Just pri or t o ovulation, the preovulatory follicle
produces and secretes large amounts of which of the f ol l owi ng hormones? A. Hu ma n chorionic gonadotropin 0. ~ ~ t e i n i z i n g hormone C. Progesterone Androgens Estrogen 2. Protrusion of the tip of the tongue beyond the opening of the oral cavity is accomplished PRlMARlL Y by which of the following muscles? A. Myl ohyoi d Styloglossus Genioglossus Intrinsic tongue In a histologic section through the epiphyseal plate of the femur of an 18-year-old male, which of the following is the zone in which cartilage lacunae appear swollen and the chondrocytes are large? Q proliferation Bone deposition C. Reserve cartilage D. Cartilage calcification E. Hypertrophy and maturation Each of the following is an ectomesenchymal derivative EXCEPTi ne. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Pulp Dentin 8 Enamel D. Alveolar bone E. periodontal ligament . . Sensations of pain and temperature are carried by which of the following tracts? A. Corticospinal Corticobulbar C. Lateral spinothalamic O Ventral reticulospinal E. Dorsal spinocerebellar 6. In a mature tooth, what is the locatjon of the FIRST dentin that w a s produced during crown formation? A. Adjacent to t he pul p 0. In the cervical ar ea C. Part of secondary dentin 6 Part of ci rcumpul pal dentin Adjacent to t he dentinoenamel ' 1 l n ~ t i o n 7. Enamel spindles mi ght represent whi ch o f the following? A. Areas of organi c enamel matrix t h a t are more highly mineralized than ot her areas @ $z, " t , " ?I " , z: d processes that ext end across the DEJ i nto enamel C. Areas of more highly mineralized enamel prisms D. Characteristics o f prismless enamel E. Nerve fibers 8. Which of the following types of epithelium are found in the colon? Transitional Simple columnar C. Stratified squarnous D. Pseudostratified ciliated columnar 9. Inability to move the diaphragm is consistent with a total section the following spinal l evel s? 10. Which of the following supplies sensation to the interior of the larynx (above the vocal fol d)? Recurrent l aryngeal nerve Superior l aryngeal nerve Glossopharyngeal nerve D. Pharyngeal pl exus E. Mandibular nerve 11. ' i h e middle meningeal artery enters the cranial vault through the A. foramen ovale. 8. foramen l acerum. foramen rotundum. & foramen spi nosum. E. superior orbita! fissylre. 12. Which of the following structures is likely to be found wi t hi n the posterior mediastinurn? A. Hear t phr eni c nerve & Thoraci c duct D. Ar c h of the aorta E. Recurrent laryngeal nerve 13. Optic nerve fibers from the nasal half of the retina cross the midline and enter the optic tract of the opposite side by way of Ihe A, opt i c chiasma. l ateral geniculate body. bipolar cells of the retina. D. brachium of the superior colliculus. E. geniculocalcarine tract (optic radiations). 14. Each of the following statements regarding the masseter muscle is correct EXCEPTone. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. ;I ~e masseter rnuscle possesses two heads of origin. @ The massetenc nerve reaches the masseter muscle by passing through the mandibular foramen. C. Interdigitations of the masseter and medial W pterygoid muscles form the pterygomandibular sling. . D . The vascular supply to the masseter muscle arises trom r n w the maxillary artery. E. The parotid duct lies superficial to the masseter muscle. 15. Which of the following describes the origin and subsequent spread of the wave of depolarization in the normal human heart? A. Atria, sino-atrial (SA) node, atrioventricular (AV) node, bundle branches, ventricles Sino-atrial (SA) node, atrioventricular (AV) @ node, bundle branches, atria, ventricles C. Sino-atrial (SA) node, atria, atrioventricular (AV) node, bundle branches, ventricles D. Atrioventricular (AV) node, atria, sino-atrial (SA) node, bundle branches, ventricles E. Atr!oyentricular (AV) node, sino-atrial (SA) node, bundle branches, atria, ventricles 16. Which of the following bones forms the roof of the orbit7 A. Zygomatic 0. Maxilla C. Palatine 17. Which of the fol l owi ng pairs of muscl es is innervated excl usi vel y by the trigeminat nerve? A. Mylohyoid and geniohyoid @ Medial and l ateral pterygoid C. Tensor and levator vel~ palatini D. Anlerior a n d poslerior bellies o f the digastric E. Buccinator a n d superlor pharyngeal constrictor 18. Intercalated di sks connect which of t he following cell types? Schwann Cardiac rnuscl e C. Skeletal mus c l e D. Transitional epithelial E. Stratified squamous epithelial 19. Which of the fol l owi ng represents t h e anterior boundary of the mandibular fossa o f the temporal bone? Styloid pr ocess & Articular emi nence C. Petrotyrnpanic fissure D. External audi tory meatus E. Mastoid pr ocess of temporal bone 20. Which of the fol l owi ng exhibits phagocytic . . acbv~ty in the cent r al nervous system? Ependymal cel l Microglial cel l C. Oligodendrocyte D. Fibrous astrocyte E. Protoplasmic astrocyte 2 <. Whicl, ~f the fol l owi ng nerves innervates the taste buds of t h e anterior two-thirds of the tongue? C. Trigeminal D. Hypoglossal E. Glossopharyngeal 22. Sensations f r om the left face and teeth are interpreted in whi ch of the following lobes? A. Left frontal & Right frontal Left pari etal Right pari etal E. Right temporal 23. Which o f the following is the major nerve of the poskri or aspect of the arm and forearm? Ul n a r 0 Radi al C. Medi an D. Axi l l ary E. Musculocutaneous 24. A patient has muscle pain when moving the mandible 10 the left. Which of the following muscles i s MOST likely causing the pain in this situation? A. Lef t masseter 6. Left medial pterygoid C. Ri ght medial pterygoid 6 Left lateral pterygoid Ri ght lateral pterygoid 25. Which of the following is the only part of the gastrointestinal system that has villi, goblet cells. and mucous-secreting glands in the submucosa? A. I l eum Duodenum Esophagus 26. The branches of the maxillary artery supply each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTIOM A. Nasal septum B. Mandibular incisors Hard and soft palate Ski n of the forehead Muscles of mastica;io? 27. Which of the following differentiates cementum from enamel? @ Presence of collagen fibers B. presence of incremental lines C. Presence of hydroxyapatite crystals D. Derived from the dental papilla . 28. Each of the following bones contributes to the formation of the calvaria EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Frontal B. Temporal C. Parietal Occipital 29. Cutaneous i nnervati on of the chin and lower lip is mediated by wh i c h of the fol l owi ng ? A. Mental ner ve Facial nerve Inferior al veol ar nerve D. Buccal ner ve of V E. Branches o f t he maxillary di v i s i on of v 30. If the internal car ot i d arteries become occluded, then blood can st i l l reach the arterial circle primarily through whi ch of the follobving arteries? Vertebral Middle cer ebr al C. Superior cerebel l ar D. Anterior i nf eri or cerebellar E. Posterior i nf eri or cerebellar 31. A laceration of t h e palatal mucosa in the area of the first molar is MOSTl i kel y lo damage which of the following arteri es? Posterior superi or alveolar Greater pal at i ne C. Lesser pal at i ne D. Pterygopalatine E. Nasopalatine 32. The pterygoid pl exus is usually f or med by veins that are tributaries of which of the fol l owi ng? Maxillary v ei n Anaular vei n C. ~aci al vein D. Occipital v ei n E. Anterior j ugul ar vein 33. Which of the fol l owi ng lingual papillae have the THICKEST layer o f keratin on their surfaces? Foliate Filiforrn Q Fung, , D. Circumvallate 34. Which of the fol l owi ng represents t he MOST common cartilage found in the embryo and in the adult? Fibrocartilage & Hyaline carti l age C. Elastic carti l age D. Calcified carti l age 35. Each of the following muscles elevates the hyoid bone EXCEPJone. Which one is this EXCEPTION? Q Thyrohyoi d H ~ O ~ ~ O ~ S U S C. Geni ohyoi d D. Anteri or belly of the digastric E, posteri or belly of the digastric 41. The cell bodies o f proprioce~tive ner ves carryin information f r o m t he periodontal l i gament are located in the A. nucleus ambi guus. trigeminal ganglion. C. spinal nuc l eus of V. 0 main sensor y nucleus of V. E. mesencephal i c nucleus of V. 36. The sells lurcica lies directly superior to which of 42. The reticular por t i on of the dermis i s classified the fol l owi ng sinuses? as which of t he following types of connective tissue? A. Frontal & Mastoi d A. Loose Ethmoi d 6. Adipose Sphenoid C. Modified el ast i c Maxillary Dense r egul ar & Dense i r r egul ar 37. The l i ngual artery represents a branch of which of the following arteries? A, Facial 6. Occipital Maxillary $ External carotid Internal carotid 38. Sensory nerve supply to the facial mucosa and rs travels in which A. Mental Inferior alveolar Buccal nerve of V Posterior superior alveolar 39. The: thyrocervical trunk is comprised of the inferior thyroid, the transverse cervical artery. and the vertebral. suprascapular. C. dorsal scapular. 0. superior thyroid. E. ascending pharyngeal. . . 43. As a tooth under goes attrition, i t mai ntai ns contact with opposi ng dentition. Thi s results from the apposi t i on of secondary dentin. apical cement um. coronal enamel . D. alveolar bone. E. fundal bone. 3 4 . Tl i i u c c a l r n ~ o ~ t y p l c a i l y ~ following epi thel i a? A. Simple col umnar Pseudostratified columnar Non-keratinized. stratified squamous D. Parakeratinized, stratified squamous E. Orthokeratinized, stratified squamous 45. Ulcers of recurrent herpes occur o n masticato mucosa. Herpet i c ulcers could occur in which the following l ocati ons? Buccal rnucosa Labial mucosa Hard pal at al muwsa D. Mucosa of the soft palate E. Mucosa o f the floor of the mout h 40. whi ch of the following contains cells that secrete tVpsinogen? 46. During active eruption, the initial epithelial attachment (j uncti onal epithelium) to the enar A. lieum surface of t he tooth results from t he fusion of oral epithelium with which of the following? Periodontal ligament fibers Gallbladder Reduced enamel epithelium C. Stratum intermedium D. :itelfate reti:;dlum E. Ginyival fibers 47. The arti cul ati ng surface of the adult mandibular condyle is covered by which of the following substances? A. El ast i c tissue 8 Synovi al membrane H yal i ne cartilage Typi cal perichondrium E. Collagenous connective tissue 48. A blow t hat shatters the coracoid process will have a di rect effect on which of the following pairs of muscles? A. Se r r a t ~ s anterior and pectoralis major 0. Subscapularis and pectoralis major C. Bi ceps brachii and pectoralis minor 0. Subscapularis and subclavius p. elt to id and subclavius 49. A patient's tongue markedly deviates to the left during protrusion. Which of the following muscles is unable to contract? & Ri ght ~ Y WI O ~ S U S Ri ght geniohyoid Left genioglossus Left palatoglossus E. Left lateral pterygoid 3u. rrot e~ns m u i s e c a n be synihesized in which of the following structures? A. Nucleolemma B. . Mitochondria Heterochromatin 0 Rough endoplasrnic reticulum E. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum 51. Which of the following types of dentin is the MOST highly mineralized? A. Car i oa B. Predentin C. Intertubular Interglobular Intra(peri)tubular 52. In a normal adult, which of the following is the location of persistent epithelial rests (of Malassez)? A. Cementum B. Dental pulp C. Mantle dentin 6 Stellate reticulum Periodontal ligament 53. One lerminal br anch of the maxillary nerve emerges through whi ch of the fol l owi ng foramina? A. Mental B. Spinosum Supraorbital lnfraorbital Stylomastoid 54. Which of the fol l owi ng are included in the mononuclear phagocyti c system? A. Fibroblasts 8 Osteoblasts Kupffer cel l s Hassall's corpuscles E. Sheathed arteri es of the spleen 55. The sympathetic innervation to structures of the head and neck i s distributed via the A. bloodvessels. B. fascia1 pl anes. C. lymphatic vessel s. hyoid musculature. cranial nerves Il l , VII, IX, and X. -- 56. What volume of ful l y mineralized enamel is comprised of organi c matrix? p 2% 7% C. 10% D. 20% E. 50% 57. The spleen is i n cl osest relation to whi ch of the following? A. Duodenum B. Right kidney & Ascending col on Right lobe of t he liver Inferior surface of the diaphragm 58. Which of the following cells is multinucleated? A. Osteocyte B. Osteoblast C. Osteoclast Q Chondrocyte E. Chondroblast 59. l f t h e r e is an organ thal needs to stretch and r e t u r n to its original shape, then which of the f ol l owi ng epithelia would MOSTlikely be associ at ed with it? . Transitional b. Simple cuboidal C. Simple columnar 0. Simple squamous E . Pseudostratified columnar 60. Cal ci t oni n is produced by which of the following cel l s? Thyroid follicular @ Thyroi d parafollicular Oxyphil of the parathyroid 0. Principal of the parathyroid E, Pars intermedia of the pituitary 61. Whi ch of the following produce surfactant? A. Monocytes 8. Cl ara cells & Gobl et cells Type I pneumocytes Type l l pneumocytes 62. A st ab wound creating a pneumothorax on the lefl si de will usually result i n collapse of which of the following? - The l efl lung only 9. The right lung only C. Both lungs 0. The rib cage on the left side E. The lefl lung and pericardial sac 63. The nucl e0~;l asm is continl:ous with the cytoplasin by hdy of which of the following? A. Nucleolus Microtubules Nuclear pores D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum E. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum 64. Which of the following can be used. on a histologic level, to distinguish between a section of the arch of the aorta and a section of the brachial ai-tery? A. Type of endothelium 9. Width of tunica intima Type of tissue in the tunica adventitia Composition of tissue in the tunica media Type of tissue directly underlying the endothelium 65. Which of the following ligaments i s MOST ofler damaged in a n inferior alveolar nerve block? A. Lateral B. Capsular C. Stylohyoid Stylomandibular Sphenomandibular 66. Which of the following arteries i s usually the most inferior br anch arising from the external carotid artery? A. Superficial temporal Posterior auricular Superior thymi d D. Maxillary E. Lingual 67. Bone tissue i ncreases in Size by which of the following means? A. Action of osteoclasts 6. Mitotic di vi si on of osteocytes Appositional growth by osteoblasts & Interstitial growth by osteoblasts 68. In which of t he following structures are A. Nucl eol emma $ Polyribosomes Golgi apparatus Rough endoplasmic reticulum Smooth endoplasmic reticulum 69. Usually, a peri api cal abscess of a mandibular first premolar dr ai ns lingually into which of the following spaces? Q Sublingual Submandibular Parapharyngeal D. Retropharyngeal E. Pterygomandibular 70. Melanocytes mi grat e to the lamina propria of tht oral mucosa f r om which of the following? A. Myotome 8. Dermatome Scheratome Neural crest E. Rathke's pouch 82. Each of the fobwing is found In the retrodiscal 88. Endochondral Ossification occurs i n the pad of the TMJ EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTI ON! A. Elastic fibers 8. A venous plexus C. Collagen fibers D. Hyaline cartilage E. Loose connective tissue formation of A. all bones. flat bones. long bones. elastic cartilage. E. mesenchymal sheels. 83. ~f l ocal anesthetic solution were deposited in the 89. Each of the following cranial nerves is pteryg~palatine fossa, then which of the associated with the cavernous si nus EXCEPT fol l owi ng would be anesthetized? one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Vl @ Facial 8. Abducens C. Trochlear D. Trigeminal Vag us nerve E. Oculomotor 84. The common hepatic artery is a branch of which vessel? C. Gastric D. Proper hepatic E. Superior mesenteric 85. Which of the following is the motor nerve innervating mast thenar muscles? Axillary E. Muscubcutaneous 86. Which of the following is a uniqua char&iteristic of a mixed serous and mucous gland? 8 Demilunes Striated ducts C. Intercalated ducts D. Myoepithelial cells E. Excessive fat throughout the stroma 87. Which of the following statements BEST describes the zygomaticotemporal and zygornaticofacial nerves? They are A. motor branches of the facial nerve. 8. sensory branches of the frontal nerve. C. motor branches of the mandibular division of V. D. sensory branches of the maxillary division of V. .:_ sensory branches cf :kc csh!haln?lc division of V. 90. Which of the following does a human normally possess before birth but not after? A. Fossa ovalis 8. Hepatic vei n Ligamenturn teres Ductus arteriosis E. Crista terminalis 91. Which of the following parts of the hypophysis i the site of oxytocin release? Q Pars nervosa 8. lnfundibulum C. Pars distalis D. Pars tuberalis E. Pars intermedia 92. The mature dental pulp is composed primarily c which of the following connective tissues? C. Mucoid D. Adipose E. Elastic 93. The internal thoracic artery gives rise to the A. costocervical trunk. 8. posterior intercostal arteries. 6 bronchial and esophageal arteries. superior epigastric and rnusculophrenic arteries. 94. Cell b o d i e s of sympathetic fibers in the nerve of (he pl er y g~i d canal come from which of the fol l owi ng? A. ~ a c i a l nerve Q super i or cervical ganglion Gr eat er petrosal nerve Glossopharyngeal nerve E. Ot i c ganglion 95. Which of the following two muscles prevent food from enteri ng the nasopharynx during swal l owi ng? Myl ohyoi d and the palatoglossus styl ogl ossus and the palatoglossus Tensor tympani and the stylopharyngeus 0. Tensor veli palatini and the levator veli palatini E. Muscul us uvulae and the inferior pharyngeal constrictor 99. A tendon consists mainly of A. reticular f i ber s. Q elastic fiber bundles. C. loose col l agenous bundles. 0. dense, regul ar, collagenous bundl es. E. dense, i rregul ar, collagenous bundl es 100. Lymphatic drai nage from mayil13ry teeth initally passes into whi ch of the following l ymph node groups? Submental Submandibu!ar Jugulodigastric E. Jugulo-ornohyoid 96. Which o f the following correctly matches a part of the uri nary System with its characteristic type of epithelium? A. Large collecting tubule - stratified columnar --- . , U. T -- simple columnar -- C. Urinary bladder - stratified squamous Thi ck limb of Henle -- stratified cuboidal owm man's capsule - simple squamous 97. Which of the following is the cellular organelle that contains many types of hydrolytic enzymes? @ Ly r ~aome B. Centrosome C. Mitochondrion D. Golgi apparatus E. ~ndopl asmi c reticulum 98. Which of the following represents the basis for the topical application of fluorides i n dental caries prevention? A. ~l uori de penetrates the enamel through the lamellae. 8. Keratin Content of the enamel is made more insoluble. C. Fluoride coats the tooth forming a uniform protective barrier. D. The primary cuticle. being less calcified, abs~&S the fluoride. E. Acid solubility of the surface enamel is rejuc2d by the !iaori?e. 1 1. Which of the following represents the vitamin J Which of the following clinical manifestations is necessary for coenzyme A synthesis? observed in an adult patient with an adenoma of the pituitary gland causing hypersecretion of A. Retinol Growth Hormone? B. Pyridoxine C. Folic acid Hypotension Cobalamine Hyperglycernia 9 ,$.D&Z&. Pantothen~c acid Short stature 0. Decreased urine formation E. Decreased basal metabolic rate . . Which of the following statements BEST describes vitamin A's function? A. Prevents oellaara. , . - B. Stimulates collagen synthes~s. Which of the following provides the immediate Promotes absorption of calcium. Promotes differentiation of epithelial energy source for the transport of glucose into intes:inal epithelial cells? cells. E. Maintains the integrity of connective tissues. An example of primary active transport is the movement of glucose into muscle. potassium into a nerve cell. C. proteins across capillaries. D. sodium into an endothelial cell. E. oxygen across the alveolar wall A. NADH NADPH & ~ a ' gradient across the luminal membrane D. H' gradient across the luminal membrane Which of the following is MOSToften associated with transport of fatty ac~ds and bile acids i n blond? W c t by way of mbrane-bound enzyme Albumin Globulin A. glutaminase. 6. phosphatase. phosphorylase. adenylate cyclase. carbonic anhydrase. . Which of the following are the mnjzx target tissues of the calcium regu1ati:lg h o r ~~~o n e s ? A. Intestine, lung, kidney 0. Heafl, duodenum, bone Bone, heart, kidney Bone. intestine, kidney 1106. A dental patient presents with a bluish discoloration of the mucous membranes indicative of cyanosis. This condition i s MOST likely the result of C. Cholesterol D. Sphingolipid E. Mucopclysaccharide , The extracellular edema in patients with cirrhosis of the liver is caused by which of the following? Decreased capillary permeability @ Decreased plasma proteins C. Decreased capillary pressure D. lncreased lymphatic return E. lncreased plasma proteins A. increased Pcoz. y/l. Which of the following vessels contains the B. a decreased hernoalobin concentration. Hl GHESTvi scosi ty blood in the body? C. a decreased red blood cell Aorta concentration. @ increased levels of reduced % Vena cava Vasa recta hemoglobin. D. Pulmonary vein E. decreased blood f l)w to the affected E. FLllmonar;t artery area. 1 I$ The hyperglycemic effect of glucagon is mediated primarily through A. the growth hormone. muscle glycolysis. Q liver glycogeno1ysis. D. inhibition of cortisol action E. enhanced glucose reabsorption by renal tubules. 11 3. Which of the following characterizes the generator potential of a receptor? A. An all-or-none response B. Propagated in a non-aecremental manner Universally present in all nerve tissues Graded according to the strength of the stimulus 114. Methyl xanthines such as caffeine and theophylline enhance lipolysis in adipose tissue by A. inducing adenylate cyclase synthesis. inducing triglyceride lipase synthesis. & ; ; ; i $: ; y c ! i c r A: ; Ai . e m a t ty D. directly activating an intracellular protein kinase. E. enhancing the binding of epinephrine to an extracellular membrane receptor. 11 5. Which of the following can increase the rate of net flux ar diffusion of oxygen through the alveolar membrane? A. Decreasing the temperature lncreasing the cross-sectional area 1 Decreasing the concentration gradient D. lncreasing the path length of diffusion 11 6. At which stage in the process of gene cloning are restriction nucleases used? A. Isolation of mRNA B. Synthesis of double-stranded cDNA C. Insertion of the cDNA into the vector DNA @ Expression of the cloned gene by the bacteria E. Introduction of recombinant DNA into a bacterial cell 117. Which of the following statements BEST describes the primary role of calcium in the activation of cardiac muscle? Cause depolarization of the muscle Couple myosin and actin to form actinomyosin. C. Reduce inhibition of tropomyosin ur the myofilaments. D. Activate myosin molecules so that can interact with actin filaments. 118. Which of the following represents the princ~ allosteric regulator of pyruvate metabolism the liver? A. ATP B. NAD C. Citrate Cyclic AMP Acetyl CoA 11 9. Which of the following compounds is an intermediate in the biosynthesis of cholest~. C. Cholic acid D. Pregnanediol E. Deoxycholic acid During oxidative phosphorylation, the hydrogen ion gradisn! is created ~.;ing ene from which of the foll~';ilng? A. ADP transport ATP synthesis ATP hydrolysiss @ ~educt i on of NAD' E. Electron transfers 121. During nuclear processing of hnRNA to mRNA, the portion of the molecule that is removed is the exon. anticodon. $J intron. codon. E. 5' c;p. \ 122. In the biosynthesis of purines, which of the following is the source of MOST of the nitrogen? A. Urea 0. Ammonia C. Uric acid 6* Pyrimidines Amino acids 123. Which of the following hormones generally increases the rate of anabolic (biosynthetic) reactions? C. cortisol D. Epinephrine E. Somatostatin 124. Which of the follawing statements BEST characterizes simple'diffusion? A. It requires a carrier. B. It is independent of temperature. C. It requires hydrophobic interaction. 0. It requires a semipermeable membrane. I t moves down its concentration gradient. 125. Which of the following membrane components consists of glycerol, phosphate, fatty acids. and choline? Cephalin @ Lecithin C. Ganglioside 0. Cerebroside E. Sphingomyelin 126. Which of the foJlowing amino acids has a hydroxyl group that sometimes participates i n enzyme reactions? C. Glycine D. Proline E. Arginine 127. The enterogastric reflex produces a (an) increase in gastric motility. &\ ecrease in gastric motility. C. decrease in intestinal motility. D. increase in intestinal motility. 128. Which of the following statements BEST describes the activity of DNA ligase? A. Seals single-stranded nicks in DNA. 0. Proofreads the DNA proper base- \ @ pairing. Prevents the polymerase from falling off the DNA. 0 . Removes the RNA primer from thc lagging strand. 129. During the period of isovolumetric contraction, which of the following happew? The semilunar valves are open. & The left ventricular pressure is rising rapidly. C. The aortic pressure is slightly less than the left ventricular pressure. D. The right ventricular pressure is greater than the left ventricular pressure. 130. Linolenic and arachidonic acids serve as precursors to which of the following? . Steroid hormones D. Cholesterol E. Cholecalciferol <31. Transmission of impulses from the motor nerve to the muscle cell regularly produces an action potential in the muscle cell. a graded potential in the muscle cell. hyperpolarization of the muscle cell. D. hypopolarization of the muscle cell. E. alteration in the threshold potential of the muscle cell. 132. Each of the following occurs during swallowing EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION, Larynx is elevated. # Eustacian tubes close. C. Respiration is inhibited. 0. Epiglottus covers the trachea. 133. Wh~ch of the following statements BEST describes the action of antidiuretic hormone? A. Decrease renal filtration fraction B. Increase storage capacity of the bladder C. Decrease permeability of distoconvoluted tubules andlor collecting ducts to water Increase permeability of d~stoconvoluted tubules andlor collecting ducts to water 134. Pernicious ariemia i s frequently associated with a deficiency of A. v~tami ns A and D. B. vitamins C and D. vitamins E and K. & vitamin Bj 2 and folic acid E. thiamine and riboflavin. 135. Which of the following usually has an H' concentration greater than 1 x 10" M? A. Bile 8. Urine Saliva Gastric juice Pancreatic juice 136. Which of the follmwing statements explains why hypewcfitilattc- often prOd~CeS muscle spasms? A. There is too much OZ available. B. The respiratory muscles are fatigued. C. There is not enough phosphate present. Af The loss of CO* has caused alkalosis. The pH of the blood has dropped sharply. 137. After taking part i n fat digestion and absorption, the bulk of the bile salts are A. excreted i n the urine. 8. excreted in the feces. C. ~eabsorbed inlo the lymph. cest r ~yed by bacteria if, the rcl on. 1 & r ea~sor bed into the portal c~rculation. 138. A dental patient begins to experience acute pain and becomes anxious, begins to hypewentilate, and becomes dizzy and shc signs of loss of consciousness. These symptoms are the result of A. elevated arterial Pcoz. & decreased H C O ~ .. decreased arlerial PO2. decreased arterial Pco7 elevated arterial Hco3 . . 139. Which of the following compounds IS direct involved In the action of hormones on t he~r target cells? A. ATP 8. UTP C. AMP (adenosi ne-5' -monophospl ~at~ UDPG (uridine diphosphoglucose) & Cyclic AMP (adenosine-?. 5'- monophosphate) 140. Oxaloacetate plays an important role i n \he body by A. participating i n transacetylat~on reactions. B. parlicipating in transmethylation reactions. reacting with acetyl coenzyme A to form citrate. D. ' reacting with coenzyme A to form acetoacetate. The first step in the utilization of arnlno a c ~d for protein synthesis requires 7' i (& aminoacyl I-RNA synthetase. 8. initiation and elongation factors. C. self-assembly of 305 and SOS ribosomal subunits. D. binding of N-formylmethionyl-tRNA ! the ribosomes. 142. Each of the following is character~st~c of creatinine EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION3 A. Freely filtered Slightly secreted ,$ Slightly reabsorbed I -\ J . !' icduced endogenously :: 4 i onst, raie A - 143. Secondary protein structures, such as beta- pleated sheets, are stabillzed by whlch of Ihe following? Hydrogen bonds Disulf~de bonds C. van der Waals force D. Hydrophobic interactions E. Electrostatic lnteractlons 144. Which of the following statements describes a property or function of salivary lysozymes? They have bactericidal activity. J They bind selectrvely to dental enamel. C. They promote calcium phosphate precipitation. D. They hydrolyze alpha 1-4 linkages in starch. 145. Reduced serum potassium (hypokalemia) might produce which of the f ol l o~~; ~i g results? A. Reduced membrane threshold potential Elevated membrane threshold potential Hyperpolarized cell membrane D. Hypopolarized cell membrane potential E. Hyperactive neuromuscular reflexes 146. Which of the following BEST describes glucose handling by the kidney? A. Transport is blocked by aldosterone. B. Transport occurs in exchange for H'. C. Reabsorption is largest in the distal tubule. D. Transport is primarily by active secretion into the tubular fluid. @ Transport from the lumen of the -9 nephron depends upon ~ a ' transport. 147. Which of the following represents the sensory organs concerned with maintenance of skeletal muscle tonus? Sarcomeres B. Muscle spindles C Gamma efferents D. Pacinian corpuscles E. Golgi tendon orsdns 148. A 0.9-percent s0lutlOn of sod~um chloride 1s isotonic wlth blood because A. blood contains 0.9 percent NaCI. B. the erythrocyte is not permeable to NaCI. C. has the same surface tension as blood it exhi b~ts the same- as blood. E. it has the same salt concentration as b\ood. 149. Which of the following statements BEST describes infants with phenylketonuria7 A. Can synthesize tyrosine. B. Cannot,synthesize phenylalanine C. Have to eat a diet high in phenylalanine. Have a deficiency of the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase. ? 50. Dopamine 1s synthesized i n two steps from which of the following compounds? Choline $ rosined Tryptophan D. Acetyl CoA E. Arachidonic acid 151. Which of the follc.rling staten,r:nts BEST describes hydroxyapatite? A. Has an amphiphilic surface. B. Contains 12 ions per unit cell. C. Solubility decreases as [ HI ] increases. As found in bone and enamel contams no ion substitutions. Has a higher solubility product constant than fluoroapatite. Reduced renal blood flow can cause hypertension by which of the following? /? Release of renin Reflex vasoconstriction C. Ret ent ~on of potassium In blood D. Increaser! octput of e1,ivephrine 153. The amino acid inserted ~n a polypept~de chain 159. Which of the following functional groclp dur~ng protein synthesis is determined by a are essential for a substance l o act as ; complementary relationship between mRNA amphipathic (amphiphilic) molecule? and DNA. tRNA. amino acids. n ribosomal RNA Polar, nonpolar Polar, negatively charged Nonpolar, positively charged D. Cyclic, hydrophi l ~c E. Branched, hydrophlllc 154. A dehydrated dental patient, as a result of 160. Which of the following circumstances v. severe vomiting following over-use of a to produce edema? narcotic analgesic, might present with whlch of the following symptoms? G lncreased tissue oncotlc pressu lncreased plasma oncotlc press @ An increased pulse rate C. ',creased tissue hydrostat~c pre B. An increased blood pressure D. Decreased plasma hydrostatic C. Facial edema pressure D. Distended neck veins E. Decreased venous pressure E. Desire to constantly urinate 161. Which of the following is the major stor 155. Spasticity is BEST characterized by which of form of carbohydrates i n the liver? the following? A. Dextran A. Failure of recruitment Depressed stretch reflexes Exaggerated stretch reflexes D. Presence of fibrillary contractions -- Lcl collagen? A soluble fiber of ground substance & The most abundant protein in the body C. A fibrous protein with a high content of tryptophan D. A globular protein with a high content of hydroxyproline 157. Destruction of the left spinocerebellar tract at T2 would be expected to eliminate positional sense on the A. right side of the body above T2 B. right side of the body below T2. left side of the body above T2. @ left side of the body below T2. 158. Which of the following substances is responsible for initiating cross-bridge cycllng in smooth muscle? Myosin ATPase Myosin kinase C. Myosin reductase D. Myosin phosphatase B. Glucose Amylose Glycogen E. Fructose measured clinically as a predictor of glomerular filtration rate? A. Renin B. lnulin Fructose Creatinine E. Angiotensin 163. Which of the following fatty acids has t greatest number of double bonds? A. Oleic 8. Stearic Palmitic & Arachidonic 164. Which of the following is a component coenzyme required for a transaminal~c process? A. Niacin Thiamine Folic acid Pyr~doxi ne Riboflavin 176. Tapping on the slde of the face elicits a conlraction of the masseler muscle. Th~s IS an example of which of the following kinds of reflex? Stretch 8. Polysynaptic C. Cross extensor D Withdrawal E. Inverse stretch 177. Thyroid secretion is stimulated by which of the followinn? A. Hypoxia 8. Propylthiouracil C. Exogenous thyroid hormone High serum iodide concentration & Prolonged exposure to a cold environment 178. A dental patient is a Type I diabetic and is scheduled for extractions. Which of the following potential clinical complications should MOST concern the dentist? A. Excessive bleeding Frequent desire to urinate & Increased potential for infection D. Inability to obtain anesthesia E. Probability of seizure 179. Sodium permeability (conductance) of an axon membrane is maximal during the A. negative after-potential. positive after-potential. & ascending limb of the action potential. D. descending limb of the action potential. 180. The conversion of a circulating vitamin D metabolite to its MOST active form takes place in the A. bone. intestinal mucosa 181. Voluntary overventilation of lungs r es ~~l t s in which of the following? Decreased hydrogen ion concentratlr in blood B. lncreased hydrogen i on concentrallo i n blood C. Marked Increase ln pulmonary uplakt of oxygen D. lncreased oxygen carrylng capac~t) c venous blood E. Decreased oxygen concentrat~on In arterial blood 182. Which of the following rned~ates d~ssol ut ~ori the f ~bri n clot during vessel repa~r' / Plasmin Factor l l (thrombin) Factor Il l (tissue thromboplastin) D. Factor Xlll (fibrin stabilizing factor) 183. Which of the following represents the compound that contains an active (l ab~l e) methyl group? A. Serine B. Creatine S-adenosvl meth~oni ne . 5,10-methylene tetrahydrofolate 184. Production of phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase is stimulated by (g z;;;;;,, C. aldosterone. C. somat ~t ropi n. 185. Which of the following molecules is commo NAD' and FAD? Arginine $ Adenine C. Aspartic acid 0. Asparagine E. Al an~ne 186. Oxytocin is responsible for which of the following actions? A. Regulating blood calcium levels B. Preventing formation of golters Preventing release of i nsul ~n Causing contract~ons of uterine srnl muscle during labor 187. Which of the following represents the pressure change when the diaphragm and external ~ntercostal rnuscles simultaneously contract? A. Alveolar volume decreases 6 Alveolar pressure increases lntrapleural pressure decreases lntrapleural pressure increases 188. Sucrose will MOST directly contribute to the add~t ~on of wh~ch of the following to dental plaque? A. Mucins Calcium ions & Polysaccharides D. Salivary protein E. Glycolytic enzymes 189. Reverse transcri ~tase is used in vitro to make A. tRNA from cDNA. 8. rRNA from cDNA. C. cDNA from rRNA. , R, mRNA from cDNA. @ cDNA from mRNA. 190. The primary defect in myopia is related to which of the following? - A. Unequal curvature of refracting material of the cornea Eyeball length relative to refractive power of the lens C. Deficiency of vitamin A for conversion to rhodopsin D. Loss of elasticity of crystalline lens E. Detachment of the retina 191. The basic principles for sequencing DNA by the Sanger procedure derive from which of the following processes? @ Translation B. Transcri ~ti on C. ~ e ~ l i c a t i o n D. Reverse Transcription 192. Which of the following represents a bleeding disorder due to lack of Factor VIII? Thrombosis & Hemophilia A C. Thrombocytopenia D. Von Willebrand disease 193. Each of the following condlt~ons alters the rate of product formation by an enzyme EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. pH 8. Temperature Ionic strength & lsoelectric po~nt E. Substrate concp-' -' ,on 194. Polypeptide hormones generally exert the11 effect by binding to whlch of the follow~ng? A. lntracellular receptors and stimulating biotein synthesis B. Receptors on the cell membrane and stimulating protein synthesis C. lntracellular receptors and altering the specific activity of certain enzymes Receptors on the cell membrane and altering the specific activity of certain enzymes 195. A dental patient with left heart failure might show signs of dyspnea when placed in the supine position for which of the following reasons' A. Edema caused by excessive pulmonary capillary oncotic pressure B. Edema caused by excessive systemic capillary oncotic pressure Edema caused by excessive pulmonary capillary hydrostatic pressure D. Edema caused by excessive systemic capillary hydrostatic pressure E. Ineffective pulmonary lymphatic function 196. In evaluating an EKG of a patient, it was observed the PR interval was increased. This observation represents A. slow conduction of impulses through the S-A node. B. rapid conduction of impulses through the ventricle. @ slow conduction of impulses through the A-V node. D, rapid conduction of impulses through the atria. E. slow repolarizat~on of the atria 1. Which of the following represents the MOST 6. Each of the following is necessary for viral reliable criterion for pathogenicity of antigen recognition by CD4' T-helper cells staphylococci? EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? @ Hemolysis 6. Pigment production C. Coagulase production D. Mannitol fermentation E. Liquefaction of gelatin 2. Which of the following forms of bacterial gene transfer is the LEASTsusceptible to DNase and does NOT require ce:'-to-cell contact? A. Transition 6. Conjugation 0 Transduction D. Transformation A. Viral replication in host cells 6. Cleavage of viral proteins into small peptides C. Transport of viral peptides to a cell surface by MHC Class II molecules D. Binding of the T cell's TCR to a MHC Clas II bound viral peptide Internalization of the virus (or viral protein) by an antigen presenting cell 7. Which of the following produces a bacterial toxi that attaches to presynaptic nerves and blocks the release of acetylcholine? A. Helicobacter pylon Closfridium djfticile &) Clostridium botulinum 0. Staphylococcus aureus E. Pseudomonas aeruginosa 3. Which of the following organisms is acid-fast'? Mycobactenurn avium 9 Treponems pallidurn C. Borreliarecurrentis 8. Which of the following is the PRIMARY site of z D. Staphylococcus aureus E. Streptococcus pneumoniae 4. Which of the following conditions is characterized by a reduction in size and a condensation of nuclear material? @ Pyknosis 8. Apoptosis C. Karyolysis 0. Hypoplasia E. Karyorrhexis 5. An important early event in the chemotactic process is cellular adherence to vascular endothelium. The upregulation of endothelial adhesion molecules (ICAM-1 and VCAM-1) is in part a response to @ cytokine stimulation. 8. lysozyme production. C. mast cell degranulation. D. antibody binding to endothelial Fc receptors. E. protease inhibition Sy serua anti-proteases. Ghon complex? - A. Trachea and bronchus Parenchyma of the lower lobes & Parenchyma of the upper lobes D. Trachea and hilar lymph nodes E. Subpleural parenchyma and hilar lymph nodes 9. Bactericl iipopc:ysaccharide contains each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Lipid A 8. Teichoic acid C. Core polysaccharide 0-specific side chain & Keto-deoxy-octanoate 10. Which of the following is an example of naturally-acquired passive immunity in human. A. Tetanus immunization B. Injection of gamma globulin a Placental transfer of antibody D. Antibody produced during recovery from measles 23. Which of the following is characterized by individual, blister-like lesions affecting specific dermatomes and usually causing intense, burning pain? A. Variola Measles & Herpes zoster D. Infectious mononucleosis E. Hand-foot-and-mouth disease 24. Collagen degradation that i s observed in chronic periodontal disease can result directly from the action of collagenase enzymes of oral microbial origin. Such enzymes have been demonstrated as component systems of Porphyroplonas species. ' $ Lepthothrix bucca,js. C. Entamoelja gingivalis. D. Enterococcus faecalis. E. Veillonellaspecies. 25. Hepatitis C virus infection is MOSTofien transmitted through A. sexual contact. B. oral secretions. blood transfusions. the fecai-oral route. E. respiratory droplets. 26. The microflora of the healthy gingival sulcus is predominantly A. spirochetes and yeasts. B. gram-positive facultative rods and spirochetes. C. gram-positive facultative cocci and filamentous bacteria. @ gram-negative anaerobic rods and fusobacteria. E. gram-negative anaerobic cocci and gram- positive facultative cocci. 27. lrnmunologic injury that involves the activation of complement as an important event i n producing damage to tissue is found in which of the following reactions? A. Delayed type hypersensitivity B Anaphylactic type hypersensitivity @ Immune-complex mediated hypersensitivity C. .&.ntibod;-dependent cell-modiated cytotoxicity 28. Which of the following represents the MOST numerous leukocytes found in gingival crevicular fluid? 'Q Monocytes 6. Neutrophils C. Plasma cells D. 8-lymphocytes E. T-lymphocytes 29. Which of the following groups of cells are characteristic of a chronic inflammatory process? A. Neutrophils, mast cells, and basophils B. Neutrophils, eosinophils, and histiocytes @ Lymphocytes, plasma cells. and macrophages D. Basophils, eosinophils, and Reed- Stemberg cells E. Histiocytes, Reed-Sternberg cells, and mast cells 30. Which unique aspect of cariogenic strains of Streptococcus mutans sets them apart from other oral acidogenic organisms? Tendency to form chains Secretion of proteolytic enzymes Extracellular polysaccharide made from glucose Formation of water insoluble glucans from sucrose Four equivalents of acid formed per mole of glucose 31. Which of the following is chiefly an extravascular event? A. Stasis H yperemia Chemotaxis D. Margination E. Pavementing 32. Spontaneous gingival bleeding seen in acute leukemia is MOST likely a result of which of the following? Thrombocytopenia Q von Willebrand disease C. Hypoprothrombinernie u. Vascular fragility E. Factor VII deficiency 45. A bone lesion with radiopaque structures radiating from the periphery suggests which of the following? A. Osteosarcoma Osboblastoma Multiple myeloma D. Giant cell tumor E. Osteitis deformans 46. A virus associated with the induction of cervical carcinoma is which of the following? A. Adenovirus B. C-type virus C. Varicella zoster virus Epstein-Bar virus E. Human papillomavirus 6 47. Which of the following types of necrosis is particularly characteristic of pyogenic infections? Q Caseous B. Gummatous C. Coagulative D. Liquefactive E. Enzymatic fat 4 4 h associated with Epstein-Barr virus? T-cell lymphoma Kaposi's sarcoma Hepatocellular carcinoma Nasopharyngeal carcinoma E. Squamous cell carcinoma of the uterine cervix 49. Which of the following conditions might be an initial manifestation of early, acute HIV infection? A. Kaposi's sarcoma 8. Wasting syndrome C. Oral hairy leukoplakia Mononucleosis-like syndrome ~neumocystis cannii pneumonia 50. Rough pneumococci grown in the presence of DNA from dead smooth pneumococci develop capsules. This is an example of bacterial A. mutation. B. dominance. C. conjugation. transduction. transformation. 51. Each of the following denotes a malignant neoplasm EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? ($ Adenoma Hepatoma C. Lymphoma D. Melanoma E. Seminoma 52. Secondary syphilis is characterized by each of the following EXCEPTone. Which one is this EXCEPTION7 A. Cutaneous lesions Positive VDRL test Development of a gumma D. Mucous membrane lesions E. Presence of spirochetes in lesions 53. Most cases of encephalitis are caused by which of the following? A. Fungi @ Viruses C. Protozoa v. Bxtena E. Rickettsia 54. Primary tissue transplants, such as allogeneic skin, kidney or heart, are MOST commonly rejected because of A. induction of armed host macrophages. B. immediate hypersensitivity ritactions. C. humoral immune responses to cell-surface alloantigens. @ cell-mediated immune responses to cell- surface alloantigens. E. humoral and cell-mediated responses to intracellular tissue-specific antigens. 55. An 18-year-old male patient sustains a compound fracture of the femur. Twenty-four hours later the fragments are manipulated in order to better align before splinting. The patient dies suddenty. The most likely reason for his sudden death is A. hypovolemic shock. myocardial infarction. 6 fat embolism. D. pulmonary thromboem~o!ism. E. air embolism. 56. Prevotella intermedia is first detectable in the oral cavity A. at birth. by adolescence. . in the presence of dental caries. D. immediately before periodontal disease appears. E. long after periodontal disease appears. 57. A patient has oral candidiasis but otherwise is in good health. Which of the following drugs is the BEST choice for treating this patient? @ Nystatin 8. Vancomycin C. Penicillin D. Tetracycline E. Streptomycin 58. The newly formed. highly vascularized connective tissue associated with inflammation is known as which of the following? A. Scar B. Angioma C. Granuloma D. Purulent exudate @ Granulation tissue 59. Vasodilation and increased vasopermeability lasting f?r several days in an area of inflammati?n indicate which of the following? A. Thrombosis B. Release of bradykinin C. Hageman factor activation Formation of granulation tissue Endothelial cell damage and disruption 60. A patient with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus presents with nasal obstruction, proptosis, and palatal perforation. These clinical findings are MOSTconsistent with which of the following? A. Candidiasis @ Mucormycosis C. Blastomycosis D. Histoplasmosis E. Coccidioidomyccsis 61. Certain staphylococci. Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Escherichia coli and streptococci share as a property the fact that they A. are gram-positive. B, are strict anaerobes. C. fail to ferment glucose. do not grow on nutrient agar. are common in hospital-acquired infections. 62. B-cell immunodeficiency can be treated with injections of A. activated complement components. 6. T-helper cell adjuvants. C. natural killer cells. gamma+lobulin. 63. Which of the following cells are INCREASED in number in the bloodstream in the case of allergy or parasitic infection? A. . Basophils Eosinophils Neutmphils D. Atypical lymphocytes E. Nucleated erythrocytes - 1 U-t . sterilization method for a heat-labile item to be used in a surgical procedure? Dry heat Autoclaving C. Ethylene oxide D. Saturated chemical vapor E. Immersion in chemical sterilant 65. The MOST effective means of preventing disease transmission in the dental office is based on which of the following concepts? A. Asepsis B. Disinfection @ Sterilization D. Barrier techniques E. Universal precautions 66. Which of the following conditions is diagnosed by karyotyping? A. Gout B. Cystic fibrosis Tay-Sach disease Neurofibromatosis Turnets syndrome 99. Each of the following is a feature of acute pancreatitis EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTIOW Fibrosis Hemorrhage C. lnflammatibn D. Fat necrosis E. Parenchymal necrosis 100. Each of the following statements concerning malignant hypertension is correct EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTIOK! @ Patients will live a normal life span if untreated. B. Patients have markedly elevated levels of plasma renin. C. Fatients are generally younger than those with benign hypertension. D. The corresponding renal lesion is known as malignant nephrosclerosis. E. It may arise de novo or appear -- - hypertension. 11 - - - . - - -;--- nant xl Association Joint Commission on National Denlal Examinations All rinh'c -^"^""" ~ l l test i t ems refer to permanent teeth unl ess "primary" is specified. AII test i t ems relating t o occl usi on refer t o Class I cani ne and mol ar relationship unl ess otherwi se specified. Terms such as "normal" or "ideal" are synonymous wi th the above definition. 101. The maxillary canine is MOST likely to A, which of the following anomalies? & Agenesis A dwarfed root A lingual tubercle A peg crown form E. Root bifurcation 102. In the intercuspal position, the distal marginal ridge of a maxillary first premolar i s in contact with which of the following mandibular structures? A. The distal cusp ridge of the facial cusp on a first premolar @ The mesial cusp ridge of the facial cusp . on a second premolar C. The distal cusp ridge of the facial cusp on a second premolar D. The mesial cusp ridge-of the lingual cusp on a second premolar E. The mesial cusp ridge of a canine 103. In an ideal intercuspal position, the distoincisal aspcct of a mandibular central incisor opposes which structure of which maxillary incisof? A. Lingual fossa of a lateral B. Mesial marginal ridge of a lateral C. Distal marginal ridge of a central Mesial marginal ridge of a central & Lingual fossa of a central 104. The erupted dentition of a normally developed 7-year-old child usually consists of A. 8 primary and 8 permanent teeth. B. 10 primary and 10 permanent teeth. 12 primary and 8 permanent teeth. 18 primary and 6 permanent teeth. 20 primary teeth. 105. Which of the following represents the tooth in the primary dentition that normally erupts immediately after the maxillary lateral incisor? A. Mandibular lateral incisor B. Mandibular canine Maxillary canine 4 Maxillary first molar Mandibular first molar 106. The mandibular molars normally exhibit the same number of root branches as which of the following? Max~llary first premolars B. Maxillary second premolars C. Mandibular first premolars D. Mandibular second premolars E. Maxillary molars 107. Which of the following is normally exhibited by maxillary second premolars? A. Two roots B. A mesial concavity of the crown C. A facial crown contour that is greatly \ inclined to the lingual - . - D. A lingual height of contour in the cervical third of the crown @ A crown that is wider faciolingually thz- mesiodistally 108. Which of the following primary teeth is MOST likely to have an oblique ridge? A. Maxl l aty canine Maxillary first molar Maxillary second molark- Mandibular first molar Mandibular second molar 109. The GREATEST influence of Bennett movement is potentially on the . ,. A. posterior teeth during prottISi0n. B. posterior teeth i n the retruded contact position. C. posterior teeth during maximum intercuspation. @ working side teeth during l ateal excursion. . 110. During endodontic therapy, one will usually fi nd two pulp canals in which of the following? A. Mandibular canine 5. Distofacial root of a maxillary molar Distal root of a mandibular first molar Mesial root of a mandibular first molar Lingual root of a maxillary first molar 111. Which of the following represents the developmental groove between the distofacial cusp and the distal cusp of a mandibular first molar'? A. Facial Distal Mesiofa.cial 112. Which of the foliowing anatomic structures effectively divides the temporomandibular joint into two separately functioning compartments? @ Disc 0. - Capsule C. Condylar head D. Glenoid fossa E. Articular eminence 11 3. Which of the following are notable differences between primary and permanent dentitions? A. Cervical ridges of permanent teeth a:a more pronounced: 8. Crowns of primary incisors are longer compared with mesiodistal diameters. %C. Root trunks of primary teeth are less pronounced. @, Roots of pemanent teeth are longer . and slimmer. 11 4. In the intercuspal position, which of the following anterior teeth has the potential of contacting both anterior and posterior - .- - antagonists? A. Maxillary lateral incisor Mandibular lateral incisor Maxillary canine Mandibular canine 11 5. During an endodontic procedure on Tooth #21. clinical symptoms lead the dentist to suspect the presence of a second pulp canal. Which direction is the MOST likely location for the suspected canal? A. Facial Distal Lingual D. Mesial 11 6. When compared to the maxillary central incisor, the maxillary lateral incisor normally has a root which A. is more blunt at its apex. 8. tapers less toward the apex. C. is more triangular shaped in cross section at the neck. @ is relatively longer in relation to its incisogingival crown length. 117. On the crown of the mandibular canine, the height of contour of the labial surface is normally located in the same horizontal third as which of the following? Q Cingulum 8. Labial developmental depressions C. Mesial contact area of the same tooth D. Distal contact area of the same tooth E. Mesial height of contour of the maxillary canine 118. Which of the following is a distinguishing characteristic of a mandibular lateral incisor? @ The incisal edge follows the arch curvature in relation to the faciolingual axis. 8. The incisal edge IS perpendicular to the faciolingual axis. C. The cervical line curvature is greater distally than mesially. - ' D The incisal edge is lingual to the root bisector. E. The mesiodistal dimension of the facial surface is narrower than that of a mandibular central incisor. 11 9. Which of the following features is found on a maxillary first premolar but not on a maxillary second prewolaf? -- A. A single pulp canal A short central groove @ A long central groove A short lingual cusp 120. In a normal occlusion, the distolingual cusp of a maxillary second molar occludes with which of the following molars? A. Central fossa of a mandibular second 6. Central fossa of a mandibular third C. Marginal ridges of a mandibular first and a mandibular second @ Marginal ridges of a mandibular second and a mandibular third E. Mesial fossa of a mandibular third 121. Which of the following muscles has an important influence on the function of the mandible, although it is not generally considered a muscle of mastication? A. Omohyoid 6. Geniohyoid C. Mylohyoid D. Digastric E. Sternocleidomastoid 122. When examining a patient for the first time, the dentist notices that there is an abnormally wide mandibular incisor. On further examination, only three mandibular incisors, including the abnormally wide one, are.evident. This condition is BEST described as which of the following? Mesiodens $ Fusion Concrescence D. ' Gemination E. Dilaceration 123. Which of the fol!swing anatomic features of a maxillary l ate~al i nci xr will MGST likely complicate root planing? Root convexity Mesial concavity Distolingual groove D. Root bifurcation E. Extreme distal cervical line curvature 124. The contact areas of anterior teeth are incisal to the middle thirds in each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION! Distal contact of the maxillary canine B. Mesial contact of the maxillary canine C. Mesial contact of the maxillary lateral incisor D. Mesial contact of the mandibular lateral incisor E. Distal con:acl of the mandibl~lar lateral incisor 125. In a normal Class I relationship, in which of the following ways is each maxillary posterior tooth positioned in relation to its corresponding mandibular tooth? End to end More facially and distally More facially and mesially D. More linguaily and distally E. More lingually and mesially 126. Each of the following factors affects heights of cusps and depths of fossae on restorations EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION! A. Curve of Spee 6. Intercondylar distance C. Vertical overlap of anterior teeth D. Horizontal overlap of anterior teeth E. Steepness of the articular eminence 127. On which surface would one expect to see the first evidence of resorption on the root of a primary incisor? Facial @ Lingual Mesial D. ' Distal 128. When viewing mandibular border movements in the frontal plane, which number in the illustration below represents the postural position? 129. In a protrusive movement, the contacting surfaces of the incisors are A. the lingual of the mandibular and the incisal edge of the maxillary. 0. the facial of the maxillary and the incisal edge of the mandibular. @ the lingual of the maxillary and the incisal edge of the mandibular. Dr the facial of the mandibular and the incisal edge of the maxillary. 130. Which of the following represents the structure on the Grown of a maxillary canine that is located immediately to the mesial of the rnesiolingual fossa? Lingual ridge Mesial marginal ridge Distal marginal ridge D. Distolinal~al fossa E. Mesial developmental groove 131. Which of the following muscles of mastication is primarily responsible for synchronizing the movement of the condyle and the articular disc? A. Masseter 6. Ternporalis Medial pterygoid Lateral pterygoid 132. When compared to a maxillary first molar, the roots of a maxillary second molar A. are longer. 0. are more divergent. C. are fewer i n number. have less potential for fusion. & are greater i n distal inclination. 133. When compared to the primay mandibular first molar, the primay mandibular second molar nor r r i al l y exhibits a GREATER number of which of the following'? A. Oblique ridges Roots @ Cusps Cervical ridges E. Trans.rerse ridcas 134. Where is the distal contact area of a maxillary canine usually located? a In the middle third 8. In the incisal third C. In the cervical third D. At the junction of the incisal and middle thirds 135. Regarding actions of the TMJ, rotation of the condyle primarily occurs in which of the following joint spaces? A. posterior 136. ~ h i c h ' o f the following describes the contact relationship between a maxillary central incisor and a maxillary lateral incisor? @ Contact is offset to the lingual. Contact is centered incisocervically. C. Lingual embrasure is larger than the facial embrasure. D. lncisal embrasure is the largest of all the embrasures. 137. Which of the following describes the roots of the mandibular first premolars? & Often bifurcated Flattened faciolingually Broader facially than lingually Frequently sharply curved distally 138. The presence of inamelons in a 10-year-old patient suggests which of the following conditions? A. Fluorosis & Malnutrition Malformation Anterior open bite Retained primary teeth 139. In a normal occlusion, the lingual cusp of the maxillary second premolar occludes with which fossa of which mandibular tooth? Tooth - Fossa 0 Second premolar Distal B. Second oremolar Mesial C. First moiar Central D. First molar Mesial 140. Which of the following teeth is MOST likely to exhibit 3 pulp canals? Tooth #4 D. . Tooth #27 141. On which of the following surfaces of permanent teeth is pit and fissure caries MOST likely to occur? Facial surfaces of maxillary first molars Lingual surfaces of maxillary first molars C. Facial surfaces of mandibular first premolars D. Lingual surfaces of mandibular first molars E. Proximal surfaces of mandibular incisors 142. Moving the mandible from a maximum intercuspal position to a retruded contact position usually results in 8 increased occlusal vertical dimension. decreased occlusal vertical dimension. C. decreased horizontal overlap: D. increased vertical' overlap. E. increased rest position. 143. The facial cusp tip of a mandibular second premolar has the potential to contact which of the following maxillary cuspal inclines in a protrusive movement? @ Distofacial of first premolar B. Mesiofacial of second premolar C. Distofacial of second prernolur D. Mesiofacial of first molar E. Distofacial of first molar 144. When e&rnining the normal mandibular arch from a sagittal view, what inclination of the teeth can be observed? A. Anterior teeth are distally inclined; posterior teeth are mesially inclined. 8. Both anterior and posterior teeth are distally inclined. @ Both anterior and posterior teeth are mesially inclined. D. Anterior teeth are mesially inclined; posterior teeth are distally inclined. E. Anterior and posterior teeth are straight. 145. Which of the following represents the incisor crown for which, from the facial aspect, it is MOST difficult to distinguish right from left? A. Maxillary central 8. Maxillary lateral Mandibular central & Mandibular lateral 146. A mandibular first molar usually has how many roots and canals? Roots Canals ' I Two Three Two D. Three Three 147. Which of the following roots of teeth would MORE frequently contain a single root canal? Maxillary incisors Mandibular incisors C. Maxillary first premolars D. Mesiobucca: root, maxillary molars E. Mesial root, mandibular molars 148. A linguogingival groove is MOST likely to be present on the crown of which of the following incisors? A. Maxillary central B. Maxillary lateral C. Mandibular central D. Mandibular lateral 149. Each of the following muscles elevates the mandible U(CEPTone. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Temporalis Masseter 6 Medial pterygoid Lateral pterygoid 150. In a normal occlusion, the lingual cusps of the mandibular teeth oppose which landmark of the maxillary dentition? A. Lingual gr oovg and/or central fossae B. Lingual grooves and/or marginal ridges C. Lingual grooves and/or occlusal embrasures Lingual grooves andor lingual @ embrasures 151. The central groove of a maxillary molar crosses the oblique ridge to connect which of the following pits? A. Distal and distofacial 6. Central and distofacial Q Central and facial Central and distal Central and lingual 152. In a faciolingual section of the pulp chamber. two pulp horns are normally visible in specimens of which of the following teeth? A. Maxillary incisors 8. Mandibular incisors C. Maxillary canines Mandibular canines Maxillary premolars 7 - 153. Which of the following mandibular mol a~ proximal crown surfaces normally exhibits the LARGEST size? @ Mesial of the first Distal of the first C. Mesial of the second D. Distal of the second E. Mesial of the third 154. In primary first molars, which portion of the crown is shorter occlusogingivally? A. Mesial 6. Distal C. Midfacial 3. :didlingual 155. Wqch of the following developmental grooves i s a distinguishing characteristic of the maxillary first premolar? A. Central & Distofacial Mesiolingual Mesial marginal 156. Which primary molar has a crown resembling a permanent premolar, but the root form is typical of a permanent molar? @ Maxilary first Maxillary second C. Mandibular first D. Mandibular second 157. On the crown of a mandibular first premolar, which of the following grooves extends acros, the marginal ridge and onto the mesial surface? A. Mesial 6. Mesial marginal C. Mesiofacial triangular 6 Mesiolingual triangular Mesiolingual developmental 158. Which of the following ridgestrepresents the linear elevation that extends from the distoincisal angle to the cingulum? A. Distal 8. Lingual Cervical Distolingual . Distal marginal 159. When Tooth #9 is in lingual crossbite, which the following would BEST indicate the locatic of facets due to attrition? A. Linguoincisal #9, labiolingual#23 an( #24 6. -1inguoincisal #9, linguoincisal #24 ar #25 Labioincisal#9, linguoincisal #23 an( #24 D. Labioincisal#9, labioincisal #24 and #25 160. Which of the following arc the LAST prima.; teeth to erupt? A. Maxillary canines 6. Mandibular canines Mandibular first molars Maxillary second molars Mandibular second molars 161. In a normal occlusion, a mediotrusive (non- working) interference can occur between which of the following cusps? @ Maxillary and mandibular supportin( Maxillary and mandibular guiding C. Maxillary guiding and mandibular supporting D. Maxillary SI I >porting and mandibula guiding 173. Which of the following represents the cusp that is never present on the crown of a maxillary second or third molar? A. Mesiofacial B. Mesiolingual C. Distofacial Distolingual Carabelli 174. The occlusal table of a mandibular first molar normally exhibits which of the following ridges? A. 2 oblique 6. 4 marginal C. 3 transverse 4 triangular s triangular 175. Which of the'following mandibular movements is indicated in the illustration below? Protrusive Right laterai, laterctusive (working) side C. Left lateral, laterotrusive (working) side 0. Right lateral, mediotrusive (non-working) side E. Left lateral, mediotrusive (non-working) side 176. Each of the following root surfaces on a mandibular first molar normally exhibits a longitudinal groove EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? Surface Root A. Mesial Mesial 6. Distal Mesial Mesial Distal ($ Distal Distal 177. In an ideal intercuspal position, the distofacial cusp of the mandibular first molar contacts which structure of which maxillary molar(s)? Maxillarv molar(sl Structure First Central fossa First FAesial fossa First Distal fossa First and second Occlusal embrasure % Second and third Occlusal embrasure 178. Which of the following represents the MOST powerful muscle of mastication? C. Geniohyoid 0. Lateral pterygoid E. Sternocleidomastoid 179. Which of the following primary teeth has a facial cervical ridge so distinctly prominent t make it a unique tooth? A. Maxillary central incisor 6. Mandibular canine 4 Maxillary canine Mandibular first molar Maxillary second molar 180. Bilateral contraction of which of the followi~ muscles acts to protrude the mandible? A. Masseter & Temparalis Medial pterygoid Lateral pterygoid Anterior digastric 181. The mesial contact of a mandibular canin located in (at) the middigthird. incisal third. cervical third. D. junction of the incisal and middle E. junction of the middle and cervica thirds. 182. The muscle fibers that extend into the lingual frenum are from which of the following muscles? A. Mylohyoid 13. Geniohyoid & Hyoglossus Styloglossus Genioglossus 183. Which of the following illustrations represents the facial view of a mandibular right canine? 184. The oblique ridge of the maxillary molars extends between which two cusps? A. Mesiofacial and distofacial (3 Mesiolingual and distolingual Mesiolingual and distofacial Mesiofacial and mesiolingual E. !*?esiofacial and distolingual 185. Which of the following represents the root branch qf the mandibular molars which is normally the SHORTEST i n length? A. Mesial of the first & Distal of the first Mesial of the second Distal of the second 186. Which premolar frequently has only one pulp horn? Maxillary first & Mandibular first Maxillary second 0. Mandibular second 187. A primary mandibular second molar differs from a permanent mandibular first molar in tha it A. is darker in color. 8. - is larger in size. C. has four cusps. has a larger occlusal surface. has roots that are more divergent. 188. On the crown of the mandibular first molar, the facial cusp ridge of the ML cusp originates at the cusp tip and normally termmates at which of the following? Lingual groove &) Halfway down the facial surface Halfway down the lingual surface D. Mesial portion of the central groove E. Mesiolinguo-occlusal point angle area 189. In a protrusive movement, the maxillary left central incisor can potentially come in contact with which of the following mandibular teeth? #22 and #23 #23 and #24 #24and#25 D. #25 and #26 E. #26 and #27 190. Which of the following statements BEST describes the function of the ligaments associated with the TMJ? They serve to inhibit the normal masticatory cycle. & protect s~rrmunding and supponing tissues from damages. C. assist musculature in producing movement D. establish normal resting position. E. dictate intercuspal position of the mandible. 191. The arrow on the illustration below represents the path taken by the A. distolingual cusp of a first molar. mesiofacial cusp of a second molar. mesiblingual cusp of a second molar. distofacial cusp of a second molar. E. distolingual cusp of a second molar. 192. The distolingual cusp of the right mandibular first molar is fractured by excessive contact with the opposing maxillary molar during right lateral excursion. Which of the following is the MOST likely location of the interference? A. Lingual surface of a maxillary lingual cusp 9. Facial surface of a maxillary lingual cusp Facial surface of a maxillary facial cusp & Lingual surface of a maxillar/ facial cusp E. Occlusal table of the maxillary molar 193. The crown of the maxillary canine normally exhibits a lingual pit. & a lingual ridge. a linguogingival groove. D. a linguogingival fissure. E. lingual developmental depressions. 194. Which of the following teeth has its mesial marginal ridge located more cervically than its distal marginal ridge? @ Mandibular first premolar 8. Mai l l ary first premolar C. Maxillary first molar D. Primary mandibular first molar E. Mandibular second molar 195. In a three-cusped mandibular second premolar, which of the following correctly arranges the cusps from LARGEST to SMALLESl? A. Lingual, mesiofacial, distofacial Lingual, distofacial, mesiofacial Facial, rnesiolingual, distolingual Facial, distolingual, mesiolin~.. 196. An extruded mandibular right third molar (maxillary third molar extracted) .will MOST often impede which mandibular movement? Protrusive B. Retrusive C. Right lateral D. Left lateral 197. When viewed from the incisal aspect, each of the following features of an incisor is visible EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? & Cingulum Lingual fossa Cervical line Marginal ridges E. Mesiofacial developmental depression 198. When viewed sagitally, which of the following teeth have their long axes at an angle LEAST perpendicular to the occlusal plane? A. Maxjllary incisors 8. Mandibular canines C. Mandibular premolars 6 Maxillary premolars Mandibular first molars 199. The occlusal view of a normal dental arch segment i s shown below. The arrow points to which of the following mandibular teeth? Primary right first molar Primary left first molar C. Permanent right first premolar D. Permanent left second premolar 200. Which of the following teeth is wider faciolingually than mesi odi sta~l ~? Mandibular first premolar Maxillary first molar C. ~andi bul ar first molar D. Mandibular second molar