PHYSICS CH # 6-7 XI

1. The time period of the horizontal mass spring system will be:
(A) maximum in Lahore (C) maximum at Mount Everest
(B) Maximum at Murree (D) equal at all places
2. Where the streamlines are forced closer to each other, the pressure will be:
(A) zero (C) high
(B) low (D) same
3. Stokes law describes the drag force acting on a ________ moving through a fluid:
(A) cubical body (C) irregular shaped body
(B) spherical body (D) All of these
4. Resonance curve is flat for:
(A) slightly damped systems (C) freely oscillating systems
(B) heavily damped systems (D) forced oscillating systems
5. Speed of efflux is _____________ distance fall by the fluid:
(A) directly proportional to (C) directly proportional to square root of
(B) inversely proportional to (D) inversely proportional to square root of
6. The phenomenon in which a system is able to oscillate with a certain period to an external force acting with the
same period is known as:
(A) harmonics (C) resonance
(B) compression (D) overtunes
7. Water is coming out of a pipe at 30 kg/min. If the area of the pipe is 0.01 m
2
, what is the velocity of the water?
(A) 0.01 m/s (C) 0.1 m/s
(B) 0.05 m/s (D) 0.5 m/s
8. For what position, the maximum blood pressure in the body will have smallest value?
(A) standing upright (C) standing on one leg
(B) sitting on a chair (D) lying horizontally
9. The K.E. and P.E. of a simple pendulum in SHM will be equal at:
(A) x(displacement from mean position) = x
0
(amplitude) (C) x = x
0
/ 2
(B) x = x
0
/2 (D) x = x
0
/4
10. A mass spring system is in SHM with period T. If the spring were cut into two pieces of equal length and one
portion were used to support the same mass, what would be the period T?
(A) T = T/ 2 (C) T = T
(B) T = T/2 (D) T = 2T
11. For a horizontal mass spring system, ratio of maximum acceleration to its maximum velocity is:
(A) zero (C) k m/
(B) infinity (D) m k /
12. Amplitude of an oscillator is maximum at:
(A) frequency less than resonance frequency (C) frequency greater than resonance frequency
(B) resonance frequency (D) equal at all frequencies
13. Energy stored in a body executing SHM:
(A) increases with the displacement (C) is zero when displacement is zero
(B) decreases with the displacement (D) None of these
14. Blood is a/an:
(A) compressible fluid having density very greater than that of water
(B) incompressible fluid having density very greater than that of water
(C) compressible fluid having density nearly equal to that of water
(D) incompressible fluid having density nearly equal to that of water
15. A parachutist of mass 80kg descends vertically at a constant velocity of 3m/s. What is the net force acting on
him, if the acceleration of free fall is 10m/s
2
?
(A) zero (C) 240N upwards
(B) 240N downwards (D) 800N downwards
16. Terminal velocity is the maximum and constant velocity. At this velocity, the fluid friction is:
(A) maximum (C) zero
(B) minimum (D) 9.8N
17. Bernoullis theorem is not used
(A) in perfume bottles (C) in the swing produced in a ball
(B) in a filter pump (D) in the exhaust fan of a motor
18. Which of the following is/are the examples of vibrational motion?
(A) a steel ball rolling in a curved dish (C) a rotating fan
(B) a simple pendulum at rest (D) Both A and B



19. Angular frequency is basically a characteristic of:
(A) vibratory motion (C) simple harmonic motion

(B) circular motion (D) All of these
20. The collapse of Tacoma Narrow bridge is suspected to be due to:
(A) suicide bomb attack (C) flood
(B) violent resonance vibration (D) air raid
21. If F = 0.4N and x = 4cm, then k = ?
(A) 10 N/m (C) 1 N/m
(B) 10 N/m (D) 1 N/m
22. The wavelength and the frequency of waves produced in microwave oven is:
(A) 18cm and 2450 KHz (C) 12cm and 2450 KHz
(B) 18cm and 2450 MHz (D) 12cm and 2450 MHz
23. The initial phase of a body in SHM is t/2. When the phase angle is 3t/2, it will be:
(A) at the mean position (C) in the midway between the mean and the extreme positions
(B) at the extreme position (D) any of the above depending on the speed of body
24. The graph for total energy of a body in SHM is:
(A) parabola (C) straight line
(B) sine curve (D) ellipse
25. Which of the following is not a necessary condition for flow of the fluid to be steady?
(A) different particles in a certain layer must have the same speed
(B) streamlines must not cross each other
(C) different streamlines must have the same speed
(D) all of the above are necessary for flow of the fluid to be steady.
26. Which instrument is used to measure the blood pressure dynamically?
(A) sphygmomanometer (C) venturi meter
(B) Stethoscope (D) None of these
27. Drag force acting on a sphere moving through a fluid is.
(A) directly proportional to radius of sphere (C) directly proportional to viscosity of fluid
(B) directly proportional to speed of sphere (D) All of these
28. Terminal velocity of a fog droplet falling in air is given by v
t
= 2gr
2
/9q. Here
(A) is the density of droplet (C) q is the viscosity of droplet
(B) is the density of air (D) q is the density of air
29. The shape of Formula one racing cars is made streamlined:
(A) to make the car fly in the air (C) to reduce the frictional force acting on it
(B) to reduce the pressure on the upper side of car (D) All of these
30. According to Bernoulli, the sum of pressure, K.E. per unit volume and P.E. per unit volume is constant. This
constant has
(A) no dimensions (C) dimensions of stress
(B) dimensions of viscosity (D) None of these
CHEMISTRY CH # 6, 7 XI
31. The angle formed in sp hybridization is
A) 120
o
C) 109.5
o

B) 180
o
D) 107.5
o

32. Ionic compounds are obtained by the combination of groups
A) 3 and 5 C) 4 and 8
B) 2 and 5 D) 1 and 7
33. Valancies of elements of nobel gases in general are
A) 1 C) 3
B) 2 D) 0
34. Which of the following species has unpaired electrons in antibonding molecular orbitals
A) H
2
C) O
2
+2

B) He D) N
2
-2

35. Structure of CrO
4
-2
ion is
A) tetrahedral C) cubic
B) octahedral D) triclinic
36. S.I. unit of dipole moment is
A) Pm C) mC
B) Debye D) all
37. The bond order of H
2
is
A) 1 C) 3
B) 2 D) 4



38. Octet rule is not followed by
A) NF
3
C) CCl
4

B) CF
4
D) PCl
5

39. Carbon dioxide and methane dipole moment value
A) zero and 1.85 D C) both have zero
B) 1.7 and 1.8 B D) none of these
40. One Debye is equal to
A) 1.66 x 10
-24
mC C) 6.02 x 10
-23
mC
B) 9.1 x 10
-31
mC D) 3.336 x 10
-30
mC
41. In sp
2
hybridization the orbitals are oriented at the angle of
A) 109.5
o
C) 180
o

B) 120
o
D) 0
o

42. The net change in energy in a chemical reaction is same whether it takes palace directly of indirectly, it is
Called:
A) Henrys law C) Hesss law
B) Charless law D) Grahams law
43. The standard heat changes occur at
A) 25
o
C and 2atm C) 298K and 1atm
B) 25
o
C and 1mmHg D) 273K and 1atm
44. Calorie is equal to
A) 0.4148 J C) 4.184 J
B) 41.84 J D) 10.418 J
45. Enthalpy change for the reaction CH
4
+2O
2
CO
2
+ 2H
2
O is called enthalpy of
A) formation

C) neutralization
B) combustion D) atomization
46. Whenever a reaction is exothermic, then its means that
A) the heat is transferred from surrounding to the system
B) the heat content of the reactant is greater than products
C) the heat content of the reactants is less than those of products
D) the heat is transferred from system to the surroundings
47. The radius of atom cant be measured precisely due to fact
A) atom have no sharp boundary C) electronic cloud is affected by neighboring atoms
B) probability of finding electron at large distance never become zero D) all of these
48. Factor that dont affect the ionization energy of atom
A) atomic radius C) number of valence shell electrons
B) nuclear charge D) shielding effect
49. The electronegativity of elements measured by comparing with
A) Helium C) Fluorine
B) Oxygen D) Hydrogen
50. The electronegativity difference of 1.7 between two bonded atoms show rough contribution of ionic and
covalent character
A) 30% covalent, 70% ionic C) 50% covalent, 50% ionic
B) 40% covalent, 60% ionic D) 70% covalent, 30% ionic
51. CaO is an
A) ionic compound C) covalent compound
B) electrovalent compound D) both A and B
52. In coordinate covalent bond between NH
3
and H
+
, NH
3
act as
A) Lewis acid C) both A and B
B) Lewis base D) none of these
53. Lewis model about covalent bond cant explain that
A) how atoms are bonded to one another C) how electron pairs are shared
B) how do electrons avoid each other inspite of their repulsion D) all of these
54. VSEPR theory was developed by
A) Nylholm and Gillespie C) Lewis
B) Sidgwick and Powell D) Pauling
55. Hybrid orbitals dont have
A) same size C) same orientation in space
B) same shape D) same energy
56. In ethyne molecule each carbon have
A) two sigma and two pi bonds C) three sigma and one pi bonds
B) one sigma and three pi bonds D) three sigma and three pi bonds
57. Ionic bond is
A) directional bond C) both A and B
B) non-directional bond D) none of these


58. A system can exchange energy with the surroundings in the form of
A) heat C) both A and B
B) work D) none of these
59. In bomb calorimeter the burning of sample occurs in the
A) presence of oxygen C) presence of hydrogen
B) absence of oxygen D) presence of fluorine
60. It is difficult to measure the enthalpy of combustion of aluminum and boron due the fact that
A) both metals are highly reactive metals C) both metals are inert in nature
B) both metals form protective layer with oxygen D) both metals have less affinity with oxygen
ENGLISH XI
Find out Error:
Q.61: The man felt his hair flutter and the tissues of his body drew tight.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Q.62: The children, small seeds, might at any instant saw to all the Martian climes.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Q.63: He felt submerge in a chemical that could dissolve his intellect and burn away his past.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Q.64: You havent been prowling up in those ruins; have you.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Q.65: The woman shook the boy until his teeth did not rattle.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Choose the best option:
Q.66: (A) Pepsin that an enzyme used in digestion. (C) Pepsin an enzyme used in digestion.
(B) Pepsin is an enzyme used in digestion. (D) Pepsin being an enzyme used in digestion.
Q.67: (A) The art of storytelling that is almost as old as humanity.
(B) The art of storytelling is almost as old as humanity.
(C) The art of storytelling it is almost as old as humanity.
(D) The art of storytelling being almost as old as humanity.
Q.68: (A) Only a few of the sounds produced by insects can be heard by humans.
(B) There are only a few of the sounds produced by insects can be heard by humans.
(C) That only a few of the sounds produced by insects can be heard by humans.
(D) With only a few of the sounds produced by insects can be heard by humans.
Q.69: (A)Because pumice is formed when lava cools very rapidly.(C) Pumice is formed when lava cools very rapidly.
(B) To form pumice when lava cools very rapidly. (D) Forming pumice when lava cools very rapidly.
Q.70: (A) Duke Ellington wrote that over a thousand songs during his career.
(B) Duke Ellington wrote over a thousand songs during his career.
(C) Duke Ellington wrote over a thousand songs were during his career.
(D) Duke Ellington wrote there were over a thousand songs during his career.
MATHEMATICS CH # 7, 8
Q.71: Sample space for tossing a coins is.
(A) {H} (C) {H, H}
(B) {T} (D) {H, T}
Q.72: If n is odd number, then middle term in expansion (a + x)
n
is.
(A)
2
1 + n
(C)
2
1 n

(B)
2
3 + n
(D)
2
3 n
and
2
1 + + n

Q.73: If
n
C
6
=
n
C
8
then value of n is.
(A) 6 (C) 14
(B) 8 (D) 2


Q.74: Pakistan and India play a cricket match. The number of possible outcomes in sample space is.
(A) 1 (C) 3
(B) 2 (D) 4
Q.75: If n is possible integer than 2
n
> 2(n + 3) is true for all.
(A) n > 1 (C) n >2
(B) n = 2 (D) n > 2
Q.76: How many numbers consisting of two digits can be formed from 2, 3, 5, 7. Each integer is to be used only
once.
(A) 10 (C) 14
(B) 12 (D) 16
Q.77: How many 6-digits numbers can be formed, without repeating any digit from the digits 0,1,2,3,4,5?
(A) 400 (C) 720
(B) 500 (D) 600
Q.78: If C(n, 10) = C(n, 12), then n is equal to
(A) 2 (C) 22
(B) 10 x 12 (D) None of these
Q.79: How many diagonals can be drawn in a plane Polygon of seven slides?
(A) 20 (C) 12
(B) 21 (D) 14
Q.80: If
n
P
4
:
n-1
P
3
= 9:1, n = ?
(A) 6 (C) 8
(B) 7 (D) 9
Q.81: If P(E) = 1, then E is called:
(A) impossible event (C) certain event
(B) possible event (D) mutual exclusive event
Q.82: A die is rolled, what is the probability of getting a number which is even and greater than 2?
(A) 1/2 (C) 1/6
(B) 1/3 (D) None of these
Q.83: A bag contains 60 balls some of which are red, some blue and the rest yellow. If the probability of drawing
a red ball and a blue ball are 1/6 and 1/5 respectively. Then the number of yellow balls:
(A) 13 (C) 27
(B) 38 (D) 49
Q.84: A bag contains 40 balls out of which 5 are green, 15 are black and the remaining are yellow. A ball is taken
out of the bag. What is the probability that the ball is not green?
(A) 1/9 (C) 7/8
(B) 6/13 (D) 1/20
Q.85: A natural number is chosen out of the first fifty natural numbers. What is the probability that the chosen
number is a multiple of 3 or of 5?
(A) 21/50 (C) 29/50
(B) 23/50 (D) 13/25
Q.86: A box contains 10 red, 30 white and 20 black marbles. A marble is drawn at random. What is the
probability that it is either red or white?
(A) 1/3 (C) 3/4
(B) 2/3 (D) 1/2
Q.87: In an experiment three coins are tossed. What will be the number of elements in sample space?
(A) 3 (C) 9
(B) 8 (D) 27
Q.88: If a statement P(n) is true for n = 1 and the truth of P(n) for n = k implies the truth of P(n) for n = k + 1, then
P(n) is true for all.
(A) positive real numbers (C) integers n
(B) real numbers n (D) positive integers n
Q.89: 1 + 5 + 9 + .. + (4n 3) = ?
(A) n(2n 1) (C) n(2n + 1)
(B) 2n 2 (D) 2n + 1



Q.90: Polynomial which has one term is called:
(A)Monomial (C) Trinomial
(B) Binomial (D) Fourth degree polynomial
Q.91: a + x is:
(A) a trinomial (C) a monomial
(B) a binomial (D) None of these
Q.92: If
|
|
.
|

\
|
9
n
and
|
|
.
|

\
|
4
n
be the equidistance coefficients of the binomial expansion then the value of n will be
(A) 9 (C) 13
(B) 4 (D) cant be found
Q.93: The number of terms in the expansion of (1 + x)
-n
, where n e N are
(A) n (C) n 1
(B) n + 1 (D) None of these
Q.94: If the exponent in the binomial expansion is 8, then the middle term is:
(A) 3
rd
term (C) 5
th
term
(B) 4
th
term (D) Both B and C
Q.95: The general terms in the expansion of (a + b)
n
is denoted by T
r+1
so T
r+1
= ?
(A)
r r n
b a
r
n

|
|
.
|

\
|
(C)
r n
b a
r
n
1
|
|
.
|

\
|

(B)
r n n
b a
r
n

|
|
.
|

\
|
(D)
` 1
1

|
|
.
|

\
|
r n
b a
r
n

Q.96: The term independent of y in the expansion of
9
1
|
|
.
|

\
|
+
y
y is:
(A) 5 (C) 7
(B) 6 (D) 9
Q.97: Expansion of (5 2x)
-1
is valid if
(A) |x| > 5/2 (C) |x| < 5/2
(B) |x| s 5/2 (D) |x| < 2/5
Q.98: The first three terms in the expansion of (1 + x
2
)
-3
are:
(A) 1 3x + 6x
2
(C) 1 + 3x 6x
2

(B) 1 3x
2
+ 6x
4
(D) 1 3x
2
6x
4

Q.99: If A and B are disjoint, then P(AUB) equals
(A) P(A) P(B) (C) P(A)/P(B)
(B) P(A).P(B) (D) P(A)+ P(B)
Q.100: x y is a factor of:
(A) x
n
+ y
n
(C) x
n+1
+ y
n+1

(B) x
2n
+ y
2n
(D) x
n
y
n
(where x = y, n is a positive integer)