1- and are responsible for acetylcholine metabolism 2- and are used for treating myasthenia gravis 3- enzyme converts angiotensin I into angiotensin II and it can be inhibited by
4- ion is responsible for acetylcholine vesicles rupture 5- is an reversible anticholinesterase cross BBB 6- is irreversible anticholinesterase used only for treating 7- is non-selective irreversible -blocker while is non-selective reversible -blocker 8- is non-selective -blocker while is selective 1 blocker while blocks both and receptors 9- is selective 1 blocker that used in and 10- is the release inhibiting factor o prolactin and it is replaced by for treating Hyperprolactinemia 11- receptors cause VD and receptors cause VC when stimulated by E 12- Action of acetylcholine on exocrine secretions is 13- Action of E on blood glucose level is 14- Actions of atropine on secretions are , , , and
15- Amphetamine is used in the treatment of , and 16- Atropine induces VD of blood vessels 17- Atropine like side effects are , , , , and 18- Bethanechole is used in treating and and its CVS side effects are and 19- Clonidine is and used in the treatment of and 20- Contraction of muscles leads to miosis while contraction of muscles lead to mydriasis. 21- Contraindications of -blockers are , , and
22- Direct acting parasympathomimetics are , and 23- Dopamine is used in which is causes by , and and it is contraindicated in and 24- Enzyme responsible for Acetylcholine synthesis is 25- Ergot alkaloids are , , and 26- In the formation of E Dopa is converted into with the aid of enzyme 27- Indirect acting parasympathomimetics act through .. and they are classified into and 28- Mechanism of ephedrine is and it was used in 29- Methergine is used in and 30- Methoxamine acts by and 31- Muscarinic blocker with selective action on eye and is selectively used in the treatment of asthma 32- Narcolepsy may be due to infection caused by 33- Naturally occurring Antimuscarinic alkaloids are and 34- NE stimulates all sympathetic receptors but its action is very weak on 35- Nn receptors are found in and 36- Nor adrenaline is metabolized by which metabolizes NE in and which metabolizes NE in 37- Phenylephrine is used in and 38- Physiological antagonist of histamine is as it causes and
39- Pirenzepine is used in the treatment of as it blocks receptor selectively 40- Propranolol actions on the heart are , and 41- Short acting 2 agonist is and long acting 2 agonist is 42- Site of synthesis of E is due to the presence of 43- Tamsulosin is used in the treatment of 44- The action of atropine on eye is and prazosin causes 45- Types of glaucoma are and which is treated by and topically to induce miosis and -blockers may be used to decrease aqueous humor formation 46- Usually the action of acetylcholine on smooth muscles is 47- When the patient feels warning signs of migraine (), patient should take or as prophylactic 48- Yohimbine is and used as but is better 49- 2 action in the uterus is in the 1 st trimester of pregnancy
True or false 1) Ach is uptaken from the synapse with specific carrier system 2) Although it can cross BBB Physostigmine can be used systemically 3) Arrival of action potential to nerve terminals Mg stimulates the neurotransmitter release 4) Atropine is the DOC in the treatment of motion sickness 5) Blocking of M3 receptors in the heart may result in tachycardia 6) Bromocriptine is given in the treatment of parkinsonism and infertility 7) Contraction of radial muscles leads to passive mydriasis while relaxation of circular muscles leads to active mydriasis 8) Diarrhea is caused by decrease in GIT motility so giving atropine may help in its treatment 9) Dobutamine is used in the treatment of heart failure due to its ve inotropic effects 10) Dopamine activates 2 and 1 receptors 11) Dopamine is given orally for treating hemodynamic imbalance 12) Ephedrine is a natural alkaloid abstained form atropa belladonna 13) Epistaxis occur due to capillary fragility and treated by salbutamol 14) Irreversible anticholinesterases are used mainly in glaucoma 15) Miosis increases the intraocular pressure 16) Neostigmine is non-polar compound used in paralytic ileus and myasthenia gravis 17) Parasympathetic nerve innervation of blood vessels stimulates M3 receptors leading to VD 18) Phentolamine and phenoxybenzamine can be given for the treatment of 2ry shock 19) propranolol is contraindicated in diabetics 20) Sympathetic nervous system is more predominant in all tissues except CVS 21) Timolol is a -blocker used in the treatment of glaucoma as it decreases the aqueous humor formation 22) Tyrosine is metabolized by decarboxylase enzyme to form DOPA 23) Usage of carbachol in glaucoma may result in serious side effects 24) -blockers can be used for treatment of arrhythmia and hypertension 25) -blockers decrease the gastrointestinal bleeding in patients with hepatic cirrhosis as they decrease the COP
Name the following: 1- A location of junction between oxygen rich blood from hepatic arterioles and portal circulation
2- Action of Ach on smooth muscles 3- Activates both 1 and 2 receptors and used by inhalation for treating asthma 4- Activates dopamine receptors centrally and used in the treatment of fertility 5- An ergot alkaloid used to decrease senile cerebral insufficiency 6- Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor 7- Competitive neuromuscular blocker and its antidote 8- Depolarizing neuromuscular blocker used as Preanesthetic medication 9- Direct acting parasympathomimetic used topically for treatment of glaucoma 10- Dual acting sympathomimetic used only as street drug 11- Enzyme responsible for acetylcholine synthesis 12- Enzyme responsible for the metabolism of catechol moiety in E, NE and dopamine 13- Enzyme which converts NE into epinephrine 14- Hormone that regulates the activity of aldosterone hormone 15- It is semisynthetic muscarinic antagonist used to decrease GIT motility 16- Muscarinic antagonist used selectively in parkinsonism as it crosses BBB 17- Prazosin action on the heart 18- Receptors responsible for skeletal muscle contraction 19- Selective 1 agonist used in the treatment of nasal congestion and bleeding 20- Short acting non-selective blocker used in 2ry shock and hypertension 21- Similar to amphetamine activity but with less dependence liability 22- Sympatholytic that act through activation of central 2 receptors 23- Synthetic catecholamine 24- The enzyme on which Eserine acts 25- Thyroid hormones that increase the sensitivity of myocardium to E 26- Two drugs that can be used to facilitate micturition in patients with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
27- Used in the treatment of curare poisoning 28- 1 selective blocker
Comment on the following sentences: 1- action of acetylcholine on blood vessels is very weak 2- active miosis and passive miosis 3- Adrenaline is the physiological antagonist of histamine 4- atropine causes paradoxical and expected effects on heart rate 5- Bethanechole cannot be given in the treatment of all types of urinary retention 6- Both Sympathomimetics and -blockers are contraindicated in diabetics 7- cycloplagia caused by atropine 8- Dopamine is given to correct hemodynamic imbalance 9- dopamine regulates prolactin release 10- E action on BP is biphasic 11- effect of neostigmine is different in the toxicity of both types of NMB 12- Ephedrine is not used nowadays 13- ergometrine is oxytocic drug 14- glaucoma can be treated by different methods 15- Isoprenaline cause slight decrease in blood pressure 16- Metoprolol is used in hepatic cirrhosis to reduce GIT bleeding 17- myasthenia gravis is treated by combination therapy 18- Preanesthetic administration of atropine 19- propranolol is used as prophylactic in migraine headache 20- tropicamide eye drops are better than atropine eye drops as Mydriatic 21- -blockers are given in the treatment of BPH 22- -blockers are contraindicated in bronchial asthma
Centrally acting drugs
Name the following 1- 1 st non-stimulant drug approved by FDA for treating ADHD 2- activation of opioid receptors may increase influx of this ion 3- activation of this receptor play an important role in tolerance 4- active metabolite of codeine 5- active metabolite of morphine 6- Added with L-dopa to decrease its side effects 7- Amide local anesthetics and ester local anesthetic 8- An antihistaminic given as OTC drug for sleep aid 9- an opioid drug with atropine like action 10- Anticonvulsant agent used in the treatment of mania 11- Antidepressant with antihistamine activity 12- Antidote of Zaleplon toxicity 13- Appearance of certain withdrawal symptoms after abrupt drug withdrawal 14- BDZ receptor antagonist 15- Blocks NMDA receptors for treating Alzheimer's disease 16- Center that regulates the body temperature 17- Channels between two cell bodies that allow passage of ions 18- Compounds show important role in indirect acting metabotropic channels 19- COX enzyme responsible for physiological PGs 20- DOC in one day surgery 21- DOC in partial seizure 22- Drug of choice for treating chronic insomnia 23- drug used for decreasing sleep latency due to disturbance in circadian rhythm 24- Effect of vitamin D deficiency 25- Excessive fear from certain objects 26- Given for the treatment of inflammation in patients with peptic ulcer 27- Highly lipid soluble general anesthetic used in induction of anesthesia 28- Hypnotic that causes gynecomastia 29- Intermediate acting BDZ 30- Ion responsible for transmission in absence seizures 31- it is needed to facilitate the excretion of BDZs 32- Its depression is the main cause of death due to toxic doses of barbiturates 33- long acting opioid receptor blocker 34- M blocker used for the treatment of parkinsonism 35- Main excitatory neurotransmitter in brain 36- mechanism of 5-HT1A receptors 37- Minimum concentration of general anesthetic that can cause loss of reflexes 38- more addiction liability than morphine as it is more lipid soluble 39- Parent drug of BDZ family 40- partial Mu agonist used in the treatment of opioid addiction 41- Partitioning of gas between blood and tissues 42- Prodrug of phenytoin 43- Reactive metabolite of paracetamol 44- receptor activated by Zolpidem 45- Sedative with analgesic effect 46- Selective anxiolytic drug shows no hypnosis 47- Selective MAOB blocker 48- Short acting barbiturate used as Preanesthetic medication 49- Side effects due to decreasing dopaminergic activity 50- Site of action of local anesthetics 51- Target of Buspirone which mediates its anxiolytic effect 52- Temporary loss of memory under influence of drug 53- Teratogenic effect of valproate 54- The effect of the drug decreases after continuous administration 55- their uptake is inhibited by tramadol 56- Two halogenated volatile liquids general anesthetics 57- Type of channels in which the receptor is linked directly to the ion channel 58- Type of epilepsy treated by BDZ 59- Used for the treatment of performance anxiety 60- Used for the treatment of serotonin syndrome
Complete the following 1- action is unique to aspirin 2- and are antidiarrheal agents that act by 3- and are given in treating opioid addiction as they are less addictive than morphine 4- and are partial agonist with kappa effects 5- and are responsible for inflammation caused by PGs 6- and are SSRIs 7- and are used in the treatment of absence seizures as they block 8- and block dopamine receptors for treating psychosis while and block both D and 5-HT receptors 9- and deficiency may lead to mental depression 10- anesthetic may sensitize myocardium to E 11- antiepileptic that block both Na and Ca channels 12- general anesthetic may cause hyperthermia 13- is a prodrug of that is used in the treatment of status epilepticus through administration 14- is active metabolite Risperidone 15- is added to local anesthetics to , and
16- is an antipsychotic that causes agranulocytosis 17- is an opioid with selective antitussive activity and acts by and 18- is BZ1 receptor antagonist 19- is dissociative anesthetic that act by and its side effects are
20- is dopamine system stabilizer that can be also used in and
21- is given as analgesic for cancer pain and given as transdermal patches 22- is given in the treatment of acute morphine toxicity while is given for treatment of chronic toxicity 23- is selective anti-COX II which causes as a CVS side effect 24- is selective MAOB inhibitor used in the treatment of parkinsonism while tolcapone acts by 25- is semisynthetic morphine derivative with high lipid solubility 26- is strong opioid agonist with atropine like side effects 27- is the first non-stimulant drug approved by FDA in the treatment of ADHD 28- is the most safe analgesic in pregnancy and lactation but it may cause due to release of reactive metabolite which causes damage to hepatic cells due to deficiency of so its toxicity is treated with
29- is used in one day surgery while is suitable for patients with coronary vascular and pulmonary diseases 30- Local anesthetic do not need E addition as it 31- occurs in chronic toxicity of aspirin which is characterized by , and 32- , , are less likely to cause physical dependence 33- , , are non-selective NSAIDs 34- . Used for performance anxiety while .. is an antihistamine 35- Abstinence syndrome , , , and 36- Acute toxicity of aspirin may lead to due to 37- Administration of aspirin in children less than 12 years with viral infection leads to
38- All BDZs cause sedation without analgesia except .. 39- Alzheimer's disease is due to deficiency of and increasing activity 40- Amitriptyline acts through decrease reuptake of and also it may block , and receptors 41- Anticholinesterases used in the treatment of Alzheimer's disease are , and while NMDA receptor antagonist is 42- Barbiturates if given as a salt form always end with suffix .. 43- BDZs activates .. receptors leading to of GABA- chloride channels complex while barbiturates .. of GABA chloride channels complex 44- BDZs are used as ., .. , . And . 45- CNS depression causes by barbiturates is .. than BDZs 46- Co-administration of phenelzine and fluoxetine may result in which is characterized by , and and treated by
47- Codeine is converted into and used in and 48- Diazepam causes as a side effect which is self-limited 49- Drugs used in the treatment of ADHD are and which increase NE release, which decrease NE reuptake and which act by direct activation of 1B receptors 50- During the inflammatory reactions, bacterial toxin are released which increase from which stimulate center to form that
51- Hematotoxicity of phenytoin is and of carbamazepine is 52- Increasing is responsible for +ve symptoms of schizophrenia while increasing is responsible for ve symptoms 53- Indomethacin is contraindicated in pregnancy as it causes 54- Inhalation anesthetics like gas which has anesthetic activity so it is used in combination with other anesthetics and it is contraindicated in 55- Inhibition of cyclooxygenase will shift arachidonic acid into pathway leading to an increase in which causes that can be treated by
56- Lamotrigene acts by while Felbamate acts by 57- Lithium causes polyuria and polydipsia which are the symptoms of 58- Lithium side effects are , and 59- Local anesthetics act by blocking , they diffuse across the membrane in form where for replaces at its binding site 60- Morphine ADH and LH release 61- Morphine acts through two mechanisms which are through and through 62- morphine is metabolized to through metabolism 63- Morphine may histamine release causing or effects 64- opiates are while opioids are 65- opioid peptides are , and 66- Opioids are contraindicated in head trauma as they 67- Oral administration of morphine is not preferred because 68- Pain induced by PGs may be and 69- PGE1 acts as in GIT by , and its inhibition by NSAIDs leads to 70- Phenelzine intake with tyramine containing food may lead to 71- Phenytoin causes oral manifestations like 72- Receptors responsible of morphine analgesia are , and
73- Side effects of morphine are , , and
74- Side effects of Ramelteon are and 75- Succinylcholine block Nm receptors in two phases, phase I () and phase II () 76- Teratogenic effect of phenytoin is known as which is characterized by , and 77- The action of opioids on eye is except causes as it is 78- The anti-inflammatory use of aspirin needs dose , while the analgesic and antipyretic dose is 79- The main adverse effects of haloperidol and droperidol are and
80- The main cause of tolerance against barbiturates is .. 81- Tramadol act by and and its side effects are and which is difficult to be treated due to 82- Types of COX enzyme are COX1 (), COX-II () and COX III () 83- Types of postsynaptic response are . And 84- Types of synapses are .. and ..
True or false 1- Chlordiazepoxide is intermediate acting BDZ 2- All BDZs are analgesics 3- All opioid drugs cause pin point pupil 4- Aspirin renal blood supply by decreasing PGs formation 5- Aspirin causes metabolic alkalosis and respiratory acidosis 6- BDZ increases the duration of opening of chloride channels 7- BDZs usually cause rapid tolerance 8- Both carbamazepine and phenytoin cause CNS depression 9- Bromocriptine acts by activation of D2 receptors for treating parkinsonism 10- COX III is responsible for pain, fever and inflammation 11- Diclofenac causes bleeding and can be used in the prophylaxis against blood clotting 12- Drugs used for treatment of status epilepticus must be given iv administration 13- Ketamine increases heart rate and causes hypotension 14- L-dopa can cross BBB and converted into dopamine centrally for treating parkinsonism 15- Lithium is a rapid acting mood stabilizer that decreases swings between mania and depression 16- Local anesthetics block Na channels in activated state 17- Memantine acts by blocking of AMPA receptors centrally for treatment of parkinsonism 18- Morphine cannot cross Blood placental barrier so they are contraindicated in pregnancy 19- Morphine causes respiratory depression and CO2 level leading to VD and increase in cerebral blood supply 20- Naltrexone is long acting opioid receptor antagonist that can be used in treating acute morphine toxicity 21- Nitrous oxide can be given to patients with pre-existing cerebral edema 22- Paracetamol acts through decreasing central PG by inhibition of COX II 23- Phenobarbitone is given as Preanesthetic medication 24- Phenytoin causes vitamin D and folate deficiency 25- Ramelteon activates AT receptors and used in jet lag phenomenon 26- Succinylcholine activates M2 receptors leading to tachycardia 27- Succinylcholine antidote is neostigmine 28- Succinylcholine is depolarizing NMB leads to continuous Ca release 29- Tacrine and neostigmine are used in treatment of Alzheimer's disease as they increase Ach level
Comment on the following: 1- Activity of nitrous oxide is very weak 2- Adrenaline is added to local anesthetics while it is not added with cocaine 3- Amitriptyline causes many side effects 4- Aspirin is antipyretic and causes peptic ulcer 5- Aspirin is contraindicated in children less than 12 years 6- BDZs are more safe than barbiturates 7- Carbidopa is added with L-dopa in the treatment of parkinsonism 8- Endocrine side effects of ramelteon 9- Ethosuximide is the DOC in the treatment of absence seizures 10- Lithium may act by different mechanisms 11- Neostigmine is contraindicated in the treatment of succinylcholine toxicity 12- Opioids are contraindicated in pregnancy and head trauma 13- Paracetamol is contraindicated in patients with hepatic necrosis 14- Pethidine doesn't aggravate renal colic in patients with renal stones 15- Phenytoin is contraindicated in diabetics 16- Pin point pupil caused by morphine 17- Propofol is given in one day surgery 18- TCA is contraindicated to be given with phenelzine 19- There are different types of MAO enzyme 20- Treatment of tramadol dependence is difficult
Autacoids and GIT Name the following: 1. 1 st generation antihistaminic with anti-serotoninergic activity 2. Anti-motion sickness antihistaminic 3. 2 nd messenger responsible for relaxation effects of eicosanoids 4. 2 nd messenger that regulates the activity of H1 receptors 5. Acts through inhibition of pepsin and increase mucous secretion 6. Adsorbent used remove intestinal toxin in diarrhea treatment 7. Anti-inflammatory agent act through inhibition of phospholipase enzyme 8. Antimicrobial agent used in treatment of Pylori infections 9. Antimotility agent used for treatment of diarrhea 10. Cells contain most of body serotonin 11. Chloride channel opener 12. DOC in the treatment of anaphylactic shock 13. DOC in the treatment of motion sickness 14. Drug with oxytocic effect used as abortifacient 15. Eicosanoid increases platelet aggregation and another one decreases platelets aggregation
16. enzyme responsible for the formation of histamine 17. enzyme responsible for the formation of PAF 18. Irritant or stimulant laxative 19. It decreases both PGs ant LTs 20. It inhibits the synthesis of serotonin and used only experimentally 21. mast cell stabilizer with immunosuppressant activity 22. mediator released after activating H1 receptors in blood vessels 23. Mucosal protective agent contains sulfated sucrose 24. PG responsible for VD and maintenance of ductus arteriosus patency 25. PGE1 analogue used as cytoprotective 26. Precursor of all eicosanoids 27. Precursor of histamine biosynthesis 28. Progesterone antagonist added in the abortion protocol 29. receptor responsible for HCl release by histamine 30. Second generation H1 antagonist 31. Selective H2 blocker 32. serotonergic drug which may block alpha receptors 33. Serotonin agonist used for migraine treatment 34. Serotonin receptor agonist used for migraine and cluster headache 35. Stool softener that acts as surface active agent that become emulsified with stool
36. surface Ab responsible for histamine release from mast cells 37. The pump responsible for acid secretions in the stomach 38. They exacerbate the anticholinergic effects of antihistamines
Comment on the following: 1- 1 st generation antihistamines are used in treating Parkinsons disease 2- Mifepristone can be given for induction of abortion 3- Effect of serotonin on BP is triphasic 4- Immunological release of histamine 5- Mast cell stabilizers 6- VD caused by histamine 7- Saline and bulk laxative can be used in treating constipation 8- Bismuth salts have different roles in the GIT 9- Sucralfate is cytoprotective by different mechanisms 10- Misoprostol is contraindicated in pregnancy 11- Clarify the approaches used in eradication of H. Pylori infections 12- PAF is an allergic mediator 13- Drug-drug interactions of 1 st generation antihistamines 14- Role of inflammatory mediators in allergy
Complete the following sentences: 1- .. and .. are lubricant laxatives while bulk laxatives are obtained form .. 2- .. and .. are responsible for emesis 3- .. decreases the storage of serotonin 4- . Is presynaptic receptor which controls histamine release in the brain 5- .. and . Induce abortion 6- .enzyme responsible for the formation of PGs from arachidonic acid while . Enzyme is responsible for the formation of LTs 7- Acetylcholine increase .. in parietal cells while PGE2 decrease .. 8- Action of serotonin on bronchi is . and on platelets which is inhibited by .. 9- Antacids increase the PH of the stomach to .. which decreases .. activity 10- Beside their anti-allergic effect 1 st generation antihistaminic can be used in ... and . 11- Effect of histamine on smooth muscles is .. 12- Examples of 2 nd generation antihistamines are and . 13- Generalized histamine release will cause .. which is treated by . 14- H2 blockers act by decreasing the activity of .. enzyme leading to a decrease in .. 2 nd messenger and inhibition of .. pump 15- Histamine is found in . In humans and in some insects like . 16- Mast cells stabilizers are like .... and .. which is used for treating bronchial asthma 17- Treatment approaches of peptic ulcer are .., .. and ..
Chemotherapy
Complete the following: 1) .. and .. are macrolides 2) .. and .. are ototoxic 3) .. is given with tetracycline in the treatment of malaria 4) .. is narrow spectrum penicillin that can be taken orally 5) Aminoglycosides are .. so they must be taken by .. route 6) Aminoglycosides such as . Act by and has side effect of . & .. 7) Cefamandole is mainly used in .... And it has many side effects like .... 8) Chloramphenicol causes grey baby syndrome which is characterized by .. & .... & .. and it also causes but idiosyncratically 9) Chloramphenicol must be used with great care in newborn to avoid occurrence of
10) Clindamycin acts by .. 11) Clostridium botulinum bacteria acts through .. 12) Main side effect of penicillin is which is treated by . & .. 13) Penicillin G can be used in treating .. & .... & 14) Resistance to penicillin may be due to .. Which is inhibited by .. 15) Rugs used for treatment of TB are .., .., and .. 16) Tetracycline may deposit in .. 17) Vancomycin is used in the treatment of ..
Name the following: 1. A 3 rd generation cephalosporin 2. A syndrome appears after administration of expired TCs 3. An antibacterial useful in treating cholera 4. An enzyme secreted by the bacteria to resist penicillin 5. An ion which may decrease the absorption of tetracycline due to chelation 6. Antibacterial used in treating GIT infection 7. Antibacterial which may cause enamel dysplasia when given to children 8. Anti-pseudomonal penicillin 9. Bacteria that is responsible for ulcer formation 10. Beta lactamase inhibitor given only by iv route 11. Broad spectrum penicillin 12. Can be used in treating TB 13. DOC in treating chlamydial and mycoplasma pneumonia infections 14. Drug is used in treating syphilis disease 15. Drug is used instead of penicillin in gm +ve resistant bacteria 16. Drug that cause NMB 17. Enzyme responsible for metabolism of chloramphenicol 18. Fourth generation cephalosporin given to immunocompromised patients 19. Two antibacterial when given concurrently they cause nephrotoxic reaction
Choose the correct answer: 1. What does the term antibiotics mean? a) Non-organic or synthetic substances that selectively kill or inhibit the growth of other microorganisms b) Substances produced by some microorganisms and their synthetic analogues that selectively kill or inhibit the growth of other microorganisms c) Substances produced by some microorganisms and their synthetic analogues that inhibit the growth of organism cells d) Synthetic analogues of natural substances that kill protozoa and helminthes
2. Mechanisms of bacterial resistance to anti-microbial agents are the following, EXCEPT: a) Active transport out of a microorganism or/and hydrolysis of an agent via enzymes produced by a microorganism b) Enlarged uptake of the drug by a microorganism c) Modification of a drugs target d) Reduced uptake by a microorganism 3. The statement, that some microorganisms can develop alternative metabolic pathways for rendering reactions inhibited by the drug, is: a) True b) False 4. Bactericidal effect is: a) Inhibition of bacterial cell division b) Inhibition of young bacterial cell growth c) Destroying of bacterial cells 5. Bacteriostatic effect is: a) Inhibition of bacterial cell division b) Inhibition of young bacterial cells growth c) Destroying of bacterial cells 6. Which of the following antibiotics contains a beta-lactam ring in their chemical structure : a) Penicillins b) Cephalosporins c) Carbapenems and monobactams d) All groups 7. Tick the drug belonging to antibiotics-macrolides: a) Neomycin b) Doxycycline c) Erythromycin d) Cefotaxime 8. Tick the drug belongs to antibiotics-cephalosporins: a) Streptomycin b) Cefaclor c) Methilpenicillin d) Erythromycin 9. Tick the drug belonging to antibiotics-tetracyclines: a) Doxycycline b) Streptomycin c)Clarithromycin d) Amoxicillin 10. All of antibiotics are aminoglycosides, EXCEPT: a) Gentamycin B)Streptomycin c) Vancomycin d) Neomycin 11. Antibiotics inhibiting the bacterial cell wall synthesis are: a) Beta-lactam antibiotics b) Tetracyclines c)Aminoglycosides d) Macrolides 12. Which of the following drugs is a gastric acid resistant: a) Penicillin G b) Penicillin V c) Carbenicillin d) sulbactam 13. Which of the following drugs is penicillinase resistant: a) Oxacillin b) Amoxicillin c) Penicillin G 14. Pick out the beta-lactamase inhibitor for co-administration with penicillins: a) Clavulanic acid b) Sulbactam c) Tazobactam d) All of the above 15. Cephalosporins are drugs of choice for treatment of: a) Gram-positive infections b) Gram-negative infections c) Gram-negative and gram-positive microorganism infections, if penicillins have no effect d) Only bacteroide infections 16. All of the following antibiotics are macrolides, EXCEPT: a) Erythromycin b)Clarithromycin c) Lincomycin d) Roxythromycin 17. Tick the drug belonging to antibiotics-aminoglycosides: a) Erythromycin b) Gentamycin c) Vancomycin d) Polymyxin 18. Aminoglycosides are effective against: a) Gram positive microorganisms, anaerobic microorganisms b) Broad-spectrum, except Pseudomonas aeruginosa c) Gram negative microorganisms, anaerobic microorganisms d) Gram negative, except anaerobic microorganisms and viruses 19. Aminoglycosides have the following unwanted effects: A) anemia b)Hepatotoxicity c) Ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity d) Irritation of gastrointestinal mucosa 20. Chloramphenicol has the following unwanted effects: a) Nephrotoxicity b) BMD c) Hepatotoxicity d) Ototoxicity 21. Mechanism of Streptomycin action is: a) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis b) Inhibition of protein synthesis c) Inhibition of RNA and DNA synthesis d) Inhibition of cell membranes permeability 22. Streptomycin has the following unwanted effect: a) Cardiotoxicity b)Hepatotoxicity c) Retrobulbar neuritis with red-green color blindness d) Ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity 23. The drug of choice for syphilis treatment is: a) Gentamycin b) Penicillin c)Chloramphenicol d) Doxycycline