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QUANTATIVE ABILITY

THEORY OF EQUATIONS: -----------------------------

(1) If an equation (i:e f(x)=0 ) contains all positive co-efficients of any powers of x , it has no positive roots then. eg: x^4+3x^2+2x+6=0 has no positive roots .

(2) For an equation , if all the even powers of x have some sign coefficients and all the odd powers of x have the opposite sign coefficients , then it has no negative roots .

(3)Summarising DESCARTES RULE OF SIGNS:

For an equation f(x)=0 , the maximum number of positive roots it can have is the number of sign changes in f(x) ; and the maximum number of negative roots it can have is the number of sign changes in f(-x) . Hence the remaining are the minimum number of imaginary roots of the equation(Since we also know that the index of the maximum power of x is the number of roots of an equation.)

(4) Complex roots occur in pairs, hence if one of the roots of an equation is 2+3i , another has to be 2-3i and if there are three possible roots of the equation , we can conclude that the last root is real . This real roots could be found out by finding the sum of the roots of the equation and subtracting (2+3i)+(2-3i)=4 from that sum. (More about finding sum and products of roots next time )

-----------------------------------------07/10/2002 THEORY OF EQUATIONS

------------------------------------------

(1) For a cubic equation ax^3+bx^2+cx+d=o

sum of the roots = - b/a sum of the product of the roots taken two at a time = c/a product of the roots = -d/a

(2) For a biquadratic equation ax^4+bx^3+cx^2+dx+e = 0

sum of the roots = - b/a sum of the product of the roots taken three at a time = c/a sum of the product of the roots taken two at a time = -d/a product of the roots = e/a

(3) If an equation f(x)= 0 has only odd powers of x and all these have the same sign coefficients or if f(x) = 0 has only odd powers of x and all these have the same sign coefficients then the equation has no real roots in each case(except for x=0 in the second case.

(4) Besides Complex roots , even irrational roots occur in pairs. Hence if 2+root(3) is a root , then even 2-root(3) is a root . (All these are very useful in finding number of positive , negative , real ,complex etc roots of an equation )

Today's Section: ---------------08/10/2002 ----------------

(1) If for two numbers x+y=k(=constant), then their PRODUCT is MAXIMUM if x=y(=k/2). The maximum product is then (k^2)/4 .

(2) If for two numbers x*y=k(=constant), then their SUM is MINIMUM if x=y(=root(k)). The minimum sum is then 2*root(k) .

(3) |x| + |y| >= |x+y| (|| stands for absolute value or modulus ) (Useful in solving some inequations)

(4) Product of any two numbers = Product of their HCF and LCM . Hence product of two numbers = LCM of the numbers if they are prime to each other .

1) For any regular polygon , the sum of the exterior angles is equal to 360 degrees hence measure of any external angle is equal to 360/n. ( where n is the number of sides)

(2) If any parallelogram can be inscribed in a circle , it must be a rectangle.

(3) If a trapezium can be inscribed in a circle it must be an isosceles trapezium (i:e oblique sies equal).

(4) For an isosceles trapezium , sum of a pair of opposite sides is equal in length to the sum of the other pair of opposite sides .(i:e AB+CD = AD+BC , taken in order) .

(5) Area of a regular hexagon : root(3)*3/2*(side)*(side)

1) For any 2 numbers a>b

a>AM>GM>HM>b (where AM, GM ,HM stand for arithmetic, geometric , harmonic menasa respectively)

(2) (GM)^2 = AM * HM

(3) For three positive numbers a, b ,c

(a+b+c) * (1/a+1/b+1/c)>=9

(4) For any positive integer n

2<= (1+1/n)^n <=3

(5) a^2+b^2+c^2 >= ab+bc+ca If a=b=c , then the equality holds in the above.

(6) a^4+b^4+c^4+d^4 >=4abcd

(7) (n!)^2 > n^n (! for factorial)

-------------------------This is for 21/10/2002 --------------------------

(1) If a+b+c+d=constant , then the product a^p * b^q * c^r * d^s will be maximum if a/p = b/q = c/r = d/s .

(2)Consider the two equations

a1x+b1y=c1 a2x+b2y=c2

Then , If a1/a2 = b1/b2 = c1/c2 , then we have infinite solutions for these equations. If a1/a2 = b1/b2 <> c1/c2 , then we have no solution for these equations.(<> means not equal to ) If a1/a2 <> b1/b2 , then we have a unique solutions for these equations..

(3) For any quadrilateral whose diagonals intersect at right angles , the area of the quadrilateral is 0.5*d1*d2, where d1,d2 are the lenghts of the diagonals.

(4) Problems on clocks can be tackled as assuming two runners going round a circle , one 12 times as fast as the other . That is , the minute hand describes 6 degrees /minute the hour hand describes 1/2 degrees /minute .

Thus the minute hand describes 5(1/2) degrees more than the hour hand per minute .

(5) The hour and the minute hand meet each other after every 65(5/11) minutes after being together at midnight. (This can be derived from the above) .

1)If n is even , n(n+1)(n+2) is divisible by 24

(2)If n is any integer , n^2 + 4 is not divisible by 4

(3)Given the coordinates (a,b) (c,d) (e,f) (g,h) of a parallelogram , the coordinates of the meeting point of the diagonals can be found out by solving for [(a+e)/2,(b+f)/2] =[ (c+g)/2 , (d+h)/2]

(4)Area of a triangle 1/2*base*altitude = 1/2*a*b*sinC = 1/2*b*c*sinA = 1/2*c*a*sinB = root(s*(s-a)*(s-b)*(s-c)) where s=a+b+c/2 =a*b*c/(4*R) where R is the CIRCUMRADIUS of the triangle = r*s ,where r is the inradius of the triangle .

(5)In any triangle a=b*CosC + c*CosB b=c*CosA + a*CosC c=a*CosB + b*CosA

(6)If a1/b1 = a2/b2 = a3/b3 = .............. , then each ratio is equal to (k1*a1+ k2*a2+k3*a3+..............) / (k1*b1+ k2*b2+k3*b3+..............) , which is also equal to (a1+a2+a3+............./b1+b2+b3+..........)

(7)In any triangle a/SinA = b/SinB =c/SinC=2R , where R is the circumradius

cosC = (a^2 + b^2 - c^2)/2ab

sin2A = 2 sinA * cosA cos2A = cos^2(A) - sin^2 (A)

1) x^n -a^n = (x-a)(x^(n-1) + x^(n-2) + .......+ a^(n-1) ) ......Very useful for finding multiples .For example (17-14=3 will be a multiple of 17^3 - 14^3)

(2) e^x = 1 + (x)/1! + (x^2)/2! + (x^3)/3! + ........to infinity (2a) 2 < e < 3

(3) log(1+x) = x - (x^2)/2 + (x^3)/3 - (x^4)/4 .........to infinity [ Note the alternating sign . .Also note that the ogarithm is with respect to base e ]

(4) In a GP the product of any two terms equidistant from a term is always constant .

(5) For a cyclic quadrilateral , area = root( (s-a) * (s-b) * (s-c) * (s-d) ) , where s=(a+b+c+d)/2

(6) For a cyclic quadrilateral , the measure of an external angle is equal to the measure of the internal opposite angle.

(7) (m+n)! is divisible by m! * n! .

_________________ "I have miles to go before I sleep

------------02/11/2002 -------------

(1) If a quadrilateral circumscribes a circle , the sum of a pair of opposite sides is equal to the sum of the other pair .

(2)The sum of an infinite GP = a/(1-r) , where a and r are resp. the first term and common ratio of the GP .

(3)The equation whose roots are the reciprocal of the roots of the equation ax^2+bx+c is cx^2+bx+a

(4) The coordinates of the centroid of a triangle with vertices (a,b) (c,d) (e,f) is((a+c+e)/3 , (b+d+f)/3) .

(5) The ratio of the radii of the circumcircle and incircle of an equilateral triangle is 2:1 .

(6) Area of a parallelogram = base * height

(7)APPOLLONIUS THEOREM:

In a triangle , if AD be the median to the side BC , then AB^2 + AC^2 = 2(AD^2 + BD^2) or 2(AD^2 + DC^2) .

_________________

1) for similar cones , ratio of radii = ratio of their bases.

(2) The HCF and LCM of two nos. are equal when they are equal .

(3) Volume of a pyramid = 1/3 * base area * height

(4) In an isosceles triangle , the perpendicular from the vertex to the base or the angular bisector from vertex to base bisects the base.

(5) In any triangle the angular bisector of an angle bisects the base in the ratio of the other two sides.

(6) the quadrilateral formed by joining the angular bisectors of another quadrilateral is always a rectangle.

(7) Roots of x^2+x+1=0 are 1,w,w^2 where 1+w+w^2=0 and w^3=1

( |a|+|b| = |a+b| if a*b>=0 else |a|+|b| >= |a+b|

(9) 2<= (1+1/n)^n <=3

(10) WINE and WATER formula:

If Q be the volume of a vessel q qty of a mixture of water and wine be removed each time from a mixture n be the number of times this operation be done and A be the final qty of wine in the mixture

then , A/Q = (1-q/Q)^n

(11) Area of a hexagon = root(3) * 3 * (side)^2

(12) (1+x)^n ~ (1+nx) if x<<<1

(13) Some pythagorean triplets:

3,4,5 (3^2=4+5) 5,12,13 (5^2=12+13) 7,24,25 (7^2=24+25) 8,15,17 (8^2 / 2 = 15+17 ) 9,40,41 (9^2=40+41) 11,60,61 (11^2=60+61) 12,35,37 (12^2 / 2 = 35+37) 16,63,65 (16^2 /2 = 63+65) 20,21,29(EXCEPTION)

(14) Appolonius theorem could be applied to the 4 triangles formed in a parallelogram.

(15) Area of a trapezium = 1/2 * (sum of parallel sids) * height = median * height where median is the line joining the midpoints of the oblique sides.

(16) when a three digit number is reversed and the difference of these two numbers is taken , the middle number is always 9 and the sum of the other two numbers is always 9 .

(17) ANy function of the type y=f(x)=(ax-b)/(bx-a) is always of the form x=f(y) .

(1 Let W be any point inside a rectangle ABCD . Then WD^2 + WB^2 = WC^2 + WA^2

(19) Let a be the side of an equilateral triangle . then if three circles be drawn inside this triangle touching each other then each's radius = a/(2*(root(3)+1))

(20) Let 'x' be certain base in which the representation of a number is 'abcd' , then the decimal value of this number is a*x^3 + b*x^2 + c*x + d

5) For a cyclic quadrilateral , area = root( s* (s-a) * (s-b) * (s-c) * (s-d) ) , where s=(a+b+c+d)/2

Here are some neat shortcuts on Simple/Compound Interest.

Shortcut #1: ------------We all know the traditional formula to compute interest... CI = P*(1+R/100)^N - P

The calculation get very tedious when N>2 (more than 2 years). The method suggested below is elegant way to get CI/Amount after 'N' years.

You need to recall the good ol' Pascal's Triange in following way: Code:

Number of Years (N) ------------------1 2 3 1 1 2 1 1 3 3 1

4 .

1 4 6 4 1 1 .... .... ... ... 1

Example: P = 1000, R=10 %, and N=3 years. What is CI & Amount?

Step 1: 10% of 1000 = 100, Again 10% of 100 = 10 and 10% of 10 = 1 We did this three times b'cos N=3.

Step 2: Now Amount after 3 years = 1 * 1000 + 3 * 100 + 3 * 10 + 1 * 1 = Rs.1331/The coefficents - 1,3,3,1 are lifted from the pascal's triangle above.

Step 3: CI after 3 years = 3*100 + 3*10 + 3*1 = Rs.331/- (leaving out first term in step 2)

If N =2, we would have had, Amt = 1 * 1000 + 2 * 100 + 1 * 10 = Rs. 1210/CI = 2 * 100 + 1* 10 = Rs. 210/-

This method is extendable for any 'N' and it avoids calculations involving higher powers on 'N' altogether!

A variant to this short cut can be applied to find depreciating value of some property. (Example, A property worth 100,000 depreciates by 10% every year, find its value after 'N' years).

Shortcut #2:

------------(i) When interest is calculated as CI, the number of years for the Amount to double (two times the principal) can be found with this following formula: P * N ~ 72 (approximately equal to). Exampe, if R=6% p.a. then it takes roughly 12 years for the Principal to double itself.

Note: This is just a approximate formula (when R takes large values, the error % in formula increases).

(ii) When interest is calculated as SI, number of years for amt to double can be found as: N * R = 100 . BTW this formula is exact!

Adding to what 'Peebs' said, this shortcut does work for any P/N/R.

Basically if you look closely at this method, what I had posted is actually derived from the Binomial expansion of the polynomial -- (1+r/100)^n but in a more "edible" format digestable by us!

BTW herez one shortcut on recurring decimals to fractions ...Its more easier to explain with an example..

Eg: 2.384384384 ....

Step 1: since the 3 digits '384' is recurring part, multiply 2.384 by 1000 = so we get 2384.

Next '2' is the non recurring part in the recurring decimal so subtract 2 from 2384 = 2382.

If it had been 2.3848484.., we would have had 2384 - 23 = 2361. Had it been 2.384444.. NR would be 2384 - 238 = 2146 and so on.

We now find denominator part .......

Step 3: In step 1 we multiplied 2.384384... by 1000 to get 2384, so put that first.

Step 4: next since all digits of the decimal part of recurring decimal is recurring, subtract 1 from step 3. Had the recurring decimal been 2.3848484, we need to subtract 10. If it had been 2.3844444, we needed to have subtracted 100 ..and so on...

Hence here, DR = 1000 - 1 = 999

Hence fraction of the Recurring decimal is 2382/999!!

Some more examples ....

1.56787878 ... = (15678 - 156) / (10000 - 100) = 15522/9900

23.67898989... = (236789 - 2367) / (10000 - 100) = 234422/9900

124.454545... = (12445 - 124) / (100 - 1) = 12321/99

CRITICAL REASONING

How to Crack CR - Section 1


13-SEP-2006

Directions: paragraph:

Read the passages and answer the question given at the beginning / end of each

1. One morning, George Petersen of Petersens Garage watches as a 1995 Da Volo station wagon is towed onto his lot. Because he knows that nearly 90% of the 1995 Da Volo station wagons brought to his garage for work in the past were brought in because of malfunctioning power windows, he reasons that there is an almost 9 to 1 chance that the car he saw this morning has also been brought in to correct its faulty power windows. Which one of the following employs flawed reasoning most similar to that employed by George Petersen? (1) Mayor Lieberman was reelected by a majority of almost 75%. Since Janine Davis voted in that mayoral election, the chances are almost 3 to 1 that she voted for Mayor Lieberman. (2) Each week nine out of 10 best-selling paperback books at The Readers Nook are works of fiction. Since Nashs history of World War II was among the ten best-selling paperback books at The Readers Nook this week, the chances are 9 to 1 that it is a wor k of fiction (3) 90% of those who attempt to get into Myrmidon Military Academy are turned down. Since the previous 10 candidates to the academy were not accepted, Vladimirs application will almost certainly be approved. (4) Only one out of 50 applications for bypassing zoning regulations and establishing a new business in the Gedford residential district is accepted. Since only 12 such applications were made last month, there is virtually no chance that any of them will be accepted.

2. Biologists attached a radio transmitter to one of a number of wolves that had been released earlier in the White River Wilderness Area as part of a relocation project. The biologists hoped to use this wolf to track the movements of the whole pack. Wolves usually range over a wide area in search of prey, and frequently follow the migrations of their prey animals. The biologists were surprised to find that this particular wolf never moved more than five miles away from the location in which it was first tagged. Which one of the following, if true, would by itself most help to explain the behavior of the wolf tagged by the biologists? (1) The area in which the wolves were released was rocky and mountainous, in contrast to the flat, heavily- wooded area from which they were taken. (2) The wolf had been tagged and released by the biologists only three miles away from a sheep ranch that provided a large, stable population of prey animals. (3) The White River Wilderness Area had supported a population of wolves in past years, but they had been hunted to extinction. (4) Although the wolves in the White River Wilderness Area were under government protection, their numbers had been sharply reduced, within a few years of their release, by illegal hunting.

3. It doesnt surprise me that the critic on our local radio station went off on another tirade today about the city mens choir. This is not the first time that he has criticized the choir. But this time his criticisms were simply inaccurate and unjustified. For ten minutes, he spoke of nothing but the choirs lack of expressiveness. As a professional vocal instructor, I have met with these singers individually; I can state with complete confidence that each of the members of the choir has quite an expressive voice. Which one of the following is the most serious flaw in the authors reasoning?

(1) He directs his argument against the critics character rather than against his claims. (2) He ignores evidence that the critics remarks might in fact be justified. (3) He cites his own professional expertise as the sole explanation for his defense of the choir. (4) He assumes that a group will have a given attribute if each of its parts has that attribute.

4. Video arcades, legally defined as video parlors having at least five video games, require a special city license and, in primarily residential areas such as East view, a zoning variance. The owners of the Video Zone, popular with East view teenagers, have maintained that their establishment requires neither an arcade license nor a zoning variance, because it is really a retail outlet. Which one of the following is an assumption upon which the argument of the Video Zones owners is based? (1) The existing East view zoning regulations are unconstitutionally strict. (2) At no time are more than four video games in operation at the Video Zone. (3) Stores like the Video Zone perform an important social function. (4) Retail establishments require no special licenses or zoning variances in East view.

5. Choose the option that best completes the passage given. One tax-reform proposal that has gained increasing support in recent years is the flat tax, which would impose a uniform tax rate on incomes at every level. Opponents of the flat tax say that a progressive tax system, which levies a higher rate of taxes on higher-income taxpayers, is fairer, placing the greater burden on those better able to bear it. However, the present crazy quilt of tax deductions, exemptions, credits, and loopholes benefits primarily the high-income taxpayer, who is consequently able to reduce his or her effective tax rate, often to a level below that paid by the lower-income taxpayer. Therefore, ______ (1) higher-income taxpayers are likely to lend their support to the flat-tax proposal now being considered by Congress (2) a flat-tax system that allowed no deductions or exemptions would substantially increase actual government revenues (3) the lower-income taxpayer might well be penalized by the institution of a flat-tax system in this country (4) the progressive nature of our pre sent tax system is more illusory than real

6. Choose the option that best completes the passage given. The most serious flaw in television's coverage of election campaigns is its tendency to focus on the horse-race side of politics-that is, to concentrate on the question "Who's winning?" at the expense of substantive coverage of the issues and the candidates' positions on them. The endless interviews with campaign managers, discussions of campaign strategies, and, especially, the obsession with opinion polls have surrounded elections with the atmosphere of a football game or a prizefight. To reform this situation, a first step might well be______ (1) a shortening of the length of election campaigns to a period of six weeks (2) a stringent limit on campaign spending (3) a reduction in the television coverage of opinion polls during election campaigns

(4) the publication and distribution of voter-education literature to inform the public about each candidate's position on the major issues

7. Choose the option that best completes the passage given. In opposing government regulation of business, conservatives often appeal to the Jeffersonian ideal of limited government, expressing the wish that government would "get off the backs of the American people." Yet, paradoxically, many of these same conservatives address questions of private morality, such as those dealing with sexual behavior, by calling for______ (1) a return to the restrictive sexual morality of the Victorian era (2) a strengthening of the role of the family in setting moral norms for society (3) a limitation on the amount of sexually provocative material appearing in books, motives, and television shows. (4) an increased governmental role in the regulation and control of private sexual behavior

8. Johnson is on firm ground when he asserts that the early editors of Dickinson's poetry often distorted her intentions. Yet Johnson's own, more faithful, text is still guilty of its own forms of distortion. To standardize Dickinson's often indecipherable handwritten punctuation by the use of the dash is to render permanent a casual mode of poetic phrasing that Dickinson surely never expected to see in print. It implies that Dickinson chose the dash as her typical mark of punctuation when, in fact, she apparently never made any definitive choice at all. Which of the following best summarizes the author's main point in the passage? (1) Although Johnson is right in criticizing Dickinson's early editors for their distortion of her work, his own text is guilty of equally serious distortions. (2) Johnson's use of the dash in his text of Dickinson's poetry misleads readers about the poet's intentions. (3) Because Dickinson never expected her poetry to be published, virtually any attempt at editing it must run counter to her intentions. (4) Although Johnson's attempt to produce a more faithful text of Dickinson's poetry is wellmeaning, his study of the material lacks sufficient thoroughness.

9. Enrollment in graduate and professional programs tends to be high in a strong economy and much lower during recessions. The perceived likelihood of future job availability, therefore, affects people's willingness to pass up immediate earning potential in order to invest in career-related training. The argument above assumes that: (1) the perceived likelihood of job availability has decreased in recent years. (2) all those who avoid graduate and professional school during an economic slump do so because of the perceived lack of future jobs. (3) perceptions of the likelihood of job availability are related to the state of the economy. (4) those who enroll in graduate and professional schools during a strong economy help increase the economy's strength.

10. Staff members at the Willard Detention Center typically oversee student schedules and make all final decisions regarding the required activities in which students participate. Students are

permitted, however, to make their own decisions regarding how they spend their free time. Therefore, students should be permitted to make their own decisions regarding the elective courses that they wish to take. The conclusion above would be more reasonably drawn if which of the following were inserted into the argument as an additional premise? (1) Decisions regarding required activities are more important than decisions regarding the elective courses that students take. (2) Students are more willing to take elective courses than to participate in required Center activities. (3) Required activities contribute more to the rehabilitation of students than do their free-time activities. (4) When compared for decision-making purposes, elective courses are more like free-time activities than required activities.

Solutions 1. 1. George Petersen gives us a little lesson on how not to use statistics. He knows that 9 out of 10 Da Volos are brought to his shop because of malfunctioning windows, so he reasons that this particular Da Volo, which is being towed in, has probably also been brought in for malfunctioning windows. Surely the fact that the car is being towed indicates that there must be some more serious problem. Petersen has mindlessly applied a numerical formula while ignoring additional information. Where else do we see such reasoning? (2), the correct answer, uses previous figures to conclude that theres a 9 to 1 chance that Nashs history of World War II is a work of fiction. (2) ignores the compelling contrary evidence (that this book is a history) and mindlessly applies a numerical formula where it clearly shouldnt be applied. (1)s use of statistics is reasonable. We dont know anything special about Janine Davis; shes just a voter. Therefore, since almost 3 out of 4 voters chose Lieberman, theres an almost 3 out of 4 (or 3 to 1) chance that Janine voted for Lieberman. (3) reasons that Vladimirs chances of being admitted into the academy have been improved by the rejection of the previous candidates. Thats not a persuasive line of argumentation, but its nothing like the stimulus. (4) is a straight numerical argument. The conclusion seems overstated (even a 1 out of 50 chance isnt virtually no chance), but its not at all like the stimulus; were not shown a particular case with special information that goes against the numbers.

2.

2. Most wolves range over a wide area in search of prey; this particular wolf hung around the same area. An explanation that immediately suggests itself is that this particular wolf found enough prey in this area, so it didnt have to run all over looking for food. This is the tack taken by (2): If the wolf had a large stable population of sheep on which to prey in the immediate vicinity, there was no need for it to range over a wide territory looking for food. (1) doesnt have much direct bearing on this particular wolfs lack of mobility. While its true that a wolf might find it harder to move around in mountainous country, the stimulus says that wolves in general tend to cover great distances in search of food. Theres no hint that a wolf in a mountainous area should prove an exception to this rule. (3) is irrelevant: While the White River Wilderness Area may once have supported a population of wolves, knowing this does nothing to explain the behavior of this particular wolf. (4), if anything, gives what seems to be a reason for our wolf to make tracks and migrate somewhere else. Certainly (4) doesnt explain why our wolf didnt follow usual wolf hunting methods.

3.

3. The flaw in the authors reasoning lies in his reasoning from part to whole, which is implied rather than explicitly stated: Each of the singers has an expressive voice, therefore all the choir, as a group, must be expressive and the critic must be wrong. But just because each voice is expressive alone doesnt necessarily mean that all the voices will be expressive together. (4), therefore, is correct. (1), although the author is rather vehement in disputing the critics claims, he doesnt address the critics character.

4.

4. In a nutshell, Video Zones owners are concluding that their operation is exempt from the requirement to have an arcade license and a zoning variance in Eastview. Their evidence is the fact that they are a retail outlet. To connect this evidence to this conclusion, they must assume that no retail outlet is required to obtain either the license or the variance, which is choice (4). (1) Rather than assume the owners have implicitly accepted the communitys zoning and other regulations; although they interpret the ordinances in a manner that might be open to question, they are not criticizing the regulations themselves. (2) We can surmise that the contrary is the case; i.e., that at least five video games are in operation at some time. Otherwise, the Video Zone would simply not fall under the communitys definition of vi deo parlor, and the issue of the possible need for an arcade license would not have arisen. (3) There is no suggestion in the owners argument that they believe, or expect others to believe, that the business can be viewed as performing a social function. Their argument concerns classification, not social value.

5.

5. (4) The sentence after therefore must be the conclusion of the discussion above in the passage. (4) recapitulates the passage in the best possible way.

6.

6. (3) Here the author describes the problem of the televisions coverage of election campaigns as it introduces a sense of gambling and he compares opinion polls with the football game or a prize fight. Now the remedy or the reformation of this situation is to reduce the television coverage of the opinion polls, which is there in option (3). (1) and (2) distorts the theme. (4) is not in line with the solution of the problem.

7.

7.

(4) is the only logical sentence that should follow.

8.

8.

(2) is short and concise epitome of the passage.

9.

9. We are asked to find an assumption. The assumption is the unstated notion that must be true if the conclusion is to stand. The argument involves a question of cause and effect. Since enrollment in graduate and professional programs tends to be high when the economy is strong and low when it is weak, the reason must be, according to the author, a matter of perceptions of job availability. Sounds reasonable, but do all the terms match up with those in this conclusion? We know from the question stem that they do not. What is missing? Well, the evidence pertains to the state of the economy. But the conclusion strays into the area of psychology--perceptions. Are these the same things? The author treats them as such by arguing from evidence regarding the state of the economy to a conclusion based on perceptions of the economy. The author takes the relationship between these for granted, but technically, in order for the argument to work, this must be established. Choice (2) reveals this basic assumption.

10. We are asked to find an additional premise that would make the argument more reasonable. This implies that you must first locate the evidence and conclusion, then identify a central assumption, and finally find an answer choice that supports this assumption. The argument here is a simple one: Since students at the Willard Detention Center make their own decisions about free time, they should also make their own decisions about elective courses. The argument assumes

that, for these students, decisions about what to do with free time are similar to decisions about what electives to take in school. Since we are looking for a premise to complete the argument, look for a choice that provides evidence that these things are similar. Choice (4) provides the evidence we need. If it is true that elective courses are more akin to free time than to required activities, then the conclusion that students should be able to choose their own electives is more reasonable

Quant Ticklers - 5
13-SEP-2006

1. 2.

Ashish spends 10% of his pocket money on himself and gives his sister Rs.5. If he still has 80% of the original sum, what was the amount he had as pocket money? A owes B a sum of Rs.5000 to be paid 6 months from today. If simple interest @12% p.a. is calculated, what sum shall A have to pay B, 4 months from now in full discharge of the debt?

3. 4.

The difference of 2 positive numbers is 81 and quotient obtained on dividing the one by the other is 9. Find the first number. Anand goes to a shop to buy the walkman costing Rs.2250. The rate of sales tax is 6% he wants the dealer to reduce the price so that he has to pay Rs.2000 inclusive of tax. Find the reduction needed in the percent of the walkman.

5.

P,Q, R enter a partnership where they invest Rs. 20000, Rs. 30000, Rs. 40000 resp. P withdraws Rs. 10000 after 2 months, Q withdraws Rs. 15000 after 4 months and R withdraws Rs. 25000 after 8 months. What will be Rs share in the profit of Rs. 12474?

6. 7.

A company declares a dividend of 15% on Rs.150 shares. A man buys such shares and gets 10% on his investment. Find at what price he bought the shares? If x sells for Rs.20 each, 250 Rs.10 share in a company which pays a dividend of 10% and then invests the proceeds of this sale in the purchase of Rs.5 shares in another company at Rs.4 each, find what difference is made in his income if the company pays a dividend of 4%?

8. 9.

of one number + 2/3 of another = 3/8 of their sum. Find the ratio of their numbers. At how many distinct points do the diagonals of a square intersect if no 2 diagonals pass through the same point?

10. X buys an apple from Y for Rs.5 and sells it to Z for Rs.10. He later buys the apple back from Z for Rs.12 and sells it to Y for Rs.15. What is his profit over the venture?

Answers: 1. Rs. 50/6. 225 2. 4906 3. 90 7. 250 8. 3:7 4. 16.14% 5. 5643

9. The diagonals of a square intersect at 1 point if no 2 diagonals pass through the same point 10. 8

How to Crack CR - Section 2


14-SEP-2006

11. Advertisement: Quicktrak is gaining more subscribers each year than any other business news

service. Quicktrak offers the most up-to-date international business news, and the most comprehensive company information needed to make wise investment decisions. Quicktrak is the only service devoted exclusively to international business news and the financial analysis of corporations. So, by choosing a financial news service other than Quicktrak, you are doing your company a disservice. Which of the following is an assumption of the argument in the advertisement above? (1) A subscription to Quicktrak is not appreciably more expensive than a subscription to standard business magazines or newspapers. (2) A significant portion of any business involves international trade or investing in other companies. (3) Quicktrak has more subscribers than other business news services. (4) The market share of Quicktrak is increasing.

12. Bruce: Almost a century ago, country X annexed its neighbor's western province, clearly an unjust act. It is the obligation of country X to return the province to its former possessors, even if doing so would involve great sacrifice on the part of those citizens of country X who are currently living within that province. Linda: A nation's paramount responsibility is the well-being of its own citizens. Country X should make the sacrifice of returning the province only if it can be sure that such an act will provide some tangible benefit to the citizens of country X. The issue of whether the original annexation was just is a secondary consideration. Linda's reply to Bruce most closely conforms to which one of the following principles? (1) A nation is obliged to make sacrifices only in order to fulfill its paramount responsibility. (2) Historical wrongs can properly be redressed only when all interested parties agree that a wrong has been committed. (3) No national sacrifice is too great, provided that it is undertaken in order to insure the future well-being of the nation. (4) The views of the entire nation should be consulted before the nation takes an action that involves considerable sacrifice from any part of the nation.

13. In the above paragraph, to which of the following questions would Bruce and Linda give opposing answers? (1) Can the original annexation of the neighboring nation's western province accurately be characterized as an unjust act? (2) Would the return of the annexed province to its original possessors involve appreciable sacrifice on the part of the citizens of country X? (3) Would the return of the annexed province to its original possessors confer any benefit on the citizens of country X? (4) Does country X have the obligation to redress an historic injustice at the risk of providing no benefit to its own citizens?

14. Choose the option that best completes the blank in the passage given. With the outbreak of hostilities in the Gulf, it has become all the more imperative to improve the efficiency of PSUs. (________). The budget deficit is likely to remain uncomfortable apart from the precarious

balance of payments position. Transport will be affected and the economy may move into stagnation if there is no early end to the Gulf war. (1) Iraq is unlikely to be able to supply oil for quite some time to come. (2) Indias oil import bill has already become burdensome. (3) PSUs have been proving to be white elephants for the economy. (4) India has been caught in the cross-fire of the Gulf war.

15. Choose the option that best completes the blank in the passage given. What should be the focus of R & D effort for the electronics industry? The Central Research Laboratory (CRL) of BEL in Bangalore and the Electronics Research and Development Centre (ERDC) in Trivandrum appear to vary in perception. (________). It does not engage itself in project development, but only works on enabling technologies. (1) The BEL laboratory.s focus is basically on communications technology and it is working at the front-end of this. (2) Nobody seems to be quite clear about what the focus of BEL.s R & D should be. (3) The ERDC seems to be duplicating some of the R & D work already done by BEL. (4) The BEL engages itself in needless .back-biting. of the work done by the ERDC.

16. Choose the option that best completes the blank in the passage given. Resources are in severe crunch, first and foremost. With its capital structure consisting of equity and loans from the Government and public sector undertakings in the ratio of 54 to 46, the plant is naturally expected to service a large debt component, an uphill task. (________). Its cost overruns are such that the cost estimate with 1990 first quarter as base is Rs.7,850 crores. The expenditure since its inception is Rs.6,442 crores. (1) The management seems to be unable to reconcile itself to the task of taking the necessary steps towards overcoming such a stiff proposition. (2) In steel plants abroad, the debt component during the set-up stage is closer to a more manageable 25 per cent. (3) The management has been asking for a restructuring of its capital base with an increase in the equity component to 70 or 80 percent so that its debt burden will be lightened in its formative years. (4) It is certainly not too much to expect that the management should have taken this into consideration at the time of setting up the project.

17. Choose the option that best completes the blank in the passage given. The economy of the road transport industry is in a bad shape as operational costs have been increasing. Any price control on tyres will affect the viability of tyre companies, compelling them to reduce production. (________). The demand for tyres shows no indication of picking up though the vehicle manufacturing industry, especially the heavy vehicle segment, does not have much of a problem in turning out vehicles, but this could only be a pre- budget phenomenon. (1) There is a boom period in the offing for the tyre industry. (2) This is a far cry from the days when the domestic tyre industry was accused of cartelisation and

price fixing. (3) A reduction in production would only further worsen the situation as heavier over head absorption would be required. (4) This would, in turn, seriously affect the road transport industry.

18. Choose the option that best completes the blank in the passage given. In the initial stages, the floor tiles were of two categories, glazed and unglazed. The glazed ones were of different colours. There were plain colours and cloudy effects and self design tiles. (________). Screen printing involves an elaborate technique of preparing a design and transferring it to screens by photographic process. Special screen printing machines are installed along the glaze line to print tiles. (1) At the outset there was a fairly heavy demand for such tiles. (2) To follow was the introduction of screen printed tiles with a variety of designs. (3) Self design tiles were targeted at individuals who wished to create a designer look by using such tiles imaginatively. (4) Cloudy effect tiles never really caught on in a big way.

19. Of late, Karnataka in general and Bangalore in particular, have been in the news, mostly for the wrong reasons. Notwithstanding the good and pleasant people of the region, unfortunately, Karnataka has figured among the four most corrupt states of a country, that itselft ranks among the most corrupt and the most difficult of countries in the world to do business in - a distinction both Karnataka and India could well do without. And Bangalore has been attracting flak from the industry for its crumbling infrastructure, its woeful power situation, its pathetic and narrow roads, the time it takes to commute the shortest of distances, the time it takes to build the shortest of flyovers, the clogged drainage, haywire traffic, absent sidewalks, and open sewers, have all gone to wrinkle the noses of not just the IT czars as widely reported in the press, but of the common man as well a fact much less reported. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the passage. (1) Both Karnataka and India could do without the label as the most corrupt state and country. Bangalore has been further criticised for its infrastructure which is breaking down. (2) Karnataka is among the four most corrupt states of India, which is also ranked as corrupt and the most difficult to do business in. Bangalore has been criticised for its poor infrastructure not only by the IT czars but by the common man as well. (3) Bangalore, Karnataka and India have been criticized for corruption, poor infrastructure and being difficult to do business in despite the people being good and pleasant. This has been the case with not only the IT czar but the common man also. (4) Both Karnataka and Bangalore have been in news. The state is among the four in the country which have traditionally been held to be corrupt and difficult to do business in Bangalore too has been the butt of critics for its poor power situation; non-existent roads clogged drains open sewers etc.

20. For decades asbestos has been known to cause cancer in those who inhale its tiny fibres. That has triggered restrictions on its use and, ultimately, thousands of laswsuits in the US and elsewhere. But in Japan, asbestos barely cracked the headlines over the years, let alone the court system. It was only last October that Tokyo finally banned asbestos in all but a handful of products - 14 years after similar action int he US. Even then the government implemented no measures to prevent asbestos - once widely used as fireretardant insulation - from being released into the air as

older buildings were renovated or torn down. Today the carcinogen is suddenly big news from Kyushu to Hokkaido. Recently farm machinery maker Kubota Corp acknowledged, in response to inquiries from the daily Mainichi Shimbun, that since 1978, 79 of its workers had died after inhaling asbestos fibres. Within days dozens of companies reported previously undisclosed fatalities blamed on asbestos. Now the government is scrambling to explain why it paid scant attention to the issue for so long. We should have banned asbestos sooner, health, labour, and welfatre minister Hidehisa Otsuji told a parliamentary committee recently. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the passage. (1) Inhalation of asbestos fibre is known to be carcinogenous but it was banned in Japan only recently. Even then no steps were taken against its release into the air. It has become news after several companies blamed its inhalation as the reason for the death of some of their workers. (2) Lawsuits in the US have shown asbestos to be carcinogenous but Japan banned it only when several companies acknolwedged that the inhalation of asbestos fibre was the reason for the death of some of their workers. The health minister felt it should have been done earlier. (3) Asbestos can cause cancer which is why it is banned in the US and elsewhere. But Japan woke up to this reality only after the death of workers in several asbestos company. (4) Asbestos became big news in Japan recently when several companies thought their workers had died and welfare minister felt the step should have been taken when the US and other countries banned asbestos production.

Solutions

1.We are looking for an assumption that connects evidence and conclusion. First, read the stimulus and identify the argument. How are the evidence and conclusion different from each other? Try to work out the assumption that holds them together. The advertisement contains an argument built on three pieces of evidence: Quicktrak is growing fastest; Quicktrak offers the most up-to-date international business news, and the most comprehensive company information needed to make wise investment decisions; Quicktrak is the only service devoted exclusively to these two types of news. Based on this evidence, the advertisement concludes that subscribing to any other financial news service would be a disservice to your company. There are many assumptions here. But the most crucial assumption is that the two types of news Quicktrak provides must be useful to any company. Choice (2) explicitly states the latter assumption and is the correct answer.

2. The question wants the gist of Linda's response to Bruce's claim that regardless of the sacrifices entailed, country X should give back the province it annexed a century ago, on the grounds that the annexation was "unjust." Linda replies, in essence, "unjust, my foot." To her, the unjustness of the original act is beside the point; what matters is whether the return of the province will benefit country X's own citizens. (1), therefore, has it just right, Linda already has defined the enhancement of a country's well-being as that country's "paramount responsibility." She sees that well-being as a necessary condition of any act-such as the return of the province-that would require sacrifice. Choice (3) goes astray on the same issue-namely, the amount of sacrifice required. Linda never implies that there is no sacrifice too great for a nation to make (3). Her only concern is in first establishing the tangible benefit of a course of action before taking that action. Both choices have other problems, of course: (3)'s reference to "future well-being" is too far removed from the concept of "tangible benefit." (4) Linda makes no appeal to consensus as a precondition for returning the province. We can't be sure how Linda thinks the "tangible benefit" would be determined, whether through a poll of the citizenry or by some other means.

3.Here we're asked for a question that Bruce and Linda would answer differently. Your best approach is to take each question in turn, and speculate as to how each debater would respond to it. (1) Bruce would reply with a definite Yes, but Linda's claim that the injustice issue is "secondary" cannot be read as any kind of a No. She may well agree that the original annexation was unjust, but still cares more about the effect on today's citizens of reversing that act. (2) Linda seems to believe that the answer here is Yes, but Bruce's phrase "Even if" takes this issue off the table: He doesn't care whether the answer is Yes or No, because he wants the province returned regardless. Since Bruce and Linda could agree on a Yes answer to both (1) and (2), both choices are incorrect. (3) Linda would certainly want this question answered before agreeing to return the province, but she never indicates what she thinks the answer would be. Bruce, meanwhile, shows no interest in the issue so cannot be said to have a position on it. (4) Bruce clearly believes that the answer is Yes; Linda, who sees tangible benefits to citizens as a precondition for redress, just as clearly says No. This is exactly what the test-makers are looking for.

4.of increase in import bill. Choice (2)

5.Choice (1) is the most appropriate choice which can complete the paragraph. The paragraph is about focus of R & D effort in electronics industry and choice (1) tells us about the focus of BEL laboratory. Choices (2), (3) and (4) cannot fit into the blank logically. Choice (1)

6.Choice (3) is the appropriate choice because in the paragraph it is mentioned that resources are in severe crunch because of the capital structure consisting of equity and loans due to which the management has been asking for a restructuring of its capital base which is mentioned in (3). Hence (3) is the answer. Choice (3)

7.Choice (4) is the appropriate choice because as said in the paragraph price control on tyre companies compels them to reduce production which in turn would seriously affect the road transport industry. Choice (4)

8.introduction of screen printed tiles with a variety of designs. Choice (2)

9.The main points in this text are: (1) Karnataka is among the four most corrupt states of India. (2) India ranks among the most corrupt and the most difficult of countries to do business in. (3) Bangalore has been criticized for its poor infrastructure by the IT czars as well as the common man. Choice 1 is too brief and misses some essential points. Choice 2 is right. Choice 3 is incorrect as it clubs together Bangalore, Karnataka and India on the one hand and the criticism leveled against each of them on the other, thereby making the criticism common to all three. Choice 4 is wrong as it gives the examples of poor infrastructure. Choice (2)

10.The main points in the text: (1) Inhalation of asbestos fiber is known to cause cancer (2) Japan banned it only recently, still no steps were taken regarding its release into the atmosphere. (3) It became big news when several companies attributed the death of some of their workers to asbestos fiber inhalation. Choice 1 is right. Choice 2 is wrong because it says lawsuits in the U.S. made people realize that asbestos is carcinogenus. Choice 3 is incomplete. Choice 4 is wrong when it attributes to the minister that asbestos should have been banned when it was done in the U.S. Choice (1)

How to Crack CR - Section 3


15-SEP-2006

21. One of the truisms of the advertising industry is that it is rarely necessary to say something of substance in an advertisement in order to boost sales. Instead, one only needs to attract the potential customer's attention; memory does the rest, for it is more important for sales that people know of a product than that they know something about it. Which of the following is assumed by the argument?

(1) People can remember a product without having much information about it. (2) Advertisements, in their own way, function to improve people's memories. (3) Attracting a potential customer's attention is a simple matter. (4) The advertising industry knows little of substance about the products it promotes.

22. Why save endangered species? For the general public, endangered species appear to be little more than biological oddities. A very different perception is gained from considering the issue of extinction in a wider context. The important point is that many major social advances have been made on the basis of life forms whose worth would never have been perceived in advance. Consider the impact of rubber-producing plants on contemporary life and industry: approximately two-thirds of the world's rubber supply comes from rubber producing plants and is made into objects as diverse as rubber washers and rubber boots. The point of the passage is made chiefly by

(1) acknowledging the validity of two opposing points of view (2) appealing to the emotions of the audience rather than to their intellects (3) suggesting a useful perspective for viewing the question raised at the beginning of the passage (4) trying to discredit the view of an opponent without presenting an alternative hypothesis

23. Only a member of the Regionalist party would oppose the bill for a new recycling law that would protect the environment from industrial interests. Ellen cannot be a member of the Regionalist party because she supports the bill. Which of the following statements points out why the conclusion is invalidly drawn? Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text.

(1) Regionalist party members have organized to oppose industrial interests on several other issues. (2) Industrial interests need not oppose the protection of the environment. (3) Past attempts to protect the environment through recycling laws have failed (4) It is possible that some Regionalist party members may not oppose the bill for a new recycling law.

24. Roberta was born in 1967, and so in 1976 she was nine years old It is clear from this example that the last two digits of a person's birth year will be the same as the last two digits of the year of that person's ninth birthday, except that the position of the digits will be reversed Which of the following is the best criticism of the assertions made? Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text.

(1) The generalization is valid only for those birth years that do not end in two zeroes. (2) The example does not exhibit the same principle as is expressed in the generalization based on it. (3) The generalization is valid only for those birth years in which the last digit is one greater than the second-to-last digit. (4) The example cannot be shown to be correct unless the truth of the generalization is already presupposed

25. The greatest chance for the existence of extraterrestrial life is on a planet beyond our solar system. The Milky Way galaxy alone contains 100 billion other suns, many of which could be accompanied by planets similar enough to Earth to make them suitable abodes of life. The statement presupposes which of the following? Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text.

(1) Living creatures on another planet would probably have the same appearance as those on Earth. (2) Life cannot exist on other planets in our solar system.

(3) If the appropriate physical conditions exist, life is an inevitable consequence. (4) It is likely that life on another planet would require conditions similar to those on Earth.

26. Some decisions will be fairly obvious - no-brainers. Your bank account is low, but you have a two-week vacation coming up and you want to get away to some place warm to relax with your family. Will you accept your in-laws offer of free use of their Florida beachfront condo? Sure. You like your employer and feel ready to move forward in your career. Will you step in for your boss for three weeks while she attends a professional development course? Of course. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text.

(1) Some decisions are obvious under certain circumstances. You may, for example, readily accept a relatives offer of free holiday accommodation. Or step in for your boss when she is away. (2) Some decisions are no-brainers. You need not think when making them. Examples are condo offers from in-laws and job offers from bosses when your bank account is low or boss is away. (3) Easy decisions are called no-brainers because they do not require any cerebral activity. Examples such as accepting free holiday accommodation abound in our lives. (4) Accepting an offer from in-laws when you are short on funds and want a holiday is a no-brainer. Another no-brainer is taking the bosss job when she is away.

27. Physically, inertia is a feeling that you just cant move; mentally, it is a sluggish mind. Even if you try to be sensitive, if your mind is sluggish, you just dont feel anything intensely. You may even see a tragedy enacted in front of your eyes and not be able to respond meaningfully. You may see one person exploiting another, one group persecuting another, and not be able to get angry. Your energy is frozen. You are not deliberately refusing to act; you just dont have the capacity. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text.

(1) Inertia makes your body and mind sluggish. They become insensitive to tragedies, exploitation, and persecution because it freezes your energy and decapacitates it (2) When you have inertia you dont act although you see one person exploiting another or one group persecuting another. You don't get angry because you are incapable. (3) Inertia is of two types physical and mental. Physical inertia restricts bodily movements. Mental inertia prevents mental response to events enacted in front of your eyes. (4)Physical inertia stops your body from moving; mental inertia freezes your energy, and stops your mind from responding meaningfully to events, even tragedies, in front of you.

28. Try before you buy. We use this memorable saying to urge you to experience the consequences of an alternative before you choose it, whenever this is feasible. If you are considering buying a van after having always owned sedans, rent one for a week or borrow a friends. By experiencing the consequences first hand, they become more meaningful. In addition, you are likely to identify consequences you had not even thought of before. May be you will discover that it is difficult to park the van in your small parking space at work, but that, on the other hand, your elderly father has a much easier time getting in and out of it. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text.

(1)If you are planning to buy a van after being used to sedans, borrow a van or rent it and try it before deciding to buy it. Then you may realize that parking a van is difficult while it is easier for your elderly father to get in and out of it. (2) Before choosing an alternative, experience its consequences if feasible. If, for example, you want to change from sedans to a van, try one before buying it. You will discover aspects you may never have thought of. (3) Always try before you buy anything. You are bound to discover many consequences. One of the consequences of going in for a van is that it is more difficult to park than sedans at the office car park. (4) We urge you to try products such as vans before buying them. Then you can experience consequences you have not thought of such as parking problems. But your father may find vans more comfortable than cars.

29. It is important for shipping companies to be clear about the objectives for maintenance and materials management as to whether the primary focus is on service level improvement or cost minimization. Often when certain systems are set in place, the cost minimization objective and associated procedure become more important than the flexibility required for service level improvement. The problem really arises since cost minimization tends to focus on out of pocket costs which are visible, while the opportunity costs, often greater in value, are lost sight of. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text.

(1)Shipping companies have to either minimize costs or maximize service quality. If they focus on cost minimization, they will reduce quality. They should focus on service level improvement, or else opportunity costs will be lost sight of. (2)Shipping companies should determine the primary focus of their maintenance and materials management. Focus on cost minimization may reduce visible costs, but ignore greater invisible costs and impair service quality. (3)Any cost minimization program in shipping is bound to lower the quality of service. Therefore, shipping companies must be clear about the primary focus of their maintenance and materials management before embarking on cost minimization. (4)Shipping companies should focus on quality level improvement rather than cost cutting. Cost cutting will lead to untold opportunity costs. Companies should have systems in place to make the service level flexible.

30. You seemed at first to take no notice of your school-fellows, or rather to set yourself against them because they were strangers to you. They knew as little of you as you did of them; this would have been the reason for their keeping aloof from you as well, which you would have felt as a hardship. Learn never to conceive a prejudice against others because you know nothing of them. It is bad reasoning, and makes enemies of half the world. Do not think ill of them till they behave ill to you; and then strive to avoid the faults which you see in them. This will disarm their hostility sooner than pique or resentment or complaint. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text.

(1) The discomfort you felt with your school fellows was because both sides knew little of each other. You should not complain unless you find others prejudiced against you and have attempted to carefully analyze the faults you have observed in them. (2) The discomfort you felt with your school fellows was because both sides knew little of each other. Avoid prejudice and negative thoughts till you encounter bad behaviour from others, and

then win them over by shunning the faults you have observed. (3) You encountered hardship amongst your school fellows because you did not know them well. You should learn to not make enemies because of your prejudices irrespective of their behaviour towards you. (4) You encountered hardship amongst your school fellows because you did not know them well. You should learn to not make enemies because of your prejudices unless they behave badly with you.

Solutions

21. 21. The passage discusses how advertising usually need only draw people's attention to a product and need not provide any substance for people to remember the product. Thus, the passage implies that people can remember a product without having much information about it, and 1 is the correct answer. (2) is incorrect. The passage suggests that if advertisements draw people's attention to a product, the people are more apt to remember the product. The advertisement is not said to improve people's memories, only to draw people's attention so they will use their existing memories. (3) is also incorrect. The passage says that all one usually needs to do is attract a potential customer's attention. It does not say how easy or difficult that is. The fourth answer choice is incorrect. The passage says that it is rarely necessary to say something of substance in an advertisement but does not suggest that the advertising industry knows little of substance about the product.

22.The passage suggests that considering the possibility of extinction with an eye toward the possible utility of a previously unvalued species will lead to a different answer to the question than considering the possibility of extinction from a more general perspective. (3) describes the author's procedure of suggesting a new perspective and is thus the correct answer. The first choice is incorrect. The author argues that it is important to preserve endangered species without endorsing any opposing point of view. The view attributed to the general public is not accepted; rather, an argument is given to show what that view misses. (2) is incorrect. The author uses an approach that is primarily factual, and does not seek to arouse the emotions of its audience. (4) is also incorrect. The author tries to undermine an opposing position by presenting an alternative to it.

23.The fact that only a member of the Regionalist party would oppose the bill does not imply that all members of the Regionalist party would oppose the bill. Based on the initial statement, Ellen may or may not be a member of the Regionalist party if she supports the bill. For the conclusion to be valid, the initial statement would have to read, "All members of the Regionalist party would oppose the bill for a new recycling law" Thus, the choice of (4) makes the relevant logical point. The first three answer choices are incorrect. Each presents at best a piece of background information without being specifically related to the question of whether all Regionalist party members would oppose the bill.

24.The generalization is only true for some birth years. A good criticism of the generalization would show when the generalization is not true. (3) does just that and thus is the correct answer. (1) is incorrect. It is false that the generalization holds for all years that do not end in two zeros. For example, 1970 is a birth year that does not end in two zeros. However, 1970 plus nine equals 1979, and hence this is a case for which the generalization is not valid. Since this answer choice is false, it cannot be a good criticism of the assertions. The second answer choice is also incorrect. In the example, the last two digits of the person's birth year-67-are the same as the last two digits of the year of the person's ninth birthday-76-except reversed. Thus, the example does in fact exhibit the same principle as the generalization. The fourth answer choice is incorrect. The difference

between 1976 and 1967 is nine. The correctness of the first statement depends only on this fact and the fact that Roberta was born in 1967 and was still alive in 1976. Thus, the truth of the generalization is not presupposed.

25.In stating that planets may exist that are similar enough to Earth to make them suitable for supporting life, the author implicitly rules out planets dissimilar to Earth as likely to support life. The assumption underlying the statement is that life on another planet is likely to require conditions similar to those on Earth. Therefore, (4) is the correct answer. (1) is not correct. The statement presupposes nothing about the appearance of extraterrestrial life. (2) is incorrect. The statement implies that it is relatively unlikely that life exists on other planets in our solar system, but it makes no presupposition absolutely ruling out the possibility that such life exists. The answer choice of (3) is incorrect. Although the statement suggests that there is the greatest chance for life when physical conditions are appropriate, it leaves open the possibility that no life will exist even with appropriate conditions.

26.Ans. (1) The use of the word circumstances makes this the best choice. 27.Ans. (4). A and B do not differentiate between mental and physical inertias. C doesnt describe or exemplify the type of events. Hence D is correct sentence. 28.Ans. (2) It is the best worded of all. 29.Ans. (2). B is short, simple and precise. 30.Ans. (2).

VERBAL ABILITY
Directions for Questions 1 to 10: From the alternatives, choose the one which correctly classifies the four sentences as a: F : Fact : if it relates to a known matter of direct observation, or an existing reality or something known to be true, I : Inference : if it is a logical conclusion or deduction about something, based on the knowledge of facts, J : Judgement : if it is an opinion or estimate or anticipation of common sense or intention.

1.

A. If India has embarked on the liberalization route, she cannot afford to go back. B. Under these circumstances, being an active supporter of WTO policies will be a good idea. C. The WTO is a truly global organization aiming at freer trade. D. Many member countries have already drafted plans to simplify tariff structures.

1.

FJFI

2.

IFJF

3.

IJFF

4.

IFIF

2.

A. The Minister definitely took the wrong step. B. Under the circumstances, he had many other alternatives. C. The Prime Minister is embarrassed due to the Ministers decision. D. If he has put the government in jeopardy, the Minister must resign. 1. JFFI 2. IFJI 3. FFJI 4. IFIJ

3.

A. The ideal solution will be to advertise aggressively. B. One brand is already popular amongst the youth. C. Reducing prices will mean trouble as our revenues are already dwindling. D. The correct solution will be to consolidate by aggressive marketing. 1. JFIJ 2. FJJI 3. IJFF 4. JJIF

4.

A. If democracy is to survive, the people must develop a sense of consumerism. B. Consumerism has helped improve the quality of goods in certain countries. C. The protected environment in our country is helping the local manufacturers. D. The quality of goods suffers if the manufacturers take undue advantage of this. 1. IJFJ 2. JFJI 3. IJJF 4. IFJJ

5.

A. Unless the banks agree to a deferment of the interest, we cannot show profits this year. B. This would not have happened had we adopted a stricter credit scheme. C. The revenues so far cover only the cost and salaries. D. Let us learn a lesson: we cannot make profits without complete control over credit. 1. IIJF 2. IJFI 3. FJIF 4. FJFI

6.

A. Qualities cannot be injected into ones personality. B. They are completely dependent on the genetic configuration that one inherits. C. Hence changing our inherent traits is impossible as the genes are unalterable. D. The least one can do is to try and subdue the bad qualities.

1.

FIJI

2.

JFFI

3.

JFIJ

4.

JIFI

7.

A. Everything is purposeless. B. Nothing before and after the existence of the universe is known with certainty. C. Man is a part of the purposeless universe, hence man is also purposeless. D. There is only one way of adding purpose to this universe: Union with Him. 1. JFIJ 2. FJJI 3. JFFI 4. IJFJ

8.

A. Everyday social life is impossible without interpersonal relationships. B. The root of many misunderstandings has been cited in poor relations among individuals. C. Assuming the above to be true, social life will be much better if people understand the importance of good interpersonal relations. D. A study reveals that interpersonal relations and life in general can be improved with a little effort on the part of individuals. 1. FJIJ 2. JFIF 3. FIFJ 4. IFFJ

9.

A. The prices of electronic goods are falling. B. Since we have substantial reductions in import duties, this is obvious. C. The trend is bound to continue in the near future. D. But the turnover of the electronic industry is still rising, because the consumers are increasing at a rapid rate. 1. IFJF 2. FJII 3. FIJF 4. JIFF

10. A. In the past, it appears, wealth distribution, and not wealth creation has dominated economic policy. B. Clearly, the government has not bothered to eradicate poverty. C. Todays liberalization is far from the hitherto Nehruvian socialism. D. Results are evident in the form of a boom in the manufacturing sector output and turnover of all industries.

1.

FJIF

2.

FIFJ

3.

IJIF

4.

JIFF

2. CAT: 2006

Directions for Questions 1 to 5: Each question has a set of four sequentially ordered statements. Each statement can be classified as one of the following: -Facts, which deal with pieces of information that one has heard, seen, or read, and which are open to discovery or verification (the answer option indicates such a statement with an F). -Inferences, which are conclusions drawn about the unknown, on the basis of the known (the answer option indicates such a statement with an I). -Judgements, which are opinions that imply approval or disapproval of persons, objects, situations and occurrences in the past, the present or the future (the answer option indicates such a statement with a J). Select the answer option that best describes the set of four statements.

1.

1. According to all statistical indications, the Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan has managed to keep pace with its ambitious goals. 2. The Mid-day Meal Scheme has been a significant incentive for the poor to send their little ones to school, thus establishing the vital link between healthy bodies and healthy minds. 3. Only about 13 million children in the age group of 6 to 14 years are out of school. 4. The goal of universalisation of elementary education has to be a pre-requisite for the evolution and development of our country. 1. IIFJ 2. JIIJ 3. IJFJ 4. IJFI 5. JIFI

2.

1. We should not be hopelessly addicted to an erroneous belief that corruption in India is caused by the crookedness of Indians. 2. The truth is that we have more red tapewe take eighty-nine days to start a small business, Australians take two. 3. Red tape leads to corruption and distorts a peoples character. 4. Every red tape procedure is a point of contact with an official, and such contacts have the potential to become opportunities for money to change hands. 1. JFIF 2. JFJJ 3. JIJF 4. IFJF 5. JFJI

3.

1. So much of our day-to-day focus seems to be on getting things done, trudging our way through the tasks of livingit can feel like a treadmill that gets you nowhere; where is the childlike joy? 2. We are not doing the things that make us happy; that which brings us joy; the things that we cannot wait to do because we enjoy them so much. 3. This is the stuff that joyful living is made of identifying your calling and committing yourself wholeheartedly to it. 4. When this happens, each moment becomes a celebration of you; there is a rush of energy that comes with feeling completely immersed in doing what you love most. 1. IIIJ 2. IFIJ 3. JFJJ 4. JJJJ 5. JFII

4.

1. Inequitable distribution of all kinds of resources is certainly one of the strongest and most sinister sources of conflict. 2. Even without war, we know that conflicts continue to trouble usthey only change in character. 3. Extensive disarmament is the only insurance for our future; imagine the amount of resources that can be released and redeployed. 4. The economies of the industrialized western world derive 20% of their income from the sale of all kinds of arms. 1. IJJI 2. JIJF 3. IIJF 4. JIIF 5. IJIF

5.

1. Given the poor quality of service in the public sector, the HIV/AIDS affected should be switching to private initiatives that supply anti-retroviral drugs (ARVs) at a low cost. 2. The government has been supplying free drugs since 2004, and 35000 have benefited up to now though the size of the affected population is 150 times this number. 3. The recent initiatives of networks and companies like AIDSCare Network, Emcure, Reliance-Cipla-CII, would lead to availability of much-needed drugs to a larger number of affected people. 4. But how ironic it is that we should face a perennial shortage of drugs when India is one of the worlds largest suppliers of generic drugs to the developing world. 1. JFIJ 2. JIIJ 3. IFIJ 4. IFFJ 5. JFII

__________________________________________________________________________________________ _______________

ANSWER KEY 1. CAT: 1994

1. (3) 6. (3)

2. (1) 7. (1)

3. (1) 8. (2) 2. CAT: 2006

4. (2) 9. (3)

5. (2) 10. (1)

1. (3)

2. (5)

3. (4)

4. (2)

5. (1)

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