Question of the Week # 433 433) A 27 year old woman with no significant past medical history presents to your

office after she sustained an accidental cut from a clean, new kitchen knife. She has no significant family history. She does not smoke or drink. She enjoys hanging out in beaches over the weekends and sun tanning. She however, noticed that she tans very quickly when compared to her friends. She received Tetanus immunization as a child and her last tetanus booster was 1 year ago. She also reports she recently visited her gynecologist office at which time some routine labs were done. She has the copies of her lab reports with her which reveal: WBC : 10k/l HGB: 15gm% Platelets : 300k/l Iron : 150 mcg/dL TIBC: 200 mcg/dl Transferrin saturation : 75% Serum Ferritin : 220 ( N= 12 to 200 ng/ml) Further investigations revealed homozygos state for C282Y mutation. On examination, her skin is golden tan in color. She has a 1cm cut on her palm which is clean. The wound is cleaned with soap and water. Which of the following is the most appropriate management? A) Instruct her to increase Vitamin C intake to promote wound healing B) Administer Tetanus Immunoglobulin C) Administer Tetanus Toxoid D) Instruct her to avoid contact with sea water until the wound is healed E) Instruct her to increase Red Meat Intake

Posted by Archer Red at 11:25 AM

Links to this post

Reactions: Monday, July 30, 2012 Question of the Week # 432 432) A 62-year-old man presents with painless, progressive enlargement in the left side of his neck over the past 3 months. He denies any fever, night sweats or chills. He denies any pain, dysphagia, cough, hemoptysis, chestpain, shortness of breath, history of trauma or dental infection. His past medical history is significant for 100 pack-year history of smoking and daily alcohol abuse. On examination, he is afebrile. He has a large 5 cm , hard, non-tender and matted lymphadenopathy on the left lateral aspect of his neck . He has no other lymph node enlargement. No rash. Reminder of the exam including oral cavity examination is normal. There are no obvious tongue, pharyngeal or tonsillar lesions. HIV and VDRL are negative. A CT scan of the chest, abdomen and pelvis does not reveal any lymphadenopathy or obvious mass lesions. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? A) Open biopsy of the neck mass B) Pan-endoscopy C) Fine Needle Aspiration Cytology ( FNAC) D) Test for HPV ( Human Papilloma Virus) and EBV ( Ebstein Barr Virus) E) Prescribe antibiotic therapy and re-evaluate in 4 weeks Posted by Archer Red at 10:18 PM Links to this post

Reactions: Wednesday, July 25, 2012

Question of the Week # 431 431) A 25 year old G2P1L1 at 32 weeks gestation presents with right leg swelling and pain progressively increasing over the past two days. Her previous pregnancy was uneventful except for uncomplicated C-section and she has a 2 year old healthy male child. Past medical history is negative for any significant health issues. There is no family history of clots or cancer. Physical examination is consistent with 32 week gestation. Right lower extremity is swollen about 3cm more in calfcircumference when compared to the left. There is tenderness in right calf. A Doppler ultrasound reveals thrombosis in superficial femoral vein. Factor V leiden mutation, Lupus anticoagulant, anti-cardioloipin antibodies, prothrombin gene mutation are negative. Anti-thombin III is within normal limits. She is scheduled for C-section in 6 weeks. Which of the following is the most appropriate Statement concerning her management? A) B) Since this is not deep vein thrombosis, start her on LMWH ( Low Molecular Weight Heparin) at prophylactic doses Start warfarin and continue for total 6 months

C) Start LMWH, discontinue 2 days prior to C-section, start unfractionated heparin followed by discontinuation 4 hrs prior to C-section and then start LMWH 12 hrs after surgery followed by Warfarin for 6 months. D) Start LMWH, discontinue 2 days prior to C-section, start unfractionated heparin followed by discontinuation 4 hrs prior to C-section and then start LMWH 12 hrs after surgery followed by Warfarin for 6 weeks post-partum E) Start LMWH now through delivery followed by warfarin for 6 months post-partum. Posted by Archer Red at 1:57 PM Links to this post

Reactions: Thursday, July 19, 2012 Question of the Week # 430 430 ) A 70 year-old man is evaluated in your office for fatigue and unsteady gait. His symptoms started 2 months and progressively increasing. He also reports numbness and paresthesias in his bilateral lower extremities. His other issues include ill-fitting dentures for which he used dental adhesives for past 2 years. His past medical history is also significant for gastric bypass surgery approximately 8 years ago for recurrent peptic ulcer disease. He receives Vitamin B12 Subcutaneously every 3 to 6 months. On presentation, he is confined to a wheelchair. Neurological examination revealed markedly decreased vibratory sensation and proprioception in the lower extremities bilaterally. Both pin-prick and light touch sensations were moderately reduced below the knees. Muscle power, bulk, tone, and reflexes were normal. Rest of his physical examination is normal. Laboratory investigations reveal hemoglobin = 8.5 g/dL, MCV= 74 fL, MCHC = 33.6gm/dl, leukopenia with a WBC =1.9k/l and absolute neutrophil count = 475 cells/L. His platelet count, iron studies, folate and syphilis serologies were within normal limits. Vitamin B12 was 900pg/ml ( N = 180 to 400pg/ml) . Serum Zinc level is 600g/dl ( Normal is 70-150 g/dl). Which of the following is most appropriate at this time? A) Check Methyl Malonic Acid Level B) Start Penicillamine C) Bone Marrow Biopsy D) CT scan of the Head E) Discontinue dental adhesives and check Copper levels Posted by Archer Red at 9:08 PM Links to this post

Reactions: Wednesday, June 6, 2012 Interpreting Mixing Studies - Hematology Highyield Concept I Approaching Prolonged PTT and understanding Mixing Studies :

[caption id="attachment_2399" align="aligncenter" width="400"]

ARCHER HEMATOLOGY REVIEW[/caption] Question : On a mixing study, the PTT corrects initially but gets prolonged again after incubation for 2 hours. What is this condition? This description of mixing studies is consistent with presence of a temperature- and time-dependent anti-VIII inhibitor. It just means that the inhibitor is a warm reacting IgG antibody that requires one or two hours incubation at 37C to be detected. If the PTT corrects initially but prolongs again after incubation (meaning if thePTT is at least 15% longer than the normal reagent plasmas incubated PTT ) --> anti-VIII should be suspected. This can be confirmed by obtaining a Factor VIII level which will be low in case of presence of inhibitor. Further coinfirmation of Factor VIII inhibitor can be obtained by Bethesda Titer. In such cases, you should also carefully review patient's prior bleeding history - because patients with significant inhibitor will have prior bleeding history.

Discussion :

All about Mixing Studies : Mixing studies involve mixing patient's plasma with equal amount of normal plasma. If the PTT immediately corrects ( that is if mixture yields within 10% of normal value) - it indicates Factor Deficiency ( example : VIII, IX, XI, XII) . If the PTT does not correct - it means an inhibitor is present. Such an inhibitor is most likely to be Lupus anticoagulant (LA) if there is no bleeding history. Factor VIII inhibitor is also possible but such presence of factor VIII inhibitor would be associated with significant history of bleeding which will help you differentiate from LA . If the PTT corrects initially but prolongs again after 1 to 2 hr incubation, it means a Factor VIII inhibitor is present.

Approaching LA diagnosis : After you know that there is possible LA on mixing studies, you should proceed with confirmatory tests for LA. At least Two test systems are necessary to confirm LA - to avoid false negative tests because LAs are so heterogeneous . PTT based tests can be used. Dilute Russell Viper Venom tests are sensitive and quite specific for LAs. So, Lack of correction in mixing studies of either abnormal test is presumptive evidence for LA. These results can be further followed with neutralization studies using high phospholipid reagents. Correction by the neutralizing reagents confirms the presence of LAC.Remember that Lupus anticoagulants are partof a family of antibodies called antiphospholipid antibodies. These are also detected using a series of immunoassays: Anticardiolipin IgG, IgM, orIgA antibody Anti-b2 glycoprotein I IgGor IgM antibody.

Approaching Factor VIII inhibitor Diagnosis: Once the mixing study corrects initially but prolongs again after 1 to 2 hour incubation such a result is more consistent with Factor VIII inhibitor ( acquired Factor VIII inhibitor). You should obtain a careful history regarding previous bleeding from the patient. Alternatively, acquired factor VIII inhibitors can develop transiently after pregnancy and/ or major surgeries and such patients will not have any history of bleeding. Also, obtain a Factor VIII level which will be low in case of presence of inhibitor. Further confirmation and levels of of Factor VIII inhibitor can be obtained by Bethesda Titer. If these patients have high Factor VIII titer and have significant bleeding, you can not treat them with Factor VIII replacement because remember the inhibitor is an antibody and giving factor viii may further induce antibody response and can be threatening. If significant titers of Factor VIII inhibitor are present and if the patient is bleeding , you must use FEBA ( Factor EIGHT BYPASS ACTIVITY) or Factor VII to treat this patient's acute bleeding . Visit http://www.ccsworkshop.com/Pay_Per_View.html for High-Yield USMLE AND IM BOARD REVIEWS

Posted by Archer Red at 12:28 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Tuesday, May 22, 2012 Question of the Week # 429 429) A 72-year-old man presents for an out patient follow up after being discharged from the hospital two days ago. He was admitted for a transient ischemic attack on the right side of his body which resolved spontaneously. He was worked up and subsequently discharged. Review of his in-patient investigations reveal a carotid doppler which revealed 100% stenosis of the left carotid artery and a 40% stenosis of the right carotid artery. He smoked about 1 pack per day for past several years. His past medical history includes chronic atrial fibrillation for which he has been on Aspirin alone. During the last admission, he was started on Coumadin as well. Today, his INR is therapeutic at 2.5 . His fasting lipid profile shows a calculated LDL cholesterol of 60mg%. On examination, there are no neurological deficits. His blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg. In addition to recommending smoking cessation and lifestyle changes along with continuation of coumadin, which of the following is most appropriate at this time? A) Carotid Endarterectomy of Right Carotid Artery B) Carotid Stenting of left carotid artery C) Carotid Endarterectomy of Left Carotid Artery D) Carotid Magnetic Resonance Angiography E) No other intervention indicated Posted by Archer Red at 10:31 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Monday, May 21, 2012 Question of the Week # 428 428) A 32-year-old male boxer presents to the emergency room after sustaining an injury during a local boxing match. He was punched by the opponent over his right ear about six hours ago . He complains of pain and swelling over his right ear. He has no hearing deficit or tinnitus or headaches or blurred vision. He denies nausea or vomiting. Past medical history is unremarkable. On examination, his vitals are stable. His right ear is red, warm and swollen with a medium sized anterior auricular swelling which is tender to palpation. There is no facial swelling. If untreated, which of the following would be most likely course of this injury? A) Spontaneous Resolution B) Hearing Deficit C) Permanent ear disfigurement D) Otitis Externa E) Mastoiditis Posted by Archer Red at 8:17 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 427 427) A 32-year-old male boxer presents to the emergency room after sustaining an injury during a local boxing match. He was punched by the opponent over his right ear about six hours ago . He complains of pain and swelling over his right ear. He has no hearing deficit or tinnitus or headaches or blurred vision. He denies nausea or vomiting. Past medical history is unremarkable. On examination, his vitals are stable. His right ear is red, warm and swollen with a medium sized anterior auricular swelling which is tender to palpation. There is no facial swelling. Which of the following is the most appropriate management? A) Compressive dressing B) Needle aspiration of the Hematoma C) Cold compresses, analgesics and antibiotics D) Incision and Drainage E) Observe and await spontaneous hematoma resolution Posted by Archer Red at 8:12 PM Links to this post

Reactions: Sunday, May 13, 2012 Question of the Week # 426 426) A 70-year-old man with history of atrial fibrillation and metallic mitral valve presents to the out patient clinic for follow up. He has been taking warfarin for the past 5 years. His INR has been in therapeutic range between 3.0 to 4.0. However, over the last one month his INR has been in the range of 1.5 to 2.0 . His other medical problems include moderate osteoarthritis and mild cognitive dysfunction. He started taking Glucosamine supplements for "preserving his joints "and Ginseng to slow "ageing of his brain" about two months ago. He has also been started on Aspirin by his cardiologist about 1 month ago. On examination, he is afebrile and vitals are stable. Abdominal examination is benign. A repeat INR is still sub-therapeutic at 1.5. Which of the following is the most appropriate management? A) Increase Warfarin dose by 20% B) Stop Glucosamine and repeat INR in 1 week C) Continue Warfarin at same dose and repeat INR in 1 week D) Stop Ginseng and repeat INR in 1 week E) Stop Aspirin, increase Warfarin dose and repeat INR in 1 week Posted by Archer Red at 9:16 AM Links to this post

Reactions: Monday, May 7, 2012 Question of the Week # 425 425) A 80 day old african american woman with advanced dementia is admitted to the intensive care unit for overwhelming sepsis secondary to a urinary tract infection. At presentation she was hypoxemic and was subsequently, intubated and placed on a ventilator. Blood and urine cultures are obtained and she is started on antibiotics A chest x-ray post-intubation shows endotracheal tube in place and bilateral diffuse alveolar infiltrates. On examination, his pulse is 110/min, Blood pressure is 110/80 mm Hg and respiratory rate is 18/min with the patient on Assist-Control mode on the ventilator. Pulse oximetry reveals 88% on Fio2 90%. Chest examination reveals diffuse crackles. Cardiac examination reveals tachycardia, there is no S3 gallop. Brain natriuretic peptide level is 50 pg/ml . A 2D echocardiogram shows normal left ventricular function with an ejection fraction of 60%. His ventilator settings are as follows : Assist-Control mode; Fio2 ( Fraction of inspired oxygen) : 90%, Respiratory rate : 18/minute, Tidal Volume : 500 ml, PEEP ( Positive End expiatory Pressure) : 5 cm H20 . Arterial blood gas analysis reveals ( on Fio2 70%): pH : 7.36, pCo2 : 45 mmHg, pO2 : 55 mm Hg, Bicarbonate : 23 Meq/L Which of the following is indicated at this time? A) Intravenous Furosemide B) Swan-Ganz Catheter Placement C) Increase PEEP by 3 cm H20

D) Increase Tidal Volume to 650 ml E) Increase Fio2 to 100% Posted by Archer Red at 12:27 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 424 424) A 30 year old man presents to the emergency room with complaints of right lower extremity swelling and pain over the past two days. He has had recurrent diarrhea with loose, watery bowel movements for several weeks without any blood in it. He also reports developing a red, scaly rash around his nose, mouth , genital area and on the buttocks. He has itching and pain in the areas affected by the rash. He denies any fever or night sweats or weightloss. He does not drink alcohol. He is sexually active with his girl friend and always uses condoms. On examination, his vitals are stable. Cardiac and respiratory examination is normal. There is angular cheilitis. Laboratory investigations reveals a normocytic, normochromic anemia. Stool analysis does not show any leucocytes or blood and is negative for ova and parasites. Venous doppler reveals right lower extremity deep vein thrombosis extending up to common femoral vein. Skin examination shows findings as below:

In addition to starting anticoagulation, which of the following should be performed next? A) Serum Zinc Level B) CT scan of the abdomen C) Protein C and S levels D) Serum Glucagon Levels E) Factor V leiden mutation Posted by Archer Red at 11:14 AM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 423 423) A 14 month old male baby is brought to your office by his concerned mother for recurrent diarrhea over the past 2 months. He also developed a scaly rash around his mouth, on the cheeks and on buttocks. He has been exclusively breastfed for about 8 months and has been started on gradual weaning process over the last four months. He is otherwise, a healthy child. There is no family history of eczema. On examination, he is afebrile and vitals are stable. Physical examination shows lesions around the ano-genital area as shown below :

Similar lesions are seen over his cheeks and around the mouth. Which of the following is indicated in this patient at this time? A) Exclusive Breastfeeding B) Serum Lead level C) Serum Zinc level D) Glucoagon level E) Sweat Chloride Level Posted by Archer Red at 10:55 AM

Links to this post

Reactions: Saturday, May 5, 2012 Question of the Week # 422 422) A 54-year-old man with history of Diabetes Mellitus and End-Stage Renal Disease is evaluated in your office during a follow up visit after undergoing hemo-dialysis in the morning. He has been dependent on Hemo-Dialysis for past four years and undergoes dialysis thrice a week. He reports recurrent epigastric abdominal pain that is burning in quality which is relieved by taking over the counter antacids. He denies any pain at this time. He denies any nausea or vomiting. He has no history of alcohol use or smoking. On examination, he is afebrile and vitals are stable. Abdominal examination is benign. Laboratory investigations are as follows: WBC 8.0K/L Hemoglobin 10.5gm% Serum amylase 200 IU/L ( N = 25 to 160 U/L) Serum Lipase 150 IU/L (Normal = 25 to 80U/L) AST 30 IU/L ALT 40 IU/L Total bilirubin 0.6gm% Alkaline Phosphatase 80IU/L . Which of the following is indicated in this patient at this time? A) Ultrasound of the Gall Bladder B) Nothing by mouth and IV hydration C) No further investigations or treatment D) Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangio Pancreatography E) CT scan of the Abdomen Posted by Archer Red at 7:08 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 421

421) A 34-year-old woman with history of oligomenorrhea presents to your clinic to discuss her results of recent work-up. One week ago, she has undergone extensive work-up for her menstrual abnormality. A serum pregnancy test is negative. Thyroid stimulating hormone, serum prolactin level and Follicle Stimulating Hormone levels are within normal limits. Serum total testosterone is 120ng/dl ( N = 30 to 90ng/dl) and serum free testosterone is 0.9 ng/dl ( N= 0.4 to 0.8 ng/dl) . A dehydroepiandrosterone level is 400 mcg/dl (45- 270 ug/dL) . A pelvic ultrasound reveals multiple cysts in the ovaries bilaterally. On examination, she is obese with a BMI of 32. She has excess thick and pigmented hair above her upper lip and on the chin. Which of the following is indicated in this patient at this time? A) Fasting Plasma Glucose B) Random Blood Glucose C) Hemoglobin A1C D) Oral Glucose Tolerance Test E) Start Metformin Posted by Archer Red at 5:52 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 420 420) A 34-year-old woman with past medical history of Hypothyroidism presents to the outpatient clinic for follow-up visit. She delivered a health male baby about one week ago and has been breast feeding without any issues. She has no complaints. During the pregnancy she required increase of her levothyroxine dose to 0.175 mcg from her usual prepregnancy dose of 0.125mcg. Her TSH level about 2 weeks ago was 2.0u/ml. She denies any cold or heat intolerance, weakness or constipation. On physical examination, vitals are stable. There is no goiter. Deep tendon reflexes are normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate management at this time? A) Decrease Levothyroxine to pre-pregnancy dose and recheck TSH in 6 weeks B) Repeat TSH in 6 weeks before dose adjustment C) Increase Levothyroxine and repeat TSH in 6 weeks D) Repeat TSH now E) Obatin Thyroid Peroxidase antibodies Posted by Archer Red at 5:24 PM Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 419 419) A 26-year-old woman presents for an ante-natal check up after her home pregnancy test showed positive result. Her last menstrual period was 5 weeks ago. Her past medical history includes hypothyroidism for which she has been using 125 mcg of levo-thyroxine for the past five years. She did not require any dose adjustment of her thyroid hormone therapy in the past 4 years. Her most recent thyroid stimulating hormone level ( TSH) was performed 2 weeks ago and was 2.5U/ml ( N = 0.5 to 5.0 U/ml). She denies any cold intolerance, weakness or constipation. She has gained about 2 lbs weight in the past one month. On physical examination, vitals are stable. There is no goiter. Reflexes are 1+ in bilateral lower extremities and there is 1+ pre-tibial edema. Laboratory investigations reveal : Thyroid Stimulating Hormone : 2.5 U/ml( N = 0.5 to 5.0 U/ml) Serum Total T4: 13.9 g/dl ( N = 5 to 12g/dl) Serum Free T4 : 1.9 ng/dl ( N = 0.9 to 2.4ng/dl) Which of the following is the most recommendation? A) Decrease Levothyroxine and recheck TSH in 4 weeks B) Continue same dose Levothyroxine and repeat TSH in 4 weeks C) Increase Levothyroxine and repeat TSH in 4 weeks D) Repeat TSH in 8 to 10 weeks E) Check Serum thyroid binding globulin levels

Posted by Archer Red at 3:52 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Wednesday, May 2, 2012 Question of the Week # 418 418) A 76-year-old woman with history of stage III melanoma of the right lower extremity underwent a lymph node dissection about one year ago. Her other history includes Diabetes and hypertension. She presents with complaints of increasing pain in her right lower extremity for the past 2 months. The pain appears upon standing or walking down the stairs for past few weeks. Her pain gets better upon walking uphill and when she sits down to rest. There is no history of limb swelling. On examination, vitals are stable. Pulses are palpable but slightly diminished in lower extremities. Reminder of physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnosis ? A) Peripheral Artery Disease B) Chronic Venous Insufficiency C) Lymphedema D) Deep Vein Thrombosis E) Lumbar Spinal Stenosis Posted by Archer Red at 12:25 AM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 417 417) A 72-year-old woman with history of stage III melanoma of the right lower extremity underwent a lymph node dissection about one year ago. Her other history includes Diabetes and hypertension. She presents with complaints of increasing pain in her right lower extremity upon walking a block for past few weeks. The pain gets better with rest. There is no history of limb swelling. On examination, vitals are stable. Physical examination is unremarkable with out any swelling or tenderness in her extremities. Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnosis? a) Peripheral artery disease b) Chronic Venous insufficiency C) Lymphedema d) Deep Vein Thrombosis e) Phlegmasia Alba Dolens Which of the following is indicated next? A) Venous Doppler B) Compression Stockings C) Clopidogrel D) Check blood pressure at ankle and elbow levels E) Leg elevation Posted by Archer Red at 12:20 AM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 416 416) A 60-year-old woman with history of stage III melanoma of the right lower extremity underwent a lymph node dissection about one year ago. She presents with increasing swelling and mild pain in her right lower extremity over past several months. The pain is present all the time and does not get better with rest. The swelling has progressively increased and now, she has unsightly thickening of the skin. On examination, there is non-pitting edema of the entire right lower extremity. The skin is thickened and can not be pinched and lifted.

Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A) Chronic Venous Insufficiency B) Phlegmasia Alba Dolens C) Phlegmasia Cerulea Dolens D) Lymphedema D) Peripheral Arterial Disease Posted by Archer Red at 12:14 AM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 415 415) A 60-year-old woman with history of stage III melanoma of the right lower extremity underwent a lymph node dissection about one year ago. Her other history includes Diabetes and hypertension. She presents with complaints of increasing pain in her right lower extremity upon walking. The pain gets better with rest. On examination, there is mild swelling of her right extremity with a 2 cm very shallow, clean, weeping ulcer on the medial malleolus with granulation tissue in the base. There is hyperpigmentation surrounding the ulcer. There is no "pitting" of the swelling and the skin can be easily lifted from the subcutaneous tissues. Dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial artery pulses are mildly diminished. Which of the following is indicated for her ulcer at this time? A) Leg elevation and absorbent dressing B) Antibiotics C) Compression stockings D) Anti-coagulation E) Angiography Posted by Archer Red at 12:11 AM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 414 414) A 62-year-old software engineer presents with complains of mild pain and swelling in his right lower extremity which has been progressively increasing over the past 6 months. The swelling is more towards the end of the day. Pain is worse on walking or standing and gets better with rest. On examination, vitals are stable. There is non-pitting edema of right lower extremity below the level of the knee. The limb looks normal above the level of the knee. There is some bluish discoloration of the skin over the distal portion of the leg. Small intradermal bluish vessels are noted in the skin of her right lower extremity. Dorsalis pedis and tibial pulses are intact. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A) Chronic Venous Insufficiency B) Phlegmasia Alba Dolens C) Phlegmasia Cerulea Dolens D) Lymphedema D) Peripheral Arterial Disease Posted by Archer Red at 12:09 AM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 413 413) A 60-year-old woman with history of stage III melanoma of the right lower extremity underwent a lymph node dissection about one year ago. Now, she presents with pain in her right lower extremity that started about one week ago and is progressively worse. Over the last two days, she developed bluish discoloration of the right great toe . On examination, her vitals are stable. There is gross swelling of the entire right lower extremity with bluish discoloration of right great toe and extreme tenderness . Dorsalis and posterior tibial artery pulses are slightly diminished. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Chronic Venous Insufficiency B) Phlegmasia Alba Dolens C) Phlegmasia Cerulea Dolens D) Lymphedema D) Peripheral Arterial Disease Posted by Archer Red at 12:05 AM

Links to this post

Reactions: Friday, April 27, 2012 Question of the Week # 406 406) A 65 year old woman is evaluated in your office for urinary problems. She reports involuntary loss of urine upon coughing almost daily for few months. She presented with similar problems 6 months ago and has been advised pelvic floor exercises and lifestyle modifications . These measures have not improved her symptoms. She denies any nocturia, frequency, hesitancy or urgency symptoms. She has no other medical problems On examination, vitals are stable. Pelvic examination reveals changes consistent with vaginal atrophy. When she is asked to cough in lithotomy position, there is large urinary leakage about 30 seconds after coughing which was difficult for her to stop. Complete blood count, Plasma glucose, Serum electrolytes and Urinalysis are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step? A) Start Vaginal Estrogen B) Recommend Vaginal Pessary C) Obtain Urodynamic Studies D) Mid-Urethral Sling placement E) Trial of Alpha-Adrenergic Agonists Posted by Archer Red at 4:01 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 405 405) A 80 year old woman with advanced dementia is sent to your office for evaluation of a vaginal ulcer. The patient has a history of Stage III uterine prolapse. She had been fitted with a pessary for control of her symptoms about 6 months ago. She has no history of fever or chills. On examination, she is afebrile, blood pressure is 130/80. Pelvic examination revealed complete procidentia with impacted pessary and a 2 x 2 cm ulcer without any exudate. An attempt to remove the pessary is unsuccessful. Biopsies of the ulcer have been obtained. Which of the following is the appropriate initial management? A) Vaginal Estrogen B) Oral Antibiotics C) Surgical removal of Pessary D) Hysterectomy E) Admit for parenteral antibiotics Posted by Archer Red at 3:27 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 404 404) A 70 year old woman in excellent physical health presents to your office because she has noticed a mass falling out of her vagina for the past one year which is progressively worse. For the past six months, she has difficulty voiding. During voiding, she has to constantly change her position and sometimes, needs to push the mass inside in order to urinate. Lately, voiding has become even more difficult despite all these measures. She has problems with defecation which she describes as having to apply pressure on her vagina in order to completely evacuate her bowel. . She denies any fever or burning urination. She has normal bowel movements and has no problems with defecation. She is embarrassed to have sex anymore after having had urinary incontinence during sex. She blames herself for neglecting the mass without seeking medical attention for such a long time. Otherwise, she is in excellent physical health and has no other co-morbidity. She is willing to consider any option including surgery if feasible. On examination, vitals are stable. Pelvic examination revealed a total prolapse with total eversion of the vagina which was oedematous with marked ulceration in the dependent portion of the

mass. Which of the following is the appropriate initial management? A) Obtain Urodynamic studies B) Biopsy C) Admit for daily Vaginal packing with estrogen D) Vaginal estrogen and Pessary E) Vaginal Hysterectomy Posted by Archer Red at 2:39 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 403 403) A 68 year old woman with history of Diabetes mellitus is evaluated in your office during routine follow-up visit. She reports that lately she has been experiencing pressure and bulge in her vaginal area and has a sensation of something falling out of her vagina. She denies any fever, burning, frequency or urgency of urination. She has normal bowel movements and has no problems with defecation. She is sexually active with her husband and enjoys it. She denies any urinary incontinence even upon coughing or sneezing. On examination, vitals are stable. Pelvic examination reveals changes consistent with vaginal atrophy and a Grade 1 Cystocele. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation? A) Screen for latent Stress incontinence B) Observation C) Pessary D) Surgery E) Raloxifene Posted by Archer Red at 1:27 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 402 402) A 68 year old woman with history of Diabetes mellitus is evaluated in your office during routine follow-up visit. She reports that lately she has been experiencing pressure and bulge in her vaginal area and has a sensation of something falling out of her vagina. She denies any fever, burning, frequency or urgency of urination. She has normal bowel movements and has no problems with defecation. On examination, vitals are stable. Pelvic examination reveals changes consistent with vaginal atrophy and presence of moderate cystocele. She has marked urinary leakage when she was asked to cough in lithotomy position. Complete blood count, Plasma glucose, Serum electrolytes and Urinalysis are within normal limits. She requests information regarding surgery for vaginal prolapse. Which of the following is the most appropriate statement regarding surgery for her cystocele? A) Surgery may worsen her Incontinence B) Surgery may increase urinary obstruction C) If she were to undergo prolapse surgery, no additional incontinence treatment is needed D) Surgery may cause defecation problems E) Surgery is optimal option for her at this time. Posted by Archer Red at 12:56 PM Links to this post

Reactions: Thursday, April 26, 2012 Question of the Week # 401 401) A 78 year old woman presents for annual health-maintenance examination. Her medical problems include Hypertension, Diabetes, Coronary artery disease and Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. During review of systems, she reports that she has been experiencing involuntary loss of urine upon coughing almost daily for few months. She has been too embarrassed to disclose it and so, has not mentioned it during previous visits. However, the problem has been limiting her social activities and she really would like to "do something about it". She denies any nocturia, frequency, hesitancy or urgency symptoms. Her medications include albuterol, ipratropium, glyburide, clopidogrel and losartan. She had a

myocardial infarction followed by coronary stent placement six months ago. On examination, vitals are stable. Pelvic examination reveals changes consistent with vaginal atrophy and presence of moderate cystocele. She has marked urinary leakage when she was asked to cough in lithotomy position. She has tried pelvic floor exercises and scheduled-voiding for past several weeks and has cut down on her coffee consumption however, these measures have not helped her much. Complete blood count, Plasma glucose, Serum electrolytes and Urinalysis are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation for this patient? A) Check Post-Void Residual volume B) Vaginal Estrogen C) Pessary D) Mid-Urethral Sling placement E) Oxybutynin Posted by Archer Red at 11:15 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Monday, April 23, 2012 Question of the Week # 400 400) A 28 year old woman with history of depression is brought to the emergency room by her friend after she purposefully took large number of acetaminophen tablets. Her friend can not estimate how many tablets she took but she says there were at least fifty extra strength tablets in the bottle and the bottle was found empty when she went to visit her. She last spoke with her 18 hours ago over the phone when she sounded very depressed. So, her friend reports she probably must have ingested these tablets at least 12 to 18 hrs ago. On examination, she is drowsy but arousable. Her liver function tests are within normal limits and an acetaminophen level is 15g/ml . Serum electrolytes, creatinine , prothrombin time and INR are within normal limits. Which of the following is the initial step in management A) Hemo-Dialysis B) Supportive care with strict monitoring of Liver function, Creatinine and INR C) Activated Charcoal D) N-Acetyl Cysteine E) Consult Liver Transplant expert Posted by Archer Red at 12:04 AM

Links to this post

Reactions: Sunday, April 22, 2012 Question of the Week # 399 399) A 65 year old man with history of diabetes mellitus is evaluated in your office during a routine follow-up visit. He does not have any complaints. He uses Glyburide and Metformin for his diabetes and Atorvastatin 80mg/day and Omega-3 Fatty Acids for his dyslipidemia. He is compliant with diet and exercise. His weight has been stable. He does not smoke or consume alcohol. His most recent HgbA1C was 6.0% and a fasting lipid panel a month ago showed Total cholesterol of 125 mg%, LDL-C 70mg%, Triglycerides 100mg% and HDL-C 35mg%. You discuss with him that his lipid panel meets the recommendations with regard to LDL cholesterol and Non-HDL cholesterol goals. However, he insists that he be treated for his low HDL-cholesterol. You offer adding Niacin but after he heard about it's side effects he refuses it and seeks alternatives. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation for him? A) Change Atorvastatin to Rosuvastatin B) Add Cholestyramine C) No further therapy D) Discontinue Omega-3 Fatty Acids E) Increase Atorvastatin Posted by Archer Red at 11:41 PM

Links to this post

Reactions:

Question of the Week # 398 398) A 45 year old man with well-controlled diabetes presents to your office with complaints of troublesome flushing of his face and trunk for the past one week. Frequently, the flushing is severe and causes stinging sensations. His past medical history is significant for dyslipidemia with an isolated low HDL cholesterol for which he was started on Niacin one week ago. On examination, his blood pressure is 120/88 mm Hg. His face and trunk have flushed appearance. Reminder of physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation for him at this time? A) Discontinue Niacin B) Take Niacin with food C) Diphenhydramine as needed D) Take Aspirin before Niacin E) Re-assure symptoms will bate in one week Posted by Archer Red at 11:26 PM Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 397 397) A 65 year old man with past medical history of Hypertension presents to your office to discuss his lipid profile results which were obtained two weeks ago. He takes Losartan for his high blood pressure and is compliant with 2gm sodium diet. He smoked about 1 pack per day for the past 35 years. On examination, his blood pressure is 140/88 mm Hg. Reminder of physical examination is unremarkable. His fasting lipid panel reveals Total cholesterol 220 mg%, LDL-C 150mg%, Triglycerides 150mg%, HDL-C 40mg%. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step? A) Diet and lifestyle modifications alone B) Diet, Lifestyle modification and Statin therapy C) No Intervention D) Omega 3 Fatty Acids E) Repeat Lipid Panel in 3 months Posted by Archer Red at 11:17 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 396 396) A 45 year old woman presents to your office for annual physical examination. She reports that she has had a fasting lipid panel done 6 months ago and her HDL - C was low at 25 mg%. She requests to be treated for this. She started healthy diet rich in fruits and vegetables. She used to smoke about 4 cigarettes/ day earlier but quit smoking after she came to know about her lipid results. She occasionally uses red wine in moderate amounts. She has also started aerobic exercises at least 3 days per week. Physical examination is unremarkable. A repeat lipid panel reveals Total cholesterol 128 mg%, LDL-C 80mg%, Triglycerides 100mg%, HDL-C 28mg%. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step? A) Fenofibrate B) Niacin C) Ezetemibe D) Atorvastatin E) Omega-3-Fatty Acids Posted by Archer Red at 11:01 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 395 395) A 65 year old man with history of Hypertension, Peripheral Artery disease and Dyslipidemia is seen during a follow-up office visit. His medications include Atorvastatin 80mg, Enalapril 20mg and Clopidogrel 75 mg/ day. He does not have any new complaints and tolerating his medications well. He still smokes about 1 pack per day despite repeated counselling however, he has been strictly compliant with low-fat diet. On examination, his vitals are stable. Lower extremity dorsalis pedis are slightly diminished bilaterally. Reminder of the examination is unremarkable. A fasting lipid profile obtained a week

ago showed : Total Cholesterol : 205 mg% LDL cholesterol (calculated) 90mg%, HDL - cholesterol 45 mg%, Triglycerides 350mg%. Liver function tests , Serum electrolytes, Creatinine and Complete blood count are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step? A) Add Fenofibrate B) Add Niacin C) Add Cholestyramine D) Change Atorvastatin to Rosuvastatin E) Increase the dose of Atorvastatin Posted by Archer Red at 10:46 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 394 394) A 36 year old woman with Type I diabetes mellitus presents to your office because she just learned that she is pregnant. She is excited and seeks your advise. Her home blood sugars are well controlled on a basal-bolus regimen of Glargine and Lispro insulin. Her other medications include Atorvastatin and aspirin. Her most recent HgbA1C was 6.0%. Her records also reveal that her most recent fasting lipid profile met the therapeutic goals at LDL of 80mg% and Non-HDL cholesterol of 100mg%. On examination, she is comfortable. Vitals are stable and reminder of the examination is unremarkable. An office based serum pregnancy test is positive. A repeat fasting lipid profile reveals Total Cholesterol : 250 mg% LDL cholesterol (calculated) 140mg%, HDL - cholesterol 40 mg%, Triglycerides 350mg%. Liver function tests , Serum electrolytes, Creatinine and Complete blood count are within normal limitsWhich of the following is the most appropriate next step? A) Therapeutic Abortion B) Add Niacin to her Lipid Regimen C) Discontinue Statin and Start Niacin D) Discontinue Statin and advise Diet modification alone E) Increase Atorvastatin Posted by Archer Red at 3:55 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 393 393) A 36 year old homeless man is evaluated in the Emergency Room for intermittent fever, cough, night sweats and weight-losss. He also reports having chronic cough with progressively increasing bloody expectoration for the past 1 month. He has lost about 10lbs weight over the past 3 months. He smokes 1 pack per day and has a history of intravenos drug abuse. On examination, he is cachectic. He is afebrile, Pulse is 84/min, Respiratory rate 18/min, Blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg, Oxygen saturation 98%. Reminder of the physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in managing this patient? A) Sputum samples for Acid Fast Bacilli B) Start Multi-drug therapy for Tuberculosis C) Obtain a Chest X-ray D) Tuberculin Skin test E) Air-Borne Isolation F) Test for HIV Posted by Archer Red at 12:53 AM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 392 392) A 28 year old woman presents with a history of amenorrhea of about 6 month duration. She does not have any breast discharge, visual deficits or headaches. Her home pregnancy test was negative a week ago. Her past medical history is

significant for three missed abortions for which she underwent dilatation and curettage. On examination, her vitals are stable. Body mass index is about 22 . Breast examination is normal with out any discharge. Serum pregnancy test is negative. A serum Thyroid Stimulating Hormone, Prolactin level and Follicle Stimulating Hormone level are within normal limit. A trial of medroxyprogesterone and a later trial of estrogen-progesterone combination fails to induce bleeding. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step? A) Anti-phospholipid Antibodies B) Hysteroscopy C) Dehydro-epiandrosterone level D) Pituitary MRI E) Ultrasound of Ovaries Posted by Archer Red at 12:12 AM

Links to this post

Reactions: Saturday, April 21, 2012 Question of the Week # 391 391) A 26 year old woman is seen in the outpatient clinic for amenorrhea of about 6 months. The patient ah d been on oral contraceptives but discontinued 6 months ago. She reports having regular menstrual cycles prior to starting oral contraceptives. She denies any excessive stress or physical activity. She does not have any breast discharge, visual deficits or headaches. presents to your office with complaints of change in her menstrual cycles. On examination, her vitals are stable. Body mass index is about 28 . Breast examination is normal with out any discharge. Pelvic exam is normal. Serum pregnancy test is negative. A serum Thyroid Stimulating Hormone, Prolactin level and Follicle Stimulating Hormone level are within normal limit. The patient is started on medroxyprogesterone acetate at 10 mg/ day for 10 days and experiences menstrual bleeding a week after stopping progesterone. This patient is at increased risk for which of the following conditions? A) Visual Deficits B) Endometrial Cancer C) Osteoporosis D) Pituitary Necrosis E) Vertebral Compression Fractures Posted by Archer Red at 11:21 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 390 390) A 28 year old woman has had amenorrhea for the past 4 months. She reports having regular menstrual cycles prior to these episodes. She is sexually active and a home pregnancy test was negative on two occasions over the last one week. She denies any excessive stress or physical activity. She has had headaches almost daily over the past three months. She denies any visual deficits. Her past medical history is significant for schizophrenia for which she is using risperdal for several years with good control of her disease. On examination, her vitals are stable. Body mass index is about 28 . There is milky discharge on breast examination. Pelvic exam is normal. Serum pregnancy test is negative. A serum prolactin level is 30mcg/ml (5 to 20 mcg/L). A serum Thyroid Stimulating Hormone and Follicle Stimulating Hormone level are within normal limit. An MRI of the brain reveals 10 cm lobulated mass in the anterior skull base. Which of the following is the initial step in evaluating this patient? A) Repeat Prolactin after Serum Dilution B) Discontinue Risperdal C) Trans-Sphenoidal Resection of the Tumor D) Pituitary Irradiation E) Bromocriptine Posted by Archer Red at 11:11 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 389 389) A 26 year old woman is seen in the outpatient clinic for amenorrhea of about 6 months. The patient ah d been on oral contraceptives but discontinued 6 months ago. She reports having regular menstrual cycles prior to starting oral contraceptives. She denies any excessive stress or physical activity. She does not have any breast discharge, visual deficits or headaches. presents to your office with complaints of change in her menstrual cycles. On examination, her vitals are stable. Body mass index is about 28 . Breast examination is normal with out any discharge. Pelvic exam is normal. Serum pregnancy test is negative. A serum Thyroid Stimulating Hormone, Prolactin level and Follicle Stimulating Hormone level are within normal limit. The patient is started on medroxyprogesterone acetate at 10 mg/ day for 10 days and experiences menstrual bleeding a week after stopping progesterone. Which of the following explains her amenorrhea? A) Past use of Oral Contraceptive Pills B) Uterine Adhesions C) Hypothalamic amenorrhea D) Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome E) Premature Ovarian Failire Posted by Archer Red at 10:43 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 388 388) A 58 year old man with history of severe depression is brought to the emergency room with altered mental status. He has been on treatment with amitryptyline for depression for many months. He is accompanied by his wife who reports that they had re-filled one month supply of amitryptyline a week ago but today she discovered an empty bottle at his bedside. He There is no history of fever, nausea, vomiting or diarrhea. There is no evidence of any witnessed seizure. On examination, he is disoriented and lethargic. He is afebrile, Pulse is 84/min, Respiratory rate 18/min, Blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg, Oxygen saturation 98%. He does not respond to verbal commands. Gag reflex is present. Respiratory examination is normal with out any wheezing, rhonchi or crepitations. Cardiac examination and abdominal exam is benign. Intravenous Naloxone and Thiamine were administered in the field without any response. An electrocardiogram is normal. Serum electrolytes and complete blood count, finger stick glucose and arterial blood gases are within normal limits. The patient is intubated and is placed on ventilator. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step? A) Activated Charcoal B) Procainamide C) Sodium Biacrbonate D) Lidocaine E) Amiodarone Posted by Archer Red at 2:18 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 387 387) A 56 year old man with history of depression and hypertension is brought to the Emergency Room by his sister for altered mental status. There is no history of fever, nausea, vomiting or diarrhea. There is no evidence of any witnessed seizure. She is not aware of what medications he takes. On examination, he is disoriented and lethargic. He is afebrile, Pulse is 84/min, Respiratory rate 18/min, Blood pressure 80/40 mm Hg, Oxygen saturation 98%. He does not respond to verbal commands. Gag reflex is present. Respiratory examination si normal with out any wheezing, rhonchi or crepitations. Cardiac examination and abdominal exam is benign. Intravenous Naloxone and Thiamine were administered in the field without any response. An electrocardiogram is normal. Serum electrolytes and complete blood count, finger stick glucose are within normal limits. Arterial blood gases does not show any acidemia. A urine drug screen reveals: Cocaine - Negative Amphetamines - Negatives Benzodiazepenes - Positive Opiates - Negative

Cannabis - Negative Tricyclic Anti-Depressants - positive A suction of his airway and central line are placed and he is started on intravenous fluids. His systolic blood pressure remains in 70 to 80 mm Hg range Which of the following is the most appropriate next step? A) Activated Charcoal B) Intravenous Flumazenil C) Serum Alkalinization D) Start Norepinephrine E) Intravenous Lidocaine Posted by Archer Red at 2:07 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 386 386) A 54 year old man presents to the emergency room with dizziness and intermittent palpitations for the past 12 hours. He denies any syncopal episodes or headache or seizures. He has no significant cardiac history. He was seen in the outpatient clinic one week ago for pneumonia and was started on Moxifloxacin. His other medical problems include hypertension for which he is on enalapril and Gastro-esophageal reflux disease for which he takes esomoprazole. Physical examination reveals regular heart sounds and no murmurs. Complete Blood Count and Serum electrolytes are within normal limits. An electrocardiogram is obtained and is shown below:

Which of the following is the most appropriate action at this time? A) Intravenous Magnesium sulfate B) Discontinue Moxifloxacin C) Discontinue Esomoprazole D) Transvenous Pacing E) Intravenous Isoproterenol Posted by Archer Red at 1:37 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 386 386) Question on USPTF AAA SCREENING Posted by Archer Red at 12:34 AM Links to this post

Reactions: Friday, April 20, 2012 Question of the Week # 385 385) A 74 year old man with advanced dementia is sent from nursing for evaluation of umbilical hernia. He is accompanied by his sister who thought that the bulge looked " ugly" and demanded that he be evaluated for surgery. The patient has been nursing home bound for the past four years. There is no history of nausea or vomiting. When fed, he eats normally. The patient is not oriented and is unable to give further history. He does not have living will or a power of attorney. On examination, his vitals are stable. He appears comfortable. Abdominal examination showed a palpable bulge in the umbilical area which is reducible. There is no erythema and the patient winces when pressure is applied. There is no rigidity. When tried to explain him about possible surgery, the patient does not comprehend. He is not oriented to place, person or time. Which of the following is the most appropriate action at this time? A) Do not consent for surgery B) Obtain Psychiatry evaluation for Capacity assessment C) Re-Evaluate his competence to make decisions D) Consent him for surgery E) Obtain Consent from his sister Posted by Archer Red at 11:46 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 384 384) A 55 year old airline pilot presents for a follow-up visit for hypertension. He was diagnosed with hypertension a year ago and has been on treatment with hydrochlorthiazide and lisinopril. He denies any chest pain, palpitations or shortness of breath on exertion. He has no other significant health issues. His Hemoglobin a1C about 6 months ago was 5.0% . A lipid profile obtained 3 months ago showed a total chlesterol of 270mg% with HDL cholesterol of 34mg%. He smokes about 1 pack per day but denies any drug or alcohol abuse. There is no family history of Diabetes or coronary artery disease or abdominal aorta aneurysm. On examination, his blood pressure is 138/74. Cardiac examination shows regular heart sound with no S3 gallop or S4. There are no audible murmurs. Abdominal examination is benign and there are no audible bruits. A complete blood count, comprehensive metabolic panel and urinalysis are unremarkable. A resting electrocardiogram shows changes consistent with left ventricular hypertrophy. He had a colonoscopy five years ago which was normal. Which of the following is indicated at this time? A) No additional Tests B) Exercise Stress Test C) Cardiac catheterization D) Abdominal Ultrasound for Aortic aneurysm E) Fecal Occult Blood Testing Posted by Archer Red at 11:30 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 383 383) A 38 year old african-american male nurse is evaluated in your office because his blood pressure was found to be elevated when the doctor Employee Health Center checked his blood pressure. He was checked in the Employee Health 3 months ago and at that time, his blood pressure was 146/94 mm Hg and a repeat reading by the same doctor was 148/92 mm Hg a month ago. He checked his blood pressure at home two times at his home and it was ranging between 120/76 to 124/82. He does not trust this doctor at his work place so, he decided to come and visit you. He denies any dizziness, chest pain, palpitations or shortness of breath. He does not smoke or does not drink alcohol. Several members in family have history of Hypertension. On examination, his blood pressure is 150/94. His Body Mass Index is 26kg/m2. Cardiac examination shows regular heart sounds. There are no audible murmurs. An electrocardiogram reveals

positive voltage criteria for left ventricular hypertrophy. A subsequent 2D-Echo reveals left ventricular hypertrophy with good ejection fraction at 60% and no valvular problems. Serum creatinine is 1.0mg% and Urinalysis is normal. A lipid profile has been ordered. Which of the following is the most appropriate investigation to be ordered next? A) Exercise Stress Test B) Ambulatory Blood Pressure Monitoring C) Hemoglobin A1C D) Plasma Metanephrines E) Captopril Renal Scan Posted by Archer Red at 10:47 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 382 382) A 36 year old Caucasian man presents for a pre-employment health physical. He denies any health problems in the past. He does not smoke or drink alcohol. He denies drug abuse. He enjoys good health and has no significant medical issues. He has no family history of Hypertension, Dyslipidemia, Diabetes or coronary artery disease. On examination, his blood pressure is 118/74. Body Mass Index is 24kg/m2. Cardiac examination shows regular heart sound with no S3 gallop or S4. There are no audible murmurs. Abdominal examination is benign and there are no audible bruits. A complete blood count, comprehensive metabolic panel, urinalysis and urine drug screen are unremarkable. Which of the following is indicated at this time? A) No additional Tests B) Serum Total Cholesterol and HDL - cholesterol C) Hemoglobin A1C D) Fasting Plasma Glucose E) Prostate Specific Antigen Posted by Archer Red at 10:06 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 381 381) A 32 year old Caucasian man is evaluated in your office for hypertension. He reports that he was first noted to have high blood pressure 6-months ago at which time the reading was 146/92 . At that time, he was asked to follow-up in the office however, he disregarded the advise. Recently, during a pre-employment check-up and again at a community health fair, he was noted to have high blood pressure above 150/90 . He denies any dizziness, chest pain, palpitations or shortness of breath. He does not smoke or does not drink alcohol. His mother was diagnosed with hypertension at 60 years of age and father has had hypertension since the age of 50. He On examination, his blood pressure is 154/98. Body Mass Index is 24kg/m2. Cardiac examination shows regular heart sound with no S3 gallop or S4. There are no audible murmurs. Abdominal examination is benign and there are no audible bruits. Femoral and radial pulses are normal with out any delay. Ophthalmological examination is normal An electrocardiogram is normal with no evidence of left ventricular hypertrophy. Serum creatinine is 1.0mg% and Urinalysis is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in evaluating his Hypertension? A) Renal Artery Magnetic Resonance Angiography B) 24 Hour Urinary Metanephrines C) Plasma Renin Activity- Aldosterone Ratio D) Ambulatory Blood Pressure monitoring E) No additional diagnostic work-up Posted by Archer Red at 9:54 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 379 & 380

379) A 38 year old man from India presents to out-patient clinic with complaints of abdominal pain and bloating. He also reports having intermittent diarrhea. His symptoms are worse upon eating and have progressively worsened over the past 6 months. He has lost about 6 lbs weight over the same period. He has come to visit his sister in the United States and she forced him to seek medical attention. Upon review of systems, he reports intermittent cough associated with mild shortness of breath and wheezing. His past medical history includes frequent episodes of sinus infections. On examination, he appears comfortable. Chest, Cardiac and Abdominal examination is benign. Chest X-ray is normal. Laboratory investigations are shown below: WBC : 9.0k/l Differential : Neutophils 42%, Lymphocytes 30%, Monocytes 8%, Eosinophils 18% Hemoglobin 13.5gm% Platelet count 280k/l HIV serology : Negative Stool for ova and parasites : Negative Liver function Tests: Normal Serum Creatinine : 1.0mg% Urinalysis : normal Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A) Chagas Disease B) Eosinophilic Gastroenteritis C) Churg Strauss Syndrome D) Wegener's Granulomatosis E) Tropical Pulmonary Eosinophilia ( Microfilariasis) 380) Which of the following is the most appropriate next step? A) Upper GI Endoscopy B) Pulmonary Function Tests C) Trypanosoma Cruzi Antibodies D) Di-ethyl carbazine therapy E) Anti-Proteinase -3 antibodies ( C-ANCA) Posted by Archer Red at 7:30 PM Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 378 378) A 34 year old caucasian woman comes for re-evaluation of her chronic epigastric pain and burning. She feels bloated and full even after eating small amounts of food. She denies any chest pain or shortness of breath. She failed several courses of treatment with h2-blockers and proton pump inhibitiors. She has had two endoscopies in the past which were normal, most recent endoscopy was three months ago. There was no evidence of gastric stasis on endoscopies after overnight fast. She was tested for H.pylori infection in the past and was negative. She denies dysphagia, weightloss, nausea, vomiting, dark colored stools or rectal bleeding. There is no family history of gastric malignancy. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. A ultrasound of the abdomen did not reveal any evidence of gall stones. Amylase and Lipase levels have been normal on several occassions. She has been anxious and unable to sleep at night. On examination, she is slightly under-weight for her age. Abdominal examination does not reveal any tenderness or palpable masses. Stool guaiac is negative. A complete blood count as well as comprehensive metabolic panel are normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step? A) Antidepressants B) Repeat Endoscopy

C) Recommend to take Antacid therapy as needed D) Scintigraphic gastric emptying study E) Observation Posted by Archer Red at 4:39 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 377 377) A 42 year old man with no significant past medical is evaluated in your office for complaints of burning epigastric pain in his abdomen for the past 2 months. The pain is worse after eating and it is worse at night. He denies any chest pain or shortness of breath. He takes over the counter antacids when the pain occurs and that seems to relieve the pain temporarily. He lives in New York City and has never traveled outside the United States. He denies dysphagia, weightloss, nausea, vomiting, dark colored stools or rectal bleeding. There is no family history of gastric malignancy. He does not smoke or drink alcohol. On examination, he is athletic. Abdominal examination does not reveal any tenderness or palpable masses. Stool guaiac is negative and complete blood count does not show any anemia. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step? A) Obtain Upper GI Endoscopy B) Obtain H.Pylori Serology by ELISA C) Start Empiric trial with Omeprazole D) Reassure because his dyspepsia is functional E) Obtain H.Pylori Stool Antigen Posted by Archer Red at 3:32 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 376 376) A 56 year old Hispanic man with no significant past medical history presents to community health center with complaints of burning pain in his abdomen and bloating for the past 2 months. The pain is more is more in the epigastric area and is worse after eating and it is worse at night. He denies any chest pain or shortness of breath. He takes over the counter antacids when the pain occurs and that seems to relieve the pain temporarily. He denies dysphagia, weightloss, nausea, vomiting, dark colored stools or rectal bleeding. There is no family history of gastric malignancy. He does not smoke or drink alcohol. On examination, he is well-built. Abdominal examination does not reveal any tenderness or palpable masses. Stool guaiac is negative and complete blood count does not show any anemia. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step? A) H.Pylori antibodies B) Trial of Proton Pump Inhibitors C) Empiric therapy for H.Pylori D) Ultrasound Gall Bladder E) Endoscopy Posted by Archer Red at 2:52 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Thursday, April 19, 2012 Question of the Week # 375 375) A 65 year old woman is evaluated in your office for weight-loss of 20lbs over the past 6 months. She thinks she has lost weight because she is scared of eating since food causes her to have significant abdominal pain. Pain is particularly worse when she takes a fatty meal and is associated with nausea and early satiety. She has a history of coronary artery disease for which she underwent percutaneous coronary intervention 2 years ago. She denies any chest pain, palpitations or irregular heart beat. She smoked 1 pack cigarettes per day for the past 40 years. On examination, her vitals are stable. Cardiac and abdominal examination are benign. Stool occult blood is negative. Which of the following is the most likely etiology of her symptoms? A) Mesenteric vein thrombosis

B) Mesenteric atherosclerosis C) Gastric Malignancy D) Cholelithiasis E) Mesenteric arterial thrombosis Posted by Archer Red at 10:04 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 373 and 374 373) A 70 year old woman presents to the emergency room with complaints of abdominal pain for the past one day. The pain is in in lower abdomen and is mild to moderate. It has started suddenly and is persistent. She also reports having had two episodes of loose and bloody stools this morning. Her past medical history is significant for coronary artery disease, hypertension and chronic kidney disease. On examination, she is afebrile, blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg, pulse 90/min and respiratory rate 18/min. Cardiac examination reveals normal and regular heart sounds without murmurs. There is tenderness in the left lower quadrant of the abdomen. There is no rebound tenderness or rigidity. The patient is started on intravenous fluids. Stool studies reveal blood but no leukocytes. Clostridium difficle toxin is negative. Stool cultures are sent. Complete blood count shows White blood cell count at 20,000/l with left shift. She is started on IV hydration. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A) Mesenteric Infarction B) Acute Diverticulitis C) Acute Mesenteric Ischemia D) Ischemic Colitis E) Inflammatory Bowel Disease 374) The patient in the above question undergoes appropriate diagnostic work up and the diagnosis is confirmed. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management ? A) Broad spectrum antibiotics B) Mesenteric angiography C) Obtain Surgery Consult D) Percutaneous Transluminal Angioplasty and Mestenteric stent E) Start Methylprednisolone and Mesalmaine Posted by Archer Red at 9:31 PM Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 372 371) A 65 year old man presents to the Emergency room with complaints of severe abdominal pain that began 30 minutes ago while at rest. He reports diffuse pain that all over his abdomen, the lower back as well as in the flanks. His past medical history is significant for diabetes mellitus and peripheral vascular disease. He denies any abdominal trauma. He smokes about 1 pack cigarettes per day . On examination, he is in severe distress secondary to pain. He is afebrile, blood pressure is 80/40 mm Hg, pulse 120/min and respiratory rate 24/min. Abdomen is mildly distended with mild tenderness and a palpable pulsatile mass. Femoral and dorsalis pedis pulses are diminished. An electrocardiogram reveals sinus tachycardia. The patient is started on intravenous fluids and is placed on a cardiac monitor. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step? A) CT scan of the abdomen B) Exploratory laporotomy C) Cardiac enzymes D) Focused Abdominal Sonography in Trauma ( FAST) E) Start Insulin Drip.

Posted by Archer Red at 7:41 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 371 371) A 45 year caucasian man is evaluated in your office prior to surgery for refractory heartburn symptoms. He was diagnosed with Gastro-esophageal reflux disease 2 years ago. Initially, his disease was mild and was responsive to over the counter antacids. He was started on PPI ( proton pump inhibitor trial 6 months ago and has not responded. He switched physicians and tried different brands of proton pump inhibitors with no benefit. An endoscopy was performed a year ago and repeat endoscopy 3 months ago revealed erosions and inflammations consistent with reflux esophagitis with out any background of barrett's esophagus. The patient is scheduled for fundoplication surgery and is here for pre-operative evaluation. Which of the following should be performed at this time ? A) 24 hour esophageal pH monitoring B) Barium esophagogram C) Esophageal motility studies D) No additional tests needed , clear patient for surgery E) H.Pylori Urea Breath Test Posted by Archer Red at 6:03 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Monday, April 16, 2012 Question of the Week # 370 370) A 47 year old woman presents to your office with complaints of change in her menstrual cycles. Lately, she has had very irregular periods and sometimes, they have been heavy. She reports her cycles have been irregular for past 8 months. Her most recent period was two weeks ago and was much heavier than usual. She also has started experiencing hot flashes. She is not on oral contraceptive pills. She does not smoke or use alcohol. She has no other past medical problems and otherwise, feels healthy. Her family history is unremarkable. Physical examination including pelvic examination is unremarkable. A urine pregnancy test and Thyroid stimulating hormone are within normal limits. Urinalysis is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management? A) Reassure that she is menopausal transition and observe B) Obtain Serum FSH level C) Start Oral Contraceptive Pills D) Endometrial Biopsy E) Oral Progestin Posted by Archer Red at 11:04 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 370 370) A 47 year old woman presents to your office with complaints of change in her menstrual cycles. Lately, she has had very irregular periods and sometimes, they have been heavy. She reports her cycles have been irregular for past 8 months. Her most recent period was two weeks ago and was much heavier than usual. She also has started experiencing hot flashes. She is not on oral contraceptive pills. She does not smoke or use alcohol. She has no other past medical problems and otherwise, feels healthy. Her family history is unremarkable. Physical examination including pelvic examination is unremarkable. A urine pregnancy test and Thyroid stimulating hormone are within normal limits. Urinalysis is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management? A) Reassure that she is menopausal transition and observe B) Obtain Serum FSH level C) Start Oral Contraceptive Pills D) Endometrial Biopsy E) Oral Progestin

Posted by Archer Red at 11:04 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 369 369) A 56 year old post-menopausal woman presents to your office for evaluation of occasional vaginal spotting for past two weeks. She has not had a menstrual period for the past five years. She has never taken hormone replacement therapy. She denies any fever or dysuria. She is sexually active and enjoys it. Her bleeding is unrelated to sexual activity. She has no other past medical problems and otherwise, feels healthy. Physical examination is unremarkable. A transvaginal ultrasound reveals endometrial stripe thickness of 3mm. She is reassured and sent home. Two months later she is reevaluated in your office for persistent vaginal spotting that has not resolved. She has seen another primary care physician a week ago for a second opinion because she was concerned. He repeated a transvaginal ultrasound which showed endometrial stripe thickness unchanged at 3 mm. Which of the following is the most appropriate management recommendation? A) A trial of vaginal estrogen B) Reassure and Observe C) Vaginal pH testing D) Oral Progestin Trial E) Endometrial Biopsy Posted by Archer Red at 10:55 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 369 369) A 56 year old post-menopausal woman presents to your office for evaluation of occasional vaginal spotting for past two weeks. She has not had a menstrual period for the past five years. She has never taken hormone replacement therapy. She denies any fever or dysuria. She is sexually active and enjoys it. Her bleeding is unrelated to sexual activity. She has no other past medical problems and otherwise, feels healthy. Physical examination is unremarkable. A transvaginal ultrasound reveals endometrial stripe thickness of 3mm. She is reassured and sent home. Two months later she is reevaluated in your office for persistent vaginal spotting that has not resolved. She has seen another primary care physician a week ago for a second opinion because she was concerned. He repeated a transvaginal ultrasound which showed endometrial stripe thickness unchanged at 3 mm. Which of the following is the most appropriate management recommendation? A) A trial of vaginal estrogen B) Reassure and Observe C) Vaginal pH testing D) Oral Progestin Trial E) Endometrial Biopsy Posted by Archer Red at 10:55 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 368 368) A 58 year old post-menopausal woman presents to your office with intermittent vaginal bleeding for the past 1 month. She has not had a menstrual period for the past six years. She has never taken hormone replacement therapy. She reports burning and irritation upon sexual intercourse. She denies any fever or dysuria. She has no other past medical problems and otherwise, feels healthy. On pelvic examination, vaginal epithelium is smooth, dry and shiny with complete loss of rugae. There are no obvious masses or polyps. Vaginal pH is 6.5 . Urinalysis is normal and is negative for nitrite or leucoesterase. A transvaginal ultrasound reveals endometrial stripe thickness of 2mm. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? A) Endometrial biopsy B) Vaginal Estrogen Cream C) Vaginal Lubricant Cream

D) Oral Estradiol E) Check serum estradiol levels Posted by Archer Red at 10:44 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 368 368) A 58 year old post-menopausal woman presents to your office with intermittent vaginal bleeding for the past 1 month. She has not had a menstrual period for the past six years. She has never taken hormone replacement therapy. She reports burning and irritation upon sexual intercourse. She denies any fever or dysuria. She has no other past medical problems and otherwise, feels healthy. On pelvic examination, vaginal epithelium is smooth, dry and shiny with complete loss of rugae. There are no obvious masses or polyps. Vaginal pH is 6.5 . Urinalysis is normal and is negative for nitrite or leucoesterase. A transvaginal ultrasound reveals endometrial stripe thickness of 2mm. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? A) Endometrial biopsy B) Vaginal Estrogen Cream C) Vaginal Lubricant Cream D) Oral Estradiol E) Check serum estradiol levels Posted by Archer Red at 10:44 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 367 367) A 62 year old woman presents to your office with complaints of vaginal spotting for the past three months. Occasionally, she also had vaginal bleeding. She is concerned with this new development because she has not has not had a menstrual period for the past ten years. She has never taken hormone replacement therapy. She also reports burning and irritation upon sexual intercourse. She denies any fever or dysuria. She has no other past medical problems and otherwise, feels healthy. On pelvic examination, vaginal epithelium is smooth, dry and shiny with complete loss of rugae. There are no obvious masses or polyps. Vaginal pH is 6.5 . Urinalysis is normal and is negative for nitrite or leucoesterase. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? A) Endometrial biopsy B) Vaginal Estrogen Cream C) Vaginal Lubricant Cream D) Oral Estradiol E) Check serum estradiol levels Posted by Archer Red at 10:41 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 367 367) A 62 year old woman presents to your office with complaints of vaginal spotting for the past three months. Occasionally, she also had vaginal bleeding. She is concerned with this new development because she has not has not had a menstrual period for the past ten years. She has never taken hormone replacement therapy. She also reports burning and irritation upon sexual intercourse. She denies any fever or dysuria. She has no other past medical problems and otherwise, feels healthy. On pelvic examination, vaginal epithelium is smooth, dry and shiny with complete loss of rugae. There are no obvious masses or polyps. Vaginal pH is 6.5 . Urinalysis is normal and is negative for nitrite or leucoesterase. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? A) Endometrial biopsy B) Vaginal Estrogen Cream C) Vaginal Lubricant Cream D) Oral Estradiol

E) Check serum estradiol levels Posted by Archer Red at 10:41 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 366 366) A 59 year old woman is evaluated in your office for vaginal bleeding. The patient has not had a menstrual period for the past eight years. She has never taken hormone replacement therapy. Over the past 6 months she has had several episodes of spotting. The bleeding is more pronounced after sexual activity. Physical examination including pelvic examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most common cause of post-menopausal bleeding? A) Endometrial Carcinoma B) Endometrial Hyperplasia C) Cervical polyps D) Vaginal Atrophy E) Fibroids Posted by Archer Red at 10:05 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 366 366) A 59 year old woman is evaluated in your office for vaginal bleeding. The patient has not had a menstrual period for the past eight years. She has never taken hormone replacement therapy. Over the past 6 months she has had several episodes of spotting. The bleeding is more pronounced after sexual activity. Physical examination including pelvic examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most common cause of post-menopausal bleeding? A) Endometrial Carcinoma B) Endometrial Hyperplasia C) Cervical polyps D) Vaginal Atrophy E) Fibroids Posted by Archer Red at 10:05 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 365 365) A 26 year old woman presents to the outpatient gynecology clinic with complaints of for intermittent vaginal bleeding. She has started Combination oral contraceptive pills 3 months ago. Initially, she had spotting in the first month after starting OC pills however, she now has frank bleeding for past 4 weeks. Her scheduled menstrual period usually, occurs during the pill free period of the month. She denies any dysuria , fever, vaginal discharge or post-coital bleeding. She smoked about 1 pack per day for the past eight years. She denies alcohol or drug use. Physical examination including pelvic examination is unremarkable. There is no vaginal discharge or adnexal tenderness. A urine pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the first step in managing this patient's intermenstrual bleeding? A) Observation B) Smoking Cessation C) Pelvic ultrasound D) Increase Estrogen component of the pill E) Change the progesterone component to Levonorgestrel Posted by Archer Red at 8:59 PM Links to this post

Reactions:

Question of the Week # 365 365) A 26 year old woman presents to the outpatient gynecology clinic with complaints of for intermittent vaginal bleeding. She has started Combination oral contraceptive pills 3 months ago. Initially, she had spotting in the first month after starting OC pills however, she now has frank bleeding for past 4 weeks. Her scheduled menstrual period usually, occurs during the pill free period of the month. She denies any dysuria , fever, vaginal discharge or post-coital bleeding. She smoked about 1 pack per day for the past eight years. She denies alcohol or drug use. Physical examination including pelvic examination is unremarkable. There is no vaginal discharge or adnexal tenderness. A urine pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the first step in managing this patient's intermenstrual bleeding? A) Observation B) Smoking Cessation C) Pelvic ultrasound D) Increase Estrogen component of the pill E) Change the progesterone component to Levonorgestrel Posted by Archer Red at 8:59 PM Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 364 364) A 28 year old woman seeks your advice regarding an effective contraception method. She is sexually active with her long term boy-friend. He has been using condoms however, he prefers not to use them on a regular basis . She tells you that she does not want to consider an Intra-Uterine Device Her past medical history is significant for Gastro-esophageal reflux disease and well- controlled Epilepsy. Her medications include omeprazole and carbamazepine. She does not smoke. On examination, she is age appropriate with normal vitals. Physical examination including pelvic examination is normal. Which of the following contraceptive methods is most appropriate for this patient? A) Continuous Combination Oral Contraceptive Pills B) Cyclical Combination Oral Contraceptive Pills C) Diaphragm with Spermicides D) Estrogen-Progesterone vaginal ring ( Nuva-Ring) E) Depot Medroxy Progesterone Posted by Archer Red at 8:49 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 364 364) A 28 year old woman seeks your advice regarding an effective contraception method. She is sexually active with her long term boy-friend. He has been using condoms however, he prefers not to use them on a regular basis . She tells you that she does not want to consider an Intra-Uterine Device Her past medical history is significant for Gastro-esophageal reflux disease and well- controlled Epilepsy. Her medications include omeprazole and carbamazepine. She does not smoke. On examination, she is age appropriate with normal vitals. Physical examination including pelvic examination is normal. Which of the following contraceptive methods is most appropriate for this patient? A) Continuous Combination Oral Contraceptive Pills B) Cyclical Combination Oral Contraceptive Pills C) Diaphragm with Spermicides D) Estrogen-Progesterone vaginal ring ( Nuva-Ring) E) Depot Medroxy Progesterone Posted by Archer Red at 8:49 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 363 363) A 25 year old woman presents to your office with complaints of inter-menstrual vaginal bleeding for the past one month. She is sexually active. She never used barrier methods for contraception but she has been on cyclical combination

oral contraceptive pills ( Ethinyl estradiol + Levonorgestrol) for the past 3 months. She denies any fever or vaginal discharge or dysuria or pain. Her menstrual periods occur as scheduled every month during the pill free period however, she also has been experiencing inter-menstrual bleeding only for the past one month and sometimes, more after sexual activity. She never had irregular bleeding in the past and her scheduled periods have always been regular and on time. She denies smoking , alcohol or drug use. Upon physical examination, she is afebrile. There is no obvious vaginal discharge. When gentle endocervical swabbing is attempted, bleeding from endocervix is noted. On bimanual examination, she has no adnexal tenderness. A urine pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate first management option? A) Reassure that this is OC Pill related bleeding and will abate. B) Test for N. gonorrhoeae and C. trachomatis C) Increase the dose of Ethinyl Estradiol D) Empiric antibiotic therapy for Gonorrhea and Chlamydia E) Discontinue OC pills Posted by Archer Red at 8:11 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 363 363) A 25 year old woman presents to your office with complaints of inter-menstrual vaginal bleeding for the past one month. She is sexually active. She never used barrier methods for contraception but she has been on cyclical combination oral contraceptive pills ( Ethinyl estradiol + Levonorgestrol) for the past 3 months. She denies any fever or vaginal discharge or dysuria or pain. Her menstrual periods occur as scheduled every month during the pill free period however, she also has been experiencing inter-menstrual bleeding only for the past one month and sometimes, more after sexual activity. She never had irregular bleeding in the past and her scheduled periods have always been regular and on time. She denies smoking , alcohol or drug use. Upon physical examination, she is afebrile. There is no obvious vaginal discharge. When gentle endocervical swabbing is attempted, bleeding from endocervix is noted. On bimanual examination, she has no adnexal tenderness. A urine pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate first management option? A) Reassure that this is OC Pill related bleeding and will abate. B) Test for N. gonorrhoeae and C. trachomatis C) Increase the dose of Ethinyl Estradiol D) Empiric antibiotic therapy for Gonorrhea and Chlamydia E) Discontinue OC pills Posted by Archer Red at 8:11 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 362 362) A 26 year old woman presents to your office with complaints of intermittent vaginal bleeding after she started using oral contraceptive pills 1 month ago. She uses continuous oral contraceptive pill combination of ethinyl estradiol and norethindrone. She reports her bleeding is troublesome and interferes with activity. Because of the bleeding, she is considering discontinuing the oral pills but her partner does not want to use barrier methods of contraception. She is distressed and seeks some remedy to address this issue. She never had irregular bleeding in the past and her scheduled periods have always been regular and on time. Her bleeding is unrelated to sexual activity and is not associated with pain. She denies any dysuria, fever or vaginal discharge. She denies smoking or alcohol use. Physical examination including pelvic examination is unremarkable. There is no vaginal discharge or adnexal tenderness. A urine pregnancy test is negative and serum thyroid stimulating hormone as well as prolactin level are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate management option? A) Observation B) Stop the pills for 3 days and then resume at least 21 days C) Pelvic ultrasound D) Discontinue Oral Contraceptive pills E) Vaginal fluid Nucleic Acid Test for Chlamydia Trachomatis

Posted by Archer Red at 7:39 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 362 362) A 26 year old woman presents to your office with complaints of intermittent vaginal bleeding after she started using oral contraceptive pills 1 month ago. She uses continuous oral contraceptive pill combination of ethinyl estradiol and norethindrone. She reports her bleeding is troublesome and interferes with activity. Because of the bleeding, she is considering discontinuing the oral pills but her partner does not want to use barrier methods of contraception. She is distressed and seeks some remedy to address this issue. She never had irregular bleeding in the past and her scheduled periods have always been regular and on time. Her bleeding is unrelated to sexual activity and is not associated with pain. She denies any dysuria, fever or vaginal discharge. She denies smoking or alcohol use. Physical examination including pelvic examination is unremarkable. There is no vaginal discharge or adnexal tenderness. A urine pregnancy test is negative and serum thyroid stimulating hormone as well as prolactin level are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate management option? A) Observation B) Stop the pills for 3 days and then resume at least 21 days C) Pelvic ultrasound D) Discontinue Oral Contraceptive pills E) Vaginal fluid Nucleic Acid Test for Chlamydia Trachomatis Posted by Archer Red at 7:39 PM Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 361 361) A 22 year old woman is seen in the outpatient clinic for intermittent vaginal bleeding. For the past two months, she has had spotting and occasionally, frank bleeding even before her scheduled menstrual period. It is unrelated to sexual activity and is not associated with pain. She denies any dysuria or fever. She is sexually active with her fiancee and she reports taking cyclical combined oral contraceptive pills ( OC pills) for the past 2 months. She has been following the exact directions regarding the use of oral contraceptive pills and her scheduled period occurs during the contraceptive free interval however, this unscheduled spotting and bleeding is bothering her. She denies smoking or alcohol use. Physical examination including pelvic examination is unremarkable. There is no vaginal discharge or adnexal tenderness. A urine pregnancy test is negative and serum thyroid stimulating hormone as well as prolactin level are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate management option? A) Pelvic ultrasound B) Reassure and counsel on consistent OC pill use C) Increase estrogen component of the pills D) Switch to continuous combined OC pill regimen E) Discontinue Oral Contraceptive pills Posted by Archer Red at 1:58 PM Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 361 361) A 22 year old woman is seen in the outpatient clinic for intermittent vaginal bleeding. For the past two months, she has had spotting and occasionally, frank bleeding even before her scheduled menstrual period. It is unrelated to sexual activity and is not associated with pain. She denies any dysuria or fever. She is sexually active with her fiancee and she reports taking cyclical combined oral contraceptive pills ( OC pills) for the past 2 months. She has been following the exact directions regarding the use of oral contraceptive pills and her scheduled period occurs during the contraceptive free interval however, this unscheduled spotting and bleeding is bothering her. She denies smoking or alcohol use. Physical examination including pelvic examination is unremarkable. There is no vaginal discharge or adnexal tenderness. A urine pregnancy test is negative and serum thyroid stimulating hormone as well as prolactin level are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate management option? A) Pelvic ultrasound B) Reassure and counsel on consistent OC pill use

C) Increase estrogen component of the pills D) Switch to continuous combined OC pill regimen E) Discontinue Oral Contraceptive pills Posted by Archer Red at 1:58 PM Links to this post

Reactions: Archer USMLE Step 2 Clinical Skills http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=mdO9LrTCLwI USMLE Step 2 Clinical Skills Video course

Visit USMLE Step 2 Clinical Skills Posted by Archer Red at 1:24 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Archer USMLE Step 2 Clinical Skills http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=mdO9LrTCLwI USMLE Step 2 Clinical Skills Video course

Visit USMLE Step 2 Clinical Skills Posted by Archer Red at 1:24 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Sunday, April 15, 2012 Question of the Week # 360 360) A 30 year old woman presents to your office accompanied by her husband. She is concerned about her inability to conceive despite having regular intercourse for the past six months. Her menstrual cycles have always been regular and she has not been using oral contraceptives for the past 10 months. She denies any cold or heat intolerance. She has no other complaints. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. On examination, she is age-appropriate. Pelvic examination is benign. A urine pregnancy test is negative. You counsel the couple and advise them on continuing regular sexual intercourse. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step? A) Semen analysis B) Re-evaluate in 6 months C) Obtain luteal-phase progesterone level D) Serum FSH level E) Hysterosalpingography Posted by Archer Red at 10:04 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 360 360) A 30 year old woman presents to your office accompanied by her husband. She is concerned about her inability to conceive despite having regular intercourse for the past six months. Her menstrual cycles have always been regular and she has not been using oral contraceptives for the past 10 months. She denies any cold or heat intolerance. She has no other complaints. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. On examination, she is age-appropriate. Pelvic examination is benign. A urine pregnancy test is negative. You counsel the couple and advise them on continuing regular sexual intercourse. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

A) Semen analysis B) Re-evaluate in 6 months C) Obtain luteal-phase progesterone level D) Serum FSH level E) Hysterosalpingography Posted by Archer Red at 10:04 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 359 359) A 50 year old woman with history of Diabetes Mellitus presents to your office with complaining of discomfort in her both legs for past few months. She describes unpleasant sensations as well as abnormal sensations such as including tingling, creeping and itching sensations deep in her legs while sitting. Walking a few steps relieves her symptoms. She denies any pain in the legs upon walking or at rest. Physical examination reveals slightly diminished pulses in bilateral lower extremities. Which of the following is the first step in managing her symptoms? A) Nerve Conduction Studies B) Cilostozol C) Dopamine Agonists D) Obtain Serum ferritin E) Gabapentin Posted by Archer Red at 9:02 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 359 359) A 50 year old woman with history of Diabetes Mellitus presents to your office with complaining of discomfort in her both legs for past few months. She describes unpleasant sensations as well as abnormal sensations such as including tingling, creeping and itching sensations deep in her legs while sitting. Walking a few steps relieves her symptoms. She denies any pain in the legs upon walking or at rest. Physical examination reveals slightly diminished pulses in bilateral lower extremities. Which of the following is the first step in managing her symptoms? A) Nerve Conduction Studies B) Cilostozol C) Dopamine Agonists D) Obtain Serum ferritin E) Gabapentin Posted by Archer Red at 9:02 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 358 358) A 36 year old man presents to your office for an annual health examination. During review of systems, he reports feeling excessively sleepy during the day and forgetful at work. He states no matter how much he slept, it does not make him feel rested in the morning. He denies snoring at night. He is athletic and maintains his body weight in a healthy range. He denies alcohol consumption, smoking or excessive caffeine use. His girlfriend reports that he abruptly moves his legs often during the night and that disturbs her as well. She has noticed him flexing his leg and extending his great toe repeatedly. The patient is not aware of this and he denies any pain or discomfort in his legs. Physical examination is unremarkable. Laboratory investigations including complete blood count, serum creatinine, electrolytes and a thyroid stimulating hormone are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A) Complex Partial Seizures B) Restless leg syndrome

C) Nocturnal Leg Cramps D) Myoclonus E) Periodic Limb Movement Disorder F) Sleep Apnea Posted by Archer Red at 5:12 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 358 358) A 36 year old man presents to your office for an annual health examination. During review of systems, he reports feeling excessively sleepy during the day and forgetful at work. He states no matter how much he slept, it does not make him feel rested in the morning. He denies snoring at night. He is athletic and maintains his body weight in a healthy range. He denies alcohol consumption, smoking or excessive caffeine use. His girlfriend reports that he abruptly moves his legs often during the night and that disturbs her as well. She has noticed him flexing his leg and extending his great toe repeatedly. The patient is not aware of this and he denies any pain or discomfort in his legs. Physical examination is unremarkable. Laboratory investigations including complete blood count, serum creatinine, electrolytes and a thyroid stimulating hormone are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A) Complex Partial Seizures B) Restless leg syndrome C) Nocturnal Leg Cramps D) Myoclonus E) Periodic Limb Movement Disorder F) Sleep Apnea Posted by Archer Red at 5:12 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 357 357) A 52 year old man is seen in your office for pain in his legs that bothers him during sleep. He describes these episodes as aching and painful tightness particularly, in his posterior calves. The pain is relieved by forcefully stretching his leg muscles in opposite direction. He experiences these at least for about 2 to 3 nights per week and interferes with his sleep. He works as a coach for the local high-school soccer team and is physically very active. He has no other past medical problems and enjoys healthy living. On examination, his blood pressure is 122/80. Oral mucosa re moist. There are no focal neuroligical deficits. Extremities appear normal with out any deformity, swelling or palpable tenderness. Peripheral pulses are normal. Serum electrolytes, Calcium, magnesium , a complete blood count, thyroid stimulating hormone and blood glucose are all within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in managing his problem? A) Start Ropinirole B) Start Bromocriptine C) Recommend non-pharmacological measures D) Quinine Trial E) Oral Iron Trial Posted by Archer Red at 2:45 PM

Links to this post

Reactions: Question of the Week # 357 357) A 52 year old man is seen in your office for pain in his legs that bothers him during sleep. He describes these episodes as aching and painful tightness particularly, in his posterior calves. The pain is relieved by forcefully stretching his leg muscles in opposite direction. He experiences these at least for about 2 to 3 nights per week and interferes with his sleep. He works as a coach for the local high-school soccer team and is physically very active. He has no other past medical problems and enjoys healthy living. On examination, his blood pressure is 122/80. Oral mucosa re moist. There are no focal neuroligical deficits. Extremities appear normal with out any deformity, swelling or palpable tenderness. Peripheral pulses are normal. Serum electrolytes, Calcium, magnesium , a complete blood count, thyroid stimulating hormone and blood

glucose are all within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in managing his problem? A) Start Ropinirole B) Start Bromocriptine C) Recommend non-pharmacological measures D) Quinine Trial E) Oral Iron Trial