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All India Test Series
MCAT 6

Instructions:

 This test contains 60 questions in three sections.

 There are 20 questions in Section I, 20 questions in Section II and 20
questions in Section III.
 You will be given two hours and fifteen minutes to complete the
test.
 In distributing the time over the three sections, please bear in mind
that you have to demonstrate your competence in all three sections
 Directions for answering the questions are given before each group of
questions.
 Read these directions carefully and answer the questions by choosing
appropriate Answer.
 Each question has only one correct answer.
 All Questions carry four marks each.
 Each Wrong answer will attract a penalty of One Mark.
 Do not use calculators, log tables, dictionaries, or any printed or online
reference material while taking this test.
 You may use Rough paper for your calculations.
 Try to complete the test in one sitting to feel the real test environment.

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Section I
Number of Questions: 20

Directions for Questions 1 to 20: Answer the questions independent of each other.

Q1. A large circular grass field contains an equilateral triangular patch of side length '4a'
with no grass, at the centre of the field. A goat is tied with a rope of length a√2 at the
circumcentre of the triangle which is also the centre of the field. If the distance between
the two extreme positions of the goat on one side of the triangular region is 2a, find the
area of grass the goat can graze.

A. a2 (3ð/2 -1)
B. 3a2 (ð/2 +1)
C. 3a2 (ð -1)
D. 3a2 (ð/2 -1)
E. None of these

Q2. Find the number of roots of 3|x||2-|x|| =1.

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4

Q3. Three mixtures M1, M2 and M3 each consist liquid A and liquid B. The percentage
of liquid A is 64%, 48% and 32% respectively. Now x litres of mixture is removed and
replaced with an equal amount of B in each mixture. Find the value of x for which the
percentage of liquid A left is minimum for Mixture M1. Given volume of M1 = 32 litres
M2 =4 8 litres and M3 = 64 litres.

A. 18
B. 19
C. 20
D. 22
E. None of these

Q4. A quadratic polynomial P(x) is such that P(a-b)+P(b-c)+P(c-a) = 2P(a+b+c) where

a,b and c are integers such that a+b+c =0. Find the product of roots of the polynomial
A. a2 + b2 + c2
B. - (ab + bc + ca)
C. 3(a2 + b2 + c2)
D. ab + bc + ca
E. - 3(a2 + b2 + c2)

Q5. Two circles of radius 2 and centres O and P touch each other as shown in figure. If
AD and BD are tangents, then the length of BD is.

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A. 2√2
B. 3√2
C. √2
D. 4
E. 6

Q6. Given a and c are fixed real numbers with a < 1< c. Find the largest value of b such
that a+bc ≤ b+ac ≤ c+ab

A. a/2
B. c/2
C. (a+c)/2
D. a
E. c

Q7. A large tank contains two water inlets such that the efficiency of one is four times of
the other. Two outlets have the efficiency twice of that of the both inlets respectively.
Now the first inlet with lower efficiency is opened. After two seconds an outlet of lower
efficiency is opened. Again after two seconds the other inlet is opened. And after two
seconds the other outlet is opened which remains open.
Which of the following is/are true?
I. The height of water in the tank will remain same after 4 seconds.
II. The water filled in 6 seconds is 6 times the water filled in 2 seconds.
III. The level of water will decrease after 8 seconds

A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both I and III
D. Both II and III
E. All I, II and III

Q8. A staircase has ten steps. A frog can jump either one step or two steps at a time. Find
the number of ways in which he can reach to the top.

A. 89
B. 77
C. 69
D. 55

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E. None of these

Q9. The lines 3x-4y+4 =0 and 6x-8y=7 are the tangents to the same circle. Find the
radius of the circle.

A. 7/4
B. 5/4
C. 3/4
D. 5/8
E. 7/8

Q10. In a cricket selection event 40 batsmen appeared and were numbered 1 to 40.
Batsman 1 and Batsman 2 go to play and when one gets out next batsman comes. After 6
balls over was getting changed and the strike changes. One strange thing was happening
that every batsman was getting out on the very first ball he was facing. Which batsman
remained not-out?

A. 36
B. 37
C. 38
D. 39
E. 40

Q11. Number of prime factors of 232 - 1 is:

A. 6
B. 5
C. 4
D. 3
E. greater than 6.

Q12. Find the values of the common ratio for which the three consecutive terms of a G.P
are the sides of a triangle.

A. (√5 -1)/2 < r <1

B. 1 < r < √5 /2
C. (√5 -1)/2 < r < (√5 +1)/2
D. (√5 -1)/2< r < √5 /2
E. None of these

Q13. 02 October 2001 if write as N=10022001 i.e. month and day as two digit integer
and year as four digit integer we get a number which palindrome i.e. reversing the digits
of the number we get the same number. Find the sum of digits of N1 where N1 is a date
previous to 02 October 2001 and is palindrome.

A. 10

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B. 12
C. 22
D. 24
E. None of these

Q14. A string rounded around a cuboid of side a=1, b=6 and c=8cm. Find the minimum
length (in cm) of the string if it reaches the top in one round only.

A. 17
B. 15
C. 13
D. 12
E. None of these

Q15. Two swimmers on opposite sides of a canal head towards each other at different
speeds. When they pass each other the first time they are 700m from one shoreline. They
continue to the opposite shoreline, turn around, and move towards each other again.
When they pass the second time they are 300m from the other shoreline. Find the width
of the canal? Assume both swimmers travel at a constant speed and ignore factors such as
turn-around time and the current of the canal.

A. 2100
B. 1800
C. 1700
D. 1600
E. 1400

Q16. A straight road diverges into two roads from a point A. There is tower situated
between the roads. Two boys B1 and B2 travelling at speed 2km/hr and 4km/hr
respectively start from point A on the either roads. After one hour B1 observes that the
tower subtends an angle 30 degree and he is nearest to the tower. At the same time B2
observes that the angle of elevation of the tower is 45 degree and he is also nearest to the
tower. Find the height of the tower.

A. √6
B. √3
C. √8
D. √12
E. None of these

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Q17. A flask begins with one bacteria. Every minute, every bacteria turns into 0, 1, 2, or
3 bacteria with probability 25% for each case (dies, does nothing, splits into 2, or splits
into 3). What is the probability that the bacteria population eventually dies out?

A. √2
B. √2+1
C. 1/√2
D. (√2 -1)/2
E. √2 -1

Q18. Find the sum of the series: 12/1.3 + 22/3.5 + 32/5.7 + ... + 5002/999.1001

A. 501000/999
B. 501000/1001
C. 125250/1001
D. 125250/999
E. None of these.

Q19. Find the number of points in the xy plane such that their distance from the origin is
√20 and x co-ordinate an integer on division with 3 leaves a remainder 1 and y coordinate
also an integer on division with 3 leaves a remainder of 2 and same quotient as on
dividing the x coordinate.

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4

Q20. How many five-digit numbers the first digit must be non-zero are there that end on
a 4 and that are divisible by 6?

A. 1500
B. 2000
C. 2500
D. 3000
E. 8998

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Section II
Number of Questions: 20

Directions for Questions 21 to 24: All the questions are independent of each other.

Q21. Five students Anand, Bhanu, Charu, Dipu, Ekta answered five questions in an exam,
consisting of two Multiple Choice Questions and three True – False questions.

I. They answered the questions as follows:

Anand: 1-A, 2-A, 3-T, 4-T, 5-T
Bhanu: 1-B, 2-B, 3-T, 4-F, 5-T
Charu: 1-A, 2-B, 3-T, 4-T, 5-F
Dipu: 1-B, 2-C, 3-T, 4-T, 5-F
Ekta: 1-C, 2-A, 3-F, 4-T, 5-T
II. No two of them got the same number of correct answers.
Who got the most correct answers?

A. Anand
B. Bhanu
C. Charu
D. Dipu
E. Ekta

Q22. A, B, C and D crossed a lake in a boat that held only two persons.
I. The boat held two persons on each of the three forward trips across the lake and one
person on each of the three forward trips across the lake and one person on each of two
return trips.
II. A was unable to paddle when someone else was in the boat with her.
III. B was unable to paddle when anyone else except c was in the boat with her.
IV. Each person paddled continuously for at least one trip.
Who paddled twice?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. Both C & D

Q23. Ali, Dara and Gama were at the Golden gym on the same day of this month. It was
there and then that they met. They all joined this Gym last month.

I. One of them goes every two days, another one goes every three days and the remaining
one goes every 7 days.
II. Ali went to Gym for the first time this month on a Monday, Dara went to Gym for the
first time this month on a Wednesday and Gama went to health club for the first time this
month on a Friday?
On which day of this month did Ali, Dara and Gama meet?

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A. 23rd day of this month

B. 24th day of this month
C. 25th day of this month
D. 26th day of this month
E. 27th day of this month

Q24. Of Arjun, Bhima and Duryodhana each belong either to the Pandava family whose
members always tell the truth or to the Kaurava family whose member always lie. Arjun
said,”Either I belong or Bhima belongs to a different family from the other two”.
Whose family do you know the name of?
A. Arjun
B. Bhima
C. Duryodhana
D. Both Arjun and Duryodhana
E. Data Insufficient

Directions for Questions 25 to 28: Refer the information given below and answer the
following questions:

All six team in pool A of FIFA cup play each other exactly once. Each win earns team 3
points, a draw earns 1 point and a loss earns 0 points. The two teams with the highest
points qualify for the semi finals. In case of a tie, the team with highest goal difference
(goal for - goal against) qualifies. In the opening match Spain lost to Germany. After the
second round (after each team played two matches) the pool table looks as shown below:

In the third round Spain played Pakistan, Argentina played Germany and New Zealand
played South Africa. All the third round matches were drawn. The following are some
results from fourth and fifth round matches.
Spain won both fourth and fifth round matches. Both Argentina and Germany won their
fifth round matches by 3 goals to zero. Pakistan won both the fourth and fifth round
matches by 1 goal to 0.

Q25. Which one of the following statements is true about matches played in the first two
rounds?
A. Germany beat New Zealand by 1 goal to 0.
B. Spain beat New Zealand by 4 goals to 0.
C. Spain beat South Africa by 2 goals to 0.
D. Germany beat South Africa by 2 goals to 1
E. None of the above

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Q26. Which one of the following statements is true about matches played in the first two
rounds?

A. Pakistan beat South Africa by 2 goals to 1

B. Argentina beat Pakistan by 1 goal to 0.
C. Germany beat Pakistan by 2 goals to 1
D. Germany beat Spain by 2 goals to 1.
E. New Zealand beat South Africa by 3 goals to 1

Q27. Which team finished at the top of the pool after five rounds of matches?
A. Argentina
B. Germany
C. Spain
D. Pakistan
E. Insufficient Data

Q28. If Pakistan qualified as one of the two teams from Pool A, which was the other
team

A. Argentina
B. Germany
C. Spain
D. South Africa
E. Insufficient Data

Directions for Questions 29 to 33: Refer the graphs given below and answer the
following questions:

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The two graphs above gives crime statistics for the USA. First Figure gives the variation
of the number of property crimes per 1000 households with time. Property crimes consist
of motor vehicle theft, theft and burglary. Second Figure gives the number of violent
crimes per 1000 population with time. Violent following can be divisible into three
categories – aggravated assault, simple assault and robbery. The following facts are also
given and may be used in answering the questions that follow.
I. The population of the USA between 1975 and 2050 is by the equation:
P = 2.3 (T-1950) + 157, where P is the population in millions in the year T.
II. The number of persons per household can assumed to remain constant for the period
1975 to 2050.

Q29. Let x1 and x2 be the number of property crimes in 1975 and in 2000 expressed as a
percentage of the population, respectively. What is the ratio of x1 to x2?

A. 3:1
B. 27:10
C. 1:3
D. 18:5
E. None of the above

Q30. Assume that the total number of property crimes per year follow the following trend
after 2000.The total number of property crimes per year at the end of every 25 year is
0.71 times the number at the beginning. What is the number of property crimes per 1000
households in the year 2050?

A. 63
B. 90
C. 129
D. 180
E. 200

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Q31. In 2000, the number of aggravated assaults/1000 population was greater the number
of robberies/1000 population by 1.8 and the number of simple assaults was three time the
number of aggravated assaults. What was the total number of robberies in 2000?

A. 1.1×106
B. 1.1×103
C. 3.9
D. 3.9×103
E. 1.2 x 103

Q32. Let y1 and y2 be the total number of violent crimes per year in 1975 and 2000,
respectively. What is y2 – y1?

A. 22
B. -22
C. 4.2
D. 5.1
E. None of these

Q33. The total number of property crimes in the year 200 was 1.45 times the total
number of violent crimes in the year 1975. What is the average number of person per
household?
A. 2.1
B. 3.2
C. 4.2
D. 4.9
E. None of these

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Directions for Questions 34 to 40: Refer the data given and answer the following
questions:

All countries that have reported more than five hundred AIDS cases to the WHO in 1997
are listed here. The left column gives the total number of cases reported by each country
for 1996, the middle column gives the 1996 rate (AIDS cases per 10000 populations) and

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the last column shows the number of cases reported in early 1997. Most 1997 reports
were for only the first quarter or a third of the year. Owing to reporting delays of six
months or more, cases reported in 1997 actually were diagnosed in 1996.

Q34. Which country has reported the maximum number of AIDS cases to WHO during
1996?

A. Brazil
B. United States
C. France
D. Italy
E. None of the above

Q35. How many countries have reported 25000 AIDS cased in the early 1997?

A. Two
B. One
C. Three
D. Four.
E. None

Q36. The ratio of AIDS cases reported in early 1997 is 2 : 5 for

A. South Africa & Portugal

B. Israel & Denmark
C. Yugoslavia & Netherlands
D. West Germany & France
E. None of the above

Q37. The number of countries for which 1996 (rate) [per 10,000] is more than five is

A. five
B. four
C. three
D. six
E. seven

Q38. What is the population of Zambia on the basis of the reported cases of AIDS in
1996 (in thousands)?

A. 650000
B. 700000
C. 72000
D. 715000
E. 725000

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Q39. Which of the following are true from the table?

I. The reported AIDS cases of Ethiopia, Japan and Yugoslavia as compared to the
population is negligible.
II. The 1996 (rate) is highest for French Guyana though the reported cases are only 45000.
III. The population of Haiti is 66400000
IV. France reported more than 2000 cases of AIDS in 1996.

A. I & II
B. II & III
C. I, II & III
D. I, II & VI
E. None of the above

Q40. The countries which have reported less than 2000 cases both in 1996 and early 1997
are

A. Japan, Ethiopia and Israel

B. Jamaica, Yugoslavia & Japan
C. Ethiopia, Chile & French Guyana
D. Ethiopia, Israel and Yugoslavia.
E. Ethiopia, Israel and Japan

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Section III
Number of Questions: 20

Directions for Questions 41 to 44: Read the passage below and answer the questions
based on it.

According to philosophical views of learning, design models can be classified into the
three main categories: Objectivist Instructional Design Models (OIDMs); Constructivist
Instructional Design Models (CIDMs); and Mixed approach to Instructional Design
(MID). Objectivist design models emphasize “the conditions which bear on the
instructional system in preparation for achieving the intended learning outcomes.”
Objectivist design models include Dick & Carey’s Instructional Systems Design and
Gagne, Briggs and Wager’s Principles of Instructional Design, each of which are based
on both behaviorist and cognitive approaches to learning. Behaviorism has contributed to
traditional models by providing relationships between learning conditions and outcomes.
In objectivist design models, behavioral objectives are developed as a means to measure
learning success. Cognitive approaches also influenced objectivist instructional models
by emphasizing the use of advance organizers, mnemonic devices, and learners’ schemas
as an organized knowledge structure. However, there are some problems with objectivist
approaches to instructional design. For example, objectivist approaches group learners
into standardized categories, thereby promoting conformity and compliance. Today,
however, organizations want their members to develop their own unique potentials and
creativity, which can lead to initiative, diversity and flexibility. Furthermore, objectivist
design models do not explicitly address design issues of the user interface in the design
process. The objectivist design models stress a predetermined outcome, as well as an
intervention in the learning process that can map a predetermined concept of reality into
the learner’s mind. However, learning outcomes are not always predictable so that
learning should be facilitated by instruction, not controlled.

Unlike objectivist and constructivist design models, the mixed approach to instructional
design proposes that an instructional design model reflect all learning theories according
to instructional design situations. For example, different instructional design situations
such as different learners and learning environments may require different learning
theories and thus different instructional design models. Davidson found that, in practice,
a mix of old (objective) and new (constructive) instruction/learning design is increasingly
being used. In their ‘Continuum of Knowledge Acquisition Model,’ Jonassen, McAleese,
& Duffy note that the initial knowledge acquisition is better served by instructional
techniques that are based upon traditional instructional design models whereas
constructivist learning environments are most effective for advanced knowledge
acquisition. However, this approach also does not address the issues involved in user
interface design and the overall effectiveness of a Web-based learning environment.

Given common learning activities (e.g., problem solving, inference generating, critical
thinking, and laboratory activities) and types of learning domains (e.g., intellectual skills
and verbal information) in the GPS course, this study proposes that the instructional
design principles provided by the cognitive learning theory would be best suited for
redesigning the learning content of the course. For example, providing efficient

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processing strategies through which students receive, organize, and retrieve knowledge in
a meaningful way will facilitate learning activities. For instructional strategies, this study
recommends Objectivist Instructional Design Approaches, which combine Cognitivism
and Behaviorism. For example, Behaviorism provides relationships between learning
conditions and learning outcomes, and such relationships can inform the instructional
designer of how the instruction should be designed to achieve successful learning
outcomes. To effectively deliver the instruction, on the other hand, cognitive approaches
provide various instructional methods, such as the use of advance organizers, mnemonic
devices, metaphors, and learners’ schemas as an organized knowledge structure. This
study also suggests employing constructivist approaches for effective instructional
strategies. For example, the constructivist approach states that instruction should promote
collaboration with other learners and/or instructors, providing a ground for the
implementation of an email system or group discussion board system for educational
purposes.

For a Web-based supplemental learning environment to be successful, it is also important

to effectively facilitate learner interactions with the learning environment. An effective
user interface in Web-based learning environments is important, because it determines
how easily learners can focus on learning materials without having to make an effort to
figure out how to access them. There are a number of design approaches to the user
interface, each of which has its own strengths and weaknesses. To review the current user
interface design practice, this study borrowed Wallace & Anderson’s classification: the
craft approach, enhanced software engineering approach, technologist approach, and
cognitive approach.

In the craft approach, interface design is described as a craft activity in which the skill
and experience of the interface designer or human factors expert play an important role in
the design activity. For successful design, this approach relies on the designer’s creativity,
heuristics, and development through prototyping. The enhanced software engineering
approach claims that formal HCI methods such as task analysis should be introduced into
the development life-cycle to support the design process. This approach attempts to over-
come the short-comings of structured software engineering methods that ignores issues
involved in human-computer interaction and user interface design. The technologist
approach claims that designers produce poor quality interfaces because they have to
spend more time in performing time-consuming tasks, such as programming an interface,
than in doing design activity during development. To allow designers to concentrate on
design, the technologist approach attempts to provide automated development tools (e.g.,
the User Interface Management System) and rapid prototyping tools (e.g., HyperCard and
Multimedia Toolkit). The cognitive approach applies psychological knowledge, such as
theories of information processing and problem solving to the interface design. This most
theoretical approach to interface design is characterized by an attempt to build precise
and accurate users’ cognitive models that represent their interaction with computers.

Q41. According to the passage, what is true with respect to objectivist design?

A. In objectivist design, behavioral objectives are ignored for measuring learning success.

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B. Objectivist design promotes accordance and abidance.

C. Objectivist design models deal design issues of the user interface in the design process.
D. Objectivist design models don’t emphasize a predetermined consequence.
E. None of the above.

Q42. How can we say that the mixed approach to instructional design is advantageous?

A. It is advantageous because it addresses the issues involved in user interface design.

B. It is advantageous because it covers the overall potential of a Web-based learning
environment.
C. It is advantageous because it ponders all learning theories according to instructional
design situations.
D. All of the above.
E. It is not advantageous at all.

Q43. According to the passage, what are the takes from mixed approach?

A. Mixed approach suggests that the instructional design principles provided by the
cognitive learning theory would be best suited for redesigning the learning content of the
GPS course.
B. Mixed approach advocates objectivist instructional design approaches for non-
instructional strategies.
C. Mixed approach states that instruction should promote collaboration with other
learners and/or instructors.
D. All of the above.
E. None of the above.

Q44. According to the passage, what different theories propose for user interface design?

A. Craft’s approach for user interface design does not rely on the designer’s creativity,
heuristics, and development through prototyping.
B. The enhanced software engineering approach arrogates that task analysis should be
moved out from the development life-cycle.
C. The technologist approach claims that designers produce poor quality interfaces
because they have no time for performing time-consuming tasks.
D. The cognitive approach refrains from the theories of information processing and
problem solving to the interface design.
E. None of the above.

Directions for Questions 44 to 47: Read the passage below and answer the questions
based on it.

The definition of culture is often narrowed down to heritage and the arts. A wider
interpretation would include practically all areas of human activity. To avoid having to
use this extremely broad definition, this report, while emphasizing the potential of culture
as a strong social and economic resource for the community, does not lose sight of the

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special contribution to culture made by artists and creators. We need to develop the
ability to use culture as a means for dealing with the growing complexity of our society
as well as for constructing or creating its future whilst at the same time making it more
meaningful in the present.

The contribution of culture to the creation of a competitive economy and a cohesive

society may be far deeper than would appear at first sight. Business, education, social
development as well as civic society are now becoming increasingly aware of the
importance of culture as a stimulus. Apart from providing many examples of the use of
culture to shape processes and products in all fields of human activity, this document
provides ample proof as to how culture can lead to deep transformations of current
practice through its fundamentally different form of research and reflection in response to
a growing urgency for real change. In business, entrepreneurship alone cannot guarantee
the development of a strong knowledge-based economy; we need innovation and
creativity. Our social and educational systems require radical changes to overcome their
ineffectiveness and inefficiency. The renewal of civic society calls for the setting-up of
new institutions that facilitate participation and social cohesion. In order to inspire,
facilitate, and support these transformations, culture can and should play a crucial role.

One of the elements that deeply affects the role and dynamics of culture in contemporary
society is the wider access of different social groups to information and technology. We
are now witnessing the growth of new ways of production, distribution and consumption
that lead to increased cultural production and completely new products and services. In
the case of the arts, the complexity and diversity of the network society affects the
relationship between culture and the public, redefining the boundaries between high and
low art, art and design, and ‘pure’ and applied art. In the case of heritage, the Internet and
IT have facilitated new ways of presenting collections of historical objects and making
them accessible to a wider public. However, despite the benefits derived from these
developments, technological change on its own cannot deeply alter our relationship to
culture. The ongoing development of the information and knowledge society confronts us
with the need for a more fundamental change. We need to develop the ability to use
culture as a tool, as a resource and framework for dealing with the growing complexity of
our society while at the same time making it more meaningful.

As already stated, it is now necessary to adopt a notion of culture that goes beyond that of
arts and heritage. A broad notion of culture should include the many ways in which
culture is already used to create meaningful change in the widest spectrum of social
domains.

Q45. According to the author, what is the purpose of the passage?

A. To narrow down the definition of the culture further.

B. To accentuate the effectiveness of culture as a strong socio-economic resource for the
community.
C. To lose sight of the special contribution to culture made by artists and creators.
D. To use culture as a means for dealing with the arising simplicity of our society.

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E. None of the above.

Q46. According to the passage, how can culture contribute to the competitive economy?

A. It has become a stimulant for both business and civic society.

B. Innovation and creativity can only be achieved through cultural practices.
C. Culture is the only way to overcome the ineffectiveness and inefficiency of
educational system.
D. All of the above.
E. None of the above.

Q47. According to the passage, how the development in information technology (IT) has
contributed to the culture?

A. Information technology has alleviated old ways of demonstrating collections of

historical objects.
B. Information technology has restricted the accessibility of historical objects to a meager
public.
C. Information technology has profoundly altered our relationship with culture.
D. Information technology has used culture as a tool to spread the awareness of IT.
E. None of the above.

Directions for Questions 48 to 50: Read the passage below and answer the questions
based on it.

The defoliation of millions of acres of trees by massive infestations of lepidopteran

caterpillars is a recurring phenomenon in the eastern Africa. In studying these outbreaks,
scientists have discovered that affected trees fight back by releasing toxic chemicals,
mainly phenols, into their foliage. These noxious substances limit caterpillars’ growth and
reduce the number of eggs that female moths lay. Phenols also make the eggs smaller,
which reduces the growth of the following year’s caterpillars. Because the number of
eggs a female moth produces is directly related to her size, and because her size is
determined entirely by her feeding success as a caterpillar, the trees’ defensive
mechanism has an impact on moth fecundity.

The lepidopteran is also subject to attack by the nucleopolyhedrosis virus, or droop

disease, a particularly important killer of the caterpillars in outbreak years. Caterpillars
contract droop disease when they eat a leaf to which the virus, encased in a protein
globule, has become attached. Once ingested by a caterpillar, the protein globule
dissolves, releasing thousands of viruses, or virions that after about two weeks multiply
enough to fill the entire body cavity. When the caterpillar dies, the virions are released to
the outside, encased in a new protein globule synthesized from the caterpillar’s tissues
and ready to be picked up by other caterpillars.

Knowing that phenols, including tannins, often act by associating with and altering the
activity of proteins, researchers focused on the effects on caterpillars of ingesting the

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virus and leaves together. They found that on tannin-rich oak leaves, the virus is
considerably less effective at killing caterpillars than when it is on aspen leaves, which
are lower in phenols. In general, the more concentrated the phenols in tree leaves, the less
deadly the virus. Thus, while highly concentrated phenols in tree leaves reduce the
caterpillar population by limiting the size of caterpillars and, consequently, the size of the
female’s egg cluster, these same chemicals also help caterpillars survive by disabling the
droop virus. Forest stands of red oaks, with their tannin-rich foliage, may even provide
caterpillars with safe havens from disease. In stands dominated by trees such as aspen,
however, incipient lepidopteran outbreaks are quickly suppressed by viral epidemics.

Further research has shown that caterpillars become virtually immune to the droop virus
as the trees on which they feed respond to increasing defoliation. The trees’ own defenses
raise the threshold of caterpillar vulnerability to the disease, allowing populations to grow
denser without becoming more susceptible to infection. For these reasons, the benefits to
the caterpillars of ingesting phenols appear to outweigh the costs. Given the presence of
the virus, the trees’ defensive tactic apparently has backfired.

Q48. What is the main point of the passage?

A. Recurring outbreaks of infestation by lepidopteran caterpillars have had a devastating

impact on trees in the eastern Africa.
B. A mechanism used by trees to combat the threat from lepidopteran caterpillars has
actually made some trees more vulnerable to that threat.
C. Although deadly to lepidopteran caterpillars, droop disease has failed to significantly
affect the population density of the caterpillars.
D. The tree species with the highest levels of phenols in their foliage are the most
successful in defending themselves against lepidopteran caterpillars.
E. In their efforts to develop new methods for controlling lepidopteran caterpillars,
researchers have focused on the effects of phenols in tree leaves on the insects’ growth
and reproduction.

Q49. According to the passage, it can be inferred that lepidopteran caterpillars become
immune to the droop virus as a result of

A. consuming a wide range of nutrients from a variety of leaf types

B. feeding on leaves that contain high levels of phenols
C. producing fewer offspring, which favors the survival of the hardiest individuals
D. ingesting the virus together with leaves that do not contain tannin
E. growing population density, which outstrips the ability of the virus to multiply and
spread

Q50. According to the passage, which of the following statements about lepidopteran
caterpillars is true?

A. Droop disease is more likely to strike small lepidopteran caterpillars than large ones.

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B. The concentration of phenols in tree leaves increases as the lepidopteran caterpillar

population dies off.
C. Female lepidopteran caterpillars stop growing after they ingest leaves containing
phenols.
D. Differing concentrations of phenols in leaves have differing effects on the ability of
the droop virus to kill lepidopteran caterpillars.
E. The longer a lepidopteran population is exposed to droop disease, the greater the
likelihood that the lepidopteran caterpillars will become immune to the virus.

Directions for questions 51 to 53: Arrange the sentences to form a logical sequence of
sentences.

51.
A. Even under the driest conditions, bacterial cells are surrounded by a layer of water
molecules.
B. These serve to order the water molecules into particular, molecularly protective arrays.
C. Microorganisms are surrounded by a unique microenvironment that is distinct from
the bulk environment.
D. This water may consist solely of bound water molecules, which are structurally
integrated into the macromolecular framework of the cell itself, often aided by specific
microbially derived molecules that are produced for the purpose of desiccation tolerance.
E. This envelope acts as a diffusion barrier around the cell, concentrating microbial
metabolic products and limiting the concentration near the cell of aqueous constituents
from the bulk environment.
F. At the other end of the spectrum, consider a bacterial cell that is planktonic. It is
surrounded by an envelope of water molecules that may be several hundreds of
nanometers thick, and which becomes more and more disordered with distance away
from the bacterial cell surface.

A. FCADBE
B. FECBDA
C. CBDAFE
D. CADBFE
E. FBCADE

52.
A. Within educational systems, examinations play as important a role as self-selection or
signaling, though given a certain standard of testing, there is a process of self-selection
involved in deciding whether to stay in school, to try to pass the examination.
B. But when the signaling concepts are translated into contexts in which there is a robust
competitive market, the problems of existence cannot be so easily ignored.
C. For the same reason, the problems of existence which arise in the insurance market are
not relevant in the education market – the competitive supply side of the market is simply
absent.

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D. The structure of the education system is largely a matter of public choice, not of
market processes.
E. The education system, of course, was particularly infelicitous for studying market
equilibrium.
F. Different countries have chosen markedly different systems. The minimum level of
education is typically not a matter of choice, but set by the government.

A. EDFACB
B. DEFABC
C. DEAFCB
D. FEDACB
E. FDEBAC

53.
A. The result is a website that reflects the visitors’ interests and offers products and
services that are customized to the user.
B. Museums are making use of technology to tailor their offerings to their visitors’
specific needs and interests.
C. Many museums have developed customizable websites, which can be modified to
offer users only content they are interested in receiving
D. Users might explicitly enter information about themselves and their interests; the
website can track what the user does and pays attention to and provide recommendations
based on use.
E. Museum can also offer customized e-mails with links to materials or information about
special events of interest to the visitor.
F. Museum websites can be customized in multiple ways.

A. CBFEDA
B. BFCEDA
C. FECDBA
D. FBCDAE
E. BCFDAE

Directions for questions 54 to 56: Five choices for rephrasing the underlined part follow
the below sentence; the first choice repeats the original, and the other four are different.
Choose the correct option for the underlined portion.

54. Knowing the volunteers’ giving of a great deal of their time to canvass the
neighborhood and collect donations from the neighbors, the secretary of the Welfare
Society expressed his sincere gratitude.

A. Knowing the volunteers’ giving of a great deal of their time to canvass the
neighborhood and collect donations from the neighbors, the secretary of the Welfare
Society expressed his sincere gratitude.

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B. Knowing the time spent by neighborhood volunteers to canvass and to collect

neighborhood donations, the secretary of the Welfare Society expressed his sincere
gratitude.
C. With sincere gratitude, the secretary of the Welfare Society expressed his
acknowledgment of the neighborhood donations canvassed and collected on the
volunteers’ time.
D. The secretary of the Welfare Society offered sincere thanks to the volunteers who
gave so much time to canvass the neighborhood to collect donations.
E. The secretary of the Welfare Society thanked the neighborhood volunteers, sincerely.

55. Two latest statements on the incumbency of college professors offer contradictory
points of view: those that say that lifetime incumbency ensures academic freedom and
those that say that lifetime incumbency encourages professional laziness and
irresponsibility.

A. those that say that lifetime incumbency ensures academic freedom and those that say
that lifetime incumbency encourages professional laziness and irresponsibility
B. some declare that lifetime incumbency ensures academic freedom, and others say that
it encourages professional laziness and irresponsibility
C. saying that lifetime incumbency either ensures academic freedom or encourages
irresponsible laziness
D. one emphasizes the academic freedom that incumbency ensures, and one stresses the
professional laziness and irresponsibility it encourages
E. advocacies of academic freedom and warnings about professional laziness and
irresponsibility

56. Much like the King when he interprets the beldams’ prognostications all too literally,
the inscrutable harpooner who Monarch takes aboard the Ship has the captain accepting
his strange prognostications without questioning their hidden meaning.

A. the inscrutable harpooner who Monarch takes aboard the Ship has the captain
accepting his strange prognostications without questioning their hidden meaning
B. the strange prognostications of the inscrutable harpooner he has taken aboard the Ship
are accepted by Monarch without questioning their hidden meaning
C. the inscrutable harpooner whom Monarch takes aboard the Ship has the captain
accepting his strange prognostications without questioning their hidden meaning
D. Monarch accepts the strange prognostication of the inscrutable harpooner whom he
has taken aboard the Ship, without questioning their hidden meaning
E. Monarch accepts the strange prognostications of the inscrutable harpooner he has
taken aboard the Ship, without questioning their hidden meaning

Directions for questions 57 to 58: Read the passage below and answer the questions
based on it.

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It is apparent that the methods of science have been highly successful. Psychologist ABC
believes that the methods of science should be applied to the field of human affairs. We
are all controlled by the world, part of which is constructed by humans. Is this control to
occur by accident, by tyrants, or by ourselves? A scientific society should reject
accidental manipulation. He asserts that a specific plan is needed to promote fully the
development of human beings and society. We cannot make wise decisions if we
continue to pretend that we are not controlled.
As ABC points out, the possibility of behavioral control is offensive to many people. We
have traditionally regarded humans as free agents whose behavior occurs by virtue of
spontaneous inner changes. We are loath to abandon the internal will, which makes
prediction and control of behavior impossible.

57. According to the passage, ABC would probably agree with each of the following
statements EXCEPT:

A. Rats and pigeons are appropriate animals for behavioristic study.

B. These behaviors we normally exhibit are not the only ones we are capable of.
C. The concept of behavioral control has popular appeal.
D. Inner causes of behavior are more difficult to observe than outer ones.
E. Positive reinforcement will affect learning in school.

58. The author implies that ABC feels that the scientific procedure he advocates might be
effective as

A. a means of enhancing our future.

B. an explanation of the causes of dictatorships.
C. a means for replacing teachers with computers.
D. a way of identifying characteristics common to rats, pigeons, and humans.
E. a way to understand the human mind.

Directions for questions 59 to 60: In each question, there are five sentences. Each
sentence has a pair of words that are italicized and highlighted. From the italicized and
highlighted words, select the most appropriate words (A or B) to form correct sentences.
The sentences are followed by options that indicate the words, which may be selected to
correctly complete the set of sentences. From the options given, choose the most
appropriate one.

59.
Lying to cover up a crime will aggravate (A) / aggregate (B) the offense.

The collection agency went to great lengths to dun (A) / done (B) him for payment of his
debts.

Nothing you can say will altar (A) / alter (B) my plans.

Three minutes elapsed (A) / lapsed (B) before her page had completely loaded.

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The casual (A) / causal (B) forces behind many diseases have not been discovered yet.

A. BABBA
B. AABBB
C. AABAB
D. ABAAB
E. BABBA

60.
The publishers hurried to amend (A) / emend (B) the book before the next edition.

The bridle (A) / bridal (B) path was crowded this morning with weekend riders.

The treaty included session (A) / cession (B) of all regional territories.

His parents came so far to felicitate (A) / facilitate (B) the couple.

It is hypercritical (A) / hypocritical (B) to say tell your children to behave a certain way
and then do the exact opposite yourself.

A. BABAB
B. AABAA
C. ABABB
D. AABAB
E. BBBAB

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