, peak in intensity 2-3 months after injury b. Usually troubling in the morning c. Adequately treated with topical warm compresses d. Can become superinfected with Streptococcus e. It is a difficult problem but usually self-limited 9. Which one is deep heating agent? a. parraffin bath b. ultrasound c. hotpacks d. fluidiotherapy e. whirlpool/ hydrotherapy 10. Heat increases the extensibility of collagen tissue and decreases joint stiffness. Achievement of this goal is dependent of all but one of the following factors, which is NOT a factor : a. Amount of time the tissue is heated b. the type modality used in treatment c. the depth of the tissue heated d. the degree of stretch applied after heat e. the degree of heat achieved 11. Transfer of heat through direct contact with its source is called: a. convection b. conduction c. electrical d. radiation e. conversion

12. Name of therapy which delivers moist heat, usually made of canvas w/ silica gel, immersed in temperature between 160 1700 F retains heat for 30 minutes. a. hydrotherapy (whirlpool) b. hot packs c. Ice massage d. paraffin bath e. fluidotherapy 13. The generation of an electrical voltage across the crystal when compressed or expanded, it is called as : a. Piezoelectric effect b. Direct Piezoelectric effect c. Indirect Piezoelectric effect d. Reverse Piezoelectric effect e. Piezo crystal 14. What kind of parameter from ultrasound which determine the dept of tissue penetration? a. Frequency b. Intensity c. Radiating d. Waves e. Watt per cm2 15. Differentiation between 1 MHz ultrasound compared with 3 MHz is : a. Faster rate at absorption b. Heat human muscle 3 times faster c. Most useful in patient with high percent body fat cutaneous d. Effect of superficial heat e. More convergent 16. The beam nonuniformity ratio (BNR) is determined by: a. Using an underwater microphone b. Using an battery c. Using food and drug administration d. Using piezoelectric effect e. Using voltage 17. The magnitude of the vibration in wave called: a. Power b. Intensity c. Amplitude d. Continuous Wave e. Piezoelectric effect 18. The maximum intensity during the period with pulsed ultrasound is called: a. Spatial average intensity b. Peak intensity c. Pulsed average intensity d. Spatial average temporal peak (SATP) e. Temporal average intensity 19. Capability to keep suspension & integrity as a aerosol depend on : a. Moving of nebulizer b. Moving of particle c. Moving of gas suspension d. Size of respiratory tract obstruction e. Medicine

20. The penetration of aerosol into lung depend on : a. Size of tube b. Size of body c. Size of expiration d. Tidal breath e. Size of respiratory tract obstruction 21. Which statement is true about ultrasonic nebulizer : a. Using gas with velocity 6 8 lt/m b. Output volume 6 8 ml/m c. Via air pressed d. Size of particle bigger than jet nebulizer e. Usually for room humidification 22. Disadvantage of nebulizer is: a. No control of humidification b. Can be used at home c. Can be used for fibrocystic patient d. Can be used for asthma bronchiale e. Can be used for AIDS patient 23. The effective rehabilitation prescription is: a. Product of an evaluation involving all members of health care b. Product of therapy c. Product of healthy of patient in all aspect d. Easy, chip and simple e. Product of skill of team 24. Which of the following answer is correct in condition of inflammation? a. The cell membrane potential is increased b. Allow K+ ion to escape into cellular fluid c. Allow K+ ion to escape extra cellular fluid d. Attracting water by diffused e. Result in atrophy condition 25. Which one of the following sentences is true? a. The physiological and therapeutic effect of direct current is sensory stimulation b. The physiological and therapeutic effect of direct current is hypothermia c. The physiological and therapeutic effect of direct current is increase nerve excitability d. The physiological and therapeutic effect of functional stimulation is wound healing e. There is no physiological and therapeutic effect of electrical current 26. The physiological and therapeutic effect of ionthoporesis depend on ( especially right) : a. Intensity of current b. Amplitude of current c. Nature of drug introduced into tissue d. Resistance of skin tissue e. Intensity and amplitude of current

27. If the intensity is increased from zero over a periode of second also and than decreased to zero again and this squence is repeated : a. Paralel of rytmical contraction b. Paralel of rytmical relaxation c. Like a unphysiological muscel action d. Called surged current e. Called alternating current 28. The basic forms of diadinamic current is : a. Half wave rectified sinusoidal current b. Monophase fix c. Full wave rectified sinusoidal current d. Difasic wave e. Half and full wave rectified sinusoidal current and monophase 29. The development of muscle coordination depends on : a. Repetition b. Relaxation c. Volition d. Perception e. Excitation 30. What is the prerequisite for training of muscle control? a. It must be done as a group activity b. The patient should not be encourage by the therapist c. The patient must have intact proprioceptive d. It suitable for all ages e. The patient should be allowed to have frequent short rest periods 31. Factor which increasing coordination during muscle control training is : a. Strong effort to produce a muscle contraction b. When a patient is secured and relaxed c. Long periods of inactivity d. Excitement or strong emotion e. Pain 32. Exercise to improve proprioceptive control in lower extremities is : a. Frenkels exercise b. Brandt Daroff exercise c. William Flexion exercise d. Jacobson exercise e. Body Core/ Power House exercise 33. Which procedure is correct when cooling/cryotherapy is applied in trauma? a. It should be applied after substantial swelling amd hemorrhage develop b. This should not be done with compression of the injured part c. Usually extended for 1-2 hours d. Cryotherapy should be continue if the swelling and bleeding are not likely to occur e. Cryotherapy over an excessive period of time may retard healing 34. Main form of energy transfer for cold water immersion cryotherapy is : a. Conduction b. Convection c. Evaporation d. Radiation e. Absorption

35. Which of peripheral nerve fibers most affected by cold? a. A-( intrafusal muscle fibers b. A- extrafusal muscle fibers c. Joint and muscle receptors d. B preganglionic efferent autonomic e. C postganglionic efferent autonomic 36. Duration of application of cold pack is : a. 5-10 minutes b. 20-30 minutes c. 30-40 minutes d. 40-60 minutes e. > 1 hour 37. Determination of functional level for prosthetics prescription using K level/K modifiers is used based on : a. Current level of function b. Cognitive function c. Patients vocational d. Patients potential e. Stump and skin condition 38. Which levels of amputation that usually leads to equinovarus ? a. Transmetatarsal & Lisfranc amputation b. Lisfranc & Chopart amputation c. Syme amputation d. Boyd amputation e. Pirigoff amputation 39. Interscapulothoracic disarticulation is : a. Pirogoff amputation b. Boyd amputation c. Forequarter amputation d. Ray amputation e. Syme amputation 40. The term Golden Period for extremity amputations is : a. Occurred in lower extremity amputation b. Occurred during the first 8 months following amputation c. Periods best suited for psychological adjustment d. Periods to promote wound healing e. Periods for prosthetic fitting to ensure good prosthetics outcome 41. Which one is true for using elastic wraps/bandage to the stump? a. It is a low maintenance items that should be properly applied about every 12 hour b. It is recommended to use c. It is difficult and time consuming d. It is better than elastic stockinet e. It is easily applied 42. The most frequent skin disorders in residual limb of lower extremity amputee is : a. Verrucous hyperplasia b. Epidermoid cyst c. Contact dermatitis d. Pressure or shear ulceration e. Folliculitis

43. The first line treatment of phantom limb sensation is : a. Mental imaging b. Desensitization technique c. Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulation (TENS) d. Neuropharmacologic intervention e. Prosthetics socket revision 44. Neuroma in amputees stump is : a. Formation of scar tissue around the proximal end of severed/cutted nerve b. Occurred only in lower extremity amputation c. Will always result in stump/residual limb pain d. Can be reduced by adding rigid material to prosthetics socket e. Can be asymptomatic with good surgical technique 45. During complete inactivity, muscle strength is reduced at the rate of : a. 1% per day b. 5% per day c. 10% per day d. 5% per week e. 10% per week 46. Technique of exercise to increase muscular endurance is : a. Low resistance high repetition b. High resistance low repetition c. De Lorme technique d. Regressive resistive exercise e. Brief maximal exercise 47. Type of exercise which offers the advantage of maximum tension throughout a range of motion is : a. Isometric exercise b. Isotonic exercise c. Isokinetic exercise d. Eccentric exercise e. Calisthenic exercise 48. Delayed Onset of Muscle Soreness (DOMS) usually develop after : a. Isometric exercise b. Isotonic exercise c. Isokinetic exercise d. Eccentric exercise e. Calisthenic exercise 49. Contra indication of vigorous heating therapy is: a. Mechanical low back pain with muscle spasm b. Osteoarthritis patient with joint contracture c. Low back pain cause by spondilitis d. Low back pain cause by spondilolisthesis e. Low back pain cause by herniation nucleus pulposus 50. Frequency of SWD use in Indonesia is: a. 27,33 MHz b. 13,66 MHz c. 22 MHz d. 11 MHz e. 40,98 MHz

51. The common features of MWD is: a. The penetration depth in fatty tissue are much higher than in muscle b. The penetration depth in fatty tissue are much lower than in muscle c. The penetration depth in fatty tissue are much higher than in metal d. The frequency decreases as penetration depth decreases e. The wavelength decreases as the penetration depth increases 52. The 2450 MHz frequency MWD is the most widely available but not the satisfactory to achieve therapeutic heating, because of : a. 2450 MHz are also used in telecommunication (mobile phones & satellite) b. 2450 MHz radiation is reflected almost 50% c. 2450 MHz can penetrate until deep muscle d. 2450 MHz particularly absorbed in tissue with high water and ion content e. 2450 MHz are more rapidly absorbed in fatty tissue and bone 53. Which of the following statement is true for laser according to American National Standard Institute ? a. Class I Laser : 400 700 nm, no destruction effect to the skin and eye b. He Ne Laser : 700 1400 nm, visible light c. Ga Al As : 910 nm invisible light d. Class III Laser : use for surgical e. Class IV Laser : use for cutting metal 54. Patient, male 50 years old was diagnosed osteoarthritis of the left knee. How do you set the laser machine if the dose you want to give is 5 Joule and the degree of effectiveness 100% ? a. 3 watt for 10 minute b. 10 miliwatt for 3 minute c. 5 watt for 6 minute d. 5 miliwatt for 10 minute e. 3 miliwatt for 10 minute 55. Characteristic of He-Ne laser : a. Improving haemorheology of the blood by dilating the vessel b. Deplete K-ATP channel that can change enzyme to ADP + energy c. Also known as Non ablative Laser Skin Rejuvenation d. Can be use in the treatment of coronary heart disease e. Can be use in the treatment of malignancy disease 56. The function of loose connective tissue is: a. Insulates organ b. Store energy c. Stabilized bone d. Reduced friction between muscle e. Cushions organ 57. The function of dense regular connective tissue is : a. Cushion & shocks organs b. Provide strength to resist force c. Helps prevent over expansion of organ d. Conducts pull of muscle e. Provide supporting framework

58. Factor that can cause development of dense connective tissue is: a. Age b. Body Mass Index c. Systemic infection disease d. Immobilization e. Upper motor neuron disease 59. The goal for passive ROM to increase mobility is : a. Increase nutrition for the joint b. Maintenance elasticity and contractility of muscle c. Sensory feed back d. Development of coordination e. Increase mineralization to the bone 60. The principle of fixation device Plate in fracture is : a. Weight bearing exercise started in late state b. Biomechanics of plate in fixation is stress sharing c. Secondary bone healing with the present of callus d. The rate of the bone healing is fast e. Mainly used with associated soft tissue injuries 61. Which of the following statement is true for strengthening exercise after fracture ? a. Muscle length in isotonic exercise are shorten and lengthen b. Joint motion in isotonic is in constant rate c. Muscle fiber tension in isometric is increase during exercise then there is constant tension throughout the ROM d. Strength gain in isokinetic increase throughout the ROM, maximal gain at the end of joint range e. Timing of isokinetic exercise is in intermediate stage 62. Which of the following statement is true for modalities used in treatment of fracture ? a. Ultrasound diathermy never been used in fracture patient to prevent contracture of muscle or joint b. Ultrasound diathermy can be used in fracture patient with anesthetic area because we can determined the dose c. Fracture patient with skin loss can be treated with electrical stimulation to reduce pain and increase ROM d. Paraffin bath is commonly use to reduce pain in fracture patient with peripheral vascular disease e. SWD is more effective than superficial heat in treatment of fracture patient with muscle shortening 63. Which of the following statement is a appropriate for colles fracture ? a. Fracture of distal metaphyseal of ulna, occurring 3-4 cm from articular surface b. Expected time of bone healing about 3 months until the fracture is stabile c. Expected duration of rehabilitation is about 4-6 months until the patient can do ADL independently d. There is a volar angulation of the apex the fracture also called silver fork deformity e. In the 8th week colles fracture with fixator should do active ROM and progressive restrictive exercise

64. Which of the following statement is a appropriate for Femoral neck fracture ? a. Gardens type 2 is displaced femoral neck in varus position b. Expected time of bone healing about 3 months until the fracture is stabile c. With internal fixation femoral neck fracture already gain a full mechanical stability in the 1st week d. Have a high rate of nonunion and avascular necrosis because of the fracture is bathed in synovial fluid e. Isometric and isotonic exercise with full weight bearing can be given at the 2nd month 65. Fast-twitch muscle as compared to slow-twitch muscle is characterized by a. Higher concentration b. Greater resistance to fatigue c. Lower concentration of oxidative enzymes d. Lower glycogen content e. Higher concentration of mitochondria in the cytoplasm 66. Which of the following is TRUE regarding ultrastucture sarcomere ? a. The A band of sarcomere is made up only of thin filaments b. The I band of sarcomere is composed of thick filaments and overlapping with thin actin filaments c. The H zone of sarcomere is made up only of myosin filaments d. The M line represents the point at which actin filaments are bound together with thin filaments e. The A band is changed during contraction 67. Which of the following statement is TRUE regarding muscle fiber contraction ? a. Ca2+ diffuse from SR into the sarcoplasm and bind to myosin molecules b. Ca2+ are actively transported into the SR c. ATP causes linkages between actin and myosin filaments to break without ATP breakdown d. Tropomyosin molecules move and expose specific sites on actin filaments e. Actin filaments are pushed outward by myosin cross-bridges 68. What histologic changes will accompany muscle strengthening with heavy resistance training ? a. Muscle fiber splitting b. Increased mitochondrial density c. Reduced sarcoplasm volume d. Additional actin-myosin filaments e. Fiber type grouping 69. Which of the following is not appropriate regarding energy resources for contraction a. Muscle fiber has enough ATP to contract briefly b. The initial source of energy available to regenerate ATP from ADP and phosphate is creatinine phosphate c. ATP used to power muscle contraction or to synthesize creatinine phosphate d. Cellular respiration of glucose is no relationship as source of energy for synthesizing muscle ATP e. Energy comes first from residual ATP 70. Indication for spinal manipulative therapy is : a. Vertebral bony joint instability b. Rheumatoid disease in the cervical region c. Myelopathy or spondylosis d. Spondylolisthesis e. Cauda equina syndrome

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71. Positioning in cervical traction for the maximal effect of distraction is : a. Supine position : neck extension between 200 and 300 b. Supine position : neck flexion between 100 and 200 c. Sitting position : neck flexion between 200 and 300 d. Sitting position : neck extension between 200 and 300 e. Sitting position : neck flexion between 100 and 200 72. Traction should be employed in: a. Spinal infections b. Osteoporosis c. Osteoarthritis d. Rheumatoid arthritis e. Hyperextensive or cardiovascular disease 73. Which of the following technique is not manipulation of the spine? a. The Pump-Handle manipulation b. Forced Side Bending c. Hyperflexion of the lumbar spine d. Hyperextension on lumbar spine e. Springing the lumbar 74. Manipulation is not contraindicated in: a. Ankylosis b. Fractures c. Demineralization d. Rheumatoid arthritis e. Malignant 75. Mr.A, a dysphagia patient, was consulted from the TNT department to the physical medicine and rehabilitation department. From oro-motor examination we found that he has had intact lip closure, but he could not move his tongue properly and the saliva was dry (reduced saliva production). Which of the following phase may be impaired according to his examination finding? a. Oral phase b. Pharyngeal phase c. Esophageal phase d. Oral and pharyngeal phase e. Pharyngeal and esophageal phase 76. From physical examination of the dysphagia patient, we found that he underwent aspiration before swallowing. What kind of impairment might be occurred to this patient? a. Delayed swallowing reflex b. Poor pharynx elevation c. Poor pharyngoesophageal sphincter mechanism d. Poor oral control e. Poor relaxation of the pharynx 77. A new technique for evaluating dysphagia is fiber optic endoscopic examination of swallowing (FEES). This procedure is sensitive for detecting one of following condition below a. Incompetence of the lower esophageal sphincter b. Fail to allow the bolus distally from the pharyngeal to esophageal c. Laryngeal penetration and pharyngeal residue d. Reduced of the saliva reduction e. Impairment of the mastications muscles

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78. The key sensory receptor areas from which the most effective swallowing stimuli originate is: a. Faucets and tongue b. Pharynx and vocal fold c. Larynx and palate d. Glottis and epiglottis e. Pharynx and posterior larynx 79. Pattern of the dysphagic patient to swallow indicate they may more often : a. Interupt exhatlation b. Interupt inhalation c. Preceeded by inspiration d. Preceeded by exhalation e. Beetween inhalation and exhalation 80. The term of neutral temperature of water is: a. 650-800 F b. 800-920 F c. 920-960 F d. 960-980 F e. 980-1040 F 81. The most common longitudinal congenital lower limb deficiency is : a. Longitudinal deficiency of the fibula b. Longitudinal deficiency of the tibia c. Longitudinal deficiency of the femur d. Congenital hip disarticulation e. Congenital ankle disarticulation 82. Which exercise/activity will increase endurance of the finger and wrist : a. Sawing b. Planting c. Clay wedging d. Rowing e. Stair climbing 83. A woman, 56 years old with chief complaint of pain in both knee since 8 months ago. Result from anamnesis dan physical examination are VAS 4-5, average blood pressure 160/90 mmHg, postur within normal limit, crepitus on both knee, quadriceps muscle strength is fair, minimal hamstring muscle tightness. For this patient, appropriate home program exercise will be : a. Isometric exercise to strengthen quadriceps muscle b. Isotonic exercise to strengthen quadriceps muscle c. Isokinetic exercise to strengthen quadriceps muscle d. Stretching exercise for hamstring muscle tightness e. General relaxation exercise 84.There are many properties of liquid water. In geriatric patients who are unable to carry his full weight of his leg, the most helpful component of the properties of water is: a. Bouyancy b. Cohesion c. Viscosity d. Adhesive e. Friction

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85. The advantage of the hydrocollator packs is : a. The average temperature of the packs is 160 F b. Can be applied straight to the skin c. It is not need to be replaced after 45 minutes d. Can be used for part of body with ischaemia e. Can be maintain heat for 20-30 minutes without reheating 86. Mrs. A, 50 years old, feels pain on her both hands, the physiatrist gives her paraffin wax therapy, we prepared the wax and mineral oil. To keep the paraffin liquid at the lower temperature, what is the ratio of paraffin and oil is recommended: a. 1:5 b. 2:7 c. 2:9 d. 1:7 e. 1:9 87. Mr. B, 54 years old has difficult in walking, and the physiatrist will give him a hip adductors exercise in pool with buoyancy assisted exercise. The position of the patient is: a. Prone lying b. Supine position c. Squatting position d. Side lying position e. Standing position (No 88 91) A 30 years old man was referred from Dermatology Department with diagnosis: leprosy with bilateral claw hand. He had been treating RFT. On physical examination, there were no contractures at fingers joint, weakness both of extrinsic and intrinsic hand flexor muscles. He was candidate for reconstructive surgery, but he worried about it 88. Which muscle is not affected in this case? a. Abductor pollicis brevis b. Abductor pollicis longus c. Adductor pollicis d. Palmaris longus e. Opponens pollicis 89. If you suggest using electrical stimulation, which one the following statement is not appropriate? a. Explain the procedure to the patient, like describe the sensation he/she feel b. Demonstrate the procedure on yourself, get an actual contraction c. Check the area to be treat, the skin should be clean & free from oil d. Do pre heating procedure with an IR lamp, because it help increase skin resisted e. Protect the sheet & patients clothing from the water 90. If this patient needs orthotic device, what kind orthotic do you suggest? a. Spica splint b. Resting splint c. Cock up splint d. Hand dynamic splint e. Knucle Bender splint

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91. What is the aim using this orthotic ? a. To restore motion b. To increase activity c. To avoid contractures d. To increase hand function e. To decrease range of motion 92. Female patient, 43 years old, comes with chief complaint of low back pain. In physical examination there is a scoliosis thoracolumbal, S-curve, flexible with spasm in paravertebral muscles with VAS 5. What is your management planning for this patient? a. Lumbosacral vertebra X-Ray, USD, scoliosis exercises b. Lumbosacral vertebra X-Ray, bracing, USD, therapeutic exercises c. Lumbosacral vertebra X- Ray, USD, stretching exercises d. Analgetics, MWD, scoliosis exercises e. Analgetics, bracing, scoliosis exercises 93. In further examination, you find out that the patient work as administration staff. Radiological result a cobb angle 44 degrees. What is next your planning? a. Consult to orthopedic department, bracing, scoliosis exercise b. Analgetics, diathermi, scoliosis exercises c. Spirometri, scoliosis exercises d. Spirometry, postural exercise e. Consult to orthopedic department, proper body mechanics education 94. After five times therapy, patient report that her VAS decrease to 3, especially when she works. What is your planning now? a. Repeat Lumbosacral X-Ray, analgetics, postural exercise b. Proper body mechanics education, aerobic exercise c. Lumbosacral vertebra X-Ray, proper body mechanics education d. Proper body mechanics education, scoliosis exercises e. Diathermy, scoliosis exercises 95. From all of the patients who came with low back pain, how many percent who have abnormalities of the spine? a. 20% b. 40% c. 60% d. 70% e. 80% 96. Your patient, female, 63 years old, with scoliosis comes to your clinic because of parasthesia that radiating in thigh area, on and off since 1 week ago. Doctor who send the patient advice her for EMG examination. If EMG examination done to this patient, what result will be appear as your suggestion? a. Neuropraxia b. Neurotmesis c. Denervation partial axonal d. Segmental demyelinisation e. Total denervation 97. How KHS-EMG appearance which show neuropatic abnormalities? a. Increase MUAP amplitude, MUAP duration increase, polyphasic wave increase b. Decrease MUAP amplitude, MUAP duration increase, polyphasic wave decrease c. Decrease MUAP amplitude, MUAP duration decrease, polyphasic wave decrease d. Increase MUAP amplitude, MUAP duration decrease, polyphasic wave increase e. Increase MUAP amplitude, MUAP duration increase, polyphasic wave increase

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98. Result of EMG examination that show fibrillation potentials, positive sharp waves, low amplitude, short duration MUAP, can be as interpretation of : a. Duchenne muscular dystrophy b. Poliomielitis c. Spinal muscular atrophy d. Neuropatia diabetika e. Guillian Barre syndrome 99. Definition of chonic pain is: a. Pain lasting in a long time after initial lesion that provoke pain relieved or gone. b. Pain lasting in a long time and cause depression c. Sharp and burning pain, lasting in time and hard to relieve d. Pain that lasting in time and only relieved by using morphine drugs e. Psychosomatic pain that lasting in time 100. To determine pain characteristic and parameter we can use some tools. Tool that correlate pain and physical activities is: a. Numerical Pain Scale b. Visual Analogue Scale c. Multidimensional Pain Inventory d. McGill Pain questionnaire e. Index Lesquesne

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