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SECTION – I

QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

1. Four points L, M, N, and P are chosen on the circumference of a circle as shown in the figure given
below. If 4 arc-length(LM) = 4 arc-length(NP) = 2 arc-length(MN) = πR , where ‘R’ is the radius of the
circle, then what is the measure of the ∠ MON ?

L
P
O M
N
(1) 112.5° (2) 90° (3) 135° (4) 120°

2. (Y1,Y2 ,Y3 ,…,Y(n −1) ,Yn ) is a sequence of positive integers and

n 2 (Yn − Yn −1 ) − n(Yn + Yn −1 ) + where n > 3. If Y1 = Y2 = Y3 = 3, then the value of


Y50 is

(1) 2544 (2) 424 (3) 1272 (4) 1296

3. A and B are two distinct points inside an equilateral triangle PQR having side of length 4 cms. If the
(AR + AQ)
measure of ∠AQR = 50°, ∠QAR = 80°, ∠QBR = 140° and ∠BRQ = 10°, then BR is

(1) 2 (2) 1.5 (3) 3 (4) 2 2

4. A = {179, 180, 181,…..,360}. B is a subset of A such that sum of no two elements of B is divisible by
9. The number of elements in B cannot exceed
(1) 102 (2) 81 (3) 82 (4) 101

7 19 37 14491
5. Find the sum of the series: + + + ....... + .
2 6 12 4830
14559 15449
(1) (2) (3) 214 (4) 212
70 69

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6. ABCDEFGH and PQRSTUVW are regular octagons as shown in the figure given below. What is the
ratio of the area of the octagon ABCDEFGH to the area of the octagon PQRSTUVW?

A B

P Q C
H
W R

V S
G U T D

F E

(1) 2 + 2 3 (2) 3 + 2 3 (3) 2 + 2 2 (4) 3 + 2 2

7. If Ramu and Krishna work on alternate days to complete a work, then the work gets completed in
exactly 24 days. If R and K denote the number of days required by Ramu and Krishna respectively to
complete the work independently, then how many ordered pairs of integral values of R and K are
possible?
(1) 14 (2) 8 (3) 15 (4) 7

8. A right circular solid cone has a curved surface area of 24 π sq. units such that the radius (in units) and
the slant height (in units) of the cone are integers. The cone has maximum possible volume. A right
circular cylinder is casted by melting the whole cone. If the radius of such a cylinder is twice its height,
then what will be the height (in units) of the cylinder?
1 1
1 1 1 1
2 × 56 2 × 53
(1) 4 × 36 × 53 (2) 2 × 36 × 53 (3) 1 (4) 1
33 33

9. How many four-digit numbers, having distinct digits, using the digits 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 can be formed
such that the numbers formed are divisible by each of the digits used in the number?
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) None of these

10. Boxes of 2 types viz. A and B are used for packing balls of 2 different colours. Each of the type A boxes
can hold a maximum of 17 blue balls or 19 green balls, and each of the type B boxes can hold a
maximum of 18 blue balls or 23 green balls. When all the boxes of type A are to be completely filled
with blue balls and all the boxes of type B with green balls, the total number of balls required is 566. But
when the boxes of type A are to be completely filled with green balls and the boxes of type B with blue
balls, the total number of balls required is 49 less. How many boxes are there? (All balls of the same
colour are identical.)
(1) 28 (2) 30 (3) 26 (4) 32

11. The functions f(x) and g(x) are defined as: f(x) = f(x – 1) + x and g(x) = g(x – 1) + f(x), where x is an
integer greater than or equal to 1. If f(0) = 0, then the value of k, for which g(k) – g(4) = g(10) – g(8),
is
(1) 8 (2) 6 (3) 9 (4) 12

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12. In a community of 80 members, 30 could speak French and 40 Urdu. 20 new members joined this
community, out of which 9 could speak both Urdu and French and 11 could speak exactly one of these
two languages. As a result, the fraction of the members of the community who could speak both Urdu
and French doubled. The number of members who could speak exactly one of these two languages,
finally, is
(1) 58 (2) 63 (3) 69 (4) 75

13. When I left home for office on a particular day my father’s watch showed 7:00 PM, and when I reached
my office my watch showed 7:50 PM. Next day in the morning when my father’s watch showed 6:00
AM, my watch showed 7:30 AM. If my father’s watch runs at normal speed and my watch gains 5
minutes per hour, then the time taken by me to reach my office from home, on that day, was closest to
(1) 15 minutes (2) 13 minutes 38 seconds
(3) 13 minutes 50 seconds (4) 14 minutes 50 seconds

14. xy + zy = 37 and xz + zy = 72. Find the number of ordered triplets (x, y and z) such that x, y and z are
positive integers.
(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 0

15. Gattu had 130 lts of blue paint,160 lts of red paint, and 180 lts of white paint. He painted four equally
sized stripes on a wall, making a blue stripe, a red stripe, a white stripe and a pink stripe. Pink paint is a
mixture of red and white paints. When Gattu finished, he had equal amount of blue, red, and white
paints left. If he has to paint four more stripes of the same dimensions on another wall in exactly the
same way, then which of the following is true?
(1) Gattu requires 30 lts of blue paint, 0 lts of red paint and 40 lts of white paint
(2) Gattu requires 30 lts of blue paint, 60 lts of red paint and 60 lts of white paint
(3) Gattu requires 30 lts of blue paint, 60 lts of red paint and 80 lts of white paint
(4) Gattu requires 80 lts of blue paint, 110 lts of red paint and 130 lts of white paint

16. A line segment OX is tangent to a circle at the point X as shown in the figure given below. AB is a chord
of the circle and is parallel to OX. The line segments OA and OB intersect the circle at the points D and
E respectively. The line segment DE when extended intersects OX at the point M. If EM = 9 cm and DM
= 16 cm, then the length of OM is

O
M
X

E
D

A
B

(1) 10 cm (2) 12 cm (3) 9 cm (4) 16 cm

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17. In a test of 50 questions, for every correct answer one gets 1 mark and for every wrong answer one
1
incurs a penalty of marks, where n is a positive integer. No marks are awarded for unattempted
n
questions. If 336 distinct scores are possible in this test, then, ‘n’ satisfies
(1) 1 ≤ n ≤ 4 (2) 9 ≤ n ≤ 12 (3) 11 ≤ n ≤ 14 (4) 5 ≤ n ≤ 8

DIRECTIONS for Questions 18 and 19: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
A sum of money ‘S’ is divided among four people A, B, C and D. Now, the following operations are per-
formed in the given order:
1. Twice the money with B is taken from A and divided equally between D and C.
2. Half the money with D is taken from C and given to D.
3. Thrice the money with B is taken from C and divided between A and D in the ratio 2 : 1.
4. Two–fifth of the sum of money with D is taken from him and given to B.
After these four operations it was found that each of A, B, C and D had the same sum of money.

18. What fraction of the sum of money ‘S’ was received by B initially?
1 3 1 2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
6 19 12 25

19. If A received Rs.54 initially, then which of the following is true?


(1) 243 < S < 253 (2) 211 < S < 221 (3) 251 < S < 261 (4) 223 < S < 233

20. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?


I. 5401 > 5.05400
II. 2840 > 3560
III. 2840 < 5360
(1) Only I (2) Only III (3) Both I and III (4) None of these

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SECTION – II

VERBAL ABILITY

DIRECTIONS for Questions 21 to 35: Each of the four passages given below is followed by a set of
questions. Choose the best answer to each question.

Passage –1

In terms of my interests that was an important piece for me to write, because it was really trying to engage with
those questions of loss and also drawing on psychoanalytic tools of enquiry. I suppose now my own method
or way of thinking doesn’t abandon those types of questions, but I’m more interested in how the artwork itself
does that. That the artwork itself is a kind of theoretical proposition, and you can think those sorts of questions
without necessarily drawing on that kind of apparatus any more than in a socio-historical or formalist way. In
this show what’s been important for me is that I’ve been working on Hesse for a long time, and these objects
have always been there, have always been incredibly intriguing, but you don’t actually know what they are.
In most art history you think you know what the object of your enquiry is, but what are these things? A lot of
them are between preparatory stuff, and finished work – very much in limbo. Some of it might be debris of the
studio or spare parts. To me they throw down the gauntlet, and say, ‘let’s get back to first principles’, how do
you even describe these things? So in a way the impulse behind the exhibition is to lay out these works to say
– these are precarious works.

This is because of the materials that they use and that’s very important - part of their visceral effect – that’s
why they’re bodily, why they’re precarious. But their conceptual status is as precarious. What we make of
them and how small things like this can have a big visceral effect, to me, says a lot about what art is and what
art does to us. Why is it that these small things have that kind of effect? That’s why I wanted to do this
exhibition, and it’s my way of writing a book about Hesse – through these really raw experimental works, not
simply to fetishise them or say ‘here are a whole lot of new Hesses’, but on the contrary, to think about what
the object of art is. Here we have an artist taking real risks with the object of art.

They’ve always been called ‘Test Pieces’ and I find that problematic. This is much more the language of
industry. It’s much more minimalist – test pieces, prototypes, all that kind of language – when they are so
organic and textural and so on. But in the end maybe if they test anything out, they test our capacity to see
them as art objects. That is a big shift in my own way of thinking, not just about Hesse’s work but a range of
contemporary artist’s work. I’ve written a lot recently about Gabriel Orozco’s working tables, for example. I
see this work through the lens of contemporary artists, and the reason that I really wanted this show at the
Fruitmarket, is that it is a public space that shows contemporary art. Rather than have it in a big museum,
where it is going to look like we are adding to oeuvre of the canonical artist – we wanted that confrontation
with the contemporary.

21. The “things/objects” ,referred to in the passage, which often range from preparatory stuff to finished
work communicate which of the following to the author ?
(1) They make the author feel inferior.
(2) They issue a challenge to the author.
(3) They push the author to renounce his artistic objectives.
(4) They goad the author to give up his rigid beliefs.

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22. Which of the following questions looks most likely to have been put to the author immediately before
he wrote the passage?
(1) What is the relationship between Hesse’s text on ‘economy of loss’ and your interpretation of it ,
and what have you come with today to this exhibition?
(2) What are your views on Abstract Art and the objects of Abstract Art ?
(3) What is the primary connection between Hesse’s text on ‘economy of loss’ and your exhibition
today?
(4) Today, why does your exhibition completely abandon your views on Hesse’s ‘economy of loss’
which you have expressed in your recent article?

23. Which of the following does not reflect an objective of the author in holding the exhibition?
A. An experiment which would facilitate writing a book on Hesse.
B. To display the clarity attained by the author as regards Hesse’s works by virtue of years of research
on Hesse’s theory and Art pieces.
C. To prove that the ‘test pieces’ of Hesse can be easily visualized as objects of Art.
D. To create a constructive enquiry regarding Hesse’s work.

(1) Only C (2) B and C (3) A, B and C (4) A and D

24. What does the author imply by calling Hesse’s art pieces as ‘precarious?
(1) The pieces can have dangerous interpretations.
(2) The pieces cannot be understood by a superficial interpretation.
(3) The pieces evade description or classification .
(4) The pieces confound the layman.

Passage – 2

Biopower is part related to what Foucault calls “a history of the present”, “grasping the present in its contin-
gency, unsettling it from its prejudices and exploding their hold on reality, understanding how we have
become what we are rather than importing our prejudices on to the past, in the guise of their being eternal
truths apprehended by a supra-historical intellect.”

With the term ‘biopower’ Foucault designates the set of mechanisms, techniques and technologies through
which the basic biological features of the human species become the object of political strategies in modern
Western societies. Biopower is, then, for Foucault the application of power to the human considered as a
living being:

To gain a clearer appreciation of Foucault’s point, it is necessary to recall that prior to the first volume of The
History of Sexuality Foucault’s genealogies of the modern modalities of power had concentrated on identify-
ing what he called, most notably in Discipline and Punish, “disciplinary technologies”. These are techniques
that emerge in seventeenth and eighteenth century Europe, and which are directed towards the individual
human body understood as a machine, composed, or better, decomposable, into its various moving parts,
which can then be rendered capable of performing work. According to Foucault, these technologies sought,
through various regimens and measures, to rule a multiplicity of men, that is, to impose a particular mode of
being on men, by dissolving that multiplicity in to individual bodies, and at the level of the individual body,
optimize its capabilities, extorting from it various forces, increasing its utility and docility, and integrating it
into systems of efficient and economic controls. Disciplinary techniques of power include all those appara-
tuses and institutions which ensure the distribution of individual bodies in space and time, and which organise

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around these bodies a whole field of visibility, ordering them or rendering them orderable, in institutions such
as universities, secondary schools, military barracks, and workshops.

Like disciplinary techniques and procedures, the technologies of biopower are addressed to a multiplicity, but
they are addressed to that multiplicity in so far as it forms a global mass affected by the biological processes
of life itself: birth and death, health and illness. To the techniques of discipline that came to hold sway over the
human body and which are individualising are added the techniques and technologies of biopower which, on
the contrary, but in a complimentary way, are massifying, directed towards humans in the genetic and species
sense....Biopower is thus tied to the emergence of the discipline of statistical demography, and there begins
the quantification of the phenomena of birth-rate, longevity, the reproductive rates and fertility of a given
population, its state of health, patterns of diet and habitation.

Both disciplinary technologies and the techniques and mechanisms of biopower are forms of power over the
body. The former, disciplinary technologies, centre on the individual body: they treat it as a machine, consid-
ering it as a being consisting of parts, organized in a certain fashion, requiring energy in order to operate and
capable of producing certain effects, that is, of working. Decomposing it into its parts, and subjecting them to
training, to discipline, it seeks to render the body both docile and utile. Biopower, on the other hand, focuses
on the body as the vehicle of species life. Given the nature of the phenomena with which it is concerned it is
regulatory rather than disciplinary.

25. The understanding of biopower as connected to Foucault’s view leads one to


(1) Actively probe the present rather than view it from a prejudiced third party stance.
(2) See what we have become in the present as a natural outcome of our history.
(3) See the present as a phase that is subject to continuous change.
(4) Forget the past and understand our prejudices by importing them into the present.

26. The tone of the author is predominantly


(1) Argumentative (2) Descriptive (3) Exhorting (4) Exposing

27. Which of the following would not be an example of the outcome/use of Biopower ?
(1) Educating people on the need for family planning in response to statistics which show a surge in
population growth.
(2) A fine on anyone found crossing the railway tracks instead of using the overbridge , in response a
rising number of rail accidents.
(3) Measures to curb determination of the gender of the child during pregnancy in response to rising
incidents of female foeticide resulting in gender imbalance in population.
(4) Free vaccination for old people to ward off the threat of M2F8 FLU which affects humans beyond
the age of 50 and impacts the mortality rate.

28. The difference between the disciplinary technologies and biopower is that
A. The former is utilizing the human body whereas the latter is aimed at utilizing an entire population
.
B. The former is aimed at utilizing the human body whereas the latter seeks to improve the standard of
life as a whole.
C. The former treats the human body as a machine whereas the latter treats the human body as an
instrument which ensures propagation of life.
(1) Only A (2) A and B (3) B and C (4) A and C

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Passage – 3

Waleed Rally says that the genius of American patriotism is that it manages to be inclusive. The same cannot
easily be said of Australian patriotism, and certainly cannot be said of the European version, which is so often
expressed in moral panics about the supposed disloyalty of migrants. He then asks:

What accounts for the difference? At first blush, the answer is as simple as it is patriotically appealing: that the
patriotism of minorities simply mirrors the patriotism of the majority. That is, patriotism is a result of social
pressure. If we only demand it stridently enough, our minorities will learn to love us. Or, to put it more
acerbically, multiculturalism is a death wish. Such has been the diagnosis of a thousand culture warriors in
recent years. Europe’s flirtation with multiculturalism has killed its sense of self and allowed its recalcitrant
minorities to disappear into a fog of cultural relativism and escape any sense of loyalty to the nation. Europe’s
multiculturalism is even said to have fostered subcultures hostile to it.

There is something different operating in America, something more subtle, complex and ingenious than the
brutish social politics of monoculturalism. Something that is not ultimately about multiculturalism or migra-
tion, but about a more comprehensive phenomenon: national identity. There is something in the way America
thinks and talks about itself that enables widespread national loyalty and astonishing diversity to coexist.
Even its rioters rarely shun their American identity; instead, they assert their place in the nation.

America, like Australia, New Zealand and Canada, is part of the New World and created from settlement (or
conquest) and migration. This creates a fundamentally different dynamic, for it is immediately apparent that
there is nothing organic about these nations. The vanquished indigenous aside, everyone is a migrant to some
degree, which necessarily fosters a more fluid, open notion of national identity: one that is not so firmly
anchored in ethnicity as in Europe. Yet this does not explain why the United States should be any different to
Australia.

Rally says that America has its creed, but one that corresponds to no particular religious tradition. It is a civil
creed constructed on the central political idea of individual liberty. The US was settled by people fleeing
religious persecution in Europe; it was thus almost inevitable that freedom, especially of religion, would
become the new nation’s touchstone. A people who had struggled to attain religious freedom could not easily
found a nation on principles that denied that right to others: Theirs is a sense of self that is forward-looking,
oriented towards constant improvement.

In contrast the message of Australia’s staunchest patriots is that ours is a great country with a great history and
no need for change. It is a message that replicates the European sense of national self, one bound in a fixed
history. The history wars were so intense in Australia for the very reason that our sense of national pride is not
forward-looking.

29. In the passage, the author is primarily concerned with which of the following ?
(1) Criticizing European and Australian patriotism
(2) Attempting to learn from American patriotism.
(3) Exploring the contrast between American and Australian patriotism.
(4) Appreciating American patriotism in contrast with European and Australian patriotism.

30. The contextual meaning of the word ‘organic’ in the passage is closest to ?
(1) Being Fluid in terms of cultural values.
(2) Having Rigid Principles
(3) Being Traditional and having common values.
(4) Having Evolved together with a common history.

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31. What does the author imply by stating “Yet this does not explain why the United States should be any
different to Australia.”?
A. American patriotism is largely a result of the belief in individual liberty .
B. The US and Australia are both migrant nations but with different patriotic fervor.
C. Both the US and Australia are not anchored in ethnicity like Europe.
D. The ethnic factor which makes the dynamics of patriotism in Europe different from that in the US,
does not characterize Australia.
(1) B and C (2) B, C and D (3) A, B and C 4. A, B, C and D

32. Which of the following cannot be inferred from the passage ?


(1) Europe has supported the theme of multiculturalism which has led to a fractured sense of national
identity.
(2) The sense of National Pride in America makes American people identify with the nation more than
anything else .
(3) Australia’s sense of National Pride is rooted in the past whereas America’s sense of National Pride is
forward-looking.
(4) None of the above.

Passage – 4

Does the world really exist? Or, as a logical deduction from Kant’s ideas, should we accept Berkeley’s idea
and deny the very existence of the world except in our imagination?

In A Critique of Pure Reason Kant says:

“Nothing which is intuited in space is a thing in itself, and space is not a form which belongs as a property to
things; but objects are quite unknown to us in themselves, and what we call outward objects are nothing else
but mere representations of our sensibility, whose form is space, but whose real correlate, the thing in itself, is
not known by means of these representations, nor ever can be, but respecting which, in experience, no
inquiry is ever made. . . .”

The things which we intuit are not in themselves the same as our representations of them in intuition, nor are
their relations in themselves so constituted as they appear to us; and if we take away the subject, or even only
the subjective constitution of our senses in general, then not only the nature and relations of objects in space
and time, but even space and time themselves disappear.
What may be the nature of objects considered as things in themselves and without reference to the receptivity
of our sensibility is quite unknown to us. We know nothing more than our mode of perceiving them. . . .
Supposing that we should carry our empirical intuition [sensory perception] even to the very highest degree
of clearness, we should not thereby advance one step nearer to the knowledge of the constitution of objects as
things in themselves. . . .

To say, then, that all our sensibility is nothing but the confused representation of things containing exclu-
sively that which belongs to them as things in themselves, and this under an accumulation of characteristic
marks and partial representations which we cannot distinguish in consciousness, is a falsification of the con-
ception of sensibility and phenomenization, which renders our whole doctrine thereof empty and useless.

The difference between a confused and a clear representation is merely logical and has nothing to do with
content.

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Kant’s propositions still remain in practically the same form in which he left them. In spite of the profusion of
new philosophical systems which appeared in the course of the nineteenth century, and notwithstanding the
great number of philosophers who specially concerned themselves with commenting on and interpreting
Kant’s writings, his main propositions have remained entirely undeveloped, mainly because most people do
not know how to read Kant and they the essential.
Yet, in actual fact, Kant has merely put forward a question, thrown to the world a problem which has to be
solved, without indicating the way to the solution.

This fact is usually overlooked when people speak of Kant. Kant put forward the riddle, but gave no solution
of it.

And to this day we repeat Kant’s propositions, regarding them as incontrovertible but actually, we have only
a very vague idea of what they mean. Nor are they connected with other spheres of our knowledge. The
whole of our positive science - physics, chemistry and biology - is based on hypotheses contradictory to
Kant’s propositions.

We do not know in what manner we ourselves impose upon the world the properties of space, i.e. extension;
and we do not know in what manner the world -earth, sea, trees, people -could not possess this extension.

We do not know how we can see and measure this extension if it does not exist, or what the world can be like
if it has no extension.

33. Which, according to the author, is the correct inference about Kant’s view of ‘positive science’?
(1) ‘Positive science’ is based on false assumptions.
(2) Human perception, by itself, places a limit on the correctness of ‘positive science’.
(3) The primary concern of science is to study properties and relationships of the matter and not what an
object is.
(4) We do not have direct knowledge of what the object is.

34. Which of the following, best represents, the author’s possible viewpoint about man’s possible level of
self-understanding?
(1) Man does not know anything about himself.
(2) Man is not aware of how much he knows about himself.
(3) Man has vast knowledge of self.
(4) Man has very limited knowledge of self.

35. Which of the given situations does not illustrate the equivalent of a situation referred in
“ the things which we intuit …………….disappear”?
(1) revolution of the earth around the sun.
(2) calculation of velocity of a ball falling freely under force of gravity.
(3) identification of a rose by its smell.
(4) None of the above.

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DIRECTIONS for Questions 36 to 39: In each question, there are five sentences. Each sentence has a pair of
words that is highlighted. From the highlighted words, select the most appropriate word to form correct
sentences. Then from the options given choose the right sequence.

36. 1. The recitatives were sung by a tenor dressed as a modern clergyman reading from a pulpit and the
(A) corrals / (B) chorales sung by the choir dressed as modern church-goers in the pews.
2. (A) Mendicity / (B) Mendacity had disappeared in Holland, for in a journey of 500 miles he had seen
only three little boys asking charity, one at Rotterdam and two at Delft, although the country had
earlier swarmed with beggars.
3. When the Spanish authorities allowed an American ship to depart unharmed, the fact was magnified
into an act of almost ideal generosity; on the other hand, when we decided not to permit privateering,
that announcement was received with (A) derisory / (B) derisive laughter as a pretentious pose to
cover hidden interests.
4. It is the Platonic philosophy, the most elaborate compend of the (A) abstruse / (B) obtuse systems of
old India, that can alone afford us this middle ground.
5. When my 6 years old daughter went off to her hostel, I tried to act cool but I (A) bowled / (B) bawled
all the way back home. I truly missed her.

(1) BABAA (2) BABAB (3) BAAAB (4) ABABA

37. 1. A (A) torte / (B) tort is made with ground nuts, a little flour and lots of eggs, making it rich and dense
whereas a cake is made with more flour resulting in a lighter cake!
2. About one third of the legislature was corrupt. Roosevelt was (A) indignant / (B) indigent at the
corruption both in the House and with the pillars of Capitalism, like Jay Gould.
3. In teaching their students, the sophists emphasized the art of argumentative discourse and came to
be associated with deceptive and (A) spacious / (B) specious reasoning, lampooned effectively in
The Clouds.
4. It matters not a (A) wit / (B) whit that the ‘Diary of the Dead’ is a dreadful movie: its themes are easily
discernable, and thus it has been subject to high-end critical cooing.
5. The uncertain, unsettled condition of this science of Cetology is in the very vestibule attested by the
fact, that in some quarters it still remains a (A) moot / (B) moor point whether a whale be a fish.

(1) ABBBA (2) BABAB (3) AABBA (4) AABAB

38. 1. Nothing must be (A) slower / (B) sloven or slipshod; every door, every fence, must be kept in good
repair.
2. I have shown specimens of this incrustation to several geologists, and they all thought that they
were of (A) ingenious / (B) igneous origin.
3. In Great Mischief, your author eschewed the (A) solecism / (B) solipsism he had committed in Die
Fasting, of creating fictional dialogues for real historical figures.
4. As they prefer warm and damp conditions, pharaoh ants do not build their nests but simply inhabit
any convenient (A) crevice / (B) crevasse.
5. (A) Crimping / (B) Crumpling and fluting the edge of a pie adds a homemade touch to just about
any pie.

(1) BBAAA (2) BBABA (3) ABBBA (4) BBBAA

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39. 1. The sense of (A) forbidding / (B) foreboding grows. Portia can feel the wrongness in the air.
2. Editors have altered the passage and even disputed whether it is iambic; soon the text will be (A)
amended / (B)emended.
3. A (A) Pandemonium / (B) Pandemic reigned in the hall as the unbelievable election results were
read out.
4. Today, thankfully, women tennis players are not (A) lumbered / (B) encumbered with long,
heavy skirts and high-necked blouses.
5. The foreign passengers usually (A) gawk / (B) gaunt curiously and comment on Ranmaru’s
traditional Japanese clothes.
(1) BBABA (2) ABBBA (3) BAABA (4) BABBA

DIRECTIONS for Questions 40 to 42: Each of the following questions has a paragraph from which the first
sentence has been deleted. From the given options choose the one that begins the paragraph in the most
appropriate way.

40. It is not just a matter of chance or coincidence. The visual abilities of children are different from adults.
Experts believe that the eyes allow more blue light to reach the retina till the time one is 20 years old or
so. This is why bright colours, like the colour blue, have a special place and significance in the creative
output of children. In fact it has been suggested that colours that dominate the natural world are the
main source of stimulation for children.

(1) Can colours affect the mind and body differently at certain stages in life?
(2) Are children inspired by natural beauty and colours more than adults?
(3) Have you ever wondered why blue skies and bright suns usually dominate the drawings of chil-
dren?
(4) Can colours play a significant role in the early life experiences of young adults?

41. It was the impact of personal events that forced me to translate everything on paper. It was anger,
jealousy and bitterness that shaped my narration and sketched extremely complex characters. I shared
my pain with them. As my real life situation became more complex, the suffering and bitterness of my
characters increased. Some of them became real monsters, while others showed fewer signs of sanity. I
was amazed at the powerful creations that my emotions had unleashed. Not only had my emotions
helped to create a world of my own; they had made me a writer as well.

(1) Earlier when I wrote, I undermined the power of emotions and preferred to be inspired by facts.
(2) When I was disgusted or hurt, I wrote.
(3) Writing style truly represents the source of a writer’s inspiration and ideas.
(4) My negative experiences translated into vicious characters on paper.

42. Owned by the Wrigleys, this magnificent piece of art had walls made from Portland stone. The open
lobby was about 40 feet by 32 feet with four pillars that supported the first floor. Fifteen bedrooms
containing unique mahogany wood work, five splendid dining areas and a picturesque lawn adorned
this property. It was an unknown architect’s brilliant creation that displayed a refined taste and superior
technical knowledge.

(1) For centuries, the Wrigley family had bought numerous properties all over the world.
(2) The Wrigley’s mansion was one of the best properties in this area.
(3) The mansion was not too different from any others in this part of the country.
(4) Its architectural beauty had drawn many admirers from all over the world.

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DIRECTIONS for Questions 43 to 46: There are two blanks in each of the following sentences. From the
given pairs, choose the one that fills the blanks most appropriately. The first word / phrase in the pair should
fill the first blank.

43. Many of the important scientific laws were discovered during experiments designed to ___________
other phenomena suggest that experimental results are the ___________ of the inevitable natural force
rather than of planning.

(1) test, foundations (2) analyze, conditions


(3) illuminate, consequences (4) verify, adjuncts

44. Death and ________are proving to be a money-making opportunity for music memorabilia collectors
and big auction houses who are ________everything from Michael Jackson’s iconic white glitter glove
to old ticket stubs from rock’s legendary Woodstock festival.

(1) glory, vying for (2) pain, eyeing


(3) nostalgia, hawking (4) propaganda , selling

45. Biologists are convinced that animals survive through learning, but learning that is ___________ their
genetic coding, learning as thoroughly ___________ as the most instinctive of behavioural responses.

(1) subsumed by, primitive (2) complimentary to, transient


(3) compatible with, familiar (4) dictated by, stereotyped

46. Despite the Congress ________ in the euphoria of victory, the BJP fulfilled its responsibilities as a
robust but responsible opposition, questioning the Manmohan Singh government at every stage and
attacking it ________ on foreign policy blunders.

(1) celebrating, sheepishly (2) wallowing, spiritedly


(3) basking, stealthily (4) rejoicing, fanatically

DIRECTIONS for Questions 47 and 48: In each of the following questions there are sentences that form a
paragraph. Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) that is/are correct in terms of grammar and usage
(including spelling, punctuation and logical consistency). Then, choose the most appropriate option.

47. A. A “time traveller’s phrasebook” that could allow basic communication


B. between modern English speakers and Stone Age cavemen is being compiled by
C. scientists studying the evolution of language.
D. Research has identified a handful of modern words that have changed so little in tens
E. of thousands of years that ancient hunter-gatherers would probably have been able to understand
them.

(1) D and E (2) D only (3) A and E (4) A, B, C, D and E

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48. A. Memory, as Karl Sabbagh tells us on the
B. book cover in italicised letters, betrays us. Sometimes
C. we think we remember things, only to find out that they did
D. not happen. And sometime we fail to remember things, and it turns
E. out that they did happen. In short, our memories work, but in mysterious ways.

(1) A only (2) B and D (3) A, C and E (4) A and C

DIRECTIONS for Questions 49 and 50: Each question presents a sentence, part or all of which is underlined.
Beneath the sentence you will find four ways of phrasing the underlined part. The first of these repeats the
original; the other three are different. If you think the original is best, choose the first answer; otherwise
choose one of the others.
These questions test correctness and effectiveness of expression. In choosing your answer, follow the
requirements of standard written English; that is, pay attention to grammar, choice of words, and sentence
construction. Choose the answer that produces the most effective sentence; this answer should be clear and
exact, without awkwardness, ambiguity, redundancy, or grammatical error.

49. Dr. Stevenson was a very inspiring and dedicated scientist, who on the very apogee of his career at the
French National Institute for Health and Medical Research, was ready to put his reputation all along the
line to report a phenomenon he didn’t understand: Allergy desensitization.
(1) dedicated scientist, who on the very apogee of his career at the French National Institute for Health
and Medical Research, was ready to put his reputation all along the line to report a phenomenon he
didn’t understand : Allergy desensitization.
(2) dedicated scientist, who, at the very apogee of his career at the French National Institute for Health
and Medical Research, was ready to put his reputation on the line to report a phenomenon he didn’t
understand: allergy desensitization.
(3) dedicated scientist, who on the very apogee of his career at the French National Institute for Health
and Medical Research, was ready to put his reputation all along the line to report a phenomenon he
didn’t understand: allergy desensitization.
(4) dedicated scientist who at the very apogee of his career at the French National Institute for Health
and Medical Research was ready to put his reputation on the line to report a phenomenon he didn’t
understand; Allergy desensitization.

50. Every contract made for or on behalf of the United States, necessitating the employment of laborers or
mechanics should contain a provision that none of them could be required to work more than eight
hours in any calendar day.
(1) Every contract made for or on behalf of the United States, necessitating the employment of laborers
or mechanics should contain a provision that none of them could be required to work
(2) The United States necessitates the employment of laborers or mechanics and every contract made
for or on behalf of it should contain a provision that none of them should be required to work
(3) Every contract made for or on behalf of the United States, necessitating the employment of laborers
or mechanics should contain a provision that not any of them should be required to work
(4) Every contract made for or on behalf of the United States, necessitating the employment of laborers
or mechanics should contain a provision that none of them should be required to work

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SECTION – III

DATA INTERPRETATION

DIRECTIONS for Questions 51 to 53: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Five people namely Ajay, Anand, Anup, Akash and Arjun work in the same company. Each one of them
owns exactly one of the vehicles from a car, a bicycle, a scooter, a truck and a bus, not necessarily in the
given order. Each of the people has a different height. Exactly two out of the five people are brothers.

Further it is known that:


I. The shortest person does not have a bicycle and the tallest person has neither a car nor a scooter.
II. None of the two brothers is the tallest or the shortest among the given 5 people.
III. Akash has a car and is taller than at least three of the given people.
IV. Ajay does not have a bus. He is taller than exactly one of the two brothers.
V. Anup has a scooter and is not the shortest.

51. Which of the following are the two brothers?


(1) Arjun and Akash (2) Akash and Anup
(3) Ajay and Akash (4) Cannot be determined

52. If Arjun is the shortest among the five people and has a bus, then which of the following statements is
definitely true?
(1) Ajay has a bicycle and is one of the brothers.
(2) Anand is the tallest and has a truck.
(3) Ajay has a truck and is taller than exactly 2 of the given 5 people.
(4) None of these.

53. How many of the following statements, if provided independently, would be sufficient to determine
the owner of each of the vehicles?
A. Anand is the shortest among the five people and has a truck.
B. Ajay has a truck and Anand is the tallest.
C. Anand is the tallest among the five people and has a truck.
D. Arjun is not the tallest among the five people and does not have a bus.
(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 4 (4) 3

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DIRECTIONS for Questions 54 to 58: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The following table provides partial information about the number of graduates employed in the four sectors
namely A, B, C and D in each of the years from 2003 to 2007. The table also provides partial information
about the average salary of the graduates employed in each of the four sectors during the given period. The
number of graduates employed in these four sectors in five years from 2003 to 2007 are 800, 1000, 900,
1200, and 1500 in the same order. The numbers that are missing in the empty cells of the table are all non-zero
integral numbers. Number of graduates employed in the sectors A, B and D in the year 2003 are in the ratio
1 : 2 : 4, not necessarily in the same order.

Sector wise employment (in % ) Average salary (In Rs. Lacs per Annum)
Years
A B C D A B C D O ver All
2003 5 7 8 10 7.58
2004 30 20 6 8.3
2005 25 20 25 30 7 10 4 9 7.45
2006 20 20 8 8 7 10 8.2
2007 25 8 9 8 8 8.25

54. Total number of graduates employed in the sectors A and B combined, in the year 2003 is
(1) 336 (2) 400 (3) 560 (4) Cannot be determined

55. What is the difference between the number of graduates employed in the sectors C and B in the year
2006?
(1) 120 (2) 240 (3) 0 (4) Cannot be determined

56. Which of the following cannot be the total number of graduates employed in the sector D during the
given five year period?
(1) 949 (2) 967 (3) 1309 (4) 1669

Additional Information for questions 57 and 58:


The number of graduates employed in the sector A in the year 2006 is maximum possible and the total
number of graduates employed in the sector B during the given five year period is 1415.

57. The number of graduates employed in the sector B in the year 2004 is
(1) 400 (2) 300 (3) 800 (4) 600

58. If the average salaries of the graduates employed in the sectors A, B, C and D in the year 2004 are in the
ascending order, then the minimum possible average salary (in Rs. Lacs per annum) of the graduates
employed in the sector D in the year 2004 is
(1) 13 (2) 12 (3) 10 (4) 11

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DIRECTIONS for Questions 59 to 61: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
A company KGC Ltd wants to outsource six of its ongoing projects namely P1, P2, P3, P4, P5, and P6 to
another company KTO Ltd. KTO Ltd quoted the time (in days) and the amount (in '000 Rs.) that they will
charge to complete each of the six projects. It also quoted the running expenses (in '000 Rs.) that would be
incurred per day for each project. The following table provides information about the quotations.

Project Amount as Quoted Time as Quoted Expenses incurred per day as


(in '000 Rs.) (in days) Quoted (in '000 Rs.)
P1 275 16
P2 170 7 12
P3 220 24
P4 188 17 9
P5 165 10
P6 192 10 17

The time as quoted (in days) to complete each project is an integer. The time as quoted (in days) to complete
P5 is twice of P3. The time as quoted (in days) to complete P1 is more than P6 but less than P5. Time as quoted
(in days) to complete P4 is the maximum.

The amount (in Rs.) received by KTO Ltd from KGC Ltd depends upon the time in which the project would
be completed.
Further it is known that:
1. If the time taken by KTO Ltd to complete any project is equal to the time as quoted, then the total amount
received from KGC Ltd would be as quoted by KTO Ltd.
2. If the time taken by KTO Ltd to complete any project is less than the time as quoted, then the total amount
received would be equal to 20% of the running expense incurred per day plus the amount quoted by
KTO Ltd.
3. If the time taken by KTO Ltd to complete any project is ‘N’ days more than the time as quoted, then the
total amount received would equal to the amount quoted by it minus 40% of running expenses incurred
for ‘N’ days.

Profit Earned by KTO Ltd = Amount received from KGC Ltd for these projects – Running Expenses incurred
by KTO Ltd for these six projects.

59. If KTO Ltd had quoted 12 days to complete P5 and if the time taken by it to complete every project is
as quoted, then what is the total profit (in ‘000 Rs.) earned by it?
(1) 363 (2) 343 (3) 253 (4) Data Insufficient

60. KTO Ltd works on one project at a time and starts a new project the next day once a project is com-
pleted. What is the difference between the maximum and the minimum possible number of days taken
by KTO Ltd to complete all these six projects?
(1) 9 (2) 10 (3) 11 (4) 12

61. KTO Ltd works on one project at a time and starts a new project the next day once a project is com-
pleted. If the time taken by KTO Ltd to complete P1 is 12 days, then the total time taken in days to
complete all these six projects can be
(1) 67 (2) 72 (3) 70 (4) Either (1) or (3)

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DIRECTIONS for Questions 62 to 64: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Indian Railways has started seven new summer special trains which originate from seven different stations,
viz. Agra, Bandra, Chambal, Daund, Egmore, Fatehpur, and Gandhinagar. All the trains terminate at either of
the two stations viz. New Delhi (ND) or Hazrat Nizamuddin (HN). Each of these seven trains runs via only
one of the three intermediate stations viz. Kanpur, Lucknow, and Varanasi. The train originating from Chambal
terminates at Hazrat Nizamuddin. The trains originating from Daund and Egmore terminate at different stations.
The number of trains terminating at New Delhi is more than the number of trains terminating at Hazrat
Nizamuddin, and the number of trains running via Kanpur is twice the number of trains running via Lucknow.
The trains originating from Agra and Fatehpur terminate at the same station. The only train running via
Varanasi originates from Egmore. All the trains that run via either Varanasi or Lucknow terminate at Hazrat
Nizamuddin.

62. Out of the following, which were definitely the originating stations of the trains that terminated at the
Hazrat Nizamuddin station?
(1) Chambal, Daund and Gandhinagar.
(2) Chambal, Bandra, and Egmore.
(3) Chambal, Egmore, and Gandhinagar.
(4) None of the above.

63. Given below are two statements made on the basis of the information provided. Choose the best option
that follows.
Statement I: The train originating from Gandhinagar runs via Lucknow.
Statement II: The train originating from Bandra terminates at Hazrat Nizamuddin.
(1) Both the statements I and II are definitely true.
(2) Statement I is true but statement II is false.
(3) One of the two statements I and II is true.
(4) None of the above.

64. Due to heavy rush half of the trains terminating at the New Delhi station will now terminate at the SDA
station. If the train originating from Bandra terminates at New Delhi, then which of the following
statements is definitely false?
(1) The train originating from Gandhinagar terminates at SDA.
(2) The train originating from Daund terminates at SDA.
(3) The train originating from Agra runs via Lucknow.
(4) More than one of the above.

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DIRECTIONS for Questions 65 to 70: Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Answer each
question using the following instructions:
Mark 1. if the question can be answered by one of the statements alone, but cannot be answered by using
the other statement alone.
Mark 2. if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Mark 3. if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be answered by
using either statement alone.
Mark 4. if the question cannot be answered even by using both statements together.

a b
65. When (272 + 155 + 7) is divided by 13, the quotient obtained is an odd number (a, b are natural
numbers). Is ‘b’ an odd number?
A: ‘a’ is an odd number.
B: ‘a’ is an even number.

66. In a given circle, AB is the diameter with the center at O. A point ‘D’ is marked on the circumference
of the circle. What is the measure of ∠ABD ?
A: A point C is taken on the diameter AB such that triangle CBD is an isosceles triangle and
measure of one of its equal angles is 40°.
B: The measure of ∠ODA = 50°.

67. In a knockout tournament, a player is eliminated with a single loss. If the number of players, say n, is
even, then n/2 players move on to the next round while if n is odd, then (n+1)/2 players move on to the
next round. If the number of players in any round is odd, then one of them is given a bye, that is, he/she
automatically moves on to the next round. The process is continued till the final round, which obviously
is played between two players. ‘X’ is the number of players that participated in a knockout tournament.
Byes were necessarily given in the alternate rounds. If ‘Y’ was the total number of byes given in the
tournament, then what is the remainder when ‘X’ is divided by ‘Y’?
A. 40 < X < 100.
B. 10 < X < 30.

68. Does the equation (2A + B)x2 + (A + 2B)x + (2A + 3B) = 0 have real roots? (A, B are real numbers)
A. The equation 2Ax2 + (2A + 3B)x + 3B = 0 has equal roots.
B. A < 0 and B = – 1.

69. In the year 2007, the salary of Rajesh was P% more than that of Mohit but Q% less than that of Rohit. In
the year 2008, the salary of Rajesh was Q% less than that of Mohit but P% more than that of Rohit. What
is the salary of Mohit in the year 2007?
A. The difference between the salaries of Rajesh in the year 2007 and 2008 is Rs.10,000, and the salary
of Mohit in the year 2008 is Rs.30,000.
B. The ratio of the salary of Rajesh in 2007 to the salary of Mohit in 2008 is 2 : 3.

70. ‘BAT’ is an entrance test conducted by one of the premier institutes of the country. Every candidate
appearing for the test is awarded a ‘Percentile’. Percentile of a candidate is calculated as the percentage
of candidates who have scored lower marks than that candidate, out of all the candidates (X) who have
appeared for ‘BAT’. If the percentile of a student is more than or equal to 99.998, then he/she is
awarded ‘100 percentile’. How many candidates are awarded ‘100 percentile’?
A. 90000 < X < 160000
B. 160000 < X < 190000

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