INSTRUCTION

Question Paper format :

1. 2. 3. The test is of 3 hours duration.

ETS-2010/PT-02, ETS AIEEE

4.

5. 6. 7. 8. 14. 15. 16. 17.

The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 432. There are THREE parts in the question paper, consisting of, Physics Chemistry and Mathematics. In each part, there are 30 question. Part A-Physics (144 marks)- Question No. 1 to 24 consist 4 marks each and Que. No 25 to 30 consist 8 marks each for each correct response. Part B- Chemistry (144 marks)- Que. No 31 to 54 and consist 4 marks each and Que. No 55 to 60 consist 8 marks each for each correct response. Part C- Mathematics (144 marks)-Que. No 61 to 84 consist 4 marks each and Que. No 85 to 90 consist 8 marks each for each correct response. Candidates will awarded marks as stated above in instructions No.3 for correct response of each question.1/4(one four fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars/ marking responses on Side-1 and Side-2 2 of the Answer Sheet. Use of PENCIL is STRCTlLY PROHIBITED. No Candidate is allowed to carry any textual material-printed material printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any electronic device, etc; except the Admit Card inside de the examination hall/room. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Note :- Read carefully the Instruction on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet. The candidates should fill in the required particulars on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet (Side-1) (Side 1) with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen. Use of PENCIL is STRICTLY PROHIBITED. For writing/marking particulars on Side Side-2 of the Answer Sheet, use Blue/Black Ball Point oint Pen only. Use of PENCIL is STRICTLY PROHIBITED. The Candidates should not write their Registration Numbers anywhere else (except in the specified space) on the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet. There are THREE parts in the question paper, Part A consisting consisti of PHYSICS, Part B consisting of CHEMISTRY and Part C consisting of MATHS of 30 question each. For each incorrect response, one-third one third of the total marks allotted to the question would be deducted from the total score. No deduction from the total score, however, will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the Answer Sheet.

18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23.

Handle the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet with care, - as under no circumstances. The candidates are not allowed to do any rough work or writing work on the Answer Sh Sheet. eet. All calculations/writing work are to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet itself, marked Space for Rough Work. On completion of the test, the candidates must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admit Card to the Invigilator. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, should leave h his/her is/her seat. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and s sign the Attendance Sheet again. Cases where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet a second time will be dee deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case. The candidates are also required to put their left hand

24. 25. 26.

THUMB impression in the space provided in the Attendance Sheet. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator and any Electro Electronic item like mobile phone etc. is prohibited. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Institute with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall. Hal All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Institution Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, electronic device or any other material except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room.

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ETS-2010/PT-02, ETS AIEEE PHYSICS PART A 1. A 2V potentiometer is used to determine the internal resistance of a 1.5 V cell. The balance point of the cell in open circuit is 75 cm. When a resistor of 10 is connected across the cell, the balance point shifted to 60 cm. Then internal resistance of the cell is (A) 1.5 (B) 2.5 (C) 3.5 (D) 4.5 In the given circuit what is the value of unknown resistor R so that the total resistance of the circuit between P and Q also equal to R
10 3 P 3 R Q

7.

A cell of e.m.f and internal resistance r is connected to a resistance R. then the maximum power which can be delivered in the external resistance will be 2 (A) (B)
R
2 (C)

R
2 (D)

2R

4R

8.

2.

A charge particle (q = 10 c, m = 25 10-9kg) is projected from one of the plate in the uniform magnetic field of field strength B = 5T confined in between two metallic plate separated at 4 m apart as shown in the fig. The speed of the particle so that it does not collides with any plate but describes ibes circular path will be
M1 q v M2

3.

(A) 3 (B) 39 (C) 6 (D) 69 The total current supplied to the circuit by the battery will be
14.4 V 10 4 10

4m

4.

8 (A) 3.4 A (B) 1.7 A (C) 34 A (D) 17 A The equivalent resistance between the points A and B for the circuit will be 9 9 9 9

(A) 3 (C) 9 5.

(B) 6 B (D) 12

If the reading of ammeter (A1) is 5 A . Then the reading of ammeter (A2) will be
20 10
A1 A2

(A) 2 A (C) 1 A 6.

30

(B) 3 A (D) 2.5 A

A voltmeter consists of a 50 galvanometer connected in series with a 550 resistor if the coil of the galvanometer can take maximum current of 5mA for full scale deflection then maximum. Potential difference measured by the voltmeter will be (A) 2V (B) 1 V (C) 3 V (D) 4 V

(A) 4103 m/s (B) 1103 m/s (C) 2 m/s (D) 2103 m/s 9. A circular loop and a square loop of same perimeter length are kept in the uniform magnetic field of field strength B (parallel to the plane of the loops) then the ratio of the torque acting on circular loop to the square loop. If the electric current of i Amp flows through them will be (A) 4 (B) 4 (C) (D) 2 2 10. A charge particle is projected in the uniform magnetic field at some angle other than /2. If the pitch of the helical path traced out by the particle be equal to the radius of the helical path the angle of projection will be (A) tan1() (B) tan1(2) 1 (C) tan (3) (D) tan1(/2) 11. Two particles of same mass and kinetic energy but charges in the ratio 1:5 performs uniform circular motion in the same magnetic field. Then the ratio of their radius will be (A) 5:1 (B) 1:5 (C) 1:1 (D) 1:2 12. A tightly-wound wound solenoid carries a current of 10A. An electron perform uniform circular motion inside the he solenoid with a frequency of 106 rev/sec then the number of turns per unit length will be (A) 3 turns/meter (B) 6 Turns/meter (C) 8 Turns/meter (D) 10 Turns/meter

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ETS-2010/PT-02, ETS AIEEE 13. The thermo e.m.f of a given thermocouple varises with the temperature of the hot junction 2 as = 60 then the value of neutral and 10 inversion temp will be (A) n = 300C (B) n = 400C i = 600C i = 800C = 500 C n (C) (D) n = 200C i = 600C i = 400C 14. Two different metals are joined end to end one end is kept at constant temperature and the other end is heated to a very high temperature then the graph which represents the variation of e.m.f with temp. of hot junction will be
E E

18. The magnetic field m a region is given by r 2 x r . A square loop of edge length l B = B 1 + K
o

is kept in X-Y Y plane as shown in the fig. The net magnetic force acting on the loop will be
r B
i o S
M i

N X

r (A) ilBo i r (C) 3ilBo i

r 2ilBoi r (D) 4ilBo i

(B)

Assersion Region Type(19 to 20) 19. STATEMENT-1 As temperature decreases, the relaxation time of a conducting material increases STATEMENT-2 Number of collisions per unit time of electrons with lattice ions increases as the temperature increases (A) If Statement I is true, Statement II is true, Statement II is a correct explanation for Statement I. (B) If Statement I is true, Statement II is true, t Statement II is not a correct explanation for Statement I. (C) If Statement I is true, Statement II is false. (D) If Statement I is false, Statement II is true. 20. STATEMENT-1 When a point charge particle is projected in the uniform magnetic field then it i moves along circular path whatever be the angle of projection STATEMENT-2 The time period of the revolution of the point charge particle is independent from the radius of the circular path (A) If Statement I is true, Statement II is true, Statement II is a correct explanation for Statement I. (B) If Statement I is true, Statement II is true, Statement II is not a correct explanation for Statement I. (C) If Statement I is true, Statement II is false. (D) If Statement I is false, Statement II is true. 21. When n a battery sends current through a resistance R1 for time t, the heat produced in the resistor is H. When the same battery sends current through another resistance R2 for time t, the heat produced in R2 is again H. Then the internal resistance of the battery batt will be (A) (C)

(A)
Q E

(B)
Q E

(C)

(D)
Q

15. A conducting wire of length l = 2m and mass 10 kg is suspended in the uniform magnetic field of field strength B = 0.5 T as shown in the fig. If electric current in the rod is 2 A in the direction then the tension in the string will be (A) 21 N (C) 31 N (B) 51 N (D) 41 N T T
i

16. A charge particle (having charge q and mass mkg) is projected into a region having a perpendicular magnetic field B as shown in the fig.

d =

mv 2 qB

Then deviation produced in the particle will be (A) 30 (B) 60 (C) 45 (D) 180 17. A charge particle is projected in the magnetic field B = (3i 5 J ) 102 T . The acceleration of the particle is found to be

r r ( x i 3J ) 104 m / s 2

(A) 5 (C) 7

here x will be (B) 3 (D) 2

R1 + R2 2
R1R2

R1 R2 2 R1 R2 (D) 2
(B)

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ETS-2010/PT-02, ETS AIEEE 22. An immersion heater rated 1000 W, 220V is used to heat 0.01 m3 of water. Assuming that the power is supplied at 220 V and 60 % of the power supplied is used to heat the water, then required time taken to increase the temperature of water from 15C to 40 C will be (A) 9 minutes (B) 19 minutes (C) 29 minutes (D) 39 minutes 23. The time required to liberate 1 litre of hydrogen at S.T.P. in an electrolytic cell by a current of 5 Amp. will be (A) 19 min (B) 9 min (C) 29 min (D) 39 min 24. If 1 Amp. of current is passed through CuSO4 solution for 10 sec, the number of copper atoms deposited at the cathode will be about (A) 1.6 1020 (B) 8 1019 19 (C) 3.1 10 (C) 6.2 1018 25. A circular current carrying coil has a radius R. The distance from the centre of the coil, on the axis. Where B will be centre will be (A) R 3 (C) 2 3R 26. 30. A uniform wire is bent in two turns. The same wire is then bent in three turns. If same current is passed in both cases, then the ratio of magnetic field induction at their centre will be

9 4 1 (C) 2
(A)

4 9 1 (D) 3
(B)

PART B

CHEMISTRY

31. In the compound HO

1COOH 2 HO 3 H configurations 4 COOH

1 of its value at the 8

3R

(B)

27.

28.

29.

(D) 2 R 3 A current 1A is flowing in the sides of an equilateral triangle of side 4.5102 m. The magnetic field at the centroid of the triangle is (A) 2105 T (B) 4105 T 3 (C) 810 T (D) 1.2104 T Two concentric coils carry the same current in opposite direction. The diameter of the inner coil is half of the outer coil. If the magnetic field produced by the outer coil at the common centre is 1 T. then the net field at the centre will be (A) 1 T (B) 2 T (C) 3 T (D) 4 T A long solenoid has 20 turns/cm. The current necessary to produce a magnetic field of 20 mT inside the solenoid is approximately ximately (A) 1 A (B) 2 A (C) 4 A (C) 8 A A metal rod of mass 10 g and length 10 cm is placed on a smooth 60 incline. A uniform magnetic field B is applied in the region vertically downwards. If a current of 3 A is passed through the rod, then the value of B for which the rod remains stationary on the incline plane will be (A) 3 T (B) 1 T
3

(A) 2R, 3R (B) 2R, 3S (C) 2S, 3R (D) 2S, 3S. 32. A 60o clockwise rotation about the C-2 C C-3 bond of anti-butane butane produces (A) An eclipsed conformer with methyls methyl eclipsing methyl (B) An eclipsed conformer with the methyls eclipsing hydrogens (C) Gauche butane (D) Cis-2-butene 33. The correct statement about the compounds A, B and C COOCH3 COOH COOH
H H (a) OH OH
COOH

H H (b)

OH H OH OH
COOCH3

OH H
COOCH3

(c)

(A) a and b are identical (B) a and b are diastereomers (C) a and c are enantiomers (D) a and b are enantiomers . 34. The stability of the compounds
(3) (4)

(1)

(2)

(A) 1 > 3 > 2 > 4 (B) 4 > 3 > 1 > 2 (C) 4 > 1 > 3 > 2 (D) 2 > 3 > 4 > 1 35. Which is the decreasing order of stability of the ions ? + (1) CH3CHOCH3 + (2) CH3CHCH3 + COCH (3) CH3CH OCH3 (A) 2 > 3 > 1 (B) 1 > 2 > 3 (C) 2 > 1 > 3 (D) 1 > 3 > 2

(C)

3T

(D) 1 T
3

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ETS-2010/PT-02, ETS AIEEE 36. Name of some compounds are given, which one is not correct in IUPAC system? CH3 (A) CH3CH2CH2CHCHCH2CH3 CH2CH3 3-Methyl-4-ethylheptane (B) CH3 CHCH CH3 OH CH3 3-Methylbutan-2-ol (C) CH3CH2CCH CH3 CH2CH3 2-Ethyl-3-methylbut-1-ene ene (D) CH3 CCCH (CH3)2 4-Methylpent-2-yne 37. The correct IUPAC name of the compound is (A) 5, 6 Diethyl 8 methyldec 6 ene (B) 5, 6 Diethyl 3 methyldec 4 ene (C) 6 Butyl 5 ethyl 3 methyloct 4 ene (D) 4, 5 Diethyl 8 methyldec 6 ene. 38. The IUPAC name of
O Cl

42. Which of the following will not have any optical isomer? (A) [Cr (C2 O4)3]3(B) trans [Cr Cl2 (Ox)2]3(C) cis [Cr Cl2 (Ox)2]3(D) [Cr (NH3)2] Cl2 (en)]+ 43. Identify the most slable carbocation:

(A)

CH2

+
CH2
CH2

(B) (C) CH3 CH2

+
(D) CH3 CHCH2

C2H5
44. The alkene that exhibits geometrical isomerism is : (A) 2 methyl propene (B) 2 butene (C) Propene (D) 2 methyl-2-butene butene 45. Which of the following will be most acidic? (A) 3,5 dinitrophenol (B) 4,5 dimethylphenol (C) 3,5 dinitrophenol (D) 2,4,6 trimethylphenol 46. CH3CH2CH2CHO (a) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH (b) H5C2OC2H5 (c) CH3CH2-CH2CH3 (d) What will be correct sequence of boiling point? (A) d < c < a <b (B) d > c > a > b (C) d < a < c < b (D) d < a < b <c 47. Stability of the following carbanions is in the order: (A) CH3CHCH3 > CH3CH2 > CH2 = CH > CH C (B) CH3C > CH2=CH > CH3CH2 > CH3CH CH CH3 (C) CH3CH2 > CH3 CHCH3 > CH2 = CH > CH C (D) CH3C > CH2=CH > CH2CH CH3 > CH3CH2 >

is

(A) 2, 3 dimethylpentanoyl chloride (B) 3 4 dimethylpentanoyl chloride (C) 1 chloro 1 oxo 2, 3 dimethylpentane (D) 2 ethyl 3 methylbutanoyl chloride. 39. The IUPAC name for the given compound CH3CH = CHCHCH3 is CCH (A) 4 Ethylpent 2 ene (B) 1 Ethyl 3 methylbut 2 ene (C) 3 Methylhex 4 en 1 yne (D) 4 Methylhex 2 en 5 yne .

40. IUPAC name of [Pt(NH3)3Br(NO2)Cl]Cl is (A) triamminechlorobromonitroplatinum (IV) chloride (B) triamminechlorobromonitrochloroplatinum (IV) chloride (C) triamminebromochloronitroplatinum (IV) chloride (D) triamminenitrochlorobromoplatinum (IV) chloride. 41. How many geometrical isomers are possible for [Co(NH3)3Cl3] (A) 8 (B) 6 (C) 4 (D) 2

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ETS-2010/PT-02, ETS AIEEE 48. Which of the following will be largest & smallest ? (A) largest Mg (B) largest Al smallest Al3+ smallest Mg2+ (C) largest Mg2+ (D) largest Mg2+ smallest Al3+ smallest Al 49. Which of the following will be correct increasing order of metallic character? (A) Si < P < Be < Na < Mg (B) Si < Be < P < Mg < Na (C) P < Si< Be < Na < Mg (D) P < Si< Be < Mg < Na 50. What will be correct sequence of atomic radii in increasing order? (A) Al3+ < F < Na+ < N3 (B) Al3+ < Na+ < F < N3 (C) N3 < Na + < F < Al3 + (D) N3 < F < Na+ < Al3 + 51. Which of the following complex will have square planar geometry ? (A) [Ni Cl4]2 (B) [Ni (Co)4] (C) [Ni (CN)4]2 (D) none of these. 52. Which of the following complex is diamagnetic ? (A) [Mn Cl6]3 (B) [Co (NH3)6]3+ 3 (C) [Fe F6] (D) [Co F6]3 53. The co-ordination ordination number and oxidation number of X in [X(SO4)(H2O)5] Br is : (A) 10 and 3 (B) 2 and 6 (C) 6 and 3 (D) 6 and 4 54. Which of the following is arranged according to the nature indicated? + (A) electrophile NO + 2 , Br ; nucleophile CH 3 OH, N 3 (B) electrophile NO + 2 , CH 3OH ;
nucleophile Br + OH, N 3

57. The IUPAC name for the compound CH2 CH3 CH3CH2 CHNCH2CH3 (A) Triethyl amine (B) (B) Ethyl triamine (C) N, N Diethylethanamine (D) N Ethylbutan 2 anmine 58. What will be increasing order of basic strength? (A) C6H5 NH2 < C2H5 NH2 < NH3 < (C2H5)2 NH (B) C6H5 NH2 < C2H5 NH2 < (C2 H5)2 NH < NH3 (C) C6H5 NH2 < C6H5 NH2 < (C2 H5)2 NH < NH3 (D) C6H5 NH2 < NH2 < (C2 H5 NH2 < (C2H5)2 NH 59. One mole of the complex compound Co(NH3)5Cl3 gives moles of ions on dissolution in water. One mole of the same complex reacts with two moles of AgNO3to yield two moles of AgCl(s). The structure of the complex is : (A) [Co(NH3)3Cl3]. 2NH3 (B) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl.NH3 (C) [Co(NH3)4Cl]Cl2.NH3 (D) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2. 60. Allene (C3H4) contains : (A) one double bond, one triple bond and one single bond (B) one triple and two double bonds (C) two triple and one double bond (D) two double and four single bonds.

PART - C

MATHEMATICS

(C) electrophile CH 3 OH, N 3

+ nucleophile NO+ 2 , Br ;

(D) electrophile Br + , N 3 ;

nucleophile CH 3OH, N + 2 55. An organic compound C4H8O is found to be optically active. Which of the following could it be? (A) CH3COCH2CH3 (B) CH3CH2CH2CHO (C) (CH3)2CHCOOH (D) CH2=CHCH(OH)CH3 56. The name of the compound

61. Equation of the smallest circle whose diameter is AB, where A and B are intersection points of circles x2 + y2 4x 4y + 4 = 0 and x2 + y2 x y + 1 = 0 is 4 2 2 3 3 7 (A) x + y = 4 8 32 (B) (x 1)2 + (y 1)2 = 72 (C) (x 2)2 + (y 2)2 = 1
5 5 7 (D) x + y = 8 8 32 62. The locus of the centre of circle of radius 2, which rolls on the outside of the circle x2 + y2 + 3x 6y 9 = 0 is (A) x2 + y2 + 3x 6y + 5 = 0 (B) x2 + y2 + 3x 6y + 29 = 0 4 (C) x2 + y2 + 3x 6y 31 = 0 (D) x2 + y2 + 3x 6y 45 = 0
2 2

(A) (2Z, 4Z)-2, 4-Hexadiene (B) (2Z, 4E)-2, 4-Hexadiene (C) (2E, 4Z)-2, 4-Hexadiene (D) (2E, 4E)-2, 4-Hexadiene

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ETS-2010/PT-02, ETS AIEEE 63. Tangents OP and OQ are drawn from the origin O to the circle x2 + y2 + 2gx + 2fy + c = 0 Then the equation of the circumcircle of the OPQ is (A) x2 + y2 + 2gx + 2fy + c = 0 (B) x2 + y2 2gx + 2fy c = 0 (C) x2 + y2 + gx + fy = 0 (D) x2 + y2 gx + fy = 0 64. The image of the point P (3, 5) with respect to the line y = x is the point Q and the image of Q with respect to the line y = 0 is the point R (a, b), then (a, b) is equal to (A) (5, 3) (B) (5, 3) (C) (5, 3) (D) None of these 65. If a circle passes through the point (1, 2) and cuts the circle x2 + y2 = 4 orthogonally, then the equation of the locus of its centre is (A) x2 + y2 3x 8y + 1 = 0 (B) x2 + y2 2x 6y 7 = 0 (C) 2x + 4y 9 = 0 (D) 2x + 4y 1 = 0 66. Area of a triangle with vertices (a, b), (x1, y1) and (x2, y2) where a, x1 and x2 are in GP with common ratio r and b, y1 and y2 are in GP with common ratio s, is given by (A) 1 ab(r 1) (s 1) (s r) 2 1 (B) ab(r + 1) (s + 1) (s r) 2 (C) ab(r 1) (s 1) (s r) (D) None of these 67. The equation of perpendicular bisectors of sides AB and AC of a ABC are x y + 5 = 0 and x + 2y = 0 respectively. If the coordinates coordina of vertex A are (1, 2), the equation of BC is (A) 14x + 23y 40 = 0 (B) 4x 23y + 40 = 0 (C) 23x + 14y 40 = 0 (D) 23x 14y + 40 = 0 68. The locus of the middle point of the chords of the circle x2 + y2 = a2 which subtend a right angle at centre, is (A) 2(x2 + y2) 2a2 = 0 (B) x2 + y2 a2 = 0 (C) 2(x2 y2) + a2 = 0 (D) 2(x2 + y2) a2 = 0 69. A point moves in such a way that its distance from (1, 2) is always the twice from (3, 5), then locus of the point is (A) 3(x2 + y2) + 26x 44y + 131 = 0 (B) 3x2 + y2 + 26x + 44y 131 = 0 (C) x2 + 3y2 26x + 44y 131 = 0 (D) None of the above 70. If two circles (x 1)2 + (y 3)2 = r2 and x2 + y2 8x + 2y + 8 = 0 intersect in two distinct points, then (A) 2 < r < 8 (B) r < 2 (C) r = 2 (D) r > 2 71. A tangent to the curve y = f(x) cuts the line y = x at a point which is at a distance of 1 unit from y-axis. axis. The equation of the curve is (A)

x 1 =c y 1

(B)

x =c y

(C) xy = c (D) None of these 72. The circle x2 + y2 4x 4y + 4 = 0 is inscribed in a triangle which has two of its sides along the coordinate axes. If the locus of the circumcentre of the triangle is x + y xy + k x 2 + y 2 = 0, then the value of k is equal to (A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3 The equation quation of the circle and its chords are respectively x2 + y2 = a2 and x cos + y sin = p. The equation of the circle of which this chord is a diameter is (A) x2 + y2 2px cos 2py sin + 2p2 a2 = 0 (B) x2 + y2 + 2px cos + 2py sin + 2p2 a2 = 0 (C) x2 + y2 2px cos 2py sin + p2 a2 = 0 (D) None of the above The equation of bisector of acute angle between the lines 3x 4y + 7 = 0 and 12 + 5y 2 = 0 is (A) 31x + 77y + 101 = 0 (B) 21x + 77y 101 = 0 (C) 11x 3y + 9 = 0 (D) 11x 3y 9 = 0 The incentre tre of the triangle whose vertices are (36, 7) (20, 7) and (0, 8) is (A) (1, 0) (B) (0, 1) 1 (C) , 1 (D) None of these 2 Without changing the direction of coordinate axes, origin is transferred to (h, k), so that the linear terms in the equation x2 + y2 4x + 6y 7 = 0 are eliminated. Then, the point (h, k) is (A) (3, 2) (B) (3, 2) (C) (2, 3) (D) None of these

73.

74.

75.

76.

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ETS-2010/PT-02, ETS AIEEE 77. Equation to the straight line cutting off an intercept 2 from the negative direction of the axis of y and inclined at 30o to the positive direction of axis of x, is (A) y 3x 2 = 0 (B) 3 y x + 2 3 = 0 (C) y x + 2 = 0 (D) y + x 3 = 0 78. ABC is a triangle with vertices A(1, 4), B(6, 2) and C(2, 4), D, E and F are the points which divide each AB, BC and CA respectively in the ratio 3 : 1 internally. Then, the centroid of the DEF is (A) (1, 2) (B) (3, 6) (D) None of these (C) (4, 8) 79. The perpendicular bisector of the line segment joining ining P(1, 4) and Q(k, 3) has y y-intercept 4. Then, a possible value of k is (A) 4 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 2 80. The point diametrically opposite to the point p(1, 0) on the circle x2 + y2 + 2x + 4y 3 = 0 is (A) (3, 4) (B) (3, 4) (C) (3, 4) (D) (3, 4) 81. Consider a family of circles which are passing through the point (1, 1) and are tangent to x-axis. axis. If (h, k) are the coordinates of the centre of the circles, then the set of values of k is given by the interval (A) 0 < k < (C) 84. The line parallel to the x-axis x and passing through the intersection of the lines ax + 2by + 3b = 0 and bx 2ay 3a = 0, where (a, b) (0, 0) is (A) above the x-axis axis at a distance of (2/3) from it (B) above the x-axis axis at a distance of (3/2) from it (C) below the x-axis axis at a distance of (2/3) from it (D) below the x-axis axis at a distance of (3/2) from it 85. Statement I The line (x 3) cos + (y 3) sin = 1 touches a circle (x 3)2 + (y 3)2 = 1 for all values of . Statement II xcos + ysin = a is a tangent of circle x2 + y2 = a2 for all values of . (A) If Statement I is true, Statement II is true, Statement II is a correct explanation for Statement I. (B) If Statement I is true, Statement II is true, Statement II is not a correct explanation for Statement I. (C) If Statement I is true, Statement II is false. (D) If Statement I is false, Statement II is true 86. Statement I The points (2, 1) and (3, 5) lie on opposite side of the line 3x 2y + 1 = 0. Statement II The algebraic perpendicular distance from the given point to the line have opposite sign. (A) If Statement I is true, Statement II is true, Statement II is a correct explanation for Statement I. (B) If Statement I is true, Statement II is true, Statement II is not a correct explanation for Statement I. (C) If Statement I is true, Statement II is false. (D) If Statement I is false, Statement II is true 87. Statement I The line 2x + y = 5 is a diameter of the circle x2 + y2 6x + 2y = 0. Statement II Normal of a circle always passes through centre of circle. (A) If Statement I is true, Statement II is true, Statement II is a correct explanation for Statement I. (B) If Statement I is true, Statement II is true, Statement II is not a correct explanation for Statement I. (C) If Statement I is true, Statement II is false. (D) If Statement I is false, Statement II is true

1 2

(B) k

1 2

1 k 1 2 2

(D) k 1 2

h, k), B(1, 1) and C(2, 1) be the vertices of 82. Let A(h, a right angled triangle with AC as its hypotenuse. If the area of the triangle is 1, then the set of values which k can take is given by (A) {1, 3} (B) {0, 2} (C) {1, 3} (D) {3, 2) 83. If (a, a2) falls inside ide the angle made by the lines y=

x , x > 0 and y = 3x, x > 0, then a belongs to 2

1 (B) , 3 2 1 (D) 0, 2

(A) (3, )
1 (C) 3, 2

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Endeavour classes, 4th Floor, Samudra Complex, Circular Road, Ranchi-1, Ranchi Ph.-0651 0651- 2563739 / 40 Email: endeavourclasses@yahoo.co.in help line 09708037020 /21 1 / 22

ETS-2010/PT-02, ETS AIEEE 88. Statement I If a, b, c are variable such that 3a + 2b + 4c = 0, then the family of lines given by ax + by + c = 0 pass through a fixed point (3, 2). Statement II The equation ax + by + c = 0 will represent a family of straight lines passing through a fixed point if there exists a linear relation between a, b and c. (A) If Statement I is true, Statement II is true, Statement II is a correct explanation for Statement I. (B) If Statement I is true, Statement II is true, Statement II is not a correct explanation for Statement I. (C) If Statement I is true, Statement II is false. (D) If Statement I is false, Statement II is true 89. Statement I Let l1 : a1 x + b1y + c1 = 0, L2: a2x + b2y + c2 = 0 and L3: a3x + b3y + c3 = 0 are three concurrent lines, then

a1 a2 a3 a1 Statement II If a2 a3

b1 b2 b3 b1 b2 b3

c1 c2 = 0 c3 c1 c2 = 0, then lines c3

L1, L2 and L3 must be concurrent. (A) If Statement I is true, Statement II is true, Statement II is a correct explanation for Statement I. (B) If Statement I is true, Statement II is true, Statement II is not a correct explanation for Statement I. (C) If Statement I is true, Statement II is false. (D) If Statement I is false, Statement II is true 90. Let C1 be the circle with centre O1 (0, 0) and radius 1 and C2 be the circle with centre O2 (t, t2 + 1) (t R) and radius 2. Statement I Circles C1 and C2 always have at least one common tangent for any value of t. Statement II For the two circles O1O2 | r1 r2 | where r1 and r2 are their radii for any value of t. (A) If Statement I is true, Statement II is true, Statement II is a correct explanation for Statement I. (B) If Statement I is true, Statement II is true, Statement II is not a correct explanation for Statement I. (C) ) If Statement I is true, Statement II is false. (D) If Statement I is false, Statement II is true

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Endeavour classes, 4th Floor, Samudra Complex, Circular Road, Ranchi-1, Ranchi Ph.-0651 0651- 2563739 / 40 Email: endeavourclasses@yahoo.co.in help line 09708037020 /21 1 / 22