CHAPTER 1: BIODIVERSITY

Part A: Multiple Choice Questions

1. The organisms that used to be classified in Kingdom Monera are now classified as domain
_______________
A. Archae
B. Eubacteria
C. Eukarya
D. Both A and B
2. A person who comes down with malaria can infer that he or she contracted it from
A. contaminated water supply
B. infection by an animallike protest Giardia
C. the bite of the Anopheles mosquito
D. the bite of tsetse fly
3. The association between a fungus and green algae is called
A. Lichen
B. Mold
C. Mycorrhizae
D. Yeast
4. The gills of mushrooms are the sites of spore bearing structures known as
A. Ascocarps
B. Basidia
C. Basidiocarps
D. Conidiophores
5. Mosses are characterized by which of the following?
A. A dominant gametophyte with dependent sporophyte
B. A dominant gametophyte with independent sporophyte
C. A dominant sporophyte with independent gametophyte
D. A dominant sporophyte with gametophyte reduced to a few cells.
6. Spore-producing sori are located on the undersides of the leaves of a
A. fern frond
B. monocot sporophyte
C. liverwort gametophyte
D. fern gametophyte

7. Which of the following produces "naked" seeds?

A. Angiosperms
B. Ferns
C. Gymnosperms
D. Bryophytes

Questions 8 refer to the data below concerning a newly discovered organism.

Usual mode of reproduction: Sexual
Type of fertilization: External
Embryology: Blastopore contributes to the formation of anus; cleavage is radial
Symmetry: Immature form is bilateral; mature form is five-part radial
Body cavity: Lined with tissue derived from mesoderm
Segmentation: Not evident
Skeleton: Spiny exoskeleton secreted by the dermis and covered with a thin epidermis
Habitat: Marine
8. Into what phylum should this organism be placed?
A. Chordata
B. Nematoda
C. Echinodermata
D. Mollusca
Questions 9 - 10. The following questions refer to the list below.
A. Annelida
B. Mollusca
C. Arthropoda
D. Chordata
9. Coelomate; exoskeleton; jointed appendages (___)
10. Pharyngeal slits; endoskeleton derived from mesoderm; ventral heart (___)

Part B: Structured Question

1. FIGURE 1 below represents the structure of a prothallus.

FIGURE 1
a) Label structure A, B and C.
A:_________________________________________
B:_________________________________________
C:_________________________________________
[3 marks]
b) State the function of structure C.
____________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
c) i. In the life cycle of which type of plant is the prothallus found?
__________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
ii. State the function of prothallus after fertilization occurs.
_________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
iii. What is the ploidy of the prothallus?
_________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
iv. The prothallus is normally found in damp conditions. Suggest one reason for this.
_________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]

d) i. The antheridia and archaegonia illustrated in the diagram produce gametes. What type of
gamete is produced in the antheridia?
_________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
ii. State on the difference between the gamete produced by the antheridia and archaegonia.
__________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
2. FIGURE 2 below shows the structure of Rhizopus.

C
D
FIGURE 2
a) Label structure A, B, C and D.
A : _________________________________ B :_________________________________
C : _________________________________ D : _________________________________
[4 marks]
b) What is the nutritional mode of Rhizopus? Describe how it obtains food from a food source?
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
[3 marks]
c) Some hyphae are divided into individual cell by cross walls with pores in them. What is the
cross walls in hyphae called?
___________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
d) What are one way that many fungi are like plants and one way they are unlike plants?
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]
4

3. The FIGURE 3 below shows the structure of a bacterial cell.

A
B
C
FIGURE 3
a) Name the parts labeled A, B and C.
A : _________________________________
B : _________________________________
C : _________________________________
[3 marks]
b) What is the composition of the cell wall?
___________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
c) State the differences between gram-positive bacteria and gram-negative bacteria.
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]
d) Which structure of bacteria that helps to transfer the genetic material from one bacterium to
another?
__________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
e) Distinguish between archaebacteria and eubacteria.
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
[3 marks]

Part C: Essay Questions

1. a) Arthropod have highly diverse phylum of animalia. State the factors contributing the
successful of arthropod compared to other.
[10 marks]
b) What are the major differences between annelids and flatworm?
[10 marks]

2. a) Explain polymorphism by using Obelia as example.

[10 marks]
b) State the comparison between plant from the group conifers and angiosperms.
[10 marks]

CHAPTER 2: ECOLOGY
Part A: Multiple Choice Questions
1. All of the members of a particular species that live in one area are called a(an)
A. biome
B. population
C. community
D. ecosystem
2. Which of the following descriptions about the organization of an ecosystem is correct?
A. Communities, which make up populations.
B. Population makes up species, which make up communities.
C. Species make up communities, which make up population.
D. Species make up populations, which make up communities.
3. Organisms that obtain nutrients by breaking down dead and decaying plants and animals are
called
A. decomposers
B. omnivores
C. autotrophs
D. producers
4. The obvious relationship demonstrated by a food chain is
A. competition
B. predation
C. parasitism
D. mutualism
5. The algae at the beginning of the food chain in FIGURE 1 are

FIGURE 1

A. consumers
C. producers

B. decomposers
D. heterotrophs

6. What is an ecological model of the relationships that form a network of complex interactions
among organisms in a community from producers to decomposers?
A. food web
B. an ecosystem
C. food chain
D. a population
7. Only 10% of the energy is stored in an organism can be passed on to the next trophic level. Of
the remaining energy, some is used for the organisms life processes, and the rest is
A. used in reproduction
B. stored as body tissue
C. stored as fat
D. eliminated as heat
8. In lakes, large numbers of decomposers are found in the
A. limnetic zone
B. benthic zone
C. littoral zone
D. profundal zone
9. A mature ______ has the greatest species diversity of all terrestrial biomes.
A. tundra
B. tropical rain forest
C. taiga
D. temperate deciduous forest
10. Carbon cycle through the biosphere in all of the following processes EXCEPT
A. photosynthesis
B. transpiration
C. burning of fossil fuels
D. decomposition of animals and plants

Part B: Structured Questions

1. FIGURE 1 below shows one of biogeochemical cycle occurring on earth.

Carbon dioxide
in the air

C
Carbohydrates and proteins
in dead organic matters

Carbohydrates and
proteins in animals

Death

Carbon compounds in fossil

e.g. fuel

Death
Carbohydrates and
proteins in green plants

FIGURE 1
a) What is meant by term of biogeochemical cycle?
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]
b) Name type of biogeochemical cycle above.
___________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
c) Name process A, B, C and D.
A : ________________________________ B : _________________________________
C : ________________________________ D : _________________________________
[4 marks]
d) State the cycling pool and reservoir pool for biogeochemical cycle above.
Cycling pool: ________________________________
Reservoir: __________________________________
[2 marks]

e) Name the organisms that involved in process C.

_____________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]

2. FIGURE 2 shows a pyramid of energy for an ecosystem.

Tertiary consumer

500

Secondary consumer

643

Primary consumer

7084
97115

Producers

Light Energy
(3.7 x 106)

FIGURE 2
a) What is the source of energy for a pyramid above?
___________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
b) Why plants are described as a primary producer?
___________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
c) Suggest suitable units for the measurement of energy transfer in this pyramid.
___________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
d) Calculate the percentage of energy transferred from primary consumers to tertiary consumers.

[2 marks]
10

e) Explain why only about 10% of the energy available at one trophic level is transferred to the
next higher trophic level.
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]
f) Suppose an ecosystem has a greater number of individual herbivores than individual
producers. How would this affect the shape of the ecosystems pyramid of numbers?
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]
g) What quantity does a pyramid of biomass express?
___________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]

3. FIGURE 3 below represents the transfer of energy through a woodland ecosystem.

SUN
800 000

Producers
10 000

Primary
consumers

Secondary
consumers

Decomposers

*
energy flow
* Figure represent energy values in kJ
FIGURE 3
a) Arrange the following ecological term in the correct order.
Population, niche, organism, biosphere, ecosystem, habitat, biome, community.
____________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]

11

b) Define each term:

i. Community
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
ii. Population
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
iii. Ecosystem
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
c) Of the 800 000 kJ of energy which strikes the producers, only 10 000 kj of energy is converted
by the producers in photosynthesis. Calculate the percentage of energy striking the producers
that is converted in photosynthesis.
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]
d) What happens to the energy striking the producers that is not converted in photosynthesis?
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
e) Why is there no fourth consumer level in this ecosystem?
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
f) Suggest why the movement of energy in an ecosystem described as a flow and not as a cycle.
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]
12

Part C: Essay Questions

1. a) Explain the zonation of lake Ecosystem. Give example of organism for each zone.
[5 marks]
b) Discuss the types of interaction between the biotic components in an ecosystem.
[5 marks]
2. What is meant by ecosystem? Explain how energy is transfer along the food chain in an
ecosystem.
[10 marks]
3. Describe two types of food chains. Explain why food chain does not consist of more than five
trophic levels.
[10 marks]

13

CHAPTER 3: POPULATION ECOLOGY

Part A: Multiple Choice Questions
1. The full biotic potential of a population can be reached if the
A.
B.
C.
D.

Ratio of female to male in the population is low.

Environmental resistance is absent.
Age at which each individual in the population first reproduces is high.
Number of offspring that can be produced by each individual in the population is low.

2. Biotic potential is dependent on the following factors, which include

I. Age of maturity.
II. Number of offspring born at a time.
III. Frequency of reproductive activities.
A.
B.
C.
D.

I and II
I and III
II and III
I, II and III

3. Which of the following is the CORRECT definition for environmental resistance?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Biotic factors that oppose the achievement of biotic potential.

Abiotic factors that oppose the achievement of biotic potential.
Abiotic factors that promote the achievement of biotic potential.
Biotic and abiotic factors that oppose the achievement of biotic potential.

4. Carrying capacity of a population is determined by its

A.
B.
C.
D.

Death rate.
Rate of population growth.
Limiting resource.
Birth rate.

5. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE about carrying capacity?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Total number of organisms that can be supported by environmental resources.

Carrying capacity is limited by limited resources.
Carrying capacity of an ecosystem is constant.
Affected by environmental conditions.

6. The rate of __________ increases population size while _________ rate decreases population
size.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Compettition ; natality
Total fertility ; mortality
Natality : mortality
Mortality : natality

14

7. Population grow exponentially when

A.
B.
C.
D.

Immigration and emigration rates are equal.

Death rate remains above birth rate.
Birth rate exceeds death rate.
Emigration rates exceed immigration rates.

8. Biotic potential is dependent on the following factors, which include

I.
II.
III.
IV.

Mortality rate.
Natality rate.
Number of progenies per birth.
Availability of food.

A.
B.
C.
D.

I, II and III
I, II and IV
II, III and IV
I, II, III and IV

9. Predation and competition are examples of ________________ factors.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Density independent
Dispersal
Survivorship
Density dependent

10. Which of the following is the density dependent factor, which affects the population size?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Earthquakes in Bam, Iran.

Pesticides used in paddy fields in Kedah.
Wildfires in forests and residential areas in Australia.
Predation of lions or zebras in the African savannah.

15

Part B: Structured Questions

1. A number of Paramecium aurelia were transferred from the pond into a medium containing
excessive nutrient with concentrated methylcellulose. The next day, Didinium nasutum were
transferred into the same medium. The number of both species is recorded everyday. FIGURE 1
below is a graph to show the population size for P. aurelia and D. nasutum

FIGURE 1
a) Why the growth of P. aurelia population is slow at A?
__________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
b) State the relationship between the natality and mortality rate at phase B and C.
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]
c) What happen to the population size of P. aurelia at phase B and C?
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]
d) Based on the population size, state TWO possible factors that cause steep fall of P. aurelia
population after 3 days.
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]
16

e) Which of the organism act as prey and predator?

__________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
f) Give ONE suggestion on how to stabilize the relationship between prey and predator based
on the medium used. State reason for your answer.
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]
2. In freshwater ecosystems, the number of different plants and animals and the algal biomass
present can vary with changes in the nutrient content of the water. FIGURE 2 below shows the
effect of the addition of nitrates on the numbers of different plants and animals and the algal
biomass in a freshwater pond. Observations were made as soon as the nitrates were added and
for the next 7 weeks.

FIGURE 2
a) Describe the change in the nutrient concentration following the addition of nitrates.
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]
b) Based on FIGURE 2, explain the relationship between the changes in the nutrient
concentration and the algal biomass.
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
[5 marks]
17

c) Why there were changes in the numbers of different plants and animals in the pond following
the addition of nitrates?
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
[3 marks]
3. TABLE 1 below shows a life table of an annual plant.
Age interval
(days)
0-50
50-100
100-150
150-200
200-250
250-300
300-350
350-400
400-450
450-500
500-550
550-600
600-650

Number of surviving
plants at the start of
the age interval
1992
1336
590
380
352
344
334
318
308
294
210
44
0

Number of dead
plants
656
746
210
28
8
10
16
10
14
84
166
44
0

Number of seeds
produced per
individual
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0.4
2.9
5.6
9.8
4.1
0

TABLE 1
a) What is the original number of plants in the population?
__________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
b) Based on the number of seeds produced per plant in each age interval, state THREE general
characteristics of the plant.
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
[3 marks]
c) Why are no seeds produced until day 300?
__________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]

18

d) How many seeds did the plants produce in the 500 to 550 age interval?
__________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
e) Plot the curve of survivorship of the plant.

[4 marks]

19

Part C: Essay Questions

1. Explain how the density dependent factors affect the size of population.
[20 marks]
2. Explain briefly the following ecological terms:
i) Biotic potential
ii) Environmental resistance
iii) Carrying capacity
[12 marks]

20

CHAPTER 4: BIOCATALYSIS
Part A: Multiple Choice Questions
1. What is activation energy?
A. Energy that must be added to get a reaction started, which is recovered as the reaction
proceeds.
B. Difference in energy between reactants and products.
C. Energy that is lost as heat.
D. Free energy.
2. Which of the following explains the mechanism that results in the lowering of activation energy?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Induced fit.
Competitive inhibitor.
Non-competitive inhibitor.
Enzyme-substrate complex.

3. Why do only small amount of enzyme is needed for a large amount of substrate?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Enzymes do not change at the end of a reaction and can be reused.

Small amount of enzymes can provide enough energy to continue the reaction.
More enzymes are formed while the reaction takes place.
Enzymes act until the reaction is completed.

4. Enzymes affect the speed of chemical reactions without being consumed. Because of this, they
are referred to as
A.
B.
C.
D.

Hydrogen acceptors.
Activation energy.
Cytochromes.
Catalyst

5. Which of the following statements is NOT an effect of enzymes on biochemical reactions?

I.
II.
III.
IV.

It lowers the activation energy of reaction.

It reduces the rate of reaction.
It increases the rate of reaction.
It breaks the chemical bonds of substrate.

A.
B.

I and IV
II and III

C.
D.

II and IV
III and IV

6. Which of the following explain the effect of pH towards enzymatic activity?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Most substances dont function well at high or low pH.

High or low pH may disrupt hydrogen bonding and change the shape of active site.
High or low pH may cause the active site to lose its energy.
Excess hydrogen ions can combine with the substrate and cause the reaction to go more
slowly.
21

7. Which of the following could act as enzyme cofactors?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Carbohydrates and hydrogen.

Apoenzymes and lead.
Vitamins and manganese.
Proteins and oxygen.

8. Which coenzymes involve in redox reactions?

I.
II.
III.
IV.

Carboxylase.
Flavin adenine dinucleotide.
Pyridoxal phosphate.
Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide.

A.
B.

I and II
I and III

C.
D.

II and IV
III and IV

9. Which of the following statements are TRUE about coenzyme?

I.
II.
III.
IV.

They are globular proteins.

They do not have prosthetic groups.
They are tightly bound to enzymes.
Most are derivatives of vitamins.

A.
B.

I and II
II and III

C.
D.

II and IV
I, II and III

10. The reaction rate of salivary amylase on starch decreases as the chloride ions is reduced. Which
of the following describes the role of the chloride ions?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Competitive inhibitors.
Non-competitive inhibitors.
Cofactor.
Proteins.

22

Part B: Structured Questions.

1. The equation below shows the reaction of sucrose with enzyme X.

Sucrose

Enzyme X

Fructose + -glucose

a) Identify the enzyme X.

[1 mark]
b) Would a similar reaction occur if enzyme X is replaced with other enzyme? Explain your
answer.

[2 marks]
c) Can enzyme X be used again to react with another sucrose molecule after the reaction is
completed? Explain your answer.

[2 marks]
d) Name ONE non-protein substance that enzyme X might need for catalytic reaction.

[1 mark]
e) State the levels of protein structure that form enzyme.

[1 mark]
f) Define the following terms in relation to enzymatic activity:
i. Active site
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
ii. Competitive inhibitor

[1 mark]
23

iii. Non-competitive inhibitor

[1 mark]
2. TABLE 1 shows the rate of activity of an enzyme at different temperatures.

Temperature (C)
0
5
10
15
20
25
30
35
40
45
50
55
60

Rate of reaction (mg of product per

minute)
1.8
2.4
3.7
4.9
7.4
9.3
13.4
17.2
19.0
19.0
8.1
1.7
0
TABLE 1

a) State the optimum temperature for this enzyme.

[1 mark]
b) Explain the rate of enzyme activity at 15C - 25C.

[1 mark]
c) Explain the rate of enzyme activity at temperature above 45C. State reason for your answer.

[2 marks]
d) State TWO factors other than temperature, which would affect the rate of enzyme activity.

[2 marks]
24

e) Based on TABLE 1, draw an appropriate graph.

[2 marks]
f) If the enzyme used in the experiment was maltase, name:
i.

the substrate: ______________________________________

ii.

the product: _______________________________________

[2 marks]

3. FIGURE 1 shows three different enzymatic reactions. A and B represent TWO types of
inhibitors.
Without inhibitor
A

FIGURE 1
a) State the type of:
i.

Inhibitor A: ____________________________________________________

ii.

Inhibitor B: ____________________________________________________
[2 marks]
25

b) Give ONE example for:

i.

Inhibitor A: ____________________________________________________

ii.

Inhibitor B: ____________________________________________________
[2 marks]

c) How do inhibitor A and B binds to the enzyme?

i.

Inhibitor A: ____________________________________________________

ii.

Inhibitor B: ____________________________________________________
[2 marks]

d) What happens to the rate of reaction with inhibitors A and B if the substrate concentration is
increased?
i.

Inhibitor A: _____________________________________________________

ii.

Inhibitor B: _____________________________________________________
[2 marks]

e) Explain how irreversible inhibitors cause permanent damage to enzymes.

[2 marks]

26

Part C: Essay Questions

1. a) Describe how an enzyme can speed up the rate of chemical reactions.
[5 marks]
b) Explain how enzymes are denatured by high temperature
[5 marks]
2. Name and briefly explain the classes of enzymes according to IUB classification system.
[10 marks]

27

CHAPTER 5: CELLULAR RESPIRATION

Part A. Multiple Choice Questions
1. Which of the following correctly describes the difference between aerobic respiration and
anaerobic respiration?
A. The formation of pyruvate only takes places in aerobic respiration.
B. The energy released during aerobic respiration is stored in the form of ATP, whereas in
anaerobic respiration, it is released as heat.
C. The number of oxygen molecules required during aerobic respiration is more than that
anaerobic respiration.
D. The oxidation of substrates in aerobic respiration is complete but incomplete in anaerobic
respiration.
2. What is the net total of NADH molecules produced when one molecule of glucose undergoes
glycolysis to form pyruvate?
A.
B.
C.
D.

1
2
3
4

3. Which of the following is true of cellular respiration?

I Pyruvate is produced in the cytoplasm and transferred into mitochondria to be oxidized.
II For each electron transferred from NADH + H+ to oxygen through the electron transport
chain, 3 ATP molecules are produced.
III ATP is produced in both glycolysis and the Krebs cycle.
A.
B.
C.
D.

I only
I and III only
II and III only
I, II and III

4. What is the function of molecular oxygen in cellular respiration?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Cause the breakdown of citric acid.

Combine with glucose to produce carbon dioxide.
React with H from organic molecules to produce water.
Combine with carbon from organic molecules to produce CO2.

5. Where does the Krebs cycle occur in eukaryotes?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Cytoplasm.
Matrix of mitochondria.
Inner membrane of mitochondria.
Inter membrane space of mitochondria.

28

6. If oxygen is absence, the NADH produced by glycolysis donates its high energy electron to
A.
B.
C.
D.

Acetyl Co-A
Ethanol
Pyruvate
Lactic Acid

7. Which of the following is NOT the product of anaerobic respiration?

A.
B.
C.
D.

NADH
CO2
ATP
O2

8. Which of the following reactions below involve oxidative decarboxylation?

I Isocitrate to -ketoglutarate
II -ketoglutarate to succinyl CoA
A. I and II
B. I and IV

III Succinyl CoA to succinate

IV Succinate to fumarate

C. II and III
D. II and IV

9. Which are the following statements about the electron transport chain are true?
I
II
III
IV

For every NADH, 3 ATP molecules are produced

For every FADH2 ,2 ATP molecules are produced
It occurs on the outer membrane of the mitochondrion
Last acceptors of hydrogen atom is the oxygen molecule

A. I, II and III
B. I, II and IV

C. I, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV

10. Which are the following statements are true about the process that occurs in cristae?
I ATP is synthesized by ATP synthase on the inner membrane of the mitochondrion
II FADH2 transfers its hydrogen atoms to the flavo-protein complex
III Cytochrome oxidase contain copper as its prosthetic group
IV Production of ATP in the electron transport chain is called oxidative phosphorylation
A. I, II and III
B. I, II and IV

C. I and III
D. I, II, III and IV

29

Part B. Structure Questions

1. FIGURE 1 shows the glycolysis process.

A
Fructose 1,6 -bisphosphate

Pi

CC

FIGURE 1
a)

Where does this process take place?

__________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]

30

b) Name the A, B and C.

A : _____________________________________________________
B : _____________________________________________________
C : _____________________________________________________
[3 marks]
c) What type of phosphorylation occurs in this process?
___________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
d) What happen to dihydroxyacetone phosphate?
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]
e) How many of net ATP produced during this process?
___________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
f) What is the electron carrier produce in this process?
___________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
g) What happen to the pyruvate formed at the end of glycolysis in the present of O2 ?
___________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]

31

2. FIGURE 2 below shows the flow of electrons in specific pathway of cellular respiration.

C
FIGURE 2
a) Name the pathway in FIGURE 2?
___________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
b) Identify the structure I, Q and V.
I : _____________________________________
Q : _____________________________________
V : _____________________________________
[3 marks]
c) How many ATP yield from a complete oxidation of 1 glucose molecule?
___________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
d) Compare to NADH, oxidation of molecule W produce relatively less amount of ATP. What
is W and how many ATP it will produce.
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]

32

e) Explain chemiosmosis and its relation to production of ATPs from 1 molecule of NADH.
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
[3 marks]
3. FIGURE 3 below shows a schematic diagram of a complete process of cellular respiration.

Process I

Process II

Process III

Process IV

FIGURE 3
(a) Name the process labelled I and IV.
Process I : ________________________________
Process IV : _______________________________
[2 marks]
(b) Give an examples of cell that uses process II and process III in the limited of oxygen supply.
Process II : ________________________________
Process III : ________________________________
[2 marks]

33

(c) Complete the diagram below to show the difference between process II and process III.
Process II :
Pyruvate

Lactate
(1m)

Process III :
Pyruvate

Ethanol
[2 marks]

(d) Based on FIGURE 3,

(i) What is the product labelled A?
__________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
(ii) What is the main function of NADH and FADH2?
__________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
(e) Give ONE example of commercial used of lactate fermentation.
_____________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]

34

Part C. Essay Questions

1. a) Describe the process of phosphorylation and dephosphorylation in glycolysis.
[10 marks]
b) Describe how the oxaloacetate (OAA) is used and produced in matrix.
[10 marks]
2. a) Explain how the process of ATP production from NADH and FADH2 flow through the
electron transport chain and chemiosmosis to occur?
[10 marks]
b) What are the differences between alcoholic fermentation and lactate fermentation?
[6 marks]
c) Describe with the help of suitable examples the use of fermentation in industries.
[4 marks]

35

CHAPTER 6: PHOTOSYNTHESIS
Part A. Multiple Choice Questions
1. Flattened sacs of internal membranes associated with photosynthesis are called
A. chloroplasts
B. the stroma
C. cristae.
D. thylakoids
2. In green plant photosynthesis, the electron donor for the light dependent reaction is
A. carbon dioxide.
B. oxygen.
C. RuBP.
D. water.
3. The photosystem channels the excitation energy gathered by absorption of light by any one of
the pigment molecules to a specific "reaction center chlorophyll," which in turn passes the
energy to
A. photosystem I.
B. photosystem II.
C. the primary electron acceptor.
D. cytochrome.
4. Photosystem II differs from photosystem I in that _____________ is not made directly from the
process.
A. ATP
B. NADH
C. NADPH
D. carbohydrates
5. Where does the light independent reaction occurs?
A. stroma
B. thylakoid
C. stroma and thylakoid
D. inner membrane
6. What is the intermediate metabolite that is formed during light independent reaction in
photosynthesis?
A. NADH
B. O2
C. ribulose bisphosphate
D. water

36

7. Which of the molecule below is synthesized during light independent reaction?

A. O2
B. CO2
C. ATP
D. NADPH2
8. What is the molecule in the C4 pathway that combines with carbon dioxide?
A. glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
B. ribulose bisphosphate
C. phosphoenolpyruvate
D. oxaloacetate
9. Light independent reaction involving which of this process?
I O2 fixation
II endergonic reaction
III reduction and regeneration of RuBP
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
10. Which of the following occur in both respiration and photosynthesis?
I chemiosmotic synthesis of ATP
II carbon fixation and formation of water
III final electron acceptor is oxygen
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III

37

Part B. Structured Questions

1. FIGURE 1 show the anatomy of C4 plants leaf

FIGURE 1

a) Name the part labeled cell A and cell B.

___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]

b) Give ONE example of plant with anatomy in FIGURE 1.

___________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
c) How carbon fixation in CAM plants differs with C4 carbon fixation plants.
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]
38

d) What are the main pigments that involved in photosynthesis?

___________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
e) Which chlorophyll absorbs blue and red light best?
___________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
f) Give the overall chemical reaction for photosynthesis.
___________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
g) Which organelle should photosynthesis occur at?
___________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
h) This organelle can be found mainly in tissue of leaf. State the tissue in which the organelle
most abundant.
___________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]

39

2. FIGURE 2 below shows the light reaction of photosynthesis

FIGURE 2
a) Identify A, B, C, and D in the diagram above.
A : _________________________________________
B : _________________________________________
C : _________________________________________
D : _________________________________________
[4 marks]
b) In chloroplast, where structures A and B precisely located?
___________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
c) Identify each path represented by the following lines.
i.

_____________________________________________

ii

_____________________________________________
[2 marks]

d) State the end products of the path named in c(i)

___________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
e) Name the enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of C to D.
___________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
f) State the function of molecule D.
___________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
40

3. FIGURE 3 shows a diagram of the Calvin cycle in photosynthesis.

FIGURE 3
a) Name the phases P, Q and R.
P: _______________________________________
Q: _______________________________________
R: _______________________________________
[3 marks]
b) State the numbers of ATPs used and draws it in the diagram.
[4 marks]
c) Name the carbon dioxide acceptor involved.
_____________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
d) Name the substances J and K needed for process Q.
J: __________________________________________
K:__________________________________________
[2 marks]
41

Part C. Essay Questions

1. a) Describe non cyclic photophosphorylation in photosynthesis.
[12 marks]
b) Compare and contrast cyclic photophosphorylation and non-cyclic photophosphorylation.
[8 marks]
2. a) Explain how the dark reaction occurs in CAM plant.
[10 marks]
b) Describe the three stages of Light Independent Reaction.
[10 marks]

42

CHAPTER 7: GASEOUS EXCHANGE AND ITS CONTROL

Part A: Multiple Choice Questions
1.

Carbon dioxide is transported in the blood mainly

A. in solution
B. as carbonic acid
C. as hydrogencarbonate ions
D. as carbaminohaemoglobin

2.

The chloride shift in the blood is the movement of

A. chloride ions into the alveolar space
B. chloride ions into the tissue cells to maintain electrical neutrality
C. chloride ions out of erythrocyte to balance the hydrogencarbonate ions into
the cell
D. chloride ions into the erythrocyte to maintain electrical neutrality

3.

The Bohr shift occurs in region of

A. increased partial pressure of oxygen
B. decreased partial pressure of oxygen
C. increased partial pressure of carbon dioxide
D. decreased partial pressure of carbon dioxide

4.

A decrease in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood would cause
A. a generation of excitatory impulses by the respiratory center in the medulla
to intercostals muscles and diaphragm
B. a decrease in breathing rate
C. a stimulation of the peripheral chemoreceptors in aortic and carotid bodies
D. an increase in thoracic volume

5.

Which of the following does not results in stomatal opening?

A. low water potential in guard cells
B. sugar converted into starch
C. water entering guard cells by osmosis
D. guard cells undergo photosynthesis

6.

Which of the following plants have stomata that are closed during daytime?
A. pineapple
B. maize
C. tomato
D. pinus

43

7.

Most of the carbon dioxide in the blood is transported

A. dissolved in plasma
B. as bicarbonate ions
C. by haemoglobin
D. as carbonic acid

8.

Carbonic anhydrase in the red blood cells

A. removes oxygen from the erythrocyte
B. carries carbon dioxide in the erythrocyte
C. catalyzes the formation of carbonic acid
D. increase the pH of the blood

9.

When chemoreceptors detect a slight decrease in pH, this means that______ concentrations
have increased, and the breathing rate must________
A. carbon dioxide, increase
B. carbon dioxide, decrease
C. oxygen, increase
D. oxygen, decrease

10. At higher altitudes

A. the concentration of oxygen decreases
B. the concentration of carbon dioxide decrease
C. the partial pressure of oxygen decreases
D. the partial pressure of carbon dioxide increases

44

Part B: Structured Questions

1) The FIGURE 1 below shows the Bohr shift occurs in fetal haemoglobin (P and Q) and for
maternal haemoglobin (R and S).

P pH 7.6
Q pH 7.4

R pH 7.6
S pH 7.4

FIGURE 1
a) Define Bohr shift. State the effect of Bohr shift on the oxygen dissociation curve.
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
[3 marks]
b) Compare the oxygen dissociation curve for fetal and maternal haemoglobin. Explain.
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]
c) What happens to the oxygen dissociation curves when the pH is lowered? Explain.
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]
d) Give two reasons why an expectant mother is advised to give up the smoking.
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]
e) Sketch the curve for fetal myoglobin at pH 7.6. Label the curve as X.
45

[1 mark]

2) FIGURE 2 shows the difference in Oxygen (O2) content and blood temperature during rest
(37C) and exercise (42C).

42C

37C

FIGURE 2
a) State what happen at X and Y
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]
b) Calculate the percentage of oxygen unloaded to the tissue in a person at rest.
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
[2marks]
c) Calculate the percentage of oxygen unloaded to the tissue during exercise.
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]
d) Explain why higher blood temperature shifts the curves to the right.
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]

46

3) The FIGURE 3 below shows a summary of a chemical reactions which occur in a mammalian
during the transportation of carbon dioxide by red blood cells (RBC).

IV

R + O2 CO2 + H2O

T
U

CO2 + H2O

III
HCO3-

H+ + Hb

O2

II
S
H2CO3

HbO2

FIGURE 3
a) State the substances labeled R, S, T and U in the above diagram.
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
[4 marks]
b) Name the part of haemoglobin molecule that binds to carbon dioxide.
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
[1 marks]
c) Explain what happens at stage I, II and IV in the above diagram.
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
[3 marks]
d) What happens to HCO3- after process IV?
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
[1 marks]

47

e) Suggest the reason for movement of T in the diagram.

__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
[1 marks]
f) State the importance of process III.
__________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
[1 marks]

Part C: Essay Questions

1)

With the aid of diagram, describe the oxygen dissociation curve of haemoglobin.
[10 marks]

2)

Describe how carbon dioxide is transported in the blood.

[10 marks]

48

CHAPTER 8: TRANSPORT SYSTEM

Part A: Multiple Choice Questions
1.

The heart sound dup which can be heard represents

A. the flow of blood into the heart
B. the flow of blood from the atrium into the ventricles
C. the closure of ther atrioventricular valves
D. closure of the semilunar valves

2. In which part of the brain are the cardiac accelatory and inhibitory centres found?
A. cerebrum
B. cerebellum
C. medula oblongata
D. hypothalamus
3.

Which structures of the human heart receives impulses directly from the sympathetic and
parasympathetic system?
A. sinoatrial node
B. atrioventricular node
C. bundle of His
D. purkinje tissue

4.

Which of the following is not true in the production of root pressure?

A. mineral ions are actively pumpud into the xylem by endodermal cells
B. ATP is required
C. water potential in the xylem is lowered
D. the Casparian strip in the endodermis prevents the back flow of mineral
ions into the cortex cells

5.

Which of the following functions as a source during translocation in plants?

A. merismetic tissue in the shoot
B. leaves
C. roots
D. fruits and flowers

6.

Which of the following structures is considered to be the pacemaker of the heart?

A. atrioventricular node
B. sinoatrial node
C. bundle of His
D. purkinje fibers

49

7.

When impulse are conducted through the heart, transmission is delayed at the ____ so that the
___________ may contract before the___________
A. sinoatrial node, atrium, ventricles
B. sinoatrial node, ventricles, atrium
C. atrioventricular node, atrium, ventricles
D. atrioventricular node, ventricles, atrium

8. The impulse that signals each heartbeat is conducted along which path?
1.
2.
3.
4.

atrioventricular node
bundle branches
sinoatrial node
atrioventricular bundle (bundle of His)

A. 1,2,3,4
B. 1,3,4,2
C. 3,1,4,2
D. 4,1,2,3
9.

The first sound (lub) is produced by closing of the ____________ and _________ valves
A. aortic semilunar, pulmonary semilunar
B. right atrioventricular, aortic semilunar
C. right atrioventricular, left atrioventricular
D. mitra, left atrioventricular

10. During ventricular systole

A. blood flows from the ventricles to the pulmonary arteries
B. the ventricles relax
C. the atrium contract
D. the tricuspid and mitral valves are opened

50

Part B: Structured Questions

1. FIGURE 1(a) shows the heart and the tissues that control the heartbeat. FIGURE 1(b) shows
an electrocardiogram.

FIGURE 1(a)
a)

FIGURE 1(b)

Label W, X, Y and Z in FIGURE 1(a).

W: ______________________________________
X: _______________________________________
Y: _______________________________________
Z: _______________________________________
[4 marks]

b)

What happen during atrial systole?

______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]

c)

Explain how lup and dup sound produced?

______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]

d)

What is QRS? Explain what happened during this event.

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]

51

2. FIGURE 2 shows the transport pathway of minerals and water in roots.

FIGURE 2
a)

Label A, B, C and D shown in the FIGURE 2.

A: _______________________________________________
B: _______________________________________________
C: _______________________________________________
D: _______________________________________________
[4 marks]

b)

Name the pathway labeled 1 and 2 in Figure 2.

1: ____________________________________________________
2: ____________________________________________________
[2 marks]

c)

Explain the process involved and the pathway taken by water in plants starting from soil to
the endodermis.
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
[4 marks]

52

3.

FIGURE 3 shows the heart conduction that are recorded on a specialized device

FIGURE 3
a.

State the name of the device.

___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]

b.

What is the peak of P shown?

___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]

c.

What does happen on cardiac activity in P.

___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
[3 marks]

d.

QRS shows the cardiac conduction transmit through the both ventricles
i.

How the cardiac conduction is generated from the pacemaker?

_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
[3 marks]
53

ii.

QT is the time of the starting and ending for ventricle systole. Briefly explain about
ventricle systole.
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]

e.

Give two functions of the blood circulation in human body.

____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]

Part C: Essay Questions

1. Describe the uptake water and mineral in plants

[10 marks]
2. Describe the structure and function of human lymphatic system related to the lipid transportation
[10 marks]

54

CHAPTER 9: HOMEOSTASIS
Part A: Multiple Choice Questions
1. What is mean by homeostasis?
A. Control of glucose level in blood.
B. Maintenance of a constant internal environment of a body.
C. Maintenance of a constant internal and external; environment
D. Control of body temperature during fever.
2. Which of the following homeostatic organs and their respective functions are paired
CORRECTLY?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Organ
Liver
Pancreas
Gall bladder
Lungs

Function
Detoxification
Glycogenolysis
Production of bile
Deamination

3. The diagram below shows an outline of a feedback mechanism in homeostasis.

Effectors

Further increase

Correction
mechanism

Increase
Normal Condition

Normal Condition

Identify A, B, Process X and Y?

A.

A
Control center

B
Receptor

B.

Control center

Effectors

C.

Receptor

Effectors

D.

Receptor

Control center

Process X
Positive
Feedback
Negative
feedback
Negative
feedback
Positive
Feedback

55

Process Y
Negative
feedback
Positive
Feedback
Positive
Feedback
Negative
feedback

Decrease

4. Which homeostatic function of liver is controlled and monitored in the pancreas?

A. Deamination of amino acid.
B. Regulate blood glucose level.
C. Produce bile.
D. Removal of toxin and waste.
5. Which of the following occurs when the sugar level in the blood is higher than normal?
A. Gluconeogenesis
B. Glycogenesis
C. Glycolysis
D. Glycogenolysis
6. Which Structure of liver produced bile?
A. Sinusoids
B. Hepatocytes
C. Canaliculi
D. Kupffer cells
7. Which tubule has a U shape?
A. Distal convoluted tubule
B. Proximal Convoluted tubule
C. Loop of Henle
D. Collecting duct
8. Which hormones stimulate the reabsorption of sodium in the distal convoluted tubule?
A. Androgen
B. Adrenaline
C. Aldosteron
D. Antidiuretic hormones (ADH)
9. How kidney controls the level of sodium in blood?
A. By removing and reabsorbing sodium ion.
B. By removing and reabsorbing water.
C. By producing dilute urine.
D. By increase the metabolic activity.
10. What is the mechanism for the filtration of blood within the nephron?
A. The active transport of Na+ and glucose, followed by osmosis.
B. Both active and passive secretion of ions, toxin and NH3 into the tubule.
C. High hydrostatic pressure of blood forcing water and small molecules out of capillary.
D. A lower osmotic pressure in Bowmans capsule compared to the osmotic pressure in the
glomerulus.

56

Part B: Structured Questions

1. FIGURE 1 is a graph showing homeostatic regulation of blood glucose level.

FIGURE 1
a) What is homeostasis?
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
b) Graph ABC shows the normal range of blood glucose in humans. What do points D and
E represents?
D :___________________________________________________________________________
E :___________________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]
c) In order for blood sugar level to return from D to A and from E to B, hormones are needed.
Name the hormones and the cells that secrete them.
Change in blood sugar
level
From D to A

Name of hormone

Cells that secrete the hormone

From E to B
[4 marks]

57

d) Explain the mechanism and the events that take place when blood sugar level is changing from E
to B.
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
[3 marks]
2. FIGURE 2 shows a section of a human organ.

FIGURE 2
a) Name the organ.
_____________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
b) Label the structures M and N.
M: ___________________________________________________________________________
N: ___________________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]
c) State the function of each structure.
O: __________________________________________________________________________
P: ___________________________________________________________________________
Q: __________________________________________________________________________
[3 marks]

58

d) What will happen if there is

i. an excess of glucose in M?
___________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
ii. an excess of amino acids in M?
___________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
e) State two other functions of liver.
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]

59

Part C: Essay Questions

1. Explain the concept of negative feedback in controlling the blood glucose level in the body?
[10 marks]
2. Briefly explain the roles of antidieuretic hormone (ADH) in osmoregulation.
[10 marks]

60

CHAPTER 10: COORDINATION

Part A: Multiple Choice Questions
1. What is the unit of the nervous system?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Cyton (body cell)

Dendron
Axon
Neuron

2. Which is the most CORRECT statement explaining the structure of the nodes of Ranvier ?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Covering of the nerve fibre

Swelling along the nerve fibre
Gaps in the cover of the nerve fibre
Collection of nerves in the heart

3. At the synapses, the impulses are always passed from the __________________.
A.
B.
C.
D.

axon to the dendrites

dendrites to the axon
either way is possible
cyton (body cell) to the dendrites

4. Figure below shows the structure of a sarcomere. Which of the following explaining muscle
contraction?

A.
B.
C.
D.

A band moves and become shorter.

I band and Z line elongates and cause contraction.
Actin filament moves outward the center of the sarcomere.
Both filaments slide over each other to cause shortening of the sarcomere.

61

5. Choose the CORRECT answer that describe the neuromuscular junction structure
I.
II.
III.
IV.
A.
B.
C.
D.

The end of the axon terminal divides into a cluster of synaptic end bulbs (knobs).
Synaptic end bulbs enclosed synaptic vesicles.
The synaptic end bulb(knob) consists of thousand neurotransmitter receptors.
Motor end plate is the structure of sarcolemma that opposite the synaptic end.
I, II and III only
I, III and IV only
I, II and IV only
II, III and IV only

6. Statements below briefly describe the synaptic transmission across a synapse. Choose the
correct sequence in the mechanism.
P - Diffusion of Neurotransmitter
Q Exocytosis of synaptic vesicles
R Influx of Calcium Ca+ ion
S Depolarization due to action potential
T Neurotransmitter binds to postsynaptic receptor

A.
B.
C.
D.

I II III IV V
R, S , T, P , Q
S, R , P, Q ,T
R,T, P, Q , S
S ,R,Q , P , T

7. Choose the correct characteristics of hormone in mammals.

I. Transported in the bloodstream and affect particular target cells.
II. Can act as a catalyst in chemical reaction mammals.
III. Effective in low concentration and specific to particular target cells.
IV. Small soluble organic molecule that travelling in blood.
A.
B.
C.
D.

I and IV only
I, II and III only
I, III and IV only
II, III and IV only

62

8.

Table below shows the comparison between two mechanisms of hormonal action. Which the
best suit to the mechanisms respectively?
Cyclic AMP (cAMP)
Gene Activation

A Long term effect (ranging from few hours Short term effect (ranging from a few
to a few days)
minutes to a few hours)
B Hormones bind to the protein receptors Hormones bind to protein receptors that
that are burrowed on the targeted cell are inside the nucleus or cytoplasm.
membrane.
C Hormones that are bonded to receptors Hormones do not activate the gene.
activate gene.
D Protein kinases inside the cell are not Protein kinases
activated.
activated.

inside

the

cell

are

9. Choose the FALSE comparison between the transmission of impulse at the synapse and along
the axon.
At Synapse
Along Axon
+
+
A Ca ions have diffuse into synaptic knob to Ca ions are not required.
cause release of neurotransmitters.
B Neurotransmitter is not required. Local
Impulse is transmitted via chemical
electrical current is formed that induces a
substances called neurotransmitters.
new action potential in the next region.
C Rate of transmission is slower because
Rate of transmission is faster.
neurotransmitter molecules have to diffuse
across the synaptic cleft.
D In excitable synapse, Ca+ ions diffuse into
Rapid diffusion of Ca+ ions into the
the postsynaptic neurone, hence,
axon depolarizes the axon membrane.
depolarizing the membrane.
10. Match the following hormones to its function in plant.
I.

The hormone that is used to keep flowers fresh.

P. Ethylene

II.

The substance that accelerates the growth in the

stem.

Q. Gibberelin

III.

Promoting growth, increase seed germination

rate, and elongation of cells

R. Cytokinin

IV.

The hormone that speeds up the ripening process.

S. Auxin

A.
B.
C.
D.

I II III IV
R, S, Q,P
R, Q,S, P
S ,R, P,Q
S, Q,R, P

63

Part B: Structured Questions

1.

FIGURE 1 shows the action potential in a neuron.

C
A

FIGURE 1
a) What is meant by an action potential?
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]
b) Label A until D as shown in FIGURE 1.
A: _________________________________________________________________________
B: _________________________________________________________________________
C: _________________________________________________________________________
D: _________________________________________________________________________
[3 marks]
c) Explain what happen during B.
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]
d) Give TWO characteristics of nerve impulse along an axon.
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]

64

2. FIGURE 2 shows the structure of sarcomere.

FIGURE 2
a) State the composition of thick and thin filament in sarcomere.
Thick filament : _____________________________________________________________
Thin filament : ______________________________________________________________
[2 marks]
b) Explain what happened to sarcomere and A band during muscle contraction?
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
[3 marks]
c) State the role of calcium ion in muscle contraction.
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
[3 marks]
d) What happen to muscle during relaxing state?
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]

65

3. FIGURE 3 shows the action of hormone S on its target cell.

FIGURE 3

a) State the type of hormone S and give an example for it.

__________________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]
b) Give ONE characteristic of hormone S that enables it to enter the target cell.
__________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
c) Based on the diagram shown, determine the mechanism of hormone action. Give reason for
your answer.
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]
d) What are molecule P, and process Q and R?
Molecule P: _________________________________________________________
Process Q: __________________________________________________________
Process R: __________________________________________________________
[3 marks]
e) Explain what happen when molecule P enters the nucleus.
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]

66

Part C: Essay Questions

1. Synapse is a junction between two adjacent neuron and responsible for transmitting nerve
impulses from one neuron to another. Explain the mechanism on how the impulse can be
transmit across the synapses.
[10 marks]
2. a) State THREE differences in the mechanism of hormone action with reference to:
i. Steroid hormone
ii. Non-steroid hormone
[6 marks]
b) Gibberellins are a group of phytohormones. Name a commonly encountered gibberellin and
explain the role that gibberellins play in the development of plants.
[4 marks]

67

CHAPTER 11: IMMUNITY

Part A: Multiple Choice Questions
1. Which of the following statements is true of T-cells but not true of B-cells?
A. They are produced in cells that originated in the bone marrow.
B. They react with antigens to produce a clone of immunocytes.
C. They must pass through the thymus gland before they can become fully functional.
D. They have antigen receptors on their surface membranes.
2. The MHC (major histocompatibility complex) is important in
A. Tracking viral invaders.
B. Identifying bacterial pathogens.
C. Recognizing parasitic pathogens.
D. Distinguish self from non-self.
3. Which of the following statements about humeral immunity is correct?
A. It is responsible for transplant tissue rejection.
B. It protects the body against cells that become cancerous.
C. It is mounted by lymphocytes that have matured in the bone marrow.
D. It is primarily defends against bacteria and viruses that have already infected cells.
4. What are plasma cells?
A. Cells that produce few antibodies.
B. The effector cells of humeral immunity.
C. The cells that is responsible for immunological memory.
D. The cells that is responsible for phagocytosis of foreign organism.
5. Which of these pairs is incorrectly matched?
A. Macrophage active T cells.
B. T cells mature in thymus.
C. Helper T cells help complement react.
D. Cytotoxic T cells active in tissue rejection.

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6. Which cell does not phagocytize?

A.

Neutrophil

C. Monocyte

B.

Lymphocyte

D. Macrophage

7. During blood typing, agglutination indicates that the...

A. Plasma contains certain antibodies.
B. Red blood cells carry certain proteins.
C. Plasma contains certain antigens.
D. Red blood cells contain certain antibodies
8. There are three stages of defense against pathogenic bacteria in human immunity system, as
listed below. Arrange the stages in a correct sequence.
I The phagocytic action of macrophages.
II The action of T-cells and antibody-producing cells.
III The production of antimicrobial enzymes and Ig A by the mucous membranes
A. I, II, III

C. III, II, I

B. II, III, I

D. III, I, II

9. If a person's bone marrow were destroyed by radiation, which of the following cells could not
be produced?
I T cells
II B cells
III Plasma cells
A. I only

C. II and III only

B. I and II only

D. I, II and III

10 Which of the following statements about lymphocytes are true?

I They are produce in bone marrow.
II They originate from the liver of developing fetus.
III They may mature in either bone marrow or the thymus gland.
A. I only

C. II and III only

B. I and II only

D. I, II and III

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Part B: Structured Questions

1. The FIGURE 1 below shows an immune response system.

FIGURE 1
(a) Describe the meaning of
i. Antigen
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
ii. Antibody
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
(b) State the immune response represent by a FIGURE 1 above. Why?
____________________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]
(c) How the pore in the membrane of the infected cells can be creating?
__________________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
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(d) State the types of cell involved in this immune response system.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]
(e) Describe how the cell becomes lyses.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________________
[3 marks]
2.

Graph 2 shows the response of two identical doses of the same antigen.

Graph2
a) What is meant by:
i. antigen
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
ii. antibody
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]

71

b) i. Identify the difference between the responses shown in Graph 2.

_______________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
ii. Give reasons for your answer in b) i.?
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]
iii. Explain briefly the mechanism that causes the differences in b) ii.
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
[3 marks]
c) How many days the second injection is able to achieve the highest concentration of
antibody in the serum after first injection? Explain your answer.
_______________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]

72

3.

The FIGURE 3 below shows the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

FIGURE 3
(a) Name the structures labeled A to C.
A: _________________________________________________________
B: _________________________________________________________
C: _________________________________________________________

[3 marks]
(b) Name the cell in the human body that can be infected by HIV.
______________________________________________________________________________________________________

[1 mark]
(c) Explain how this virus invades the cell in (b)
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]
(d) How is HIV transmitted?
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
[3 marks]
(e) Why cant antibodies eliminate HIV from the body?
_____________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
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Part C: Essay Questions

1. Describe the life cycle of HIV.
[10 marks]
2. Explain the Cell Mediated Immune Response mechanism against viral infection of body
cells.
[10 marks]
3. Describe humoral response.
[10 marks]

74

CHAPTER 12: RECOMBINANT DNA TECHNOLOGY

Part A: Multiple Choice Questions
1. Recombinant DNA technology is used:
A. For gene therapy.
B. To make a particular protein.
C. To clone a specific piece of protein.
D. All of the above.
2.

Restriction enzymes that found in bacterial cells are ordinarily used:

A. During DNA replication.
B. To degrade the bacterial cell's DNA.
C. To degrade viral DNA that enters the cell.
D. To attach pieces of DNA together.

3.

Which of the following is correct about host cell?

A. Plasmid is an example of host cell.
B. Unable to receive DNA molecule through transformation.
C. An organism that prevents cloning vectors from multiplying.
D. An organism that is used to receive recombinant DNA for cloning purposes.

4.

What is the purpose of amplification?

A. To screen for recombinant bacteria.
B. To join the rDNA with the host cell.
C. To produce multiple copies of the desired gene
D. To prevent the bacterial from reproducing.

75

5.

Which of these pairs is incorrectly matched?

A. DNA ligase mapping human chromosomes.
B. DNA fragments DNA fingerprinting.
C. Taq polymerase - PCR
D. Plasmid as a vector isolated from bacteria

6.

How are single strand of DNA produced in PCR?

A. By heating the DNA from cells.
B. By isolating the solution containing DNA.
C. By using gel electrophoresis.
D. By adding Taq polymerase.

7.

8.

Which of these would you not expect to be a biotechnology product?

A. Vaccine

C. Protein hormone

B. Steroid hormone

D. Modified enzyme

What is genome?
A. A part of the DNA of an individual.
B. Produced from biological technique.
C. The same from one species to another species.
D. The complete set of chromosomes of an individual.

9.

The following steps involved in gene cloning procedures. Rearrange them into the correct
sequences:
I Transformation and amplification.
II Screen for bacteria that contain recombinant DNA.
III Insert DNA fragment into the cut bacterial plasmid.
IV Cleave the plasmid and human DNA with the same restriction enzyme.
V Isolate the bacterial plasmid and human DNA.
A. I, II, III, IV, V

C. V, IV, III, II, I

B. V, IV, III, I, II

D. IV, V, III, I, II

76

10. Which of the following is true regarding screening by using X-gal?

I Antibiotics will prevent the growth of bacteria without plasmid.
II Bacteria cells with recombinant plasmids are resistant to antibiotics and are
unable to hydrolyse X-gal.
III Bacteria cells that contain non-recombinant plasmids are resistant to antibiotics
and are unable to hydrolyse X-gal.
A. I only

C. II and III only

B. I and II only

D. I, II and III

Part B: Structured Questions

1. Restriction enzymes are widely used in genetic engineering. FIGURE 1 shows the act of
restriction enzyme on DNA.

FIGURE 1
(a) What is meant by restriction enzyme?
_____________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
(b) Based on the DNA cut, structure P and Q will be form.
i.

Name P and Q.

[2 marks]

77

ii.

Draw structures P and Q in the space given below.

[2 marks]
iii.

Name the restriction enzyme that produces fragment Q.

_______________________________________________________________
[1 mark]

(b) Name the enzyme(s) involve in joining the fragments of DNA after cut by restriction
enzyme.
____________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
(c) List the important characteristics of plasmid vectors used in recombinant DNA
technology.
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]
(d) The plasmid vector with the target gene must be introduced to the E. coli for further
replication. State ONE characteristic of E. coli which enable it to use as a host cell
for the plasmid vector.
____________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]

78

2.

The FIGURE 2 below show the base sequence in parts of a foreign DNA (Figure A) and
the cut plasmid showing sticky ends (Figure B).

FIGURE 2
(a) Define restriction enzyme.
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]
(b) Identify the palindromic base sequence in the DNA donor molecule shown.
_____________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]

(c) What is the function of the plasmid shown?

_____________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
(d) (i) A restriction enzyme will cut the DNA donor molecule and plasmid to produce
restriction fragments. Draw the restriction fragments of the DNA donor molecule
produced.

[2 marks]
79

(ii) Name the restriction enzyme used to cut both the foreign DNA molecule and
plasmid.
___________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
(iii) Draw the recombinant DNA formed as the result of inserting the DNA restriction
fragment into the cut bacterial plasmids.

[1 mark]
(iv) What is the next stage after formation of recombinant DNA?
___________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]
(v) State ONE characteristic of DNA vector.
___________________________________________________________________
[1 mark]

80

3. FIGURE 3 below shows the production of human insulin using cDNA.

FIGURE 3
(a) Name TWO enzymes and its function involved during formation of cDNA in the
production of human insulin
i. Enzyme : ______________________________________________________
Function : ______________________________________________________
ii. Enzyme : ______________________________________________________
Function : ______________________________________________________
[4 marks]
(b) Explain why the gene responsible for controlling formation of insulin is taken from
mRNA of human cell not from the DNA?
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]
81

(c) State TWO benefits of insulin produced by genetic engineering.

_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]
(d) Give TWO differences between Genomic and cDNA library.
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
[2 marks]

Part C:

Essay Questions

1. Describe steps in gene cloning.

[10 marks]

2. Define restriction enzyme, cloning vector and host cell and their characteristics as the tools
used in recombinant DNA technology.
[10 marks]

82