Cap 1 pag 58 1. Which of the following protocols are examples of TCP/IP transport layer protocols? (Choose two answers.

) a. Ethernet b. HTTP c. IP d. UDP e. SMTP f. TCP r: D F 2. Which of the following protocols are examples of TCP/IP data link layer protocols? (Choose two answers.) a. Ethernet b. HTTP c. IP d. UDP e. SMTP f. TCP g. PPP R:A G 3. The process of HTTP asking TCP to send some data and making sure that it is received correctly is an example of what? a. Same-layer interaction b. Adjacent-layer interaction c. OSI model d. All of these answers are correct. R: B 4. The process of TCP on one computer marking a TCP segment as segment 1, and the receiving computer then acknowledging the receipt of TCP segment 1 is an example of what? a. Data encapsulation b. Same-layer interaction c. Adjacent-layer interaction d. OSI model e. All of these answers are correct. R: B 5. The process of a web server adding a TCP header to the contents of a web page, followed by adding an IP header and then adding a data link header and trailer is an example of what? a. Data encapsulation b. Same-layer interaction c. OSI model d. All of these answers are correct. R: A 6. Which of the following terms is used specifically to identify the entity created when encapsulating data inside data link layer headers and trailers? a. Data b. Chunk c. Segment d. Frame e. Packet r:D

7. Which OSI layer defines the functions of logical network-wide addressing and routing? a. Layer 1 b. Layer 2 c. Layer 3 d. Layer 4 e. Layer 5, 6, or 7 R: C 8. Which OSI layer defines the standards for cabling and connectors? a. Layer 1 b. Layer 2 c. Layer 3 d. Layer 4 e. Layer 5, 6, or 7 R: A 9. Which of the following terms are not valid terms for the names of the seven OSI layers? (Choose two answers.) a. Application b. Data link c. Transmission d. Presentation e. Internet f. Session R: C E

CAP 2 PAG 76 1. In the LAN for a small office, some user devices connect to the LAN using a cable, while others connect using wireless technology (and no cable). Which of the following is true regarding the use of Ethernet in this LAN? a. Only the devices that use cables are using Ethernet. b. Only the devices that use wireless are using Ethernet. c. Both the devices using cables and those using wireless are using Ethernet. d. None of the devices are using Ethernet. R: a 2. Which of the following Ethernet standards defines Gigabit Ethernet over UTP cabling? a. 10GBASE-T b. 100BASE-T c. 1000BASE-T d. None of the other answers is correct. R: C 3. Which of the following is true about Ethernet crossover cables for Fast Ethernet? a. Pins 1 and 2 are reversed on the other end of the cable. b. Pins 1 and 2 on one end of the cable connect to pins 3 and 6 on the other end of the cable. c. Pins 1 and 2 on one end of the cable connect to pins 3 and 4 on the other end of the cable. d. The cable can be up to 1000 meters long to cross over between buildings. e. None of the other answers is correct. R: B 4. Each answer lists two types of devices used in a 100BASE-T network. If these devices were connected with UTP Ethernet cables, which pairs of devices would require a straight-through cable? (Choose three answers.) a. PC and router b. PC and switch c. Hub and switch d. Router and hub e. Wireless access point (Ethernet port) and switch R: B D E 5. Which of the following is true about the CSMA/CD algorithm? a. The algorithm never allows collisions to occur. b. Collisions can happen, but the algorithm defines how the computers should notice a collision and how to recover. c. The algorithm works with only two devices on the same Ethernet. d. None of the other answers is correct. 5: B 6. Which of the following is true about the Ethernet FCS field? a. Ethernet uses FCS for error recovery. b. It is 2 bytes long. c. It resides in the Ethernet trailer, not the Ethernet header. d. It is used for encryption. R: C 7. Which of the following are true about the format of Ethernet addresses? (Choose three answers.) a. Each manufacturer puts a unique OUI code into the first 2 bytes of the address. b. Each manufacturer puts a unique OUI code into the first 3 bytes of the address.

c. Each manufacturer puts a unique OUI code into the first half of the address. d. The part of the address that holds this manufacturers code is called the MAC. e. The part of the address that holds this manufacturers code is called the OUI. f. The part of the address that holds this manufacturers code has no specific name. R: B C E 8. Which of the following terms describe Ethernet addresses that can be used to send one frame that is delivered to multiple devices on the LAN? (Choose two answers.) a. Burned-in address b. Unicast address c. Broadcast address d. Multicast address R: C D CAP 3 PAG 95 1. Which of the following best describes the main function of OSI Layer 1 as used in WANs? a. Framing b. Delivery of bits from one device to another c. Addressing d. Error detection R: B 2. In the cabling for a leased(arrendada) line, which of the following typically connects to a four-wire line provided by a telco? a. Router serial interface without internal CSU/DSU b. CSU/DSU c. Router serial interface with internal transceiver d. Switch serial interface R: B 3. Which of the following is an accurate speed at which a leased line can operate in the United States? a. 100 Mbps b. 100 Kbps c. 256 Kbps d. 6.4 Mbps r:c 4. Which of the following fields in the HDLC header used by Cisco routers does Cisco add, beyond the ISO standard HDLC? a. Flag b. Type c. Address d. FCS R: B 5. Two routers, R1 and R2, connect using an Ethernet over MPLS service. The service provides point-to-point service between these two routers only, as a Layer 2 Ethernet service. Which of the following are the most likely to be true about this WAN? (Choose two answers.) a. R1 will connect to a physical Ethernet link, with the other end of the cable connected to R2. b. R1 will connect to a physical Ethernet link, with the other end of the cable connected to a device at the WAN service provider point of presence. c. R1 will forward data link frames to R2 using an HDLC header/trailer. d. R1 will forward data link frames to R2 using an Ethernet header/trailer. R: B D

6. Which of the following Internet access technologies, used to connect a site to an ISP, offers asymmetric speeds? (Choose two answers.) a. Leased lines b. DSL c. Cable Internet d. BGP R: B C 7. Fred has just added DSL service at his home, with a separate DSL modem and consumergrade router with four Ethernet ports. Fred wants to use the same old phone he was using before the installation of DSL. Which is most likely true about the phone cabling and phone used with his new DSL installation? a. He uses the old phone, cabled to one of the router/switch devices Ethernet ports. b. He uses the old phone, cabled to the DSL modems ports. c. He uses the old phone, cabled to an existing telephone port, and not to any new device. d. The old phone must be replaced with a digital phone. R: C CAP 4 PAG 108 1. Which of the following are functions of OSI Layer 3 protocols? (Choose two answers.) a. Logical addressing b. Physical addressing c. Path selection d. Arbitration e. Error recovery R: A C 2. Imagine that PC1 needs to send some data to PC2, and PC1 and PC2 are separated by several routers. Both PC1 and PC2 sit on different Ethernet LANs. What are the largest entities (in size) that make it from PC1 to PC2? (Choose two answers.) a. Frame b. Segment c. Packet d. L5 PDU e. L3 PDU f. L1 PDU R: C E 3. Which of the following is a valid Class C IP address that can be assigned to a host? a. 1.1.1.1 b. 200.1.1.1 c. 128.128.128.128 d. 224.1.1.1 e. 223.223.223.255 R: B 4. What is the assignable range of values for the first octet for Class A IP networks? a. 0 to 127 b. 0 to 126 c. 1 to 127 d. 1 to 126 e. 128 to 191 f. 128 to 192 R: D D. The first octet of Class A addresses ranges from 1 to 126, inclusive; Class B, 128 to 191, inclusive; and Class C, 192

to 223 inclusive. 127 is technically in the Class A range, but it is a reserved address used as a loopback. 5. PC1 and PC2 are on two different Ethernet LANs that are separated by an IP router. PC1s IP address is 10.1.1.1, and no subnetting is used. Which of the following addresses could be used for PC2? (Choose two answers.) a. 10.1.1.2 b. 10.2.2.2 c. 10.200.200.1 d. 9.1.1.1 e. 225.1.1.1 f. 1.1.1.1 R: D F D and F. Without any subnetting in use, all addresses in the same network as 10.1.1.1 all addresses in Class A network 10.0.0.0must be on the same LAN. Addresses separated from that network by some router cannot be in network 10.0.0.0. So, the two correct answers are the only two answers that list a valid unicast IP address that is not in network 10.0.0.0. 6. Imagine a network with two routers that are connected with a point-to-point HDLC serial link. Each router has an Ethernet, with PC1 sharing the Ethernet with Router1 and PC2 sharing the Ethernet with Router2. When PC1 sends data to PC2, which of the following is true? a. Router1 strips(QUITA) the Ethernet header and trailer off the frame received from PC1, never to be used again. b. Router1 encapsulates the Ethernet frame inside an HDLC header and sends the frame to Router2, which extracts the Ethernet frame for forwarding to PC2. c. Router1 strips the Ethernet header and trailer off the frame received from PC1, which is exactly re-created by Router2 before forwarding data to PC2. d. Router1 removes the Ethernet, IP, and TCP headers and rebuilds the appropriate headers before forwarding the packet to Router2. R: A. PC1 will send an Ethernet frame to Router1, with PC1s MAC address as the source address and Router1s MAC address as the destination address. Router1 will remove the encapsulated IP packet from that Ethernet frame, discarding the frame header and trailer. Router1 will forward the IP packet by first encapsulating it inside an HDLC frame, but Router1 will not encapsulate the Ethernet frame in the HDLC frame, but rather the IP packet. Router2 will deencapsulate the IP packet from the HDLC frame and forward it onto the Ethernet LAN, adding a new Ethernet header and trailer, but this header will differ. It will list Router2s MAC address as the source address and PC2s MAC address as the destination address. 7. Which of the following does a router normally use when making a decision about routing TCP/IP packets? a. Destination MAC address b. Source MAC address c. Destination IP address d. Source IP address e. Destination MAC and IP address R: C. Routers compare the packets destination IP address to the routers IP routing table, making a match and using the forwarding instructions in the matched route to forward the IP packet.

8. Which of the following are true about a LAN-connected TCP/IP host and its IP routing (forwarding) choices? (Choose two answers.) a. The host always sends packets to its default gateway. b. The host sends packets to its default gateway if the destination IP address is in a different class of IP network tan the host. c. The host sends packets to its default gateway if the destination IP address is in a different subnet than the host. d. The host sends packets to its default gateway if the destination IP address is in the same subnet as the host. R: B and C. IPv4 hosts generally use basic two-branch logic. To send an IP packet to another host on the same IP network or subnet that is on the same LAN, the sender sends the IP packet directly to that host. Otherwise, the sender sends the packet to its default router (also called the default gateway). 9. Which of the following are functions of a routing protocol? (Choose two answers.) a. Advertising known routes to neighboring routers b. Learning routes for subnets directly connected to the router c. Learning routes, and putting those routes into the routing table, for routes advertised to the router by its neighboring routers d. Forwarding IP packets based on a packets destination IP address R: A and C. Routers do all the actions listed in all four answers. However, the routing protocol does the functions in the two listed answers. Independent of the routing protocol, a router learns routes for IP subnets and IP networks directly connected to its interfaces. Routers also forward (route) IP packets, but that process is called IP routing, or IP forwarding, and is an independent process compared to the work of a routing protocol. 10. A company implements a TCP/IP network, with PC1 sitting on an Ethernet LAN. Which of the following protocols and features requires PC1 to learn information from some other server device? a. ARP b. ping c. DNS d. None of the other answers are correct R: C. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) does allow PC1 to learn information, but the information is not stored on a server.The ping command does let the user at PC1 learn whether packets can flow in the network, but it again does not use a server. With the Domain Name System (DNS), PC1 acts as a DNS client, relying on a DNS server to respond with information about the IP addresses that match a given host name. Cap 5 pag 129 1. Which of the following is not a feature of a protocol that is considered to match OSI Layer 4? a. Error recovery b. Flow control c. Segmenting of application data d. Conversion from binary to ASCII R: D. Three of the answers define functions of TCP: error recovery, flow control, and segmentation. The correct answer defines a function not done by TCP nor UDP, but instead done by application layer protocols. 2. Which of the following header fields identify which TCP/IP application gets data received by the computer? (Choose two answers.) a. Ethernet Type b. SNAP Protocol Type c. IP Protocol d. TCP Port Number e. UDP Port Number R: D and E. Many headers include a field that identifies the next header that follows inside a message. Ethernet uses the Ethernet Type field, and the IP header uses the Protocol field.

The TCP and UDP headers identify the application that should receive the data that follows the TCP or UDP header by using the port number field in the TCP and UDP headers, respectively. 3. Which of the following are typical functions of TCP? (Choose four answers.) a. Flow Control (windowing) b. Error recovery c. Multiplexing using port numbers d. Routing e. Encryption f. Ordered data transfer R: A, B, C, and F. IP, not TCP, defines routing. Many other protocols define encryption, but TCP does not. The correct answers simply list various TCP features. 4. Which of the following functions is performed by both TCP and UDP? a. Windowing b. Error recovery c. Multiplexing using port numbers d. Routing e. Encryption f. Ordered data transfer R: C. TCP, not UDP, performs windowing, error recovery, and ordered data transfer. Neither performs routing or encryption. 5. What do you call data that includes the Layer 4 protocol header, and data given to Layer 4 by the upper layers, not including any headers and trailers from Layers 1 to 3? (Choose two answers.) a. L3PDU b. Chunk c. Segment d. Packet e. Frame f. L4PDU R: C and F. The terms packet and L3PDU refer to the header plus data encapsulated by Layer 3. Frame and L2PDU refer to the header (and trailer), plus the data encapsulated by Layer 2. Segment and L4PDU refer to header and data encapsulated by the transport layer protocol. 6. In the URL http://www.certskills.com/ICND1, which part identifies the web server? a. http b. www.certskills.com c. certskills.com d. http://www.certskills.com e. The file name.html includes the host name. R: B. Note that the host name is all the text between the // and the . The text before the / identifies the application layer protocol, and the text after the / represents the name of the web page. 7. When comparing VoIP with an HTTP-based mission-critical business application, which of the following statements are accurate about the quality of service needed from the network? (Choose two answers.) a. VoIP needs better (lower) packet loss. b. HTTP needs less bandwidth. c. HTTP needs better (lower) jitter. d. VoIP needs better (lower) delay. R: A and D. VoIP flows need better delay, jitter, and loss, with better meaning less delay, jitter, and loss, as compared with all data applications. VoIP typically requires less bandwidth than data applications.

CAP 6 PAG 144 1. Which of the following statements describes part of the process of how a switch decides to forward a frame destined for a known unicast MAC address? a. It compares the unicast destination address to the bridging, or MAC address, table. b. It compares the unicast source address to the bridging, or MAC address, table. c. It forwards the frame out all interfaces in the same VLAN except for the incoming interface. d. It compares the destination IP address to the destination MAC address. e. It compares the frames incoming interface to the source MAC entry in the MAC address table. R: A. A switch compares the destination address to the MAC address table. If a matching entry is found, the switch knows out which interface to forward the frame. If no matching entry is found, the switch floods the frame. 2. Which of the following statements describes part of the process of how a LAN switch decides to forward a frame destined for a broadcast MAC address? a. It compares the unicast destination address to the bridging, or MAC address, table. b. It compares the unicast source address to the bridging, or MAC address, table. c. It forwards the frame out all interfaces in the same VLAN except for the incoming interface. d. It compares the destination IP address to the destination MAC address. e. It compares the frames incoming interface to the source MAC entry in the MAC address table. R: C. A switch floods broadcast frames, multicast frames (if no multicast optimizations are enabled), and unknown unicast destination frames (frames whose destination MAC address is not in the MAC address table). 3. Which of the following statements best describes what a switch does with a frame destined for an unknown unicast address? a. It forwards out all interfaces in the same VLAN except for the incoming interface. b. It forwards the frame out the one interface identified by the matching entry in the MAC address table. c. It compares the destination IP address to the destination MAC address. d. It compares the frames incoming interface to the source MAC entry in the MAC address table. R: A. A switch floods broadcast frames, multicast frames (if no multicast optimizations are enabled), and unknown unicast destination frames (frames whose destination MAC address is not in the MAC address table). 4. Which of the following comparisons does a switch make when deciding whether a new MAC address should be added to its MAC address table? a. It compares the unicast destination address to the bridging, or MAC address, table. b. It compares the unicast source address to the bridging, or MAC address, table. c. It compares the VLAN ID to the bridging, or MAC address, table. d. It compares the destination IP addresss ARP cache entry to the bridging, or MAC address, table. R: B. Switches need to learn the location of each MAC address used in the LAN relative to that local switch. When a switch sends a frame, the source MAC identifies the sender. The interface in which the frame arrives identifies the local switch interface closest to that node in the LAN topology. 5. PC1, with MAC address 1111.1111.1111, is connected to Switch SW1s Fa0/1 interface. PC2, with MAC address 2222.2222.2222, is connected to SW1s Fa0/2 interface. PC3, with MAC address 3333.3333.3333, connects to SW1s Fa0/3 interface. The switch begins with no dynamically learned MAC addresses, followed by PC1 sending a frame with a destination address of 2222.2222.2222. If the next frame to reach the switch is a frame sent by PC3, destined for PC2s MAC address of 2222.2222.2222, which of the following are true? (Choose two answers.) a. The switch forwards the frame out interface Fa0/1. b. The switch forwards the frame out interface Fa0/2. c. The switch forwards the frame out interface Fa0/3. d. The switch discards (filters) the frame.

R: A and B. When the frame sent by PC3 arrives at the switch, the switch has learned a MAC address table entry for only 1111.1111.1111, PC1s MAC address. PC3s frame, addressed to 2222.2222.2222, is flooded, which means it is forwarded out all interfaces except for the interface on which the frame arrived. 6. Which of the following devices would be in the same collision domain as PC1? a. PC2, which is separated from PC1 by an Ethernet hub b. PC3, which is separated from PC1 by a transparent bridge c. PC4, which is separated from PC1 by an Ethernet switch d. PC5, which is separated from PC1 by a router R: A. A collision domain contains all devices whose frames could collide with frames sent by all the other devices in the domain. Bridges, switches, and routers separate or segment a LAN into multiple collision domains, whereas hubs and repeaters do not. 7. Which of the following devices would be in the same broadcast domain as PC1? (Choose three answers.) a. PC2, which is separated from PC1 by an Ethernet hub b. PC3, which is separated from PC1 by a transparent bridge c. PC4, which is separated from PC1 by an Ethernet switch d. PC5, which is separated from PC1 by a router R: A, B, and C. A broadcast domain contains all devices whose sent broadcast frames should be delivered to all the other devices in the domain. Hubs, repeaters, bridges, and switches do not separate or segment a LAN into multiple broadcast domains, whereas routers do. 8. Which of the following Ethernet standards support a maximum cable length of longer than 100 meters? (Choose two answers.) a. 100BASE-T b. 1000BASE-LX c. 1000BASE-T d. 100BASE-FX R: B and D. The IEEE Ethernet standards support 100-meter links when using UTP cabling. Most standards that use fiberoptic cabling, like the standards in the two correct answers, use lengths longer than 100 meters. 9. A Cisco LAN switch connects to three PCs (PC1, PC2, and PC3), each directly using a cable that supports Ethernet UTP speeds up through 1000 Mbps (1 Gbps). PC1 uses a NIC that supports only 10BASE-T, while PC2 has a 10/100 NIC, and PC3 has a 10/100/1000 NIC. Assuming that the PCs and switch use IEEE autonegotiation, which PCs will use halfduplex? a. PC1 b. PC2 c. PC3 d. None of the PCs will use half-duplex. R: D. Full-duplex can be used on any Ethernet link between a switch and a PC. The IEEE autonegotiation process states that the two endpoints on a link should choose the best speed and the best duplex that both support, with full-duplex being better than half-duplex. Cap 7 pag 163 1. In what modes can you execute the command show mac address-table? (Choose two answers.) a. User mode b. Enable mode c. Global configuration mode d. Interface configuration mode R: A and B. The command in the question is an EXEC command that happens to require only user mode access. As an EXEC command, you cannot use the command in configuration mode, unless you preface the command with do (for example, do show mac address-table). As such, you can use this command in both user mode and enable mode.

2. In which of the following modes of the CLI could you issue the command reload to reboot the switch? a. User mode b. Enable mode c. Global configuration mode d. Interface configuration mode R: B. The command referenced in the question, the reload command, is an EXEC command that happens to require privileged mode, also known as enable mode. As an EXEC command, you cannot use the command in configuration mode, unless you preface the command with do (for example, do reload). This command is not available in user mode. 3. Which of the following is a difference between Telnet and SSH as supported by a Cisco switch? a. SSH encrypts the passwords used at login, but not other traffic; Telnet encrypts nothing. b. SSH encrypts all data exchange, including login passwords; Telnet encrypts nothing. c. Telnet is used from Microsoft operating systems, and SSH is used from UNIX and Linux operating systems. d. Telnet encrypts only password exchanges; SSH encrypts all data exchanges. R: B. SSH provides a secure remote login option, encrypting all data flows, including password exchanges. Telnet sends all data (including passwords) as clear text. 4. What type of switch memory is used to store the configuration used by the switch when it is up and working? a. RAM b. ROM c. Flash d. NVRAM e. Bubble R: A. Switches (and routers) keep the currently used configuration in RAM, using NVRAM to store the configuration file that is loaded when the switch (or router) next loads the IOS. 5. What command copies the configuration from RAM into NVRAM? a. copy running-config tftp b. copy tftp running-config c. copy running-config startup-config d. copy startup-config running-config e. copy startup-config running-config f. copy running-config startup-config R: F. The startup config file is in NVRAM, and the running config file is in RAM. 6. A switch user is currently in console line configuration mode. Which of the following would place the user in enable mode? (Choose two answers.) a. Using the exit command once b. Using the end command once c. Pressing the Ctrl-Z key sequence once d. Using the quit command R: B and C. The exit command moves the user one config mode backward, toward global configuration mode, or if already in global configuration mode, it moves the user back to enable mode. From console mode, it moves the user back to global configuration mode. The end command and the Ctrl-Z key sequence both move the user back to enable mode regardless of the current configuration submode. CAP 8 pag 183 1. Imagine that you have configured the enable secret command, followed by the enable password command, from the console. You log out of the switch and log back in at the console. Which command defines the password that you had to enter to access privileged mode? a. enable password b. enable secret c. Neither d. The password command, if its configured R: B. If both commands are configured, IOS accepts only the password as configured in the enable secret command.

2. An engineer had formerly configured a Cisco 2960 switch to allow Telnet access so that the switch expected a password of mypassword from the Telnet user. The engineer then changed the configuration to support Secure Shell. Which of the following commands could have been part of the new configuration? (Choose two answers.) a. A username name password password vty mode subcommand b. A username name password password global configuration command c. A login local vty mode subcommand d. A transport input ssh global configuration command R: B and C. SSH requires the use of usernames in addition to a password. Using the username global command would be one way to define usernames (and matching passwords) to support SSH. The vty lines would also need to be configured to require the use of usernames, with the login local vty subcommand being one such option. The transport input ssh command could be part of a meaningful configuration, but it is not a global configuration command (as claimed in one wrong answer). Likewise, one answer refers to the username command as a command in vty config mode, which is also the wrong mode. 3. The following command was copied and pasted into configuration mode when a user was telnetted into a Cisco switch: banner login this is the login banner Which of the following is true about what occurs the next time a user logs in from the console? a. No banner text is displayed. b. The banner text his is is displayed. c. The banner text this is the login banner is displayed. d. The banner text Login banner configured, no text defined is displayed. R: B. The first nonblank character after the banner login phrase is interpreted as the beginning delimiter character. In this case, its the letter t. So, the second letter tthe first letter in theis interpreted as the ending delimiter. The resulting login banner is the text between these two tsnamely, his is. 4. Which of the following is required when configuring port security with sticky learning? a. Setting the maximum number of allowed MAC addresses on the interface with the switchport port-security maximum interface subcommand b. Enabling port security with the switchport port-security interface subcommand c. Defining the specific allowed MAC addresses using the switchport port-security mac-address interface subcommand d. All the other answers list required commands R: B. The setting for the maximum number of MAC addresses has a default of 1, so the switchport port-security maximum command does not have to be configured. With sticky learning, you do not need to predefine the specific MAC addresses either. However, you must enable port security, which requires the switchport port-security interface subcommand. 5. An engineers desktop PC connects to a switch at the main site. A router at the main site connects to each branch office through a serial link, with one small router and switch at each branch. Which of the following commands must be configured on the branch office switches, in the listed configuration mode, to allow the engineer to telnet to the branch office witches? (Choose three answers.) a. The ip address command in VLAN configuration mode b. The ip address command in global configuration mode c. The ip default-gateway command in VLAN configuration mode d. The ip default-gateway command in global configuration mode e. The password command in console line configuration mode f. The password command in vty line configuration mode R: A, D, and F. To allow access through Telnet, the switch must have password security enabled, at a minimum using the password vty line configuration subcommand. Additionally, the switch needs an IP address (configured under one VLAN interface) and a default gateway when the switch needs to communicate with hosts in a different subnet. 6. Which of the following describes a way to disable IEEE standard autonegotiation on a 10/100 port on a Cisco switch? a. Configure the negotiate disable interface subcommand b. Configure the no negotiate interface subcommand

c. Configure the speed 100 interface subcommand d. Configure the duplex half interface subcommand e. Configure the duplex full interface subcommand f. Configure the speed 100 and duplex full interface subcommands R: F. Cisco switches do not have a command to disable autonegotiation of speed and duplex. Instead, a switch port that has both speed and duplex configured disables autonegotiation. 7. In which of the following modes of the CLI could you configure the duplex setting for interface Fast Ethernet 0/5? a. User mode b. Enable mode c. Global configuration mode d. VLAN mode e. Interface configuration mode R: E. Cisco switches can be configured for speed (with the speed command) and duplex (with the duplex command) in interface configuration mode.

CAP 9 PAG 212 1. In a LAN, which of the following terms best equates to the term VLAN? a. Collision domain b. Broadcast domain c. Subnet d. Single switch e. Trunk R: B. A VLAN is a set of devices in the same Layer 2 broadcast domain. A subnet often includes the exact same set of devices, but it is a Layer 3 concept. A collision domain refers to a set of Ethernet devices, but with different rules tan VLAN rules for determining which devices are in the same collision domain. 2. Imagine a switch with three configured VLANs. How many IP subnets are required, assuming that all hosts in all VLANs want to use TCP/IP? a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3 e. You cant tell from the information provided. R: D. Although a subnet and a VLAN are not equivalent concepts, the devices in one VLAN are typically in the same IP subnet and vice versa. 3. Switch SW1 sends a frame to switch SW2 using 802.1Q trunking. Which of the answers describes how SW1 changes or adds to the Ethernet frame before forwarding the frame to SW2? a. Inserts a 4-byte header and does change the MAC addresses b. Inserts a 4-byte header and does not change the MAC addresses c. Encapsulates the original frame behind an entirely-new Ethernet header d. None of the other answers are correct R: B. 802.1Q defines a 4-byte header, inserted after the original frames destination and source MAC address fields. The insertion of this header does not change the original frames source or destination address. The header itself holds a 12-bit VLAN ID field, which identifies the VLAN associated with the frame. 4. For an 802.1Q trunk between two Ethernet switches, which answer most accurately defines which frames do not include an 802.1Q header? a. Frames in the native VLAN (only one) b. Frames in extended VLANs c. Frames in VLAN 1 (not configurable) d. Frames in all native VLANs (multiple allowed) R: A. 802.1Q defines the native VLAN as one designated VLAN on a trunk for which the devices choose to not add an 802.1Q header for frames in that VLAN. The switches can set

the native VLAN to any VLAN ID, but the switches should agree. The default native VLAN is VLAN 1. Note that only one such native VLAN is allowed on any one trunk; otherwise, that VLAN associated with untagged frames could not be discerned by the receiving switch. 5. Imagine that you are told that switch 1 is configured with the dynamic auto parameter for trunking on its Fa0/5interface, which is connected to switch 2. You have to configure switch 2. Which of the following settings for trunking could allow trunking to work? (Choose two answers.) a. Trunking turned on b. dynamic auto c. dynamic desirable d. access e. None of the other answers are correct. R: A and C. The dynamic auto setting means that the switch can negotiate trunking, but it can only respond to negotiation messages, and it cannot initiate the negotiation process. So, the other switch must be configured to trunk or to initiate the negotiation process (based on being configured with the dynamic desirable option). 6. A switch has just arrived from Cisco. The switch has never been configured with any VLANs, but VTP has been disabled. An engineer gets into configuration mode and issues the vlan 22 command, followed by the name Hannahs-VLAN command. Which of the following are true? (Choose two answers.) a. VLAN 22 is listed in the output of the show vlan brief command. b. VLAN 22 is listed in the output of the show running-config command. c. VLAN 22 is not created by this process. d. VLAN 22 does not exist in that switch until at least one interface is assigned to that VLAN. R: A and B. The default VTP setting of VTP transparent mode means that the switch can configure VLANs, so the VLAN is configured. Additionally, the VLAN configuration details, including the VLAN name, show up as part of the running-config file. 7. Which of the following commands identify switch interfaces as being trunking interfaces: interfaces that currently operate as VLAN trunks? (Choose two answers.) a. show interfaces b. show interfaces switchport c. show interfaces trunk d. show trunks R: B and C. The show interfaces switchport command lists both the administrative and operational status of each port. When a switch considers a port to be trunking, this command lists an operational trunking state of trunk. The show interfaces trunk command lists a set of interfaces: the interfaces that are currently operating as trunks. So, both these commands identify interfaces that are operational trunks. Cap 10 pag 232 1. Imagine that a switch connects through an Ethernet cable to a router, and the routers host name is Hannah. Which of the following commands could tell you information about the IOS version on Hannah without establishing a Telnet connection to Hannah? (Choose two answers.) a. show neighbors Hannah b. show cdp c. show cdp neighbors d. show cdp neighbors Hannah e. show cdp entry Hannah f. show cdp neighbors detail r: E and F. CDP discovers information about neighbors. show cdp gives you several options that display more or less information, depending on the parameters used. 2. A switch is cabled to a router whose host name is Hannah. Which of the following CDP commands could identify Hannahs model of hardware? (Choose two answers.) a. show neighbors b. show neighbors Hannah c. show cdp d. show cdp interface e. show cdp neighbors f. show cdp entry Hannah

r: E and F. The show cdp neighbors command lists one line of output per neighbor. However, it does list the platform information of the neighbor, which typically includes the hardware model number. The show cdp entry Hannah command lists a group of messages about the neighboring router, including more detail about the hardware model and the IOS versin 3. The output of the show interfaces status command on a 2960 switch shows interface Fa0/1 in a disabled state. Which of the following is true about interface Fa0/1? (Choose three answers.) a. The interface is configured with the shutdown command. b. The show interfaces fa0/1 command will list the interface with two status codes of administratively down and line protocol down. c. The show interfaces fa0/1 command will list the interface with two status codes of up and down. d. The interface cannot currently be used to forward frames. e. The interface can currently be used to forward frames R: A, B, and D. The disabled state in the show interfaces status command is the same as an administratively down and down state shown in the show interfaces command. The interface must be in a connected state (per the show interfaces status command) before the switch can send frames out the interface. 4. Switch SW1 uses its Gigabit 0/1 interface to connect to switch SW2s Gigabit 0/2 interface. SW2s Gi0/2 interface is configured with the speed 1000 and duplex full commands. SW1 uses all defaults for interface configuration commands on its Gi0/1 interface. Which of the following are true about the link after it comes up? (Choose two answers.) a. The link works at 1000 Mbps (1 Gbps). b. SW1 attempts to run at 10 Mbps because SW2 has effectively disabled IEEE standard autonegotiation. c. The link runs at 1 Gbps, but SW1 uses half-duplex and SW2 uses full-duplex. d. Both switches use full-duplex. R: A and D. SW2 has effectively disabled IEEE standard autonegotiation by configuring both speed and duplex. However, Cisco switches can detect the speed used by the other device, even with autonegotiation turned off. Also, at 1 Gbps, the IEEE autonegotiation standard says to use full-duplex if the duplex setting cannot be negotiated, so both ends use 1 Gbps, full-duplex. 5. The following line of output was taken from a show interfaces fa0/1 command: Full-duplex, 100Mbps, media type is 10/100BaseTX Which of the following are true about the interface? (Choose two answers.) a. The speed was definitely configured with the speed 100 interface subcommand. b. The speed might have been configured with the speed 100 interface subcommand. c. The duplex was definitely configured with the duplex full interface subcommand. d. The duplex might have been configured with the duplex full interface subcommand. R: B and D. The show interfaces command lists the actual speed and duplex setting, but it does not imply anything about how the settings were configured or negotiated. The show interfaces status command lists a prefix of a- in front of the speed and duplex setting to imply that the setting was autonegotiated, leaving off this prefix if the setting was configured. 6. Which of the following commands list the MAC address table entries for MAC addresses configured by port security? (Choose two answers.) a. show mac address-table dynamic b. show mac address-table c. show mac address-table static d. show mac address-table port-security R: B and C. IOS adds MAC addresses configured by the port security feature as static MAC addresses, so they do not show up in the output of the show mac address-table dynamic command. show mac address-table port-security is not a valid command. 7. On a Cisco Catalyst switch, you issue a show mac address-table command. Which of the following answers list information you would likely see in most lines of output? (Choose two answers.) a. A MAC address b. An IP address

c. A VLAN ID d. Type (broadcast, multicast, or unicast) R: A and C. The show mac address-table command lists all entries in the switchs MAC address table, including dynamically learned and statically defined addresses. From left to right, the output lists the VLAN ID, the MAC address, the type (static or dynamic), and the associated ports (out which frames sent to the listed address will be forwarded by this switch). 8. Layer 2 switches SW1 and SW2 connect through a link, with port G0/1 on SW1 and port G0/2 on SW2. The network engineer wants to use 802.1Q trunking on this link. The show interfaces g0/1 switchport command on SW1 shows the output listed here: Click here to view code image SW1# show interfaces gigabit0/1 switchport Name: Gi0/1 Switchport: Enabled Administrative Mode: trunk Operational Mode: trunk Which of the following must be true on switch SW2s G0/2 port? a. The operational state per the show interfaces switchport command must be trunk. b. The administrative state per the show interfaces switchport command must be trunk. c. SW2 must use the switchport mode trunk configuration command on G0/2, or the link will not use trunking. d. SW2 can use the switchport mode dynamic auto configuration command as one option to make the link use trunking. R: D. The show interface switchport command lists a switchs configured value of the switchport mode command as the administrative mode, telling us that SW1 uses the switchport mode trunk configuration command. The operation state shows the current working state (trunk). Of the four answers, one incorrect answer claims that SW2s operational state must also be trunk; however, one switch can use trunking, while the other does not. Another answer claims that the administrative mode must be trunk, which basically me ans that the command switchport mode trunk must be used. However, SW2 has a few other configuration options that would work, like the switchport mode dynamic desirable and switchport mode dynamic auto commands. The correct answer refers to one of these commands that would work correctly.