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Online Mock CAT 8 - Unproctored


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OnIine Mock CAT 8 - Unproctored
Answers and ExpIanations
1 3 2 2 3 1 4 1 5 1 6 5 7 2 8 1 9 1 10 5
11 4 12 3 13 5 14 2 15 5 16 2 17 1 18 5 19 1 20 3
21 2 22 4 23 3 24 4 25 3 26 4 27 4 28 5 29 2 30 1
31 1 32 3 33 1 34 2 35 5 36 4 37 2 38 4 39 5 40 3
41 4 42 5 43 2 44 2 45 2 46 3 47 5 48 4 49 5 50 4
51 3 52 2 53 1 54 3 55 4 56 1 57 3 58 3 59 2 60 5
61 3 62 5 63 2 64 2 65 5 66 2 67 5 68 4 69 2 70 1
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1. 3 Since, W was not the third product that was launched,
therefore it was not launched in May or March.
Also, X and W were launched in months that have names
starting from the same alphabet; therefore X and W are
launched in January and June not necessarily in that order.
Using statement A:
Given that Y was not the second or the last product that was
launched, which means that Y was not launched in the months
of March and August.
So, Y was launched in May.
It is given that Z was not launched in the last month, i.e.
August, so we can conclude that Z was launched in the
month of March.
Hence, statement A alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Using statement B:
Given that K was not the third or the last product that was
launched, which means that K was not launched in the months
of May and August.
So, K was launched in March.
We also, know that Z was not launched in August, so we can
conclude that Z was launched in the month of May.
Hence, statement B alone is also sufficient to answer the
question.
Therefore, option (3) is the correct choice.
2. 2 Let the number of dogs, cats and rabbits be d, c and r
respectively.
It is also given that d + c + r = 12 and .
The possible sets of values of d, c and r not necessarily in
that particular order are (2, 4, 6); (2, 5, 5); (3, 4, 5); (3, 3, 6)
and (4, 4, 4).
Using statement A:
The number of cats and dogs with Carol could be
(5, 5) or (3, 3) or (4, 4).
The number of rabbits when the number of dogs is
5, 3 and 4 is 2, 6 and 4 respectively.
It is also given that the number of rabbits is not more than the
number of dogs, so the number of rabbits could be either 2 or
4.
Hence, statement A alone is not sufficient to answer the
question.
Using Statement B:
The number of cats and dogs with Carol could be
(5, 2) or (6, 3) in this particular order.
The number of rabbits with Carol when there are
5 cats is 5 and the number of rabbits with Carol when there
are 6 cats is 3.
Since the number of rabbits with Carol is less than the number
of cats, therefore the number of rabbits with Carol is 3.
Hence, statement B alone is sufficient to answer the question.
3. 1 Using statement A:
Given that the angular distance covered by the line segment
AB in every 5 seconds is 615.
Therefore, the angular distance covered by the line segment
AB in 30 seconds = 615 6 = 3690
= 10 360+ 90.
Therefore, we can conclude that at time t = 30 seconds the
line segment AB will lie in the second quadrant.
Hence, statement A alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Using statement B:
Given that the angular distance covered by the line segment
AB in every 10 seconds is 640.
Therefore, the angular distance covered by the line segment
AB in 30 seconds = 640 3 = 1920
= 5 360+ 120.
Therefore, we cannot conclude that at time t = 30 seconds
the line segment AB will lie in which of the four quadrants.
Hence, statement B alone is not sufficient to answer the
question.
Hence, option (1) is the correct choice.
4. 1 From the given function we get the values of f(x) as
2 3 4
, , for x = 2, 3 ,4
4 8 16

Let S = f(1) + f(2) + f(3) + .... .

1 2 3 4
S = + + + + + infinite terms
2 4 8 16

...(i)

S 1 2 3
= + + + + infinite terms
2 4 8 16

...(ii)
Subtracting equation (ii) from (i), we get
S 1 1 1 1
= + + + + + infinite terms
2 2 4 8 16

1
2
= 1
1
1
2



=



S = 2.
5. 1 The sum of digits of the four-digit number can be even in the
following cases.
Case I: All the four digit selected are odd
Four digits out of five odd digits (1, 3, 5, 7, 9) can be selected
in
5
C
4
= 5 ways.
These 4 digits can arrange among themselves in 4! ways
Total ways = 5 4! = 120 ways.
Case II: All the four digit selected are non-odd
There can be two sub cases:
(a) All four digits are (2, 4, 6, 8)
The number of ways 4 digit number can be formed
= 4! = 24 ways.
(b) One of the digit is zero and the three digits are selected out
of (2, 4, 6, 8) in
4
C
3
ways.
A four-digit number in which one-digit is zero can be formed in
3 3 2 1 ways.
Total ways =
4
C
3
3 3 2 1 = 72 ways.
Case III: Two digits are non-odd and the other two
digits are odd.
There can be two sub cases:
(a) Two odd digits are out of (1, 3, 5, 7, 9) and two even digits
are out of (2, 4, 6, 8)
These four digits can be arranged in 4! ways.
Total ways =
5
C
2

4
C
2
4! = 1440
(b) Two digits are out of (1, 3, 5, 7, 9), one digit is zero and one
digit is out of (2, 4, 6, 8)
Total ways =
5
C
2

4
C
1
3 3 2 1

= 720
Total number of all such four-digit numbers
= 120 + 24 + 72 + 1440 + 720 = 2376.
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6. 5 Factorizing the numbers:
120 = 2
3
3
1
5
1
1320 = 120 11 = 2
3
3
1
5
1
11
X definitely has to be a multiple of 11 but it cannot be a
perfect square as X cannot contain (11
2
)
1680 = 120 2 7 = 2
4
3
1
5
1
7
1
Y should be multiple of 2
4
7
1
but it cannot be a perfect
square as Y cannot contain 7
2
.
1800 = 120 3 5 = 2
3
3
2
5
2
.
Since the LCM of 120 and Z is 1800, therefore Z can be a
perfect square. One of the possible values of Z can be 3
2
5
2
.
But it is not necessary that Z has to be perfect square as it
can be 2 3
2
5
2
also.
Hence, option (5) is the correct choice.
7. 2 The given equation is ab + 2 = 2a + b + 600.
ab 2a b + 2 = 600 (a 1)(b 2) = 600
Now, it is given that a is an odd number and b is an even
number which implies that both (a 1) and (b 2) are even
numbers.
Therefore, the possible pairs of values of (a 1) and (b 2)
that satisfy the given equation are (2, 300); (4, 150); (6, 100);
(10, 60) (12, 50). (20, 30); (30, 20); (50, 12); (60, 10); (100, 6);
(150, 4); and (300, 2).
Therefore, there are 12 solutions for the given equation.
Hence, option (2) is the correct choice.
8. 1
, +
)
- .
2
*
Join EP such that EP || DC. Also join EC
Now, consider ADB:
BD
2
+ AB
2
= 8
2
+ 4
2
= 16 + 64 = 80.
2 {AE
2
+ BE
2
} = 2{4
2
+
2
(2 6) } = 80.
2(BE
2
+ AE
2
) = BD
2
+ AB
2
.
By Apollonius Theorem, BE is the median, hence E is the mid-
point of AD and P is the mid point of BC.
Now,
1
area ( CEB) area(ABCD)
2
=
1
area( CEP) area(ABCD)
4
=
In =
BC
CEF,CF
5
1 1
area( CEF) area( CEB) (ABCD)
5 10
= =
area ( DEC + CEF) = area(CDEF)
7
area(CDEF) area(ABCD)
20
=
1
(As area ( CDE) area ( ABCD))
4
= 9
9. 1 Let the earlier cost price of the item = Rs.100
Earlier marked price = Rs.105.
On that day, 30% discount is offered on Rs. 3 105 = Rs.315
Thus, new selling price = Rs.220.50
New Profit percentage = 120.50.
10. 5 Given that a
5
+ b
5
+ c
5
= 91849.
Therefore, the units digit of a + b + c would also be 9.
Note:
Any number raised to power (4n + 1) i.e. 5, 9, 13, 17.. will
have the same units digit as the original number itself.
Hence, the number a has the same units digit as a
5
.
Similarly, b and c have the same units digit as b
5
and c
5
respectively.
It implies that (a + b + c) would have same units digit as
(a
5
+ b
5
+ c
5
).
As a, b, and c are distinct digits their maximum possible sum is
24 i.e. (9 + 8 + 7).
Hence, a + b + c = 9 or 19.
If a + b + c = 9, then the maximum possible value of
a
5
+ b
5
+ c
5
would be 32769.
This is possible when a, b, and c = (8, 1, 0) not necessarily in
that particular order.
Since, 91849 is much greater than that, hence a + b + c = 19.
Sum of digits at the odd places of (2a5b1c) starting from the
left = 2 + 5 + 1 = 8
Sum of the digits at the even places of (2a5b1c) starting from
the left = a + b + c = 19
Therefore, the remainder when 2a5b1c is divided by 11 will
be the same as when |8 19| = 11 is divided by 11.
Hence, the remainder will be (11 11) = 0.
Hence, option (5) is the correct choice.
11. 4 There are three possibilities.
Case I:
A
B
C
D
30
A
60 DAC DA' C 120 < + <
(as DA' C 30 and 30 DAC 90 ) = < <
Note: Line segment AD is the bisector of BA' C, BAC, and
side BC. AD is also perpendicular to BC(why?).
Case II:
A
B
C
D
30
A
30 DAC DA' C 60 < + <
(as DA' C 30 and 0 DAC 30 ) = < <
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Case III:
A
B
C
A
30
D
30 DAC DA' C 120 < + <
(as DA' C 30 and 0 DAC 90 ) = < <
Hence, the aggregate measure of + DAC DA' C cannot be
equal to 120(as according to all three cases).
For questions 12 and 13:
If we assume (1, 7) as the first block, (1, 1, 7, 7) as the second block
and so on till m
th
block, then T
5001
will be in the m
th
block.
There are 2 terms in the first block, 4 terms in the second block and so
on.
2 + 4 + 6 + 8 + ..... + 2m 5001 2(1 + 2 + ..... + m) 5001

( ) 2m m 1
5001
2
+
m(m + 1) 5001
Least possible value of m that satisfy the above is m = 71.
T
5001
lies in 71
st
block.
Total number of terms in the first 70

blocks = 70 71 = 4970 terms.
In the 71
st
block, there will 71 ones and 71 sevens.
Therefore, the sum of first 5001 terms of the series
= (8 + 16 +.... 70 terms) + 1 31 = 8(1 + 2 + ..... + 70) + 31
70 71
8 31
2

= + = 19911
12. 3
Alternative method:
Note: All the numbers in this sequence are odd and hence the sum
of 5001 terms has to be an odd number greater then 5001,
hence option (3).
13. 5 All the terms from T
4971
to T
5041
are 1 and all the terms from
T
5042
to T
5112
are 7.
T
5040
+ T
5042
+ T
5044
+ T
5046
= 1 + 7 + 7 + 7 = 22.
14. 2 To find the maximum possible value of
( )
1
yz
we need to find
the minimum (positive) possible value of the product of y and
z.
y = 4
x
+ 4
1 x
will be an integer only at x = 0 and x = 1 (where
x is an integer)
The value of y at x = 1 is 5 and at x = 0 is 5 as well.
The value of z at x = 1 is 3 and at x = 0 is 8.
Minimum product = 5 3 = 15
Therefore, the maximum possible value of the expression
( ) ( )
= =

1 1 1
yz 5 3 15
Hence, option (2) is the correct choice.
15. 5
A
5
F
3
C B x E
Let, the length of BE be x cm.
= =
2 2
BC AC AB 4 cm
Using the angle bisector theorem in ABC,
we get that
AB BE 3 x
x 6 cm
AC CE 5 x 4
= = =
+
2 2
AE AB BE 45 cm 3 5 cm. = + = =
16. 2 When z is of the form 9x or 9x + 1 or 9x + 8 then C
z
will
contain a multiple 9.
From 72 to 136 there are 8 numbers each of the form 9x and
9x + 1, and 7 numbers each of the form 9x + 8.
So, the number of sets with a multiple of nine = 8 2 + 7 1 =
16 + 7 = 23 sets.
17. 1 From 10 to 100 there are 7 perfect square.
One set will contain 100 and each of the remaining perfect
squares will be contained in 3 sets each.
So in total there are 6 3 + 1 1 = 19 sets.
18. 5
A
B
410 x 410
230 x 230
If x is the width of the river then speed at which they travel is
proportional to the distances they travel.
Hence from the diagram, we get
410 x 410 230
x 410 410 x 230
+
=
+
Solving the quadratic equation, we get x = 1000 m.
For questions 19 to 23:
Let the total marks obtained by Rohan, Tarun, and Anup in the test be
'r', 't', and 'a' respectively.
A B C D
Rohan
17r
50

9r
50

r
5

7r
25

Tarun
8t
25

9t
50

t
5

3t
10

Anup
a
2

a
10

3a
20

a
4

The marks obtained by each of the three candidates in sections A, B,
C, and D should be divisible by 2, 3, 5, and 6 respectively.
It is clear that 'r' has to be a multiple of 50.
If we take 'r' = 50, then the marks obtained by Rohan in section A is 17,
which is not possible.
If we take 'r' = 100, then the marks obtained by Rohan in section D is
28, which is not possible.
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Therefore, the minimum possible value of 'r' is 300 and 'r' will always
be a multiple of 300.
Similarly, the minimum possible value of 't' is 100 and 't' will always be
a multiple of 100.
Also by the same logic the minimum possible value of 'a' is 600 and 'a'
will always be a multiple of 600.
19. 1 Minimum possible aggregate marks obtained by Rohan, Tarun,
and Anup is 300 + 100 + 600 = 1000.
So, option (1) is the correct choice.
For questions 20 to 22:
It is given that the aggregate marks obtained by Rohan, Tarun, and
Anup is 1900 and the marks obtained by Rohan is not less than the
marks obtained by Anup.
The following cases are possible:-
Case I: Rohan = 600, Tarun = 700, and Anup = 600
Case II: Rohan = 900, Tarun = 400, and Anup = 600
Case III: Rohan = 1200, Tarun = 100, and Anup = 600
20. 3 Difference between the marks obtained by Anup in section C
and D
a 3a a
60
4 20 10
= = =
21. 2 Only Cases II and III are possible, hence the marks
obtained by Rohan can be either 900 or 1200.
22. 4 Case I:
Marks obtained by Tarun in section B
9t 9 700
126
50 50

= = =
Case II:
Marks obtained by Tarun in section B
9t 9 400
72
50 50

= = =
Case III:
Marks obtained by Tarun in section B
9t 9 100
18
50 50

= = =
23. 3 Option (1): It can be true when Tarun has 300 marks and Anup
has 2400 marks in the recruitment test.
Option (2): It can be true when Tarun has 5100 marks and
Rohan has 4800 marks in recruitment test.
Option (3): It cannot be true as the minimum sum of the marks
obtained by Anup in section C and Tarun in section D is
( ) ( )
3 3
a 2t 600 200 120.
20 20
+ = + =
Option (4): It can be true when Tarun has 3600 marks and
Anup has 4200 marks in the recruitment test.
Hence, statement in options (3) is definitely false.
For questions 24 to 26:
24. 4 Lets start from the box B6, as there has to be one death box
adjacent to it and there is only one box available i.e. C5. So,
C5 is a death box. Now C5 is also adjacent to D6 and B5; as
C5 satisfies the death box number for D6 and B5; so other
boxes adjacent to D6 and B5 cannot be death boxes; so E5
and C4 are life boxes.
Now for E6, F5 has to be a death box.
For box B4 there has to be two death boxes, adjacent to it.
One is in C5, the other one has to be in C3 as it is the only box
left adjacent to B4.
Now for box F4, one death box is in F5, other one must be in
box E3 as it is the only box left. So all the boxes adjacent to
box D4 are opened and there are only three death boxes
among them. So, the box D4 shows 3 when opened. Hence,
the following table can be concluded on the basis of
information given in the question:
A B C D E F G H I
1 * * 2 2 1 1
2 2 4 * 4 * 2
3 2 * 4 * 2
4 2 2 3 2 2 2 1 1
5 1 * 1 1 * 2 *
6 1 1 1 1 1 2
7 1
8 1 *
9 1
25. 3 From the table shown above, the death boxes adjacent to
the box G6 are F5 and H5.
26. 4 From the condition given in the question following cases are
possible.
Case 1:
H I
7 1 1
8 * 1
9 1 1
Case 2:
H I
7 2 2
8 * *
9 2 2
Case 3:
H I
7 1 1
8 * 2
9 2 *
Case 4:
H I
7 2 2
8 * *
9 3 *
Hence the required sums in case 1, case 2, case 3, and case
4 are 5, 8, 6, and 7 respectively. Hence option (4) is the
correct choice.
27. 4 Total weight (in 000 tonnes) of the crops produced in the
states of HR, UP, PB and TN = 18 + 11 + 14 + 13 = 56.
Total weight (in 000 tonnes) of the crops W, P, B, M produced
= 18 + 25 + 9 + 17 = 69.
Assuming that the excess weight (in 000 tonnes) is all that of
crop P which will be equal to 69 56 = 13.
Maximum weight (in 000 tonnes) of crop P produced in the
state GJ = 13
Required percentage
= =
13
100 81.25
16
28. 5 The possible combinations of states where the crop PO and
O can be grown are (WB, AP, GJ), (WB, TN, KR), (WB, MR,
KR), (MP, AP, PB), (TN, MR, MP), and (UP, KR, MP).
So, HR is definitely not the state where the crop PO is grown.
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For questions 29 and 30:
Minimum weight (in000 tonnes) of the crop amongst the ten states is
produced in the state WB, i.e. 7.
Lets say x number of crops are produced in equal quantities in the
given states and the value of x is maximum possible.
For this the aggregate weight of these x crops produced in India
should not be more than 70.
The value of x cannot be more than 5 as no matter which 6 crops we
select their total weight will exceed 70.
There can be six different cobinations of 5 crops such that their total
weight does not exceed 70.
These 6 combinations are as follows:
1. B, J, R, PO, M
2. B, J, R, PO, W
3. B, J, R, PO, O
4. B, J, R, M, W
5. B, J, R, M, O
6. B, J, R, W, O
If we take one more crop, then the total weight will cross
70, therefore maximum possible value of x is 5.
29. 2
30. 1 The aggregate weight (in 000 tonnes) of the crops R, M, B, J
and PO produced in the state
66
MP 6.6
10

= =


So, maximum possible weight (in 000 tonnes) of the crop W
produced in the state MP = 9 6.6 = 2.4.
31. 1 As per the information given in the question, the following
table can be drawn.
Amar Bhuvan Chirag Dhruv Elan
A
B
C
D
E
Given that the code assigned to Amar is D.
This implies that code assigned to Elan is B and code assigned
to Dhruv is E.
Also, the code assigned to Chirag is A.
Therefore, the code assigned to Bhuvan is C.
32. 3 When Jersey 1 begins the chain of passes, some of the
players repeatedly get the ball, making a loop while others
never receive the ball as illustrated in the figure below:
13
4
7
10
1
If Jersey 6 is not included in the loop, he will not get any
chance to pass the ball to any of his team members and
hence the minimum number of passes that he can make is 0.
When he is included in the loop, he gets to pass the ball back
every fifth time. Given that Jersey 6 is in the loop, the minimum
number of passes that he can make, out of the given 1001 is
200 and the maximum number of passes that he can make is
201(that is when he makes the first pass.)
3
9
12
15
6
For questions 33 to 36:
Let the marks obtained by Aseem, Ayaan, and Samantha in all the
mentioned six subjects be x, y, and z.
33. 1 Given that z : y : x = 1 : 2 : 5
z = k, y = 2k and x = 5k
Marks obtained by Ayaan in Social Studies = 10% of y =
y
10
Marks obtained by Samantha in Social Studies
= 20% of z =
z
5
Marks obtained by Aseem in Commerce = 16% of
x =
4x
25
Required percentage
y
10
100
z 4x
5 25


=

+


5y
100
10z 8x

=

+

10k
100 20%
10k 40k

= =

+

34. 2 Marks obtained by Aseem, Ayaan, and Samantha in English
are
x 6y 4z
, , and
10 25 25
respectively.
Marks lost by Aseem in English = 40% of
x x
10 25
=
Similarly, marks lost by Ayaan and Samantha in English is
3y 4z
and
50 125
respectively.
As per the question,
x 3y 4z
25 50 125
= = 10x 15y 8z = =
Marks lost by Ayaan in Science due to reason R
36 1 1 9y
y
100 4 10 1000

= =


Required Percentage
9 y
100
1000 x

=



= =


9 10
100 0.6.
1000 15
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For questions 35 and 36:
Marks obtained by Aseem in Maths =
3x
25
Marks obtained by Ayaan in Social Studies =
y
10
Marks obtained by Ayaan in English =
6y
25
Marks obtained by Samantha in Hindi =
z
10
Now as per the information given
3x y 6y z
and
25 10 25 10

35. 5 Given that
6z
144,
25
= therefore z = 24 25.
Number of marks obtained by Aseem in Science
9x
50
=
Since,
3x y 6y z
and
25 10 25 10

x 25
z 72

Therefore, the marks obtained by Aseem in Science is at least
9 25 1
24 25 37
50 72 2
=
36. 4 Marks lost by Ayaan in English due to reason
Q
36 1 24
y
100 4 100
=
Therefore,
36 1 24
y 45
100 4 100
=
125 50
y
3

=
Marks lost by Samantha in Maths due to reason
z 1 1 z
T
5 5 5 125
= =
Also,
y 5
z 12

Maximum possible value of z = 5000


Maximum possible number of marks lost by Samantha in Maths
due to reason T is 40.
For questions 37 to 40:
There are 4 non-vegetarian items and only 2 non-vegetarians D & E, it
implies that both(D, E) have exactly two non-veg items (from statement
2)
According to information no (1) the meals taken by C, D, E could be
a. Biscuit and burger
b. Rice and rotis (this has to go with C as only vegetarian combination)
c. Continental and Chinese
d. Continental and chicken.
Toast and Fruit can go to A only (these should go to a vegetarian)and
now Dosa & Upma combination has to go to B only. As E doesnt like
chicken it should go to D, this implies that Continental-Chinese
combination should go to E and Biscuit-Burger combination to D
Hence the meal arrangement will be:
Breakfast Lunch Dinner
A Toast Fruits Pizza
B Milk Dosa Upma
C Salad Rice Rotis
D Biscuit Burger Chicken
E Eggs Continental Chinese
37. 2 38. 4 39. 5 40. 3
41. 4 From the first paragraph, one can infer that ambivalence or
hesitation as also self consciousness- which facilitated self-
criticism in the earlier days is lacking nowadays. So option
(1), (2) and (3) are the characteristics that lack in modern
romantic ideology. Option 4 seems to be the trend of the
modern times. In fact it is this positive belief and absorption-
which is opposite of ambivalence, that is criticized by McGann.
Option 4 is the best available choice.
42. 5 Refer to the last paragraph. From the 2nd sentence it can be
inferred that McGann does not support extreme viewpoints.
Option 2 is rejected in the same sentence by McGann. Option
3 is incorrect. Infact, McGann advocates recognizing
paraochial ideological formulations. Option 4 is the authors
view and not of McGanns. Option 5 is in line with McGanns
approach of skepticism or circumspection. Option 5 is adopted
by Heine and McGann supports his work.
43. 2 The author is trying to show that the uncritical acceptance of
the presumptions of Romanticism results in problems as the
ideology becomes debased and this debased ideology starts
permeating or informing other branches like poetry. Option 1 is
incorrect. Option 3 is not the main argument of the author.
Option 4 is incorrect as the author is not only challenging the
debased Romantic ideology but showing that the reason
behind this is uncritical acceptance of it. Also he is talking
about the problems resulting from it. Option 5 is general and
exaggerated: the author does not call the ideology- pristine.
44. 2 Option 2 can be inferred from the 2nd para which talks of
antagonistic tendencies in poetry developing an allergic
reaction to intellectual self-consciousness. Options 1 and 4
are not indicated in the passage. In fact the debased Romantic
ideology is seen to inform American Poetry rather than being
rejected by it. Option 3 is also not seen to be happening. The
antagonistic tendencies favour acceptance rather than
moving into constructive criticism. Option 5 is not completely
substantiated by the passage.
45. 2 Heine, in the last para is in line with McGanns approach. He is
questioning the immediate relevance of far-removed texts or
the source texts which were considered the main influences
in German Romanticism. So like McGann, he is generating
skepticism which would lead to criticism. Options 1 and 3
differ from the purport of the last paragraph. Options 4 and 5
miss the point and are exaggerated.
46. 3 In sentence B we would use send word to indicate that a
message is being sent. In D the correct expression to be used
is give ear to.
47. 5 All the sentences are grammatically correct. The only confusion
might arise while looking at the phrase, similar twins. At first
glance, it might appear to be incorrect however, the expression
is correct and means monozygotic twins.
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48. 4 In A, it should be shortcomings as we are refering to
shortcomings in various fields. In E between should be used
instead of among as the countries-France, Italy, Austria and
Germany are distinct entities which are seen as points that
define the boundaries of Switzerland.
49. 5 Options 1 and 2 are entirely the views of Wallace and not
the author. Options 3 and 4 cannot be validated by the passage.
50. 4 The question is asking the reason for the numerous variations
in species and not just the reason for variation. Option 1 is
definitely a reason for the variation but it does not explain the
reason for the numerous variations. Option 2 is too specific
an answer. Option 3 cannot be inferred from the passage.
The passage nowhere states that species cannot adapt to
just one or two conditions. Option 5 talks about the pressure
of natural condition. But unless the conditions change and
this change is diverse there would be no pressure created
to adapt and develop numerous variations. Option 4 answers
the question. The chief reason for the numerous variations is
that the changes in natural conditions which create pressure
on species to adapt are diverse. Hence the variations are
numerous.
51. 3 Refer to the 2nd paragraph. Options 1, 2 and 5 represent
possibilities which depend on other conditions or assumptions.
Option 4 is not indicated in the passage. Option 3 is a definite
outcome of the intensified conditions.
52. 2 The paragraph ends on the completion of an idea that everyday
life is inextricably bound together by the music. Choices (1),
(3) and (5) seem like a repetition of this idea. Choice (4) talks
about cultural revolution which seems disjoint as per the
theme of the paragraph. The paragraph talks about the social
context of music-making in Tibetan culture. Choice (2) is best
in line with the theme which is indicated at the startdisruption
in cultural life due to the ban.
53. 1 (3), (4) and (5) talk about education, awareness and
introduction of modern science which seem like abrupt ideas
after the paragraph. (2) is disjointed from the flow of ideas in
the paragraph. (1) continues the idea of ostracization-by talking
about repatriation.
54. 3 The paragraph has introduced Johnston Central Library. After
this, choice (3) is the best to continue the paragraph-the main
clue being the less intimidating part! Choices (2) and (4) seem
to be good choices but are also subtly intimidating. Humbler
and friendlier go well with the tone of choice (3) rather than
choice (2). Choice (1) refers to the overall ambience of a
library in general whereas the paragraph specifically mentions
the ambience of the Johnston Central library. Therefore, it
does not continue the flow of thought as per the last lines of
the paragraph.
55. 4 Option 1 cannot be inferred as the meaning of Lenins
statements or the single directive is interpreted by the author
as making organizations parallel. Option 1 is Cardans view
which is being refuted by the author. Option 2 cannot be
concluded as the author mentions that the Taylor system
was not introduced during Lenins lifetime. It could have
been introduced later. Option 3 is not indicated or implied in the
passage. Option 5 is again Cardans view which is being
refuted by the author in the second last para. Option 4 is
something to which the author would agree as he refutes
Cardans argument by interpreting the meaning of Lenins
statement as Organizations should be parallel.
56. 1 Option 1 is correct. Statement A is what the author mainly tries
to indicate as the flaw in Cardans reasoning. The terms
parallel organizations and discipline etc. carried a different
meaning when seen in a particular context: when the state
was four months old. The terms when taken for their literal
meaning lead to Cardans incorrect interpretation. Statement
C is also correct as factual data is used by the author to delink
cause and effect. For example, the subjective-objective
connection is delinked by the author in the 2nd last para by
pointing to where capitalism originated. B and D are only
referred to and neither discussed nor described by the author.
57. 3 The author is totally denouncing or dismissing Cardans views.
He calls them a lie. The tone is extreme. The author does not
appear frustrated. Argumentative is the method used by the
author and not his attitude. Questioning is a mild tone wheares
the authors tone is extreme here.The author is not regretful
of anything here- regret is normally felt for ones own wrong
actions. Dismissive is appropriate here as the author is
totally dismissing Cardans views.
58. 5 The argument clearly states that 'community pressure is
exerted' on the people who win the jackpot throughout the
Kyakya Island community. It then goes on to illustrate the
differences in the behaviour of the urbanites and people from
the rural community while spending their earnings from the
jackpots. The question asks us to provide a reason for the
difference in the behaviour of both the peoples. Option (1) to
an extent, weakens the argument. Options (2), (3) and (4) do
not provide any plausible reason for the difference between
the behaviour of the people from the two communities. Option
(5) conforms to the premise of community pressure being
exerted on the jackpot winners. It can be safely concluded
from the option that the community pressure exerted on the
rural population is more than their urban counterparts, which
makes the people in the countryside to share their 'good
fortune' with their neighbours.
59. 2 The argument speaks of Nishant's predicament on the matter
of making his grandmother's will public or not. The argument
further provides the conclusion that after due consideration
Nishant decided against making the will public. The question
asks us to provide an reason which governed Nishant's
decision. Option (1) is not the answer as it does not affect
Nishant's decision on the will. Option (2) is the correct answer-
choice as it aptly governs Nishant's decision not to make the
will public. In case Nishant would have decided to make the
will public, Rishi would have wasted the money, which
eventually would have benefited no one. However, by not
making the will public, Nishant empowered his mother who
would use the money to benefit herself and others. Thus, this
acted as a reason for Nishant to decide on the will as he
wanted it to benefit the maximum number of people, harming
no one. Option (3) is a generic statement, which does not
affects the argument. Option (4) is incorrect as Nishant violates
the promise by not making the will public. Option (5) suggests
of a decision in favour of the choice that 'harms no one and
benefits some' over the one that 'harms some and benefits
none'. However, the argument does not, in any manner,
suggests that had the money in the will gone to Rishi, it would
have harmed anyone.
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60. 1 The argument restricts the rest-house owners to only two
ways for increasing profits- either by adding more rooms or
by enhancing the already existing infrastructure. Then, the
argument also rules out the expansion of rest house capacity.
This leaves the owners with only one way- 'improving what
is already there'. To complete the argument, a reason must be
provided for the guest- house owners' inability to increase
their profits. Option (1) provides an apt reason as it states
that the rest houses are in their best shape and offer luxury to
the extent beyond which even the wealthy customers would
not pay. Thus, it rules out maximizing profitability through any
improvement to the already existing structures. In option (2)
Increasing the occupancy is not one of the two given ways
of increasing profitability. Option (3) does not address the
issue of profitability. Option (4) is a way-ward assumption
that lies beyond the scope of the argument. Option (5) does
not address the key issue in the argument and lies beyond the
theme of the argument.
61. 3 Option (1) states that the step may help the Taj Hotel to increase
its profits. However, it doesnt address the core issue.
Option (2) is not tackling the real problem. The issue is to
increase the profitability. Maintaining something at a lesser
cost does not necessarily guarantee profits. It may just happen
that the mini bars, which have a higher maintenance cost,
might generate higher profits.
Option (3) is the correct option as it states clearly that
maintaining mini-bars is a loss making activity.
Option (4) does not take profitability into account.
Option (5) states that the Oberai Hotels profitability is more
but we cannot deduce whether the profitability comes from
empty refrigerators.
62. 1 The argument clearly states the incompetence of Gautam as
a detective. To weaken the claim in the argument, we would
have to provide information that proves Gautam to be a
competent detective. Option (1) fulfills this purpose, hence it
becomes the correct answer-choice. Option (2) is a far fetched
assumption. Options (3) and (4) strengthen the argument.
Option (5) lies beyond the scope of information given in the
argument as it talks of a situation which is distinctively different,
hence it has no impact on the argument.
63. 2 Phlegmatically unraveling as well as the harsh treatment of
the film make it explicit that the unraveling is non-sentimental
and stoic. Option 1 is incorrect. Option 3 becomes excessive
as a harsh/stoic treatment does not mean cruel undertones.
Option 4 is talking about the intention behind unraveling. Option
5 is talking about the effect of the unraveling on the audience.
64. 2 Except for option (2), all the other options count as remarkable
features of the movie Samson & Delilah.
65. 5 Option 1 generalizes the meaning of real characters from the
specific context. By real, what is meant is that which is close
to the actual real life situation and not those without overt
emotion. Option 2 cannot be inferred as nothing has been
mentioned about the experience of the characters. By painful
the author is referring to his and the viewers experience of
the movie. Also painful with reference to acting would mean
a role which demands effort and not literal pain. Option 4
again distorts things. The critics choked on superlatives and
not on pain and emotion. Option 5 can be clearly inferred as
the author emphasizes the real characters and also their
effect on the audience and the critics.
66. 2 Circumspect refers to one who is cautious; it is difficult to
cheat or gull such a person. In option 1 loquacious refers to
one who is very talkative or garrulous. The pair does not
demonstrate a relationship similar to the stem pair. In option
(2), vigilant refers to one who is alert or watchful; it is difficult
to ambush such a person. The relationship demonstrated in
the pair is similar to the one in the stem pair. In option (3), the
word pair doesnt exhibit any relationship - Arabesque means
an ornate design of intertwined floral, foliate, and geometric
figures. Emphasize means to given emphasis to. In option
(4), dilemmatic refers to a situation where one requires to
make a choice between options that are or seem equally
unfavourable or mutually exclusive. In option (5) taciturn refers
to one who is habitually reserved; goad means to provoke
someone to take some kind of action, usually in anger. The
relationship exhibited in the stem-pair is not evident here.
67. 5 Tourniquet checks the flow of blood. Similarly, dam checks
the flow of water. Bucket does not control a well. Similarly,
the relationship between bridge:river, antiseptic : surgery
and pressure : air do not exhibit the relationship demonstrated
by the question statement.
68. 4 Relapse means to regress after partial recovery from illness.
Convalescence means to return to health and strength after
illness. The relationship in this pair is of antonyms. In option
(1), Exhibitionism refers to the act or practice of deliberately
behaving so as to attract attention. Suspiciousness is not
related to Exhibitionism. In option (2), Moral and Principle do
not demonstrate a relationship similar to the one in the stem-
pair. In option (3), Dissonance and Euphony do not have the
same relationship as demonstrated in the stem-pair. Although,
they have an antonymous relationship, Dissonance does not
convey a sense of regression as is conveyed by Relapse in
the stem-pair. In option (4) Recidivism, which means a habitual
relapse in crime has an antonymous relationship to
Rehabilitation; one of the meanings of Rehabilitation is to
restore to useful and constructive activity. Hence, (4)
becomes the correct answer choice. In option (5), Prolificacy
and Completion do not have the same relationship as the
stem pair.
69. 2 The tone of the question suggests that something is being
sacrificed for something else. Also, the usage of unfortunately
in the beginning, suggests something good being sacrificed.
Following this logic, options (4) and (5) can be ruled out.
Option (1) contains synonyms. Options (4) and (5) do not fit
the context. Option (3) cannot be the answer as
responsibilities will not, unfortunately, crowd out privileges.
Hence the answer is (2).
70. 1 Anomie means a lack of purpose or identity; it also means
rootlessness. Siddle means to move sideways, especially in
a sly or stealthy manner. From the first sentence we can
gauge the gloomy mood. Options (2), (3) and (4) do not carry
gloominess. Ominousness is not the right-fit for the first blank.
The author wants to highlight the gloomy mood, ominousness,
which means menacing or threatening is too extreme for that.
Also, distracted makes no sense in the sentence. Hence the
answer is (1).