Sr MEDICON 13

EAMCET GRAND TEST

Date : 30-10-

SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS, A.P.

SR.MEDICON SUB : BOTANY 1. 2. Respiration is totally absent in 1) Rhizobium 2) Chlorella 3) Bacteriophage 4) E.coli Study the following regarding krebs cycle EAMCET GRAND TEST (ON 2ND YEAR) DATE : 30-10-13 Max.Mark : 1!0

Name of reaction
1)Decarboxylation II) Cleavage III) Oxidation III IV) Oxidation I Identify the correct combination 1)I, II, III & IV 3. 4. 1) 18 2) II & III only 2) 19

Substrate
Ketoglutaric acid Succinyl co entyme-A Succinic acid Oxalo succinic acid 3) II, III & IV only 3) 17

Product
Succinic acid Succinic acid Fumaric acid Isocitric acid 4) I & IV only 4) 16

Total number of ATP produced during complete oxidation of 1 Mol of DHAP is A bacterium which is capable of utilizing one of the most abundant gas in atm for one metabolic path way and can not utilize second most abundant gas in atm for another metabolic path way is 1) Azotobacter 2) Clostridium 3) E.coli 4) Xanthomonas

5.

What would happen if a mRNA coding for a polypeptide chain of 60 amino acids, 30th codon is mutated to UAG from UAU 1) A poly peptide with 30 A A is formed 2) A poly peptide with 29 A A is formed 3) A poly peptide with 60 A A is formed 4) A poly peptide with 59 A A is formed

6. 7.

In Eukaryotes which part of a gene is transcribed but not translated is 1) Cistron I) Auxin 1) I & IV 2) Intron II) G.A 2) II & IV 2) Zn 3) Exon III) Ethylene 3) II & III 3) N 2 4) Operator IV) ABA 4) III & IV 4) Mg Connecting link between Glycolysis & krebs cycle is a precursor for

8. 9.

The micro essential element required for the biosynthesis of IAA is 1) Fe Reverse transcriptase is 1) DNA dependent DNA polymerase 3) RNA dependent RNA polymerase 2) DNA dependent RNA polymerase 4) RNA dependent DNA polymerase

10.

Genetic code determines 1) Sequence of amino acids in a proteins 2) Sequence of genes in a chromosome
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Sr MEDICON 13

EAMCET GRAND TEST

Date : 30-10-

3) Structural pattern of an organism 11. Enzyme Hexokinase can be inhibited by 1)Fructose 3) Glucose-6-phosphate 12. 1) Cavitation also 2) Embolism

4) No. of variations in an offspring 2) Glucose 4) Fructose-6-phosphate 3) Ascent of sap 4) Transpirational pull

Formation of gas bubbles in a xylem vessel is known as

13. Assertion (A): Higher plants can absorb nitrogen from the soil in the form of Nitrate Reason (R): All prokaryotes can convert dinitrogen into ammonia 1) A and R are true R is correct explanation to A 2) A and R are true R is not correct explanation to A 3) A is true R is false 4) A is false R is true 14. 8 Mol of aldolase enzyme and substrate molecules are taken in a test rube. After 10 min 2400 mol of products are formed. What is the TON of aldolase enzyme 1) 30 one glucose mol is 1) 686 K.Cal 2) 273.6 K.Cal 3) 91.2 K.Cal 4) 56 K.Cal 16. Which of the following is not related to the compound that acts as a substrate for last oxidation in krebs cycle I) It is a product of decarboxylation in krebs cycle II) It is an osmotically active in guard cells III) It undergoes oxidative decarboxylation in bundle sheath cells of C4 plants IV) In CAM plant mesophyll cells this compound is stored in vacuoles during night time 1) I only 2) All except 3) Except I & IV 4) I & II only 17. Assertion (A): Antibiotic resistant genes in a cloning vector acts as a selectable markers Reason (R): Selectable markers are useful in selecting the transformed cells 1) A and R are true R is correct explanation to A 2) A and R are true R is not correct explanation to A 3) A is true R is false 4) A is false R is true 18. Assertion (A): R Q value for fats is less than 1 Reason (R): The proportion of oxygen atoms to carbon atoms is very less when compared to carbohydrates 1) A and R are true R is correct explanation to A 2) A and R are true R is not correct explanation to A 3) A is true R is false
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2) 45

3) 90

4) 15

15. The excess amount of energy utilized by a C4 plant than the C3 plant in the production of

4) A is false R is true
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Sr MEDICON 13

EAMCET GRAND TEST

Date : 30-10-

19. Assertion (A): RNA is not suitable as a genetic material when compared to DNA Reason (R): OH group present in second carbon in ribose sugar makes RNA more reactive and makes it unstable. 1) A and R are true R is correct explanation to A 2) A and R are true R is not correct explanation to A 3) A is true R is false 4) A is false R is true

20.

Assertion (A): The large holes in swiss cheese are due to production of large amount of
CO2

Reason (R): Swiss cheese is produced by using saccharomyces 1) A and R are true R is correct explanation to A 2) A and R are true R is not correct explanation to A 3) A is true R is false 21. 1) Scattered vascular bundles 3) Krant anatomy 4) A is false R is true 2) Cu path way 4) It can not tolerate injury Girdling experiments can not be performed in monocots (like sugar cane) due to

22. When a cell is kept in 0.5 M sucrose solution, its volume does not change. If the same cell is placed in 0.5 M NaCl solution, the volume of the protoplast 1) Increases 2) No change 3) Decreases 4) Initially increases and later no change 23. Critical concentration of an essential element is 1) Concentration of an element below which growth is retarded 2) Concentration of an element below which growth is enhanced 3) Concentration of an element below which plant remains in vegetative phase 4) Concentration Of an element at which plant enters in flowering stage 24. Assertion (A): Deficiency symptoms of Ca & S first appears in younger tissues. Reason (R): Ca & S are not a part of structural component of the cell. 1) A and R are true R is correct explanation to A 2) A and R are true R is not correct explanation to A 3) A is true R is false 1) Plant will die soon 4) A is false R is true 2) Plant will neither grow nor die 25. A chlorella cell is kept at 300 ppm Co2 conc what will happen to it 3) Plant will show normal photosynthesis 4) Respiration will be greatly decreased 26. Growth represented in linear curve can be calculated by using the formula 1) Lt = lo + rt
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2) Lo = Lt + rt

3) Wl = Wo e rt
&a'e 3

rt 4) W0 = W1 e

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Sr MEDICON 13

EAMCET GRAND TEST

Date : 30-10-

27. Highly selective transport is 1) Simple diffusion 2) Facilitated diffusion 3) Active transport 4) Both 2 & 3 28. Which of the following is a redifferentiated tissue 1) Wood 2) vascular cambium 3) Inter vascular cambium 4) cork cambium 29. The most commonly used cloning vector in the transfer of gene into plant cell is 1) Ti plasmid 2) PBR 322 3) PUC 19 4) PUC 201 30. A ds DNA with 30 helices transcribes an mRNA, which translates a polypeptides chain, the number .of translocations involved if 5 ribosomes are attached to mRNA 1) 495 1) After Biosynthesis 3) During biosynthesis 32. In Lac operon inducer is 1) lactose 33. RNA interference is 1) Inactivation of mRNA after translation 2) Inactivation of mRNA before translation 3) Activation of mRNA after translation 1) Short ds DNA Variety A) Pusa swarnim B) Pusa sadabahar C) Pusa sawani D) Pusa snowball k 1 A 1) 3) 36. III III B I IV C II I D IV II 2) 4) 2) Short ds RNA 4) Activation of mRNA after translation 3) Short ss DNA Crop I. Okra II. Chilli III. Brassica IV. Cauliflower A III IV B II III C I II D IV I 4) Short ss RNA 34. In gene amplification process in PCR primers are 35. Match the following variety with their respect crops 2) Allolactose 3) Transacetalase 4) Galactose 2) 490 3) 500 4) 1500 31. Down stream process includes steps 2) Before biosynthesis 4) After separation

Which of the following varieties are developed by mutation breeding 1) Resistance to yellow mosaic Virus in mungbean 2) Resistance to yellow mosaic virus in bhindi 3) Pusa Gaurav 4) Pusa sem 2 2) spinach 3) bathua 4) pumpkin

37. 38.

Vitamin C enriched vegetable among the following is 1) garden peas Virus free sugar cane plants can be produced from virus infected sugar cane plants by
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Sr MEDICON 13

EAMCET GRAND TEST

Date : 30-10-

1) Embryo culture 3) ovule culture

2) Anther culture 4) shoot apical meristem culture

39. The law of independent assortment states that :

1) In fertilization , the combining of sperm and eggs is random. 2) In meiosis, crossing over creates genetically diverse gametes 3) In any dihybrid cross, it is possible to get any combination of phenotypes. 4) During gametes formation, gene pairs are transmitted independently of each other 40. A plant of unknown genotype with yellow seeds and purple flowers is crossed to a plant with green seeds and white flowers. The offspring all have yellow seeds, but some have purple flowers and some have white flowers what is the genotype of yellow seeded, purple flowered parental plant ? 1) YyPp 2) Yypp 3) YYpp 4) YYPp

ZOOLOGY 41. Assertion (A): Bile is essential for the digestion of lipids Reason (R): Bile juice contain enzymes like bilirubin and biliviridin 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A 2) Both A and R are true R is not correct explanation of A 3) A is true but R is false 42. 43. Crypts of lieberkuhn secrete 1) gastric juice 1) parietal cells HCl 3) neck cells mucus 44. 45. 46. 47. Kupffer cells are found in 1) blood 1) FRC = ERV+RV 2) heart 2) VC = IC ERV 2) cerebellum 3) kidney 3) IC = ERV+VC 3) diencephalon 4) liver 4) EC = IC-ERV 4) medulla oblongata Correct one of the following regarding respiratory capacities is Respiratory rhythm centre is present in this part of brain 1) cerebral hemispheres A respiratory disorder in which respiratory surface is decreased is
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4) Both A and R wrong 3) bile juice 4) succus entericus

2) pancreatic juice

Incorrect one of the following is 2) peptic cells pepsinogen 4) chief cells intrinsic factor

Sr MEDICON 13

EAMCET GRAND TEST

Date : 30-10-

1) asthma 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 1) Mg 1) bundle of his 1) Warfarin 1) Nephrocytes

2) emphysema 2) Na 2) Purkinje fibres 2) Haemolysin 2) Podocytes

3) cirrhosis 3) K 3) SAN 3) Heparin 3) Neural cells

4) silicosis 4) Ca 4) Ventricles 4) Hirudin 4) Protonephridia

Which of the following ions play important role in blood clotting Action potentials are generated at maximum frequency This one is used during haemodialysis to prevent blood coagulation Which of the following occur in epithelium of Bowmans capsule Atrial Natriuretic Factor (ANF) 1) Causes vasodialation 3) decreases GFR 2) increases blood pressure 4) activates renin Column II 1) Vasodilator 2) Vasoconstrictor 3) Vasopressin 4) Renin 2) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 4) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 2) myosin 3) M line 4) sacromere

53.

Match the following regarding excretory system and choose correct one Column I A) JG cells B)Hypothalamus C) Angiotensin II D) ANF 1) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 3) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4

54.

Isotropic band of a muscle cell contain 1) actin

55. 56. 57. 58.

In man vertebrochondral ribs are 1) 3 pairs 2) 12 pairs 3) 2 pairs 4) 7 pairs 4) osteoporosis 4) iris 4) otolith organ Wild contractions in a muscle due to low Ca ++ is 1) gout 2) tetany 3) arthritis Scotopic vision is the function of 1) rods 2) cones 3) pupil 3) stapes Part of ear has hair cells that acts as auditory receptors is 1) basilar membrane 2) tympanum

59. Assertion (A): Organ of corti rests on tectorial membrane Reason (R): It helps to maintain equilibrium of body 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A 2) Both A and R are true R is not correct explanation of A 3) A is true but R is false
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4) Both A and R wrong

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Sr MEDICON 13

EAMCET GRAND TEST

Date : 30-10-

60. Match the following and choose correct one Column - I A)Addisons disease B) Tetany C) Acromegaly D) Myxoedema 1) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 61. PTH is 1) hyperglycemic hormone 3) hypocalcemic hormone 62. 63. Secretin acts on the 1) liver Find the odd one out 1) parathyroid tetany 3) adrenal cortex Cushings syndrome 64. 1) Interstitial cells Column - I A)Inguinal canal B) Rete testis C) Leydig cells D) Prepuce E) Corpora cavernosa 1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-5, E-4 3) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-5, E-1 66. 2) Sertoli cells 2) pancreas diabetis insipidus 4) thyroid goitre 3) Follicles 4) Seminiferous tubules Column - II 1. Network of seminiferous tubules 2. Secondary sexual characters 3. For descending testis 4. Dorsal bundles of muscles 5. Terminal skin of penis 2) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2, E-5 4) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-5, E-4 2) stomach 3) pancreas 4) small intestine 2) hypoglycemic hormone 4) hypercalcemic hormone Column - II 1. Pituitary 2. Thyroid 3. Adrenal cortex 4. Parathyroid 2) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4 3) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 4) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

Androgens are synthesized inside the testes in

65. Match the items of column I with those in column - II

The following hormone acts on anterior pitutary gland and helpful in release of FSH and LH after the age of puberty 1) ACTH are almost nil. Reason (R): Lactational amenorrhea can be seen during the period of intense lactation following parturition 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A 2) Both A and R are true R is not correct explanation of A
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2) TSH

3) GnRH

4) GnTH

67. Assertion (A): As long as the mother breast feeds the child fully, chances of conception

Sr MEDICON 13

EAMCET GRAND TEST

Date : 30-10-

3) A is true but R is false 68. Vaults prevent conception by 1) Phagocytosis of sperms 3) Killing Ovum 69. 1) Neisseria gonorrhoeae 3) Pasteurella pestis 70. Each antibody is made up of 1) Two peptide chains 3) Four peptide chains 71. 72. 73. 74.

4) Both A and R wrong 2) Releasing hormones 4) Blocking the entry of sperms 2) Treponema pallidum 4) Clostrodium botulinum 2) Three peptide chains 4) Six peptide chains

Which of the following organisms causes the sexual disease syphilis

Humoral immune response is mediated by 1) T lymphocytes 1) Tetanus 1) Ig A 2) Antibodies 2) Polio 2) Ig O 3) Neutrophils 3) Small pox 3) Ig D 4) Interferons 4) Hepatitis B 4) Ig E rDNA technology is used in developing vaccines against The type of immunoglobulin present in the colostrums secreted by mammary glands is The full form of HGP is 1) Human Genome project 3) Human Genome programme 2) Human Gene profile 4) Human Genomic process 2) Paternity dispute 4) All of the above 2) Y-chromosome 4) autosomal chromosome 3) Cretinism 3) G cuvier 2) natural selections 4)continuity of germplasm 2) Species 3) Breed PHYSICS 4) Class 4) Cystic fibrosis 4) Darwin

75.

DNA finger printing can resolve 1) Identification of a person 3) Maternity dispute

76.

Haemophilia is due to mutation in 1) X and Y chromosomes 3) X-chromosome

77. 78. 79.

Which of the following is not a hereditary disease 1) Sickle cell anemia 2) Thalassemia 1) Oparin 2) Haldane Who is known as founder of theory of catastrophism ? Darwin proposed the theory of 1) inheritance of acquired characters 3) recapitulation

80.

A group of animals related by descent and similar in appearance, configuration is 1) Genus

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Sr MEDICON 13

EAMCET GRAND TEST

Date : 30-10-

81.

A source of unknown frequency gives 4 beats/s, When sounded with a source of known frequency 250 Hz. The second harmonic of source of unknown frequency gives five beats per second when sounded with a source of frequency 513 Hz. The unknown frequency is 1) 254 Hz 2) 246 Hz 3) 240 Hz 4) 260 Hz

82.

A source of sound is travelling towards a stationary observer. The frequency of sound heard by the observe is 25% more than that actual frequency. If the speed of sound is V, that of source is 1)
V 4

2) V / 5

3)

V 3

4) V / 2

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

A sonometer wire of length 1.5 m is made of steel. The tension in it produce an elastic strain 1%. What is the fundamental frequency of steel if density and elasticity of steel are 7.7 X 103 kg / m3 and 2.2 X 1011 N / m 2 respectively 1) 188.5 Hz 2) 178.2 Hz 3) 200.5Hz 4) 770 Hz A magnet is parallel to uniform magnetic field. The work done in rotating magnet through 600 is 8 105 J . The work done in rotating through another 300 is 1) 4 105 J 2) 6 105 J 3) 8 105 J 4) 2 105 J Two converging lenses A and B have focal lengths in the ratio 2:1. The radius of curvature of first surface of lens A is 1/4th of second surface where as the radius of curvature of first surface of lens B is twice that of second surface. Then the ratio between the radii of first surfaces of A and B is 1) 5 ; 3 2) 3 : 5 3) 1 : 2 4) 5 : 6 A ray of light is incident normally on one of face of prism of angle 300 and refractive index 2 . The angle of deviation will be 1) 260 2) 00 3) 300 4) 150 When a light incident on a medium at an angle of incidence I and refracted into a second medium at angle of refraction r, the graph of sin I and sin r is as shown in diagram, then the critical angle for the two media is

Sin r 300 Sin i

1) Sin 1

( 3)

1 1 2) Sin 3

3) Cos 1 3

4) Tan 1 2

88. The focal lengths of objective and eye piece of a microscope are 1 cm and 5 cm respectively. If the magnifying power for the relaxed eye is 45, the length of microscope is 1)30 cm 2) 25 cm 3) 15 cm 4) 12 cm 89. The frequency of oscillation of a magnet at a place is 8Hz. When it is remagnetised so that pole strength becomes 6 times the initial value and placed at a place where
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Sr MEDICON 13

EAMCET GRAND TEST

Date : 30-10-

horizontal magnetic field is twice that of initial place, the new frequency of oscillation is 1)16Hz 2) 4 3 Hz 3) 16 3 Hz 4) 4 Hz 90. Statement (A) :Intensity of all bright diffraction fringes is not same Statement (B) : The minima of a diffraction pattern are not perfectly dark. 1)A is false and B is true 3) Both A and B are true 2) A is true but B is false 4) Both Aand B are false

91. Unpolarised light of intensity 32 w / m 2 passes through three polarisers such that the transmission axis of last polariser is crossed with first. If the intensity of emerging light is 3w / m 2 , the angle between the axes of first two polarisers is 1) 450 2) 600 3) 300 92. and be true angle of dip, then. 1) cos 2 = Cos 21 + Cos 2 2 3) Tan 2 = Tan 21 + Tan 2 2
2) Sec 2 = Sec 21 + Sec 2 2 4) Cot 2 = Cot 21 + cot 2 2

4) zero

If 1 and 2 be the angles of dip observed in two vertical planes at right angles to each other

93.In youngs double slit experiment, the fringes are displaced by a distance x, When a glass plate of refractive index 1.5 is introduced in the path of one of beans. When this plate is replaced by another plate of same thickness, The shift of fringes is x. The 2 refractive index of second plate is 1) 1.75 94. 2) 1.50 3) 1.25 4) 1.00 When a light of wave length and photon energy 2ev falls on a metal surface, electrons are emitted with maximum speed V. If the wave length is decreased by 25%, the maximum speed of emitted electron becomes 2V. The work function is 1) 2.4ev 95. 2) 1.78ev 3) 4.2ev 4) 3.6ev The magnetic susceptibility of a material of a rod is 499. Permeability of Vacuum is
4 X 107 H / m . The absolute permeability of the rod in Henry/m is 3

1) X 104 96.

2) 2 X 104

3) 3 X 104

4) 4 X 104

As the electron in Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom passes from state n = 2 to n = 1, then KE (k) and PE (U) change as 1) K two fold, U also two fold 3) K four fold and U two fold 2) K four fold, U also four fold 4) K tow fold and U four fold

97.

The work functions of metals A and B in the ratio 1:2. If the light of frequencies f and 2f are incident on metal surface of A and B respectively, the ratio of maximum kinetic energies of photoelectrons emitted is (f is greater than threshold frequency of A and 2f is greater than threshold frequency of B) 10 1:1
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2) 1:2
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3) 1:3

4) 1:4
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Sr MEDICON 13

EAMCET GRAND TEST

Date : 30-10-

98.

The number of half life periods elapsed before which 93.75% of radioactive sample has decayed 1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 5

99.

1 gm of hydrogen is converted into 0.993 gm of Helium in a Thermonuclear reaction. The energy released is 3) 63 X 1013 J 4) 63 X 1020 J

1) 63 X 107 J 2) 63 X 1010 J 100. For a transistor to work as an amplifier

1) Its emitter Junction is in reverse bias and collector Junction is in forward bias 2) The transistor must have breakdown region 3) Its emitter Junction is in forward bias and collector Junction is in reverse bias 4) Its emitter and collector Junctions are in forward bias 101. The output (X) of the logic circuit shown in figure will be
A B

x
3) X = A.B 4) X = A + B

1) X = A . B

2) X = A.B

102. Assertion (A): The maximum range of coverage by the ground wave propagation is limited up to a few M Hz. Reason (R):The attenuation of ground wave increases very rapidly with frequency 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A 2) Both A and R are true R is not correct explanation of A 3) A is true but R is false 4) Both A and R wrong 103. Two charges 12 C and - 6 C are separated by a distance of 20 cm. The net electric potential is zero on the line joining them 1) At a distance of 6.7 cm from - 6 C in between the changes 2) At a distance of 0.2 m from - 6 C outside the changes 3) Both of the above 4) None of the above 104. The electric field in a region of space is given by E = 5i + 2 $ j . The electric flux due to this field through an area 2m 2 lying YZ plane, in Si units, is 3) 10 2 4) 2 29 105. If the effective capacity between x and y is c in the given circuit, the capacity of 1) 10 2) 20 condenser P is
2C x C P 4C 4C 3C 2C

1)1C
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2) 2C

3) 3C
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4) 4C
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Sr MEDICON 13

EAMCET GRAND TEST

Date : 30-10-

106. If an electron revolves in the circular path of radius 0.5 A0 at a frequency of 5 X 1015 cycles/sec, the equivalent electric current is 1) 0.4mA 2) 0.8mA 3) 1.2mA 4) 1.6mA 107. When a resistor of 11 ohm is connected in series with an electric cell the current flowing in it is 0.5A. Instead, when a resistor of 5 ohm is connected to the same electric cell in series, the current increases by 0.4A. The internal resistance of cell is 1) 1.5
2) 2.5

3) 2

4) 3.5

108. When an unknown resistance and a resistance 6 are connected in the left and right gaps of a meter bridge, the balancing point is obtained at 50 cm. If 3 resistance is connected in parallel to resistance in right gap, balance point 1) Decreases by 25 cm 3) Decreases by 16.7 cm 2) Increases by 25 cm 4) Increases by 16.7 cm

109. In an experiment to determine the internal resistance of a cell with potentiometer, the balancing length is 165 cm. When a resistance of 5 ohm is joined in parallel with the cell the balancing length is 150 cm. The internal resistance of the cell is 1) 2.2 ohm 110. Match the following List I a)Flemings left hand rule b) Right hand thumb rule c) Biot savarts law d) Flemings right hand rule 1) a-g, b-e, c-f, d-h List II e) direction of induced current f) Magnitude and direction of magnetic induction g) Direction of force due to magnetic induction h) direction of magnetic lines due to current 2) a-g, b-h, c-f, d-e 3) a-f, b-h, c-g, d-e 4) a-h, b-g, c-e, d-f 111. A proton, a deuteron and an -particle whose kinetic Energies are same enter at right angles to a uniform magnetic field. The ratio of the radii of their circular paths is 1) 1: 2 :1 2) 2 :1:1 3) 1:2:1 4) 2:2:1 112. To convent a 800mv range voltmeter of resistance 40 into a milli ammeter of 100mA range, the resistance to be connected as shunt is 1) 10 2) 5 3) 2.5 4) 1 113. A circular coil of radius 2R is carrying current I. The ratio of magnetic fields at the centre of coil and at a point at a distance 6R from the centre of the coil on the axis of coil is 1) 10
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2) 1.1 ohm

3) 3.3 ohm

4) 0.5 ohm

2) 10 10
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3) 20 5

4) 20 10
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Sr MEDICON 13

EAMCET GRAND TEST

Date : 30-10-

114. The flux linked with a coil at any instant t is given by = 10t 2 50t + 250 . The induced EMF at t = 3 sec is 1) -190 V 2) -10 V 3) 10 V 4) 190 V

115. A copper disc of radius 0.1 m is rotated about its natural axis with 10rps in a uniform magnetic field of 0.1 T with its plane perpendicular to the field. The EMF induced across the radius of the disc is 1) 10 V 2) 20 V 3) 102 V 4) 2 X 102 V

116. A transformer has 1500 turns in the primary coil and 1125 turns in the secondary coil. If the voltage in the primary coil is 200V, then the voltage in secondary coil is 1) 100 V 2) 150 V 3) 200 V 4) 250 V

117. An alternating current is given by I = ( 3sin wt + 4 cos Wt ) A . The rms current will be 1)
7 A 2

2)

1 A 2

3)

5 A 2

4) 3 / 2 A

118. In a series L-C-R circuit the voltage across resistance, capacitance and inductance is 40V, 80V, and 40V respectively. Then the voltage across A.C source is 1) 100 2 V 2) 80 2 V 3) 80 V 4) 40 2 V

119. For a series L-C-R circuit,

= X L = 2 X c The impedance of the circuit and phase difference

between voltage and current will be 1)

5 , Tan 1 (2) 2

2) 5 , Tan 1 (2)

3)

5 , Tan 1 (1/ 2) 2

4) 5 , Tan 1 (1/ 2)

120. The time varying electric and magnetic fields in space 1) Produce EM wave which is propagated with a velocity less than velocity of light 2) Do not produce EM wave 3) Produce EM wave which propagates with a velocity greater than velocity of light 4) Produce EM waves which propagates with the velocity of light CHEMISTRY 121. 0.2 percent solution of phenol is a 1) Antiseptic 122. List I A) Retinol
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2) Disinfectant

3) Antibiotic List II I) Scurvy

4) Antifertility drug

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Sr MEDICON 13

EAMCET GRAND TEST

Date : 30-10-

B) Nicotinamide C) Biotin D) Ascorbic acid The correct match is A 1) 3) II I B V IV C IV III 2) Starch D I I

II) Xerophthalmia III) Paralysis IV) Burning feet V) Pellagra A 2) 4) II I B V III 4) All C III IV D I I

123. The water soluble carbohydrate which cant reduce Tollens reagent is 1) Sucrose 1) German silver 1) HClO

3) Cellulose

124. The alloy used to reduce nitrites or nitrates to NH 3 is 2) Gun metal 3) Devardas alloy 4) Aluminum Bronze 2) HClO2 3) HClO3 4) HClO4 125. The oxyacid of chlorine with highest Cl-O bond energy is 126. The ratio of ! d bonds in SO2 & SO3 respectively 1) 1:1 1) "eSiO3 2) 1:2 2) CaSiO3 3) 2 : 1 3) Ca3 ( #O4 )2 4) 2 : 3 4) Na2 SiO3 127. The slag formed in the extraction of iron from haematite is 128. Assertion (A): Rate constant increases in the presence of catalyst. Reason (R): In the presence of catalyst reaction changes from high threshold energy path to low threshold energy path 1) Both A and R are true and R explains A 2) Both A and R are true but R doesn't explain A 3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true 129. C$ +2 / C$ = 0.337V. At which concentration of C$ +2 its reduction potential will become 0.277v. 1) 0.1 1) 12 1) 1.0m urea test. 1) CH 3CH 2OH I) 30 butyl alcohol
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2) 0.01 2) 8 2) 0.01 m NaCl

3) 0.05 M 3) 6 3) 0.01m %gCl2

4) 0.5M 4) 3
4) 0.1 Al2 ( SO4 )3

130. The coordination number of sodium metal in its lattice is 131. Among the following which has lowest freezing point 132. Which of the following can undergo aldol condensation but does not respond for Haloform
2) CH 3CHO 3) C6 H 5CHO 4) CH 3CH 2CHO

133. Among the following which will give acetic acid on oxidation with acidified &%nO4 ! II) Isopropyl alcohol
&a'e 14

III) Acetone
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EAMCET GRAND TEST

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IV) Diethyl ether 1) IV, V, VI 1) Nylon-6 one is most effective

V) CH 3CHO 2) I, II, III 2) Teflon

V") C2 H 5OH 3) III, IV, V 3) Buna-s 4)All 4) Bakelite

134. Which of the following is a condensation and copolymer 135. For coagulation of negatively charged As2 S3 sol , among the following electrolytes which
1) & 4 [ "e(CN )6 ] 2) Na3 #O4 3) Al2 ( SO4 )3 4) %gCl2

136. The complexes [ Co( NH 3 )5 Br ] SO4 and [ Co( NH 3 )5 SO4 ] Br can be identified by I) AgNO3 1) I only II) C$SO4 2) II only III) BaCl2 3) I & III 4) I and II

137. Assertion (A): Argenitite is leached with the solution of NaCN in the presence of air Reason (R): O2 of air oxidises Na2 S to Na2 SO4 and prevents the reverse reaction 1) Both A and R are true and R explains A 2) Both A and R are true but R doesn't explain A 3) A is true but R is false product of %X 3 is 1) & s! = 3a 4
4 2) & s! = 27 a 3 3) & s! = 27 a 3 4) & s! = 3a

4) A is false but R is true

138. If the molar solubility of a sparingly soluble salt %X 3 is a mole/lit, then the solubility

139. The correct sequence of reactions involved in the nitration of aniline are repectively 1) Acylation, nitration, hydrolysis 3) Alkylation, hydrolysis, nitration
2 5 3

2) Hydrolysis, acylation, nitration 4) Alkylation, nitration, hydrolysis

C H ONa alc. &OH HCl X ) * Compound Z is 140. C2 H 5Cl on'( . AlCl

1) Dimethyl ether

2) Ethyl acetate

3) Diethyl ether

4) methyl formate

141. The IUPAC name of & 3 [ Al (C2O4 )3 ] 1) Potassium Alumino oxalate 3) Potassium aluminium oxalate (III) 1) Head to head by 1,4 links 3) head to tail by 1,4 links 2) Potassium trioxalato aluminate (III) 4) Potassium trioxalato aluminate (VI) 2) tail to tail by 1,4 links 4) head to tail by 1,3 links

142. In natural rubber, the isoprene units are joined by

143. X-rays of wavelength equal to 0.134nm gives first order diffraction from the surface of a crystal when the value of is 10.50 .The distance between the planes in the crystal parallel to the surface is (sin10.50 = 0.1822) 1) 0.368 nm 2) 0.184 nm
H+ 'ot

3) 0.726 nm

4) 0.92 nm

#+, 144. A + B C6 H 5 O CH 3

Correct statements among the following

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I) A is C6 H 5ONa, B is CH 3Cl III) P is C6 H 5OH , , is CH 3 + 1) only I and III 145. Coloumn I A) Natural polymer B) Elastomers C) Inorganic polymers D) Biodegradable polymers The correct match is A 1) 3) IV IV B III I C I III D II II 2) only II and IV

II) A is C6 H 5Cl , B is CH 3Cl IV) P is C6 H 5 + 3) only I and IV I) II) Dextron Nylon 6,6 4) only II and III Coloumn II

III) Wool IV) Silicone rubber V) Buna-S A 2) 4) III III B V IV C IV V D I I

146. Correct statements regarding 15th group elements a) Nitrogen occurs in free state in air to the extent of 80% by volume b)
PPP
0 bond angle in white phosphorous is 60

c) Phosphorous tetrahedran polymerises to yield more inactive red phosphorous 1) All 147. 2) a, b only 3) b only 4) b, c only
H 2 S + "2 X + H" H 2 S + Cl2 ) + HCl

Where X and Y respectively are

1) S"4 , S 2) S"6 , SCl2 3) S"6 , S 4) S"4 , S 2Cl2

148. The weight ratio of Al and Ag deposited when same quantity of electricity is passed into
Al2 ( SO4 )3 and Ag NO3 Solutions is

1) 3:4 1) Cubic geometry

2) 1:12

3) 4:3

4) 12:1

149. Which of the following crystal system has four Bravis lattices 2) Monoclinic geometry 4) ortho rhombic geometry 3) Tetragonal geometry

150. The following graph represents a first order reaction

S#o$% & '( 1)

#o)(*'x)

2.303 ti %

2)

#o)(*'x)

S#o$% & ( 2.303 ti %

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3)

#o)(*'x)

S#o$% & (

4)

#o)(*'x)

S#o$% & '+

ti %

ti %

151. The degree of dissociation ( ) of a weak electrolyte, A- B( is related to vant Hoff factor (i) by the expression 1) =
- + ( 1 i 1 2) = - + ( +1 i 1 3) = i 1 ( - + ( 1) 4) = i 1 ( - + ( + 1)

152. Correct statement is 1) Xe is S#3 hybridised in Xe"2 2) Shape of XeO3 is trigonal planar 3) Xe"6 is formed in first excited state of Xe 4) Central atom of XeO4 has no lone pairs 153. Which of the following represents the correct graph for physical adsorption
1)
t

2)
t

3)
t

4)
t

154. The reaction - products follows first order kinetics. In 40 minutes the concentration of X changes from 0.1M to 0.025M. Then the rate of the reaction when the concentration of X is 0.01M. 1) 1.73 X 104 % / in 2) 3.47 X 105 % / in 3) 3.47 X 104 % / in 4) 1.73 X 105 % / in 155. When 6 X 1022 electrons are used in the electrolysis of a metallic salt, 1.9 gm of the metal is deposited at the cathode. The atomic weight of the metal is 57. So the oxidation state of the metal in the salt is 1) +2 2) +3 3) +1 4) +4 156. In a cubic packed structure of mixed oxides the lattice is made up of oxide ions, one fifth of tetrahedral voids are occupied by X ions. While one half of the octahedral voids are occupied by Y ions. Then the formula of oxide will be 1) X 2)O4 1) 5 dilute alkali
Sr" C#a"ta$%a &a'e 17 (")a%a*a+a

2) X 5)4O10

3) X 4)5O10

4) X)2O4

157. "e(CO) - obeys EAN rule. Value of X is 2) 10 3) 6 4) 4 158. Which of the following is not formed when Ethanal and propanal are heated in presence of

Sr MEDICON 13

EAMCET GRAND TEST

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1) 2 pentenal
2

2) 2 butenal
2 2

3) 2 hexenal

4) 2 methyl 2- butenal

Cl Cl Cl B C . Highest # ka is for 159. CH 3COOH ( A) red # ,% d # ,% d #

1) A 1) C6 H 5 N 2Cl e

2) B
2) C6 H 5 N 2 HSO4
e

3) C
3) C6 H 5 N 2 Br e

4) D
4) C6 H 5 N 2 B"4
e

160. Which of the following is water insoluble

Sr" C#a"ta$%a

&a'e 18

(")a%a*a+a