Biology

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A S S E S S M E N T R E P O R T

Science Learning Area

BIOLOGY 2002 ASSESSMENT REPORT

GENERAL COMMENTS
The mean score for the 2002 examination was 57.7%, which compares with previous means of 54.2% (2001), 53.7% (2000), 59.6% (1999), 54.1% (1998) and 57.0% (1997). The range of examination marks was from 9 to 197 out of a possible 200. The mean marks for Sections A, B, C, and D were 59.3%, 59.2%, 59.4%, and 48.7% respectively. There was much greater similarity between the means for each section than had occurred in the past 2 years. However, performance in the Extended-Response Questions (Section D) continues to be significantly lower than that in the rest of the examination.

ASSESSMENT COMPONENT 1: EXAMINATION SECTION A: MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS

Thirteen candidates scored full marks in Section A. The mean of facilities and range of facilities for the each of the last five years are shown below. The facility for a question is the percentage of candidates who gave the correct response. Year Mean (%) Facility 2002 2001 2000 1999 1998 59.4 56.1 57.9 58.7 68.3 20 to 86 32 to 83 24 to 95 33 to 88 23 to 90 Range (%)

It is the intention of the examination setters to produce multiple-choice questions that vary in difficulty from easy knowledge through to more difficult knowledge and to also include problem solving. Problem solving questions ask candidates to apply their biological knowledge to unfamiliar situations. This variation in question difficulty is reflected in the range in the question facility as seen in the table above. Most questions are also intentionally discriminating so that, ideally, poorer candidates are likely to choose the four responses with equal frequency, whereas more capable candidates will show a distinct preference for the correct response. It was pleasing that for every question in Section A, the top ten percent (decile) of the candidates preferred the correct response.

COMMENTS ON SELECTED MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS

Question 5 This was the most poorly done question. It was the most discriminating question in Section A, with only the top decile of candidates preferring the correct answer (J). All other deciles preferred alternative L, indicating that most candidates have not fully understood the connections between the surface area to volume ratio of a cell, the size of a cell, and the consequent surface area of a cell. Question 9 Alternatives K and L were frequently chosen incorrect answers. Candidates selecting alternative L seem not to have understood that the endosymbiotic origin of the outer membrane of chloroplasts and mitochondria is from the host cell, not the prokaryotic cell being incorporated into the larger cell. Candidates selecting alternative L presumably forgot that prokaryotic cells divide by binary fission, not by mitotic cell division. Question 13 This problem-solving question required candidates to interpret information relating to the cell cycle from a diagram. Perhaps surprisingly, fewer than half of the candidates chose the correct answer. The most commonly selected incorrect alternative was L, suggesting that candidates had difficulty in distinguishing between cyclin and MPF. Question 15 Alternative L was a good distracter. Candidates selecting alternative L seemed to understand that the absence of oxygen in interval B would result in fermentation occurring. However they either did not recognise the significance of the carbon dioxide concentration remaining constant, or they did not know the difference in the equations for fermentation in animals and in yeasts. Question 17 The bottom 5 deciles of candidates showed a strong preference for alternative L. Presumably they correctly recognised the effect of crossing over, but did not know that the products of meiotic cell division are haploid. Question 19 A poorly done question and a good discriminator. Only the top 30% of candidates showed a clear preference for the correct answer. This, combined with the results from question 17 also dealing with an aspect of meiosis, indicate that only the better candidates have an understanding of the differences between mitosis and meiosis, and between haploid cells and diploid cells. This statement would not surprise experienced teachers of Biology. Question 23 Only the top 20% of candidates showed a preference for alternative L. Productivity is the rate at which biomass is produced and therefore the units of productivity must include a time component, making alternative J incorrect. Alternative K was the most commonly selected answer, but is incorrect because productivity is measured per unit of area (or volume). A community with the most organisms is not necessarily the most dense, nor does it necessarily experience the types of conditions that would maximise the production of biomass.

Question 24 The top 30% of candidates preferred the correct answer, alternative K, whilst the bottom 70% preferred alternative L. The change in the mixture of species on the body of the dead kangaroo is an example of succession. Candidates should be aware that species change their environment and, because of the change, the environment becomes suitable for other species. In this question flies (and bacteria and beetles) facilitate the changes in the mixture of species on the body of the dead kangaroo, making alternative K correct. The information provided in the stem is not explicit about whether bacteria and beetles decompose the kangaroo at the same time, although there is an implication that when the flies leave, the bacteria do not. Irrespective of the implication, candidates should realise that when deciding between one alternative that is correct and another that may be correct, then the best option is to always select the former. Multiple-Choice Analysis The table below indicates the correct response for each of the questions in Section A and the percentage of responses for each alternative for each question. Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 Correct Answer K K M K J M J K M J L J M K J M J L K M L M L K L Percentage of Responses for Each Alternative J K L M 5 76 11 8 2 81 11 5 7 7 6 80 21 69 5 5 20 11 65 3 17 2 12 70 61 19 13 7 3 86 3 8 11 20 33 36 67 19 3 11 9 4 59 28 72 8 8 13 8 10 32 49 9 74 4 12 47 11 36 6 3 8 21 68 42 6 49 3 9 15 62 14 34 33 2 31 6 11 9 74 17 4 77 2 7 5 27 61 30 34 32 4 14 37 42 7 11 12 53 24

SECTION B: SHORT-ANSWER QUESTIONS

In general, 2 marks are allocated for one well-expressed piece of information. Questions that require an explanation are worth 4 marks and therefore, in order to obtain full marks, candidates must supply two relevant and connected pieces of information.

Questions that require candidates to state the name of a term contained in the curriculum statement often have a communication mark associated with them. A candidate who provides a correct answer but misspells a curriculum statement term is penalised by the loss of 1 mark. The mean marks for the questions in Section B are shown in the table below. Question 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 Total Question 26 (a) Most candidates correctly identified the nucleus as the site of semi-conservative replication of DNA in eukaryotic cells, and were able to spell it correctly. A few candidates stated cytoplasm or ribosomes. Mean Mark/Maximum Mark 6.32/10 3.51/4 3.60/ 8 2.77/6 5.26/8 7.05/10 5.32/10 1.34/4 3.01/4 3.90/8 3.91/8 5.06/6 3.42/6 4.73/8 59.20/100 Mean Mark (%) 63.16 87.68 45.02 46.14 65.70 70.54 53.18 33.47 75.20 48.72 48.93 84.26 57.06 59.17 59.20

(b) The process of semi-conservative replication of DNA was generally well described. Reference to the separation of DNA strands and complementary base pairing appeared in the majority of answers. However, only the better answers fully addressed the question by relating the process of replication to the outcome of having identical genetic information. The weaker candidates, although showing some knowledge of the steps involved, were careless in their expression. For example, the phrase untwisting of the DNA strand was often used to mean the separation of the two complementary strands. Candidates sometimes referred to the complimentary base pairing as pairing of the letters A with T and G with C. Some candidates volunteered information beyond that required in the answer, but unfortunately made errors in the process (e.g. incorrectly identifying DNA polymerase as the enzyme that unwinds the double helix) and therefore did not receive full credit for their answers. (c) There were several possible answers to this question and most candidates were able to state one of them. It is worth noting that when the question asks for one reason or statement, and a candidate provides more than one reason or statement, then the statement of least value is counted. This strategy aims to ensure that candidates who follow instructions are not disadvantaged. (d) Candidates were required to know the sequence of events in protein synthesis in order to correctly answer the question. Better responses included reference to the idea that mRNA codons were required to be at the ribosomes so that tRNA anticodons could bind with them. Question 27 (a) Primate B was correctly identified as the orang-utans by the vast majority of candidates.

(b) Most candidates were able to state a reason based on information provided in the diagram. Those candidates who failed to gain marks generally stated reasons that did not use the information provided to them in the diagram.

Question 28 (a) This was supposed to be an easy knowledge question. However, a surprisingly large number of candidates were unable to identify organelle A as a Golgi body. Of those who correctly identified the structure as the Golgi body, many did not use an upper case letter in the name and therefore lost a mark for spelling.

(b) Most candidates recognised organelle B as a mitochondrion, but some did not state its function clearly. Vague references such as the powerhouse of the cell were not fully rewarded, whilst answers referring to organelle B as the site of the latter stages of aerobic respiration received full credit. (c) The majority of candidates identified the process involving vesicle C as exocytosis. Better answers described the role of the cytoskeleton in transferring vesicle C to the cell membrane, the fusing of vesicle C with the cell membrane, and the subsequent release of the contents of vesicle C. Common misconceptions revealed in the answers to this question were that: the vesicle had to be incorporated into the Golgi body; the vesicle had to be engulfed by the cell; active transport was involved; the vesicle had to be transported through the cell via the endoplasmic reticulum; having reached the cell wall, the vesicle was pushed out through that wall; and this process involves the removal of wastes, rather than secretion. Question 29 (a) The reasons for having many, regulated steps in energy pathways were not well understood. Many candidates did not appreciate the difference between activation energy for a particular reaction and energy release. Many candidates provided circular arguments, using information given in the next question, and stated that the steps were needed because they were catalysed by different enzymes. A substantial number of candidates stated that the intermediate steps were needed to avoid spontaneous combustion. While this was given credit, it showed a disappointingly superficial understanding of energy pathways. (b) The ideas that enzymes were specific for their substrate, and that there were many different substrates in the pathway were well expressed by relatively few candidates. Question 30 (a) Most candidates answered this question correctly. (b) (i) To earn full credit, answers had to state an effect of preventing the successful assembly of spindle fibres on chromosomes. Common correct answers included the non-alignment of chromosomes and the non-separation of sister chromatids.

(ii) Most candidates were able to extrapolate from the non-successful assembly of spindle fibres to state that cell division would be impaired. Only the better answers were able to relate impaired cell division to the effective treatment for cancer. Candidates are reminded that answers to 4-mark questions require two well made points. Question 31 (a) Mutation, or a specific example such as a substitution, was the correct answer. (b) It was generally well known that radiation is a factor that can increase mutation rate. Vague answers such as chemicals or temperature were not given credit. Candidates were required to state more specific answers such as mutagenic chemicals and high temperatures.

(c)

(i)

Candidates were generally able to state that the addition of extra plant sterols to margarine may cause side effects. Some candidates did not seem to have an understanding of the impact of reducing cholesterol absorption stating that this would increase the concentration of cholesterol in the blood.

(ii) Too many candidates did not follow the instructions in the question and either described another choice relating to plant sterols or described a choice unrelated to nutrition. The candidates who followed instructions were usually able to obtain full marks for their answer. Question 32 (a) This question was surprisingly poorly answered. Despite being told that structures A and B were in the lungs, many candidates incorrectly identified them as villi or nephrons. Those candidates who correctly identified structure A as alveoli and structure B as blood capillaries often misspelled the terms. (b) Many candidates seemed to be unaware that organs consist of different tissues working together to perform a particular task. (c) (i) The concept that a reduced surface area of the lungs will decrease the rate of oxygen diffusion into the blood was generally well understood, but not always well expressed.

(ii) It was generally known that oxygen is required for aerobic respiration. The better answers were then able to link a reduction in levels of oxygen in the blood to a reduction in energy release in the muscles by referring to either a decrease in ATP production or to an increase in the rate of fermentation. Question 33 It was apparent that most candidates were familiar with the role of stem cells, possibly as a result of writing a human awareness essay based on them. None-the-less the question seemed to discriminate well between the better and poorer candidates. A complete answer required candidates to link the ideas that stem cells had a complete set of genetic material and that differentiation into a specific cell type was dependent on the activation of a particular subset of genes. Very few candidates were able to successfully convey the former idea. Question 34 (a) It was generally known that each individual has a unique DNA fingerprint. (b) Candidates were expected to conclude that the blood on the suspects shirt came from the victim. The conclusion that the suspect was guilty required more evidence than was provided by the DNA fingerprint by itself, and was therefore not given full credit. Question 35 (a) Most responded with filtration correctly spelt. The most common incorrect answer was diffusion. (b) Many responses referred to urea as if it were urine. The respondents who knew that urea is a metabolic waste were able to deduce that some urea had been reabsorbed. (c) Most candidates were able to compare the data for person X and person Y, and notice that person Y had protein in the glomerular filtrate and urine. Only the better candidates were then able to explain that protein molecules are too large to pass across the glomerulus in a healthy person.

Question 36 (a) Whilst it was generally known that limited resources would prevent a sustainable increase in the population of koalas, candidates found it difficult to clearly state two limited resources. A significant number of candidates did not read the question carefully and instead gave reasons for the rapid increase in population size of koalas. Some wrote about the activities of the koalas affecting other species on the island and discussed their impact on others instead of answering the actual question. (b) The concept of a gene pool was not well understood. Very few responses actually referred to the increase in frequency of the resistant gene in the population. Many responses referred only to the effect of Chlamydia on the koalas themselves and not on the types of genes in the population. Other responses implied that each koala had its own gene pool. One common misconception was that Chlamydia causes an increase in the mutation rate, or that it actually initiates the mutation leading to resistance to the disease. Question 37 (a) Credit was given for constructing a table with headings including units, containing the correct values as shown in the diagram, and having an appropriate table structure. It was reassuring that the vast majority of responses were able to earn full marks. The most common errors were omitting the number of weed-free weeks and leaving out units. The worst answers provided a graph instead of a table. (b) Most candidates were able to use the data to correctly relate two of the variables. Question 38 (a) Surprisingly, some candidates were unable to distinguish between biotic factors and abiotic factors. A few candidates chose to state a factor such as temperature as both biotic and abiotic. (b) It was generally well known that species which are similar have a greater degree of similarity in their DNA sequences. However, this idea was not always clearly expressed. Some candidates explained how DNA comparisons are made rather than why. (c) Some candidates attributed Senecios with mating calls and other reproductive behaviours, hence not letting the facts in the question interfere with a good idea. Answers that gained credit referred to a credible kind of reproductive incompatibility. Responses that were clearly incorrect were usually based on some form of geographical isolation. Question 39 (a) The better answers clearly stated the role of decomposers in a community and used information from the table to support the idea that there were more decomposers in the undisturbed sections of the Pasoh Forest. For example, candidates could have referred to the higher percentage of organic carbon in the soils from the undisturbed sections of the Pasoh Forest and stated that there are more resources for decomposers in these sections than in the logged sections. Discussion of the role of decomposers was often confused. Many candidates referred to organic carbon as a product of rather than a prerequisite for decomposition. A common mistake, often made by the more articulate students, was to refer to nitrogen-fixing bacteria as decomposers. (b) Many candidates simply restated the information given in the stem of the question without adding any new information. Others described the impact on the soils rather than on the rainforest community. The better answers referred to relationships between the rainforest trees and different species in the community (e.g. providing food or nesting sites) and explained that selective harvesting would have less impact on these relationships than clearing the area and replanting with an introduced species.

SECTION C: PRACTICAL QUESTION

Question 40 (a) A surprisingly high proportion of answers did not correctly identify pH as the independent variable. (b) Most candidates seemed to realise that the pH of the flasks had to vary, but the temperature had to be the same, and therefore correctly identified flasks 1 and 4. (c) Whilst it was generally recognised that only having one flask for each set of conditions would limit the reliability of the results obtained, many candidates did not express this idea clearly. Some answers incorrectly referred to the impact of systematic errors. Other answers correctly referred to random errors but made loose statements such as increases random error. Better answers referred to the increased effect of random error resulting from a small sample size. (d) (i) It was evident that many candidates did not understand the phrase an appropriate degree of precision in relation to data. The diagram showed that the scale on the measuring cylinder had increments of 0.1 mL. The data in the table showed that the student had appropriately recorded the data to 1 decimal place. Some responses expressed the idea that the range of the readings for a given flask indicates precision. This idea only applies when the same measurement has been made a number of times, and this was clearly not the case in this instance.

(ii) Credit was given for answers referring to factors such as whether the correct procedure was used when reading the meniscus of the measuring cylinder, whether gas escaped from the delivery tube, or whether a specific random error or systematic error occurred. (e) (i) Credit was given for: correctly labelling the vertical axis (including units); selecting scales that resulted in graphs that covered most of the grid this mark was lost by many candidates; correctly plotting points; constructing curves of best fit the practice of drawing dot-to-dot graphs is still quite common; and labelling each of the 3 lines.

(ii) A significant number of answers stated conclusions about pH. These candidates did not seem to understand that the independent variable when comparing data from flasks 1, 2 and 3 was temperature. Other candidates stated that 35C was the optimum temperature, and this cannot be determined from the limited information available. Another common error was to relate the volume of gas produced to time.

SECTION D: EXTENDED RESPONSE QUESTIONS

Each extended-response question is marked out of 15, with 12 marks being allocated for content (each well-made point is worth 2 marks) and 3 marks for the quality of the communication. Both questions in this examination had three content parts, with each part being marked out of four. In awarding a communication mark the following factors are taken into account: Is the response at least half a page in length and is it structured in the form of sentences and paragraphs? Does the response contain correct grammar and spelling? Does the response clearly explain concepts using relevant and concise biological language? Candidates should be able to fully answer an extended-response question in about one page of writing. It is unnecessary for candidates to re-write the question or to provide an introduction to their response. Both of

these practices are time wasting and receive no credit, and may even result in a reduction in the communication mark. Since the introduction of two compulsory extended-response questions to replace the one essay question (chosen from two alternative questions) in 2000, Section D has had the lowest mean of any section in both the 2000 and 2001 exams. This pattern continued in 2002 with question 41 having a mean of 45.6% and question 42 having a mean of 51.8%. Question 41 In explaining why the best way to preserve a species is to preserve its habitat, candidates could get credit for discussion of specific resources (e.g. food, shelter, nutrients, and microclimate) that the habitat provides for the species that live there. This part was generally not well answered. Many candidates had the idea that habitat provided resources, or was the set of biotic and abiotic factors related to the organism, but could not clearly articulate them, other than to list food and shelter. Discussion of habitat destruction by human activities led to many emotive and anthropomorphic responses. It was acceptable to link specific adaptations with resources, but too often candidates wrote about the organism having to consciously find a new habitat and adapt to it or become adapted to the changed environment. Notions of natural selection seemed to be poorly understood. In the main, students seemed to be thinking of animals only plants were ignored as organisms. The second part of the question required candidates to describe a technique used to transfer DNA between cells. The relevant intended student outcome makes specific mention of three techniques bacterial plasmids, viruses and micro-injection. Candidates could have described one of these techniques or any other technique used to transfer DNA between species. Some credit was also given to descriptions of how a probe could be used to select DNA containing particular genes. Many answers displayed a good grasp of bacterial plasmids and use of enzymes. Too often though, the techniques were either poorly understood or candidates did not read the question carefully and described more than one technique. The 2001 Assessment Report expressed concern about the apparent confusion of candidates between the processes of cell culture and DNA manipulation. That confusion was still evident this year with some candidates wanting to culture DNA, not cells, and others stating that PCR was a method of culturing cells. A common answer to this part of the question was to provide a list of conditions for cell culture (suitable temperature, nutrient agar, growth factors and antibiotics, optimum pH and temperature), without detail. When instructed to describe a technique, candidates should not expect full credit for simply providing a list of conditions. Question 42 The first part of the question was well done. Most candidates were able to identify photosynthesis as the process involved in converting light energy into chemical energy. Credit was given for stating the reactants and products of photosynthesis, describing how factors such as light intensity can limit the rate of photosynthesis, and describing the role of chloroplasts and chlorophyll in photosynthesis. A common mistake when writing the chemical equation for photosynthesis was to insert energy on the right hand side of the equation. Some candidates thought light was broken down to release glucose or that light was converted to oxygen. The phrase for immediate use in cells, when associated with energy, should indicate the involvement of ATP. Better answers described how respiration released energy that is used to synthesise ATP from ADP. Descriptions of the structure of an ATP molecule, and of the release of energy that occurred when ATP was converted to ADP were rewarded. Students wrote well about respiration, but often only mentioned ATP as something that was made after respiration. The better responses focused on the ATP/ADP cycle and also clearly expressed the idea that energy was stored in chemical bonds. However, the role of ATP was not as clearly understood as it should have been, and the notion of coupled reactions needs to be further developed in many students. Common mistakes included ATP appearing on the right hand side of the respiration

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equations; ATP being produced from glucose; glucose being stated as the immediate source of energy in a cell and energy often produced from respiration rather than released from it. The final part of the question was not as well done as the previous two parts. It was generally well known that energy is lost from a community in the form of heat. However, only the best responses related energy loss to chemical reactions, and only a few could explain why wastes were a source of energy loss. The loss of chemical energy in wastes and in matter leaving the community was generally not discussed. The vast majority of responses referred to the generalisation that only 10% of the energy in one trophic level is passed on to the next level but did not describe how the loss occurred.

Chief Examiner Biology

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