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Pharmacology questions with answers
1) pharmacodynamics is the study of
A.effect of drug in the body
B.effect of body on the drug
C.both
D.none
Ans)A

2)pharmacokinetics is the study of
A.effect of drug in the body
B.effect of body on the drug
C.both
D.none
Ans)B

3)antagonist and inverse agonist differ in
A.antagonist possess affinity but inverse agonist dont
B. antagonist possess efficacy but inverse agonist dont
C. inverse agonist possess affinity but antagonist dont
D. inverse agonist possess efficacy but antagonist dont
Ans)D(agonist and inverse agonist also possess efficacy and affinity)

4)tolerance n tachyphylaxis differ in
A.tolerance takes days to develop
B. tolerance takes minutes to develop
C. tachyphylaxis takes days to develop
D. tachyphylaxis takes minutes to develop
E.A and D
Ans)E(gradual diminution of effect of drug by contiuous administration of
dose-tolerance
Gradual decrese in responsiveness to drug due to frequent
administration-tachyphylaxis)

5)therapeutic index is
A.ratio of median lethal dose to median effective dose
B. ratio of median effective dose to median lethal dose
C.range of plasma concentration of drug
D.range of clearance of drug
Ans) A

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TOPIC: AUTONOMOUS NERVOUS SYSTEM & DRUGS ACTING ON IT

SYMPATHETIC NERVOUS SYSTEM & ADRENERGIC DRUGS


1)Main Transmitter in sympathetic nervous system is
A.adrenaline
B.nor-adrenaline
C.cholines
D.acetylcholine

Ans)B( noradrenaline(NA) acting on adrenergic receptors)

2) find correct statement :: sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous
system
A.ganglion lies near to target organs in sympathetic but far in
parasympathetic
B. ganglion lies near to target organs in sympathetic and in parasympathetic
C. ganglion lies far to target organs in sympathetic and in parasympathetic
D. ganglion lies near to target organs in parasympathetic but far in
sympathetic

Ans)D


3)organ with sympathetic innervation but without nor adrenaline as
transmitter
A.blood vessels
B.sweat glands
C.skeletal muscle
D.salivary glands

Ans)B(sweat glands and adrenal medulla contain Acetyl choline(ACh) as
transmitter)

4)Bronchodilation is associated with action of
A.B2 agonists
B. B2 antagonists
C. B1 agonists
D. B1 antagonists

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Ans)A (though bronchi smooth muscle donot have sympathetic innervation
circulating adrenaline act on B2 adrenergic receptors as agonist and cause
dilation)

5)Adrenergic fibres contain the following as transmitter
A.Adrenaline
B.Noradrenaline
C.Choline
D.Acetylcholine
Ans) B

6)Which of the following inhibit transmitter release(A indicates alpha
receptors)
A.A1-agonists
B. A1-antagonists
C. A2-agonists
D. A2-antagonists
Ans)C (A2-agonists bcoz they act presynaptically and cause auto inhibition of
transmitter release)

7) Which of the following decrese C-AMP
A.A1-agonists
B. A1-antagonists
C. A2-agonists
D. A2-antagonists

Ans)C(A2-agonists)

8)Drugs that inhibit DOPA decarboxylase
A.Methyl DOPA
B.carbidopa
C.Reserpine
D.6-hydroxy dopamine

Ans)B
(Methyl DOPA and 6-hydroxy dopamine inhibit NA release by false NA
formation
Carbidopa inhibit NA release by inhibiting DOPA decarboxylase
Reserpine inhibit NA release by displacement of NA from vescicles
Methyl tyrosine inhibit NA release by inhibiting tyrosine hydroxylase)

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9)drugs that synthesise false neurotransmitter is
A.Methyl DOPA
B.carbidopa
C.Reserpine
D.6-hydroxy dopamine
E.A & D

Ans)E (refer Q8 explination)

10)Which of the following receptor participate in lipolysis
A. B1
B. B2
C. B3
D. A1
Ans)C(B3 adrenergic receptors r located in adipose tissue and participate in
lipolysis)

11)which of the following show partial agonist effect at B receptors
A.ergotamine
B.clonidine
C.oxprenolol
D.atenolol
Ans)C (ergotamine- A1 partial agonist
Clonidine- A2- partial agonists
Oxprenolol- B- partial agonists)
12)which of the following is non selective
A.methoxamine
B.clonidine
C.salbutamol
D.adrenaline
Ans)D(methoxamine- A1 selective
Clonidine- A2 selective
Salbutamol- B2 selective
Adrenaline- non selective)
13)which of the following effect both uptake 1 and uptake 2
A.cocaine
B.amphetamine
C.phenoxybenzamine
D.reserpine
Ans)C(cocaine, amphetamine-uptake 1
Reserpine-vesicular uptake
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Phenoxybenzamine-uptake 1&2

14)Adrenalline is used along with local anaesthetics to
A.Prolong the action of adrenaline
B. Prolong the action of local anaesthetics
C.to prevent the pain caused by adrenaline injection
D.Adrenaline works efficiently during anaesthesia
Ans)B(as adrenaline constricts blood vessels decrease the metabolism of local
anaesthetics)

15)which of the following is non selective adrenergic blocker used in treating
heart failure
A.nebivolol
B.adrenalline
C.dobutamine
D.carvedilol
Ans)D

16)which of the following is B blocker used as eye drops
A.nebivolol
B.timolol
C.clenbuterol
D.carvedilol
Ans)B

17)sympathomimetics used in attention defecit-hyperactivity disorder
A.MethylPhenidate
B.phenoxybenzamine
C.atomoxetine
D.cocaine
E.A&C
Ans)E (indirectly acting sympathomimetics are central nervous stimulants)

18)which of the following is not a use of B2 agonists
A.ASthma
B.delay premature labour
C.illicit use of sports
D.glaucoma
Ans)D(glaucoma is treated by B antagonist-timolol)

19)which of the following causes NA depletion and damage NA neurons also
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A.reserpine
B.guanethidine
C.cocaine
D.imipramine
Ans)B

20)select the wrong statements n pick the right option
1.uptake 1 inhibitors produce sympathomimetic activity
2. uptake 2 inhibitors produce sympathomimetic activity
3. MAO inhibitors produce sympathomimetic activity
4. A2-antagonists produce sympathomimetic activity
5. B antagonists produce sympathomimetic activity
6. A1-agonists produce sympathomimetic activity
A.2 only
B.6 only
C.2 & 5
D.2 & 6
Ans)C (u find ur own dis improves ur understanding capability)

21)adrenergic drugs used as anorectic(suppress hunger-used in obesity but
not recommended as cns side effects)
A.amphetamine
B.sibutramine
C.fenfluramine
D.dexfenfluramine
E.all
Ans)E

TOPIC: AUTONOMOUS NERVOUS SYSTEM & DRUGS ACTING ON IT

CHOLINERGIC DRUGS

1)The neurotransmitter in the parasympathetic system is
A.Adrenaline
B.noradrenaline
C.acetylcholine
D.choline

Ans)C

2)[A]SSERTION: agonism at presynaptic receptors in sympathetic system
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promotes adrenergic transmission
[R]EASON : agonism at presynaptic receptors in parasympathetic
system promotes cholinergic transmissiom
A.both A and R are true and R explains A
B. both A and R are true and R does not explain A
C. both A and R are false
D. A is false and R is true
E. A is true and R is false

Ans)D (presynaptic receptors in adrenergic transmission are auto inhibitors
while in cholinergic receptors are inducers)

3)which of the following receptor subtype are glandular receptors
A.M3 receptors
B. M2 receptors
C. M1 receptors
D. M4 receptors

Ans)A(M1 receptors-neural
M2 receptors-cardiac
M3-glandular
M4&M5-occur in cns)

4)Drug that increase the Actylcholine concentration in the synaptic vesicles
but no cholinergic transmission seen is
A.hemicholinium
B.vesamicol
C.botulinum toxin
D.suxamethonium

Ans)C (its just the magic of sentences it actually mean Acetylcholine release
inhibitor that causes inhibition of release of Ach from the synaptic vescicles
hence the transmission is not seen)

5)which of the following sympathomimetic is receptor non specific
A.muscarine
B.nicotine
C.carbachol
D.pilocarpine

Ans)C
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6)which of the following sympathomimetic used in bladder emptying
A.oxytremorine
B.pilocarpine
C.bethanechol
D.carbachol

Ans)C

7)the organ in which both sympathetic and parasympathetic innervations
show same response
A.liver
B.kidney
C.sweat glands
D.salivary glands

Ans)D(both result in same response saliva secretion

8)which receptors act on cardiac muscle
A.B2&M2
B. B3&M1
C. B2&M1
D. B1&M2

Ans)D

9)which of the following is the parasympathomimetic used as eye drops
A.atropine
B.hyoscine
C.pilocarpine
D.nicotine

Ans)C

10)which of the following parasympatholytic acts as cns depressant
A.atropine
B.hyoscine
C.pilocarpine
D.nicotine

Ans)B(generally muscarinic antagonists called as parasympatholytic are cns
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stimulants like atropine but hyoscine is exception it is cns depressant)

11)Darifenacin : parasympatholytic used in urinary incontinence with few side
effects due to its
A.M1 selectivity
B.M3 selectivity
C.M1&M2 selectivity
D.M2&M3 selectivity

Ans)B

12) parasympatholytic used in the treatment of Chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease
A.Atropine
B.cyclopentolate
C.ipratropium
D.propantheline

Ans)C

13) parasympatholytic used in the treatment of peptic ulcer that is devoid of
helicobacter pylori
A.atropine
B.hyoscine
C.pirenzepine
D.nicotine

Ans)C

14)which of the following produces mydriasis without cycloplegia
A.Tropicamide
B.cyclopentolate
C.atropine
D.Phenylephrine

Ans)D
(mydriasis & cycloplegia:- for testing error of refraction
mydriasis without cycloplegia:- fundoscopy- so adrenergic Phenylephrine is
used)

15) which of the following used in antiparkinsonism treatment
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A.bezatropine
B.hyoscine
C.pirenzepine
D.nicotine

Ans)A

16) which of the following used in treatment of myasthenia gravis
A.edrophonium
B.neostigmine
C.physostigmine
D.ecothiophate

Ans)B(neostigmine&pyridostigmine:- treatment of myasthenia gravis
Edrophonium&tubocurarine:- diagnosis of myasthenia gravis)

17)which of the following is not used in treatment of glaucoma
A.pilocarpine
B.ecothiophate
C.physostigmine
D.cyclopentolate

Ans)D

18) which of the following used in treatment of alzheimers disease
A.Tacrine
B.Donepezil
C.galantamine
D.All

Ans)D (all of these r anti choline esterases used in treatment of alzheimers
disease)

19) which of the following causes malignant hyperthermia
A.hexamethonium
B.suxamethonium
C.decamethonium
D.trimetaphan

Ans)B

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20)neuromuscular depolarizing blocking agents act as
A.Sympathomimetic
B. Sympatholytic
C. paraSympathomimetic
D. paraSympatholytic

Ans)C

21)Pale pink man is the side effect due to
A.hexamethonium
B.suxamethonium
C.decamethonium
D.trimetaphan

Ans)A

22)tetanic fade is the side effect due to
A.tubocurarine
B.trimetaphan
C.hexamethonium
D.galantamine

Ans)A

23) which of the following is both ganglionic stimulant and blocker
A.nicotine
B.epibatidine
C.lobeline
D.trimetaphan
Ans)A (dose dependent action. Nicotine acts as blocker if excess )

24) which of the following used in treatment of motion sickness
A.atropine
B.hyoscine
C.pancuronium
D.atracurium

Ans)B

25) which of the following is ganglionic blocker
A.nicotine in less qty
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B.tirmetaphan
C.pancuronium
D.galantamine

Ans)B

26) [A]SSERTION:neuromuscular blocking drugs of non depolarizing type
cause hypotension and slight tachycardia
[R]EASON : neuromuscular blocking drugs of non depolarizing type
cause histamine release in addition to neuromuscular block
A.both A and R are true and R explains A
B. both A and R are true and R does not explain A
C. both A and R are false
D. A is false and R is true

Ans)A(histamine release results in hypotension due to vascular steal
phenomenon we ll learn it later)

27)anti-cholinesterase poisoning is treated by
A.Atropine
B.pralidoxime
C.physostigmine
D.A&B

Ans)D

28)parasympatholytic poisoning is treated by
A.neostigmine
B.atropine
C.edrophonium
D.ecthiophate

Ans)A

29)theoretical treatment for cobra bite(bungaroo toxin)
A.oral Acetyl choline
B.injection of acetyl choline
C.neostigmine
D.B or C
Ans)D (oral administration of acetyl choline causes its metabolism)

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30) which of the following used as muscle relaxants
A.parasympathomimetic
B.parasympatholytic
C.ganglionic blocker
D.neuromuscular blocker

Ans)D



TOPIC:REMAINING PERIPHERAL MEDIATORS & CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM
& DRUGS ACTING ON IT

GENERAL INTRODUCTION


1)which of the following receptors are NOT G-protein coupled
A.5HT-3
B. 5HT-2
C. 5HT-1
D. 5HT-4

Ans)A

2) which of the following drugs act as ANTI-EMETICS
A. 5HT-2 agonists
B. 5HT-3 agonists
C. 5HT-3 antagonists
D. 5HT-2 antagonists

Ans)C

3) which of the following is 5HT-4 agonist
A.buspirone
B.ketanserin
C.metoclopromide
D.methysergide

Ans)C

4) which of the following is WRONG statement
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A.5HT-1D agonism ,partial agonism , and antagonism all used in treating
migraine
B. 5HT-2 antagonism used in treating migraine
C. Tricyclic antidepressants used in treating migraine
D.sympathomimetics that act on B receptors used in treating migraine

Ans)D(sympatholytics that act on B receptors used in treating migraine)

5)which of the ergot alkaloid used in preventing post partum haemorrhage
A.ergotamine
B.ergometerine
C.bromocriptine
D.dihydro-ergotamine

Ans)C

6) which of the following shows side effect RETROPERITONIAL &
MEDIASTINAL FIBROSIS
A.methiothepin
B.methysergide
C.cyproheptadine
D.ergometrine

Ans)B

7)which of the following is used in parkinsons disease
A.ergotamine
B.ergometerine
C.bromocriptine
D.dihydro-ergotamine

Ans)C(bromocriptine is an ergot alkaloid used in parkinsons disease and
endocrine disorders)

8)cholinergic drug used in the migraine prophylaxis is
A.pilocarpine
B.neostigmine
C.clonidine
D.pyridostigmine

Ans)C(clonidine and apraclonidine cholinergic drug used in the migraine
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prophylaxis)

9)In acute attacks of migraine analgesics r used with meteclopramide bcoz
A. meteclopramide hastens absorption of analgesics
B. analgesics hastens absorption of meteclopramide
C. meteclopramide increases gastric emptying hence analgesics eliminated
easily
D. meteclopramide decreases side effects of analgesics

Ans)A(hence used in acute attacks as combination)

10)bronchoconstriction is the major side effect of which of antimigraine drug
A.sumatriptan
B.propanolol
C.ergotamine
D.clonidine

Ans)B(propanolol is B2 blocker hence broncho constriction is seen)

11)which of the following is inhibitory amino acid transmitter
A.glutamate
B.aspartate
C.glycine
D.phenyl alanine

Ans)C

12) which of the following is GABA-A receptor agonists
A.diazepam
B.gabaxadol
C.flumazenil
D.baclofen

Ans)B

13) which of the following inhibit release and inhibit post synaptic action of
glutamate
A.memantine
B.riluzole
C.piracetam
D.clioquinol
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Ans)B

14) which of the following disease is accompanied by loss of cholinergic
neurons
A.parkinsons disease
B.alzheimers disease
C.psychosis
D.depression

Ans)B

15)MAO inhibitor used in parkinsons disease
A.seligeline
B.tranyl cypromine
C.pergolide
D.amantadine

Ans)A

TOPIC: CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM & DRUGS ACTING ON IT

GENERAL ANAESTHETICS,ANXIOLYTICS,SEDATIVES AND HYPNOTICS

1)general anaesthetics generally act by
A.enhancing activity of inhibitory receptors
B. inhibiting activity of exitatory receptors
C.no action on receptors
D.A&B

Ans)D

2)which of the following physiological changes are NOT observed during
treatment with general anaesthetics
A.unconsiousness
B.analgesia
C.muscle relaxation
D.emesis

Ans)D

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3)statement 1:- intravenous anaesthetics are generally used for the induction
of anaesthecia and inhalation anaesthetics used for maintenance of
anaesthecia during surgery.
statement 2 :- intravenous anaesthetic propofol is used in maintenance of
anaesthecia
A.statement 1&2 false
B. statement 1 true & 2 false
C.statement 1 false & 2 true
D. satement 1&2 true

Ans)D

4)total intravenous anaesthesia is seen with
A.thiopental
B.etomidate
C.midazolam
D.propofol

Ans)D

5)general anaesthetic without analgesic activity
A.Halothane
B.thiopental
C.etomidate
D.all

Ans)D

6)general anaesthetic that causes suppression of adrenal steroids
A.etomidate
B.ketamine
C.propofol
D.halothane

Ans)A

7)which of the following general anaesthtics are used in DAY CASE SURGERY
A.propofol
B.desflurane
C.halothane
D.A&B
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Ans)D

8)which of the following general anaesthtic produces DISSOCIATIVE
ANAESTHESIA
A.etomidate
B.ketamine
C.propofol
D.halothane

Ans)B

9) statement 1:- general anaesthetics generally act on GABA-A receptor and
produces anaesthesia
statement 2:- ketamine act on GABA-A receptor and produces anaesthesia
A.statement 1&2 false
B. statement 1 true & 2 false
C.statement 1 false & 2 true
D. satement 1&2 true

Ans)B

10)halothane causes hepatoxicity which is attributed to
A.triflouoro acetate metabolite
B.hydroxy metabolite
C.tri hydroxy metabolite
D.oxygen free radical formation

Ans)A

11)MALIGNANT HYPERTHERMIA is seen with
A.etomidate
B.ketamine
C.propofol
D.halothane

Ans)D

12)which of the following is TRUE
A.high lipid solubility of the drug causes fast induction and slow recovery
B.high lipid solubility of the drug causes slow induction and slow recovery
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C.low lipid solubility of the drug causes fast induction and slow recovery
D.low lipid solubility of the drug causes slow induction and fast recovery

Ans)B

13)midazolam , an intravenous anaesthetic is a
A.barbiturate
B.benzodiazepine
C.dibenzazepine
D.dibenzdiazepine

Ans)B

14)barbiturate used as intravenous anaesthetic is
A.etomidate
B.ketamine
C.propofol
D.thiopental

Ans)D

15)if blood:gas partition coefficient is low in case of inhalation anaesthetic
then
A. slow induction and slow recovery
B. fast induction and slow recovery
C. fast induction and fast recovery
D. slow induction and fast recovery

Ans)C

16)5HT-1A agonist that is used as anxiolytic is
A.spiperone
B.buspirone
C.diazepam
D.zolpidem

Ans)B

17)an antihistamine used as sedative
A.ranitidine
B.diphenhydramine
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C.citrizine
D.diazepam

Ans)B

18)which of the following is withdrawn from market due to severe side effects
A.midazolam
B.triazolam
C.alprazolam
D.zolpidem

Ans)B

19)which of the following used for TAMING OF ANIMALS
A.diazepam
B.ketamine
C.propofol
D.pentobarbital

Ans)A

20)anterograde amnesia is side effect of
A.benzodiazepines
B.barbiturates
C.buspirone
D.st.johns wort

Ans)A

21)benzodiazepine overdosage is treated by
A.B-carbolines
B.A-carbolines
C.G-carbolines
D.none

Ans)A

22)flumazenil used as benzodiazepine overdosage is
A. benzodiazepine agonist
B. benzodiazepine antagonist
C. benzodiazepine inverse agonist
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D. benzodiazepine inverse antagonist

Ans)C

23)benzodiazepines which have no intermediate metabolites and directly
undergo glucoronidation
A.diazepam
B.alprazolam
C.lorazepam
D.clonazepam

Ans)C

24)anxiolytic without action on CNS
A.diazepam
B.propanolol
C.alprazolam
D.meprobamate

Ans)B

25)benzodiazepine used as anxiolytic, anticonvulsant and also anti-maniac
A.diazepam
B.alprazolam
C.lorazepam
D.clonazepam

Ans)D

26)NON-benzodiazepine but acts on benzodiazepine binding site acts as
hypnotic
A.midazolam
B.triazolam
C.alprazolam
D.zolpidem

Ans)D

27)anxiolytic with muscle relaxant activity in following
A.zolpidem
B.zopiclone
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C.meprobamate
D.lorazepam

Ans)C

ANTIPSYCOTICS,ANTI DEPRESSANTS


1)Antipsychotics act by antagonism at which receptors
A.adrenergic
B.cholinergic
C.dopaminergic
D.glutamatergic

Ans)C

2)radioactive dopamine D2 antagonist is
A.raclopride
B.repaglanide
C.dizocilpine
D.chlorpromazine

Ans)A

3)which of the following is an atypical antipsychotic
A.chlopromazine
B.thioridazine
C.haloperidol
D.clozapine

Ans)D

4)clozapine an atypical antipsychotic is
A.benzodiazepine
B. dibenzodiazepine
C. dibenzoazepine
D. benzoazepine

Ans)B

5) antipsychotic drug that acts mainly on D4 receptors is
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A.chlopromazine
B.thioridazine
C.haloperidol
D.clozapine

Ans)D

6)general anaesthetic that causes psychosis is
A.propofol
B.ketamine
C.etomidate
D.midazolam

Ans)B

7)which of the following is NOT the side effect of antipsychotics
A.gynacomastia
B.tardive diskinesia
C.extra pyramidal motor disturbances(EPS)
D.emesis

Ans)D

8)haloperidol belongs to class
A.phenothiazines
B.benzodiazepines
C.thioxanthines
D.buterophenones

Ans)D

9)typical antipsychotic which has least tendency of EPS
A.chlorpromazine
B.risperidone
C.haloperidol
D.thioridazine

Ans) D

10)overdosage of antipsychotics cause
A.emesis
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B.catalepsy
C.narcolepsy
D.psychosis

Ans)B

11)statement 1:: anxiolytics are cns depressants
statement 2:: antipsychotics are cns depressants

based on above statements find the CORRECT statement
A.anxiolytics cause euphoria
B.antipsychotics cause euphoria
C.antipsychotics are also called anti depressants
D.anxiolytics cause apathy or disphoria

Ans)A

12)clozapine side effect is
A.EPS
B.weight loss
C.agranulocytosis
D.emesis

Ans)C

13)which of the following antipsychotic is used in neuraleptanalgesia
A.promethazine
B.flupentixol
C.droperidol
D.sulpiride

Ans)C

14)anti psychotic used as anti emetic is
A.haloperidol
B.phenothiazine
C.sulpiride
D.resperidone

Ans)B

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15)anti psychotics are also known as
A.anti schizophrenics
B.anti epileptics
C.anti emetics
D.anaesthetics

Ans)A

16)which of the following binds to 5 receptors at a time
A.phenothiazines
B.tricyclic antidepressants
C.thioxanthines
D.lithium

Ans)B

17)tricyclic antidepressants mainly act by
A.inhibit NA and 5HT reuptake
B.inhibit NA reuptake only
C.inhibit 5HT reuptake only
D.inhibit the synthesis of NA and 5HT

Ans)A

18)which of the following causes CHEESE reaction when coadministered with
fermented products
A.imipramine
B.vinalfaxine
C.bupropion
D.phenelzine

Ans)D

19)which of the following antidepressant is used to treat nicotine dependence
A.imipramine
B.vinalfaxine
C.bupropion
D.phenelzine

Ans)C

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20)which of the following is the element used in mania treatment
A.lithium
B.valproic acid
C.carbamazepine
D.sodium

Ans)A

21) which of the following antidepressant is used to treat alcohol
dependence
A.imipramine
B.vinalfaxine
C.bupropion
D.trazodone

Ans)D

22)MAO inhibitor that donot cause CHEESE reaction is
A.phenelzine
B.moclobemide
C.tranylcypromine
D.isocarboxazid

Ans)B

23)mao inhibitors are contraindicated with
A.paracetamol
B.cetrizine
C.pethidine
D.cocaine

Ans)C

24)ANTI-TUBERCULOID MAO inhibitor is
A.iproniazid
B.moclobemide
C.tranylcypromine
D.phenelzine

Ans)A

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25)which of the following are safe in over dosage
A.venalfaxine
B.imipramine
C.amitryptiline
D.bupropion

Ans)A


NSAIDS & OPIOID DRUGS


1)NSAIDS DONOT have the following property
A.anlgesic
B.antipyretic
C.anti-inflammatory
D.anti-emetic

Ans)D

2)NSAID without anti-inflammatory action
A.aspirin
B.mefenamic acid
C.rofecoxib
D.paracetamol

Ans)D

3)reyes syndrome is the side effect of
A.aspirin
B.mefenamic acid
C.rofecoxib
D.paracetamol

Ans)A

4)which of the following is the WRONG statement of ASPIRIN
A.aspirin prevents platelet aggregation
B.aspirin causes salicylate poisoning
C.aspirin produce salicylate metabolite which is inactive
D.aspirin is used in cardiovascular disorders
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Ans)C

5)which of the following is NOT a prodrug
A.Sulindac
B.Nabumetone
C.parecoxib
D.paracetamol

Ans)D

6)N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine is the toxic metabolite produced from
A.aspirin
B.mefenamic acid
C.rofecoxib
D.paracetamol

Ans)D

7)which of the following opioid is used as anti tussive
A.pethidine
B.codeine
C.cocaine
D.amphetamine

Ans)B

8)which of the following are cox-2 selective inhibitors
A.aspirin
B.paracetamol
C.rofecoxib
D.diclofenac

Ans)C

9)cox-2 selective inhibitors have specific side effect
A.renal toxicity
B.cardio toxicity
C.hepato toxicity
D.bone rigidity

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Ans)B

10)which of the following statement is WRONG regarding NSAIDS
A. NSAIDS cause delay in labour
B. NSAIDS cause closure of ductus arteriosus
C. NSAIDS cause peptic ulceration
D. NSAIDS cause brain haemorrhage

Ans)D

11) which of the following is cox Irreversible inhibitor
A.aspirin
B.paracetamol
C.rofecoxib
D.diclofenac

Ans)A

12)aspirin is contraindicated with
A.warfarin
B.probenicid
C.sulphonyl ureas
D.ALL

Ans)D

13)dysphoria is associated with which opioid receptor
A.Kappa receptor
B.gamma receptor
C.Meu receptor
D.all

Ans)A

14) which of the following is partial agonist at MEU opioid receptor
A.nalorphine
B.buprenorphine
C.nalbuphine
D.nalaxone

Ans)B
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15)which of the following is a partial agonist
A.pentazocine
B.naloxone
C.morphine
D.codeine

Ans)A

16) which of the following is a benzomorphan derivative
A.pethidine
B.morphine
C.codeine
D.pentazocine

Ans)D

17)An opioid that lacks analgesic action is
A.pethidine
B.morphine
C.codeine
D.loperamide

Ans)D

18)opioid that is used as anaesthtic for higher animals
A.etorphine
B.morphine
C.codeine
D.pethidine

Ans)A

19)opioid agonist used in the treatment of withdrawl syndrome is
A.methadone
B.buprenorphine
C.nalbuphine
D.nalaxone

Ans)A

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20)which of the following is NOT an adverse effect of opioids
A.constipation
B.respiratory depression
C.abstinence syndrome
D.hyperpyrexia(high fever)

Ans)D

21)opioid which cause respiratory depression that cannot be reversed by the
naloxone is
A.nalorphine
B.buprenorphine
C.nalbuphine
D.nalaxone

Ans)B

22)which of the following is used to detect opiate poisoning
A.constipation
B.respiratory depression
C.abstinence syndrome
D.pin point pupils

Ans)D

23)straub tail phenomenon in rats is due to injection with
A.opioid analgesic
B.NSAID
C.anti histamine
D.antiseptic

Ans)A

24)opioids lack which of the following activity
A.analgesic
B.anti inflammatory
C.antipyretic
D.B&D

Ans)D

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25)opioid that donot produce respiratory depression is
A.pethidine
B.morphine
C.meptazinol
D.pentazocine

Ans)C

ANTI EPILEPTICS, CNS STIMULANTS, DRUGS OF ABUSE, LOCAL
ANAESTHETICS


1)which of the following group are used in general
anaesthesia,sedative,hypnotic,anxiolytic and anti epileptics
A.benzodiazepines
B.phenothiazines
C.thioxanthines
D.tri cyclic anti depressants

Ans)A

2) which of the following is used in all types of seizures
A.valproate
B.benzodiazepines
C.ethosuccimide
D.phenytoin

Ans)A

3) which of the following is used in absence seizures
A.phenytoin
B.phenobarbital
C.tiagabine
D.ethosuximide

Ans)D

4) which of the following antiepileptic used in migraine prophylaxis
A.phenytoin
B.valproate
C.tiagabine
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D.ethosuximide

Ans)B

5)which of the following is muscle relaxant used to treat malignant hyper
thermia
A.dantrolene
B.mephenesin
C.baclofen
D.saclofen

Ans)A

6) which of the following has epileptic activity due to block of Na
channels,AMPA receptors and enhance GABA
A.levitiracetam
B.topiramate
C.zonisamide
D.lamotrigine

Ans)B

7)anti epileptic used in the treatment of cardiac disrhythmias
A.phenytoin
B.carbamazepine
C.tiagabine
D.ethosuximide

Ans)A

8)spina bifida is the specific side effect caused by
A.phenytoin
B.valproate
C.tiagabine
D. carbamazepine

Ans)B

9)cleft lip/palate is the specific side effect caused by
A.phenytoin
B.valproate
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C.tiagabine
D.carbamazepine

Ans)A

10) which of the following is respiratory stimulant
A.doxapram
B.amphetamine
C.cocaine
D.bicuculine

Ans)A

11) which of the following is used to treat attention defecit hyperactivity
disorder
A.doxapram
B.amphetamine
C.cocaine
D.bicuculine

Ans)B

12) which of the following is NOT the property of methyl xanthines
A.reduce the incidence of asthmatic attacks
B.antagonise adenosine receptors
C.inhibit phosphodiesterase enzyme
D.cns depressant

Ans)D

13)psychomimetic drug that antagonize NMDA receptors
A.phencyclidine
B.LSD
C.amphetamine
D.Ectasy

Ans)A

14)which of the following is NOT used in treatment of alcohol dependence
A.chlordiazepoxide
B.disulfiram
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C.acamprosate
D.bupropion

Ans)D

15)mechanism of action of local anaesthetics is
A.Na channel block
B.H1 block
C.adrenergic receptor block
D.GABA block

Ans)A

16) local anaesthetic that has no basic group is
A.cocaine
B.procaine
C.benzocaine
D.lidocaine

Ans)C

17)which is added to local anaesthtic to prolong the action of it
A.acetyl choline
B.adrenalline
C.noradrenaline
D.cocaine

Ans)B

18)cns and cardiac side effects of bupivacaine are mainly due to isomer
A.S(-)
B.S(+)
C.R(-)
D.R(+)

Ans)B

19) which of the following antagonizes the antibacterial effect of
sulphonamides when used simultaneously
A.lidocaine
B.procaine
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C.benzocaine
D. cocaine

Ans)B

20) which of the following is most preferred for spinal anaesthesia
A.lidocaine
B.procaine
C.benzocaine
D. cocaine

Ans)A

21) which of the following is most preferred for labour pains (obstetric)
A.bupivacaine
B.tetracaine
C.lignocaine
D.benzocaine

Ans)A

22)anti epileptic used in trigeminal neuralgia is
A. lamotrigine
B.valproate
C.tiagabine
D.carbamazepine

Ans)D

23)use dependent Na channel block is seen in
A.local anaesthetics
B.anti epileptics
C.A&B
D.anti psychotics

Ans)C

24)local anaesthetic used in neuropathic pain
A.cocaine
B.procaine
C.benzocaine
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D.lignocaine

Ans)D

TOPIC: ORGAN SYSTEMS

RESPIRATORY SYSTEM & DIGESTIVE SYSTEM


1)which of the following is bronchodilator of long acting type
A.salmeterol
B.salbutamol
C.terbutaline
D.beclometasone

Ans)A

2) which of the following is bronchodilator with cns stimulant and weak
diuretic property
A.theophylline
B.salbutamol
C.ipratropium
D.monteleucast

Ans)A

3)in the treatment of asthma theophylline given with ethylenediamine
A.to increase the solubility in water
B.to increase the clearance of drug
C.to decrease solubility in water
D.to use it as inhalant

Ans)A

4) which of the following belongs to cysteinyl leukotriene antagonist
A.monteleucast
B.salbutamol
C.terbutaline
D.ipratropium

Ans)A
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5)glucocorticoids are used as___ in asthma
A.anti inflammatory
B.bronchodilators
C.diuretic
D.muscle relaxant

Ans)A

6) which of the following has CROAKY VOICE as unwanted effect in asthma
A. glucocorticoids
B. cysteinyl leukotriene antagonists
C.muscarinic antagonists
D.B2- antagonists

Ans)A

7)anaphylactic shock or angiooedema is treated by
A.adrenaline
B.salbutamol
C.terbutaline
D.ipratropium

Ans)A

8)which of the following is the phosphodiesterase inhibitor used in the COPD
A.roflumilast
B.monteleucast
C.zafirleucast
D.omalizumab

Ans)A

9)proton pump inhibitors are
A.benzimidazoles
B.benzodiazepines
C.imidazoles
D.azoles

Ans)A

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10)H2 antagonist that inhibits CYP450 enzymes
A.cimetidine
B.omeprazole
C.ranitidine
D.famotidine

Ans)A

11)mode of action of proton pump inhibitors is
A.inhibit H+/k+ ATPase
B.inhibit Na+/k+ ATPase
C. inhibit Na+/Cl- ATPase
D. inhibit H+/ Cl- ATPase

Ans)A

12)which of the following are muco-protective
A.Bismuth chelate
B.omeprazole
C.ranitidine
D.famotidine

Ans)A

13)the main side effect of antacids
A. constipation
B. .emesis
C.head ache
D.muscle fatigue

Ans)A

14)peptic ulcer is caused by
A.helicobacter pylori
B. helicobacter loureri
C.salmonella sps
D.wucheraria sps

Ans)A

15)which of the following is gynacomastia causing drug
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A.cimetidine
B.omeprazole
C.ranitidine
D.famotidine

Ans)A

16) which of the following is not a target of antiemetic drugs
A.H2 antagonism
B.5HT3 antagonism
C.muscarinic antagonism
D.D2 antagonism

Ans)A

17) which of the following is used to treat Monday morning sickness
A.promethazine
B.metoclopramide
C.domperidone
D.ondansetron

Ans)A

18) ) which of the following is banned recently as it caused foetal cardiac
arrythmias
A.cisapride
B.metoclopramide
C.domperidone
D.docussate sodium

Ans)A

19)which of the following is faecal softner
A. docussate sodium
B.senna
C.domperidone
D.nabilone

Ans)A

20) which of the following is used in treating diarrhoea
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A.loperamide
B.domperidone
C.meteclopramide
D.senna

Ans)A

EXCETORY SYSTEM,ANTI DIABETICS,OBESITY


1)loop diuretics show which of the following pump at lumen
A.Na+/H+ antiport
B. Na+/H+ symport
C. Na+/k+ -atpase
D. Na+/k+/2cl-

Ans)A

2) diuretics generally show which of the following pump at basolateral
membrane
A.Na+/H+ antiport
B. Na+/H+ symport
C. Na+/k+ -atpase
D. Na+/k+/2cl-

Ans)C

3)which of the following is potassium sparing diuretic
A.mannitol
B.theophylline
C.triamterene
D.acetazolamide

Ans)C

4) which of the following is carbonic anhydrase inhibitor used as diuretic
A.mannitol
B.theophylline
C.triamterene
D.acetazolamide

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Ans)D

5)gynacomastia is specific side effect of which diuretic
A.mannitol
B.spironolactone
C.triamterene
D.acetazolamide

Ans)B

6)which of the following diuretic is used in treatment of glaucoma
A.mannitol
B.spironolactone
C.triamterene
D.acetazolamide

Ans)D

7)mechanism of action of triamterene
A.Na channel block
B.k channel block
C.ca channel block
D.ALL

Ans)A

8)diuretics that are safe when simultaneously used with digoxin and other
dissrhytmia drugs
A.mannitol
B.theophylline
C.triamterene
D.acetazolamide

Ans)C

9)aminoglycosides are contraindicated with loop diuretics bcoz
A.combination cause severe deafness
B.cause metabolism inhibition
C. cause metabolism increase
D.cause severe diuresis

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Ans)A

10) which of the following is not a thiazide diuretic
A.chlortalidone
B.indapamide
C.metolazone
D.amiloride

Ans)D

11)nocturnal enuresis in children can be treated with
A.desmopressin
B.theophylline
C.triamterene
D.acetazolamide

Ans)A

12) which of the following is used to treat nephrogenic diabetes incipidus
A.bendroflumithiazide
B. desmopressin
C. amiloride
D.triamterene

Ans)A

13)canrenone is the metabolite of
A.mannitol
B.spironolactone
C.triamterene
D.acetazolamide

Ans)B

14)hyperglycemia side effect is seen with
A.glococorticoids
B.thiazide diuretics
C.protease inhibitors
D.ALL

Ans)D
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15)alfa glucosidase inhibitor is
A.acarbose
B.metformin
C.rosiglitazones
D.chlorpropamide

Ans)A

16)mechanism of biguanides
A.reduce insulin resistance
B.inhibit gluconeogenesis
C.decrease LDL & VLDL
D.ALL

Ans)D

17)which of the following has mechanism of action as stimulate B cells of
pancreas to produce insulin
A.biguanides
B.glitazones
C.sulphonyl ureas
D. alfa glucosidase inhibitor

Ans)C

18)carditoxicity is associated mainly with
A.biguanides
B.glitazones
C.sulphonyl ureas
D. alfa glucosidase inhibitor

Ans)B

19)which of the following act on PPAR-gamma receptor
A.biguanides
B.glitazones
C.sulphonyl ureas
D. alfa glucosidase inhibitor

Ans)B
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20)which of the following anti obesic drug is removed from market in India
recently
A.sibutramine
B.metformin
C.rosiglitazones
D.orilstat

Ans)A

BLOOD , HEART AND RELATED TOPICS

1)which of the following are the teritiary pacemakers
A.SA node
B.AV node
C.bundle of his and purkinje fibres
D.cells of wall of heart

Ans)C

2) which of the following are the choice of drug during acute anginal attack
A.organic nitrates
B.K channel activators
C.Beta-antagonists
D.Ca channel blockers

Ans)A

3) which of the following is the prominent side effect of organic nitrates
A.Monday morning sickness
B.bradyhycardia
C.emesis
D.hypertension

Ans)A

4)vascular steal is the phenomenon seen in
A.digoxin
B.amrinone
C.amiodarone
D.dipyridamole
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Ans)D

5) which of the following are used in cyanide poisoning
A.ivabradine
B.amyl nitrite
C.amiodarone
D.dipyridamole

Ans)B

6)potassium channel activator is
A.verapamil
B.amyl nitrite
C.Nicorandil
D.dipyridamole

Ans)C

7)Ca channel blocker that acts on both L & T type channels
A.mibefradil
B.nifedipine
C.diltiazem
D.amilodipine

Ans)A

8)ditiazem belongs to which group of ca channel blockers
A.dihydropyridines
B.phenylalkylamines
C.benzothiazepines
D.benzodiazepines

Ans)C

9)which of the following group of ca channel blockers not used as anti-
disrhythmiatic
A.dihydropyridines
B.phenylalkylamines
C.benzothiazepines
D.benzodiazepines
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Ans)B

10)mechanism of action of cardiac glycosides is
A.inhibition of Na+/K+ Atpase
B. inhibition of Na+/cl- Atpase
C. inhibition of K+/cl-+ Atpase
D. inhibition of H+/K+ Atpase

Ans)A

11) which of the following is a vasodilator and anti platelet drug
A.verapamil
B.amyl nitrite
C.Nicorandil
D.dipyridamole

Ans)D

12)digoxin shows
A.increased force of conduction and negative rate of conduction
B. increased force of conduction and increased rate of conduction
C. negative force of conduction and negative rate of conduction
D. negative force of conduction and increased rate of conduction
Ans)A

13)antidysrhytmic drug showing atropine like effects belong to the class
A.1a
B.1b
C.1c
D.2

Ans)A

14)adenosine is used in
A.Supra ventricular tachycardia
B.rapid atrial fibrillation
C.heart block
D.sinus bradycardia

Ans)A
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15)which of the following anti disrhythmia drug show both Na channel and K
channel block
A. amiodarone
B. verapamil
C.digoxin
D.flecainide

Ans)A

16) which of the following group of ca channel blockers used as vasodilator
by action on blood vessels(antihypertensive)
A.dihydropyridines
B.phenylalkylamines
C.benzothiazepines
D.benzodiazepines

Ans)A

17)which of the following drug used to treat baldness though
antihypertensive
A.minoxidil
B.Nicorandil
C.cromakalim
D.milrinone

Ans)A

18)which of the following is not a phosphodiesterase inhibitor
A.amrinone
B.milrinone
C.theophylline
D.nicorandil

Ans)D

19) which of the following is rennin inhibitor
A.enalkiren
B.captopril
C.valsartan
D.enalprilat
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Ans)A

20)side effect of Angiotensin Converting Enzyme inhibitors
A.psychosis
B.dry cough
C.emesis
D.fatigue

Ans)B

21)ankle oedema is side effect produced by
A.Ca channel blockers
B.beta blockers
C.digoxin
D.Na channel blockers

Ans)A

22)pulmonary hypertension is treated with
A.captopril
B.valsartan
C.sildenafil
D.clopidogrel

Ans)C

23)HMG CO-A reductase inhibitors are
A.statins
B.sartans
C.prils
D.Fibrates

Ans)A

24)gall stones formation is the side effect of
A.clofibrate
B.atorvastatin
C.ezetimibe
D.colestipol

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Ans)A

25)fish oil derivatives are rich in
A.omega-1-fatty acids
B. omega-2-fatty acids
C. omega-3-fatty acids
D. omega-5-fatty acids

Ans)C

26)statins and fibrates cause
A.rhabdomyolysis
B.emesis
C. heart block
D.atrial fibrillation

Ans)A

BLOOD & RELATED TOPICS REMAINING

1)Treatment of overdosage of warfarin is by
A.heparin
B.vitamin k
C.danaparoid
D.folic acid

Ans)B

2)heparin is a
A.glucosaminoglycan
B.glycogen polymer
C.amino acid
D.fat

Ans)A

3)low molecular weight heparin inhibits
A.IIa and Xa factor
B. Xa factor
C. IIa only
D.none
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Ans)B

4)which of the following is an heparin antagonist
A.protamine
B.fondaparinux
C.vitamin-k
D.melagatran

Ans)A

5)which of the following is NOT a thrombin inhibitor
A. danaparoid
B.hirudin
C.melagatran
D.warfarin

Ans)D

6)which of the following is vitamin-k antagonist
A. danaparoid
B.hirudin
C.melagatran
D.warfarin

Ans)D

7) which of the following is NOT antiplatelet drug
A.aspirin
B.epoprostenol
C.clopidogrel
D.hirudin

Ans)D

8)abiciximab is a glycoprotein
A.antagonist at IIa/IIIb
B. antagonist at IIb/IIIa
C. agonist at IIa/IIIb
D. agonist at IIb/IIIa

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Ans)B

9)which of the following is an thienopyridine derivative
A. danaparoid
B. clopidogrel
C.melagatran
D.warfarin

Ans)B

10)mode of a action of antifibrinolytics
A.inhibits conversion of plasminogen to plasmin
B.promotes conversion of plasminogen to plasmin
C.vitamink antagonist
D.inhibit cox

Ans)A

11)anti thrombolytic drug is
A.streptokinase
B. clopidogrel
C.melagatran
D.tranexamic acid

Ans)D

12)tissue plasminogen activator among the following is
A.streptokinase
B. clopidogrel
C.melagatran
D.tranexamic acid

Ans)A

13)storage form of iron in human body as
A.haemosiderin
B.haemoglobin
C.iron plates
D.transferrin

Ans)A
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14)mode of action of desferroxamine is
A.inhibit iron uptake
B. chelation of iron
C.increase iron storage
D.increase haemoglobin formation

Ans)B

15)recombinant granulocyte colony stimulating factor is
A.filgrastim
B.erythropoietin
C.streptokinase
D.aprotinin

Ans)A

16) recombinant granulocyte colony stimulating factor shows prolonged
action when conjugated with
A.poly ethylene glycol
B.poly ether
C.polyethylene
D.ALL

Ans)A

ANTIHISTAMINES

1)which of the following is non sedative anti histamine
A.hydroxyzine
B.promethazine
C.chlorpheneramine
D.Fexofenadine

Ans)D

2) which of the following is non sedative anti histamine withdrawn bcoz of
serious cardiac side effects
A.Fexofenadine
B.mizolastine
C.loratidine
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D.terfenadine

Ans)D

3)antihistamines used in treatment of motion sickness
A.promethazine
B. hydroxyzine
C.triprolidine
D.clemastine

Ans)A

4)which of the following is not a clinical use of anti histamines
A.adjunct to adrenaline in anaphylaxis
B.antiemetic
C.treatment of allergic reactions
D.Nausea

Ans)D

ANTI GOUT DRUGS

5)mode of action of colchicine
A.xanthine oxidase inhibitor
B.increase uric acid secretion
C.inhibit leucocyte migration into joint
D.anti inflammatory and analgesic

Ans)C

6)the following are the antigout drugs
I)colchicine
II)NSAIDs
III)Allopurinol

Which are used in acute attack of gout
A.I&II
B.I&III
C.I ONLY
D.II&III

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Ans)A

7)Drunken walk of neutrophylls is the distinguishing feature indicates
treatment with
A. Allopurinol
B. colchicine
C.probenecid
D.sulfinpyrazone

Ans)B

8) which of the following is uricosuric with NSAID activity
A. Allopurinol
B. colchicine
C.probenecid
D.sulfinpyrazone

Ans)D

9)stevens- Johnson syndrome is side effect seen in which of the following
A. Allopurinol
B. colchicine
C.probenecid
D.sulfinpyrazone

Ans)A

10)mode of action of allopurinol is
A. inhibit uric acid synthesis
B.increase uric acid secretion
C.inhibit leucocyte migration into joint
D.anti inflammatory and analgesic

Ans)A

ANTI-RHEUMATOID DRUGS

11)which of the following are NOT DMARDS
A.penicillamine
B.gold compounds
C.chloroquine
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D.ciclosporin

Ans)D

12) which of the following is immunosuppresent used as ANTI-RHEUMATOID
A.penicillamine
B.gold compounds
C.chloroquine
D.ciclosporin

Ans)D

13)which of the following is used in treatment of systemic or discoid
erythmatosus
A. penicillamine
B.sulfasalazine
C.hydroxychloroquine
D.methotrexate

Ans)C

14) which of the following is cytokine inhibitor used in Rheumatoid arthritis
A.anakinara
B.adalimumab
C.etanercept
D.infliximab
E.ALL

Ans)E

15) which of the following is used in wilsons disease
A. penicillamine
B.sulfasalazine
C.hydroxychloroquine
D.methotrexate

Ans)A

IMMUNOSUPPRESANT DRUGS

16)mode of action of ciclosporin
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A.inhibits calcineurin
B.inhibit cytokine gene expression
C.inhibit purine synthesis
D.ALL

Ans)A

17)mode of action of azathioprine
A.inhibits calcineurin
B.inhibit cytokine gene expression
C.inhibit purine synthesis
D.inhibit pyrimidine synthesis


Ans)C

18)mode of action of leflunomide
A.inhibits calcineurin
B.inhibit cytokine gene expression
C.inhibit purine synthesis
D.inhibit pyrimidine synthesis

Ans)D

19)drug metabolites that undergo enterohepatic circulation
I) leflunomide
II)mycophenolic acid
III)ciclosporin
A.I&II
B.I&III
C.I ONLY
D.II&III

Ans)A

20)mode of action of glucocorticoids as immunosuppressant is
A.inhibits calcineurin
B.inhibit cytokine gene expression
C.inhibit purine synthesis
D.inhibit pyrimidine synthesis

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Ans)B

TOPIC: CHEMOTHERAPY

INTRODUCTION TO CHEMOTHERAPY

TOPIC: CHEMOTHERAPY

INTRODUCTION TO CHEMOTHERAPY

1)which of the following acts on cell wall synthesis
I)cycloserine
II)vancomycin
III)bacitracin
IV)Beta lactam antibiotics
V)tetracyclins
VI)macrolides

A.ALL except V&VI
B. ALL
C. V&VI
D.I&II&III&VI

Ans)A

SULPHONAMIDES

2)which of the following sulphonamide is a prodrug
A.sulfasalazine
B.sulfapyridine
C.sulphalene
D.sulfamethoxazole

Ans)A

3)mode of action of sulphonamides
A.competetive PABA inhibitor
B.acts on DNA
C.inhibit Rna polymerase
D.dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor

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Ans)A

4)sulphonamides are
A.bacteriostatic
B.bactericidal
C.anti viral
D.bacteriostatic& anti viral

Ans)A

5)which of the following is side effect seen with sulphonamides
A.crystalluria
B.emesis
C.bone marrow depression
D.immuno suppression

Ans)A

6)which of the following is folate antagonist
A.trimethoprim
B.sulfapyridine
C.BOTH A&B
D.tetracyclin

Ans)A

7)sulfasalazine is combination of
A.sulfapyridine & aminosalicylate
B.trimethoprim & sulfamethoxazole
C. sulfapyridine & sulfamethoxazole
D. sulfamethoxazole & aminosalicylate

Ans)A

8)cotrimoxazole is combination of
A.sulfapyridine & aminosalicylate
B.trimethoprim & sulfamethoxazole
C. sulfapyridine & sulfamethoxazole
D. sulfamethoxazole & aminosalicylate

Ans)B
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BETA LACTAM ANTIBIOTICS

PENICILLINS& CEPHALOSPORINS


9)resistance to penecillins is due to development of
A.beta lactamase
B.efflux of penecillins
C.thick cell walls
D.DNA possess penicillin resistant nature

Ans)A

10)co-amoxiclav is combination of
A.trimethoprim & sulfamethoxazole
B.clavulanic acid & amoxicillin
C. clavulanic acid & trimethoprim
D.benzyl penicillin & clavulanic acid

Ans)B

11)clavulanic acid is
A. beta lactamase inhibitor
B.folate antagonist
C.broad spectrum penecillin
D.extended spectrum penicillin

Ans)A

12) which of the following is side effect seen with penicillins
A.crystalluria
B.emesis
C.anaphylactic shock
D.immuno suppression

Ans)C

13)which of the following is NOT beta lactamase resistant
A.flucloxacillin
B.cefalexin
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C.aztreonam
D.imipenem

Ans)B

14)cilastatin is
A.Renal dihydropeptidase inhibitor
B. beta lactamase inhibitor
C. folate antagonist
D.both A&C

Ans)A

15)which of the following has no action against gram +ve bacteria
A.flucloxacillin
B.cefalexin
C.aztreonam
D.imipenem

Ans)C

16)which of the following belongs to an extended spectrum penicillins
A.flucloxacillin
B.ticarcillin
C.aztreonam
D.imipenem

Ans)B

17) which of the following belongs to 3rd generation cephalosporins
A.cefuroxime
B.cefalexin
C.cefaclor
D.ceftriaxone

Ans)D

18)which of the following statement is TRUE
A.broad spectrum pencillins are beta lactamase resistant
B. extended spectrum pencillins are beta lactamase resistant
C.carbapenems are beta lactamase succeptible
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D.monobactams are beta lactamase resistant

Ans)D

19)mode of action of Beta lactam antibiotics
A.inhibit cell wall synthesis
B.inhibit topoisomerase II
C.inhibit dna synthesis
D.inhibit cell division

Ans)A

20)cephalosporin that cause drug induced alcohol intolerance is
A.cefoperazone
B.cefalexin
C.cefaclor
D.ceftriaxone

Ans)A

Date::21-09-2011


TOPIC: CHEMOTHERAPY

ANTI BACTERIALS AFFECTING PROTEIN SYNTHESIS

TETRACYCLINES

1) mode of action of tetracyclines
A.inhibit cell wall synthesis
B.inhibit topoisomerase II
C.inhibit protein synthesis
D.inhibit cell division

Ans)C

2)specific site of action of tetracyclines
A.competes with t-rna for A site on 50s subunit
B.abnormal codon leads to mis reading of message
C.inhibition of transpeptidation
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D.inhibition of translocation

Ans)A

3)tetracyclins should not be co administered with
A.milk
B.antacids
C.iron tablets
D.ALL

Ans)D

4)which tetracycline inhibits the action of the anti diuretic hormone
A.tetracycline
B.demeclocycline
C.minocycline
D.doxycycline

Ans)B

CHLORAMPHENICOL

5)mode of action of chloramphenicol is
A.competes with t-rna for A site on 50s subunit
B.abnormal codon leads to mis reading of message
C.inhibition of transpeptidation
D.inhibition of translocation

Ans)C

6)resistance to chloramphenicol is due to
A.production of chloramphenicol acetyltransferase
B.development of efflux chambers
C.decreased upake of chloramphenicol by organism
D.forms a protective barrier over the dna

Ans)A

7)which of the following side effects seen with chloramphenicol
A.pancytopenia
B.grey baby syndrome
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C.alteration of intestinal microbial flora
D.ALL

Ans)D

8) resistance to chloramphenicol is
A.plasmid mediated
B.rna mediated
C.dna mediated
D.gram +ve mediated

Ans)A

9)chloramphenicol is bacteriostatic in general but bactericidal to
A.Haemophilus influenzae
B.helicobacter sps
C.streptomyces sps
D.compilobacter sps

Ans)A

AMINOGLYCOSIDES

10) specific site of action of aminoglycosides
A.competes with t-rna for A site on 50s subunit
B.abnormal codon leads to mis reading of message
C.inhibition of transpeptidation
D.inhibition of translocation

Ans)B

11)aminoglycosides are contraindicated with
I)Loop diuretics bcoz (a)
II)cephalosporins bcoz (b)

Here (a) and (b) respectively is
A.nephrotoxic and oototoxic
B.oototoxic and nephrotoxic
C.hepatotoxic and nephrotoxic
D.hepatotoxic and oototoxic

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Ans)B

12)aminoglycosides are contraindicated with
A.milk
B.antacids
C.iron tablets
D.neuromuscular blocking agents

Ans)D

13)resistance of aminoglycosides is cleared by coadministration with
A.penecellins
B.cephalosporins
C.loop diuretics
D.tetracyclins

Ans)A

14)which of the following is not an aminoglycoside
A.streptomycin
B.netilimycin
C.tobramycin
D.azithromycin

Ans)D

MACROLIDES

15) specific site of action of macrolides
A.competes with t-rna for A site on 50s subunit
B.abnormal codon leads to mis reading of message
C.inhibition of transpeptidation
D.inhibition of translocation

Ans)D

16)which of the following causes cholestatic jaundice
A.Beta lactams
B.tetracyclins
C.macrolides
D.chloramphenicol
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Ans)C

17) which of the following is not macrolide
A.erythromycin
B.roxithromycin
C.clarithromycin
D.gentamycin

Ans)D

18)clarithromycin is active against
A.mycobacteria
B. helicobacter sps
C. Haemophilus influenzae
D.ALL

Ans)D

STREPTOGRAMINS

19)which of the following statements are TRUE regarding mode of action of
Streptogramins combination
I)the ratio of mixture of quinupristin : dalfopristin is 3 : 7
II)dalfopristin modifies ribosomal structure thus promotes binding with
quinupristin
III)mechanism of action is inhibition of cell wall formation

A.I&II
B.I&II&III
C.II&III
D.I&III

Ans)A

20) which of the following statements are TRUE regarding Streptogramins
A.amikacin is a Streptogramin
B.combination is less active than individual Streptogramins
C.active against GRAM +ve bacteria resistant to other drugs
D. mechanism of action is inhibition of cell wall formation

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Ans)C

LINCOSAMIDES

1) mode of action of lincosamides is
A.competes with t-rna for A site on 50s subunit
B.abnormal codon leads to mis reading of message
C.inhibition of transpeptidation
D.inhibition of translocation

Ans)D

2)the main side effect of lincosamides is
A.pancytopenia
B.grey baby syndrome
C. intestinal rigidity
D.pseudomonas colitis

Ans)D

3) which of the following is lincosamides
A.erythromycin
B.roxithromycin
C.clarithromycin
D.clindamycin

Ans)D

OXAZOLIDONONES

4)which of the following is the oxazolidonones
A.linezolid
B.ethosuximide
C.clarithromycin
D.clindamycin

Ans)A

5)which of the following is TRUE regarding linezolid
A.its mechanism of action is inhibition of N-formomethionyl-tRNA binding to
70 S ribosome
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B.it is a non selective MAO inhibitor
C.the resistance was very least compared to other antibacterials
D.ALL

Ans)D

FUSIDIC ACID

6)which of the following are steroid antibiotics
A.fusidic acid
B.cephalosporin P
C.A& B
D.NONE

Ans)C

QUINOLONES & FLUORO QUINOLONES

7)which of the following is a QUINOLONE of non flourinated
A.nalidixic acid
B.ciprofloxacin
C.ofloxacin
D.C&B

Ans)A

8)which of the following drug is most preferred in patients with cystic fibrosis
A.ciprofloxacin
B.roxithromycin
C.clarithromycin
D.gentamycin

Ans)A

9)quinolones are contraindicated with concurrent use of
A.Al,Mg containing antacids
B.theophylline
C.NSAIDs
D.ALL

Ans)D
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10) mode of action of quinolones is
A.competes with t-rna for A site on 50s subunit
B.inhibition of topoisomerase-II
C.inhibition of transpeptidation
D.inhibition of cell wall synthesis

Ans)B

MISCELLANEOUS

11)pseudomembrane colitis is treated by
A.linezolid
B.vancomycin
C.clarithromycin
D.clindamycin

Ans)B

12) mode of action of vancomycin is
A.competes with t-rna for A site on 50s subunit
B.abnormal codon leads to mis reading of message
C.inhibition of transpeptidation
D.inhibition of cell wall synthesis

Ans)D

13)which of the following is a glycopeptide antibiotic
A.linezolid
B.vancomycin
C.clarithromycin
D.clindamycin

Ans)B

14)which of the following is the polymixin antibiotic
A.linezolid
B.vancomycin
C.colistin
D.clindamycin

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Ans)C

15) mode of action of polymixins is
A.competes with t-rna for A site on 50s subunit
B.inhibition of topoisomerase-II
C.inhibition of transpeptidation
D.disrupting the cell membranes of bacterial cells

Ans)D

ANTI MYCOBACTERIALS

16)initial phase treatment for the resistant suspected tuberculosis treatment
is
A.ISONIAZID + RIFAMPICIN + PYRAZINAMIDE + ETHAMBUTOL
B. ISONIAZID + RIFAMPICIN + PYRAZINAMIDE
C. ISONIAZID + RIFAMPICIN
D.RIFAMPICIN + PYRAZINAMIDE

Ans)A

17)which of the following statement is true regarding isoniazid
A.bacteriostatic
B.bactericidal
C. bacteriostatic but bactericidal for dividing cells
D.antiviral

Ans)C

18) which of the following statement is true regarding isoniazid side effects
A.cause haemolytic anaemia in patients with glucose-6-phosphate
dehydrogenase deficiency
B.hepatotoxicity
C.neurotoxic due to B6 vitamin deficiency
D.ALL

Ans)D

19) mode of action of rifampicin is
A.inhibit dna dependent RNA polymerase in bacteria
B. inhibit dna dependent RNA polymerase in host cells
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C.inhibition of transpeptidation
D.disrupting the cell membranes of bacterial cells

Ans)A

20)orange saliva and sweat and tears indicates treatment with
A. ISONIAZID
B. RIFAMPICIN
C. PYRAZINAMIDE
D. ETHAMBUTOL

Ans)B

21) which of the following statement is true regarding RIFAMPICIN side
effects
A.hepatotoxic
B.induces hepatic microsomal enzymes
C.concurrent use leads to failure of oral contraceptives
D.ALL

Ans)D

22)sulfa drug used in the treatment of leprosy is
A.DAPSONE
B.RIFABUTIN
C.CLOFAZIMINE
D.CAPREOMYCIN

Ans)A

23)dye complex drug used in the treatment of leprosy is
A.DAPSONE
B.RIFABUTIN
C.CLOFAZIMINE
D.CAPREOMYCIN

Ans)C

24)red colour skin and urine is side effect of
A.DAPSONE
B.RIFABUTIN
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C.CLOFAZIMINE
D.CAPREOMYCIN

Ans)C


ANTI FUNGALS

1)Fungal antibiotics mainly act on
A.cholesterol
B.ergoosterol
C.polysaccarides
D.peptide bonds

Ans)B

2)amphotericin belongs to
A.macrolide polyenes
B.aminoglycosides
C.tetracyclins
D.beta lactams

Ans)A

3)which of the following used as combination with polyenes
A.flucytosine
B.azoles
C.penicillins
D.ALL

Ans)A

4)griseofulvin is isolated from
A.pencillium sps
B.streptomyces sps
C.aspergillus sps
D.candida sps

Ans)A

5)mode of action of griseofulvin is
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A.act on cell membranes by inhibiting ergosterol
B.act on microtubule system and inhibit mitosis
C.acts on dna and inhibit protein synthesis.
D.inhibit cell wall

Ans)B

6) mode of action of echinocandins is
A.act on cell membranes by inhibiting ergosterol
B.act on microtubule system and inhibit mitosis
C.acts on dna and inhibit protein synthesis.
D.inhibit 1,3-beta glucan synthesis

Ans)D

7) mode of action of azoles is
A.act on cell membranes by inhibiting lanosine-14-alfa demethylase
B.act on microtubule system and inhibit mitosis
C.acts on dna and inhibit protein synthesis.
D.inhibit 1,3-beta glucan synthesis

Ans)A

8)inhibition of adrenal corticosteroids is seen with
A.ketoconazole
B. griseofulvin
C.amphotericin
D.nystatin

Ans)D

9)steven johnsons syndrome is seen with
A.itraconazole
B. griseofulvin
C.amphotericin
D.nystatin

Ans)A

10) mode of action of flucytosine is
A.act on cell membranes by inhibiting ergosterol
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B.act on microtubule system and inhibit mitosis
C.inhibit thymidylate synthesis thus dna inhibited
D.inhibit cell wall

Ans)C

11)which of the following inhibits enzyme squalene epoxidase
A.itraconazole
B. griseofulvin
C.amphotericin
D.terbinafine

Ans)D

ANTI HELMINTHICS

12)resistance development in helminthes is due to
A.development of rigid cell walls
B.development of high competitive drug antidotes
C.development of drug efflux pumps
D.NONE

Ans)C

13)which of the following is not a benzimidazole
A.Albendazole
B.mebendazole
C.posaconazole
D.tiaconazole

Ans)C

14) mode of action of benzimidazoles is
A.inhibit polymerization of B-tubulin in helminth
B.inhibit glucose uptake
C.A&B
D. act on cell membranes by inhibiting ergosterol

Ans)C

15)the active metabolite in the metabolism of the benzimidazoles are
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A.sulfoxide
B.sulfone
C.sulphide
D.sulphate

Ans)A

16)which of the following is safe antihelminthic drug for pregnants for
filariasis
A.diethyl carbamazine
B.ivermectin
C.levamisole
D.praziquantel

Ans)B

17) mode of action of piperazine is
A.inhibit GABA gated cl- channels and cause paralysis and worm are expelled
by purgative later
B. inhibit GABA gated cl- channels and cause paralysis and worm are expelled
by natural intestinal movements
C. inhibit glucose uptake
D. inhibit polymerization of B-tubulin in helminth

Ans)B

18)nicotine like action is seen in which anti helminthic
A.diethyl carbamazine
B.ivermectin
C.levamisole
D.praziquantel

Ans)C

19)which of the following causes MAZOTTI reaction
A.diethyl carbamazine
B.ivermectin
C.levamisole
D.praziquantel

Ans)A
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20)mode of action on ivermectn is
A. paralyse worm by inhibiting GABA gated cl- channels
B.paralyse worm by opening glutamate-gated cl- channels
C. inhibit glucose uptake
D. inhibit polymerization of B-tubulin in helminth

Ans)B

21)which of the following drug is used for schistosomiasis
A.diethyl carbamazine
B.ivermectin
C.levamisole
D.praziquantel

Ans)D

22)which of the following is used for tape worm infections
A.diethyl carbamazine
B.ivermectin
C.levamisole
D.niclosamide

Ans)D


ANTI PROTOZOALS


1)Which of the following is carrier states of protozoals
A.metronidazole
B.diloxanide
C.stibogluconate
D.pentamidine

Ans)B

2)suramin acts as
A.atp antagonist
B.GABA-A antagonist
C. GABA-B antagonist
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D.nmda antagonist

Ans)A

3)leisnmaniasis is treated by
A.sodium stibogluconate
B.pentamidine
C.miltefosine
D.ALL

Ans)D

4)miltefosine mode of action is
A.dna fragmentation followed by apoptosis
B.protein synthesis inhibition
C.cell wall synthesis inhibition
D.ALL

Ans)A

5)MALARONE is combination of
A.atovaquone + proguanil
B.chloroquine + proguanil
C. atovaquone + chloroquine
D.dapsone + chloroquine

Ans)A

6)which of the following DMARD is used as antimalarial
A. chloroquine
B. atovaquone
C. proguanil
D. dapsone

Ans)A

1)which of the following is 8-amino quinolone
A.amodiaquine
B.quinine
C.primaquine
D.chloroquine
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Ans)C

2)chloroquine causes haemolysis in patients with deficiency of
A.Folate
B.glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
C.hexokinase
D.fructose isomerase

Ans)B

3)which of the following is not FALSE regarding chloroquine
A.inhibits haem polymerase
B.inhibit dna,rna synthesis
C.inhibit protein synthesis
D.inhibit cell wall synthesis

Ans)D

4)which of the following antimalarials are used to prevent transmission
A.primaquine
B.chloroquine
C.quinine
D.tetracycline

Ans)A

5)which of the following has depressant action on heart hence leads to
dysrhythmias in over dosage
A.primaquine
B.doxycycline
C.quinine
D.tetracycline

Ans)C

6)which of the following belongs to phenanthrene-methanols
A.halofantrine
B.chloroquine
C.quinine
D.tetracycline
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Ans)A

7)which of the following causes prolongation of QT interval
A.halofantrine
B.chloroquine
C.quinine
D.tetracycline

Ans)A

8)the sulphonamide used in the treatment of malaria is
A.sulfapyridine
B.sulfalene
C.sulfamethoxazole
D.sulfadoxine

Ans)D

9)which of the following is the active metabolite of proguanil
A.cycloguanil
B.heptaguanil
C.acetyl guanil
D.oxyguanil

Ans)A

10) which of the following belongs to hydroxyl napthoquinone drug
A.halofantrine
B.chloroquine
C.quinine
D.atavaquone

Ans)D

11)which of the following is anti malarial safe for pregnant women
A.amodiaquine
B.chloroquine
C.tetracycline
D.atavaquone

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Ans)B

ANTIVIRALS

12)which of the following is neuraminidase inhibitor
A.zanamivir
B.oseltamivir
C.abacavir
D.A&B

Ans)D

13)amantadine mode of action is
A.viral coat disassembly inhibitors
B. neuraminidase inhibitor
C.reverse transcriptase inhibitor
D.protease inhibitors

Ans)A

14)which of the following inhibit hiv fusion with the host cells
A.enfurvitide
B.zidovudine
C.didanosine
D.abacavir

Ans)A

15)which of the following is used in influenza-B infections
A.zanamivir
B.enfurvitide
C.amantidine
D.rimantidine

Ans)A

ANTI CANCER

1)which of the following is an alkylating agent
A.cyclophosphamide
B.cisplatin
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C.thiotepa
D.all

Ans)D

2)which of the following is CORRECT regarding alkylating agents
I)main step of anti cancer action is the formation of carbonium ion
II)forms covalent bonds with the dna and inhibit dna synthesis
III)alkylating agents mainly cause bone marrow depression

A.I&II
B.II&III
C.I&II&III
D.I&III

Ans)C

3)haemorrhagic cystis caused by cyclophosphamide is due to metabolite
A.acrolein
B.MESNA
C.phosphoramide
D.N-acetyl cysteine

Ans)A

4)which of the following alkylating agent acts on non dividing cells also
A.NITROSO UREAS
B.NITROGEN MUSTARDS
C.PLATINUM COMPOUNDS
D.THIOTEPA

Ans)A

5)adverse affects caused by acrolein metabolite are ameliorated by
administering
A. N-acetyl cysteine
B.MESNA
C.A&B
D.chlorambucil

Ans)C
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6)platinum compounds cause
I)nephrotoxicity
II)ooototoxicity
III)neurotoxicity

A.I&II
B.II&III
C.I&II&III
D.I&III

Ans)C

7)which of the following is the folate antagonist used as anticancer drug
A.trimethoprim
B.methotrexate
C.pyremethamine
D.sulfasalazine

Ans)B

8)the CORRECT regarding methotrexate is
I)nephrotoxic
II)rescue given by folinic acid administration
III)folate agonist

A.I&II
B.II&III
C.I&II&III
D.I&III

Ans)A

9)which of the following is the pyrimidine analogue
A.pentostatin
B. fludarabine
C.cytarabine
D.tioguanine

Ans)C

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10)cytarabine is
I)DNA polymerase inhibitor
II)pyrimidine analogue
A.I&II TRUE
B.I TRUE
C.II TRUE
D.I&II false

Ans)A

11)prodrug of fluoro uracil is
A.capecitabine
B.cytarabine
C.fludarabine
D.gemcitabine

Ans)A

12)fluoro uracil inhibits
A.DNA synthesis
B.RNA synthesis
C.protein synthesis
D.ALL

Ans)A

13)mode of action of pentostatin is
A.inhibits adenosine deaminase
B.inhibit thymidilate synthesis
C.deaminates asparagine
D.damage dna

Ans)A

14)methotrexate and folic acid resembles at amino acid residue
A.glutamic acid
B.aspartic acid
C.isoleucine
D.valine

Ans)A
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15)bifunctional alkylating agents cause
A.intrastand linking
B.cross linking
C.A&B
D.move strands apart

Ans)C
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