Mock CAT - 5 Test Booklet Serial Number: 7 7 0 3 6 3

INSTRUCTIONS
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immediately inform the invigilator/supervisor. You will be provided with a replacement.
How to answer:
1. This test has three sections which examine various abilities. These 3 sections have 75 questions in all with
each section having 25 questions. You will be given two and half hours to complete the test. In distributing
the time over the three sections, please bear in mind that you need to demonstrate your competence in all
three sections.
2. Directions for answering the questions are given before some of the questions wherever necessary. Read
these directions carefully and answer the questions by darkening the appropriate circles on the Answer
Sheet. There is only one correct answer to each question.
3. All questions carry 4 marks each. Each wrong answer will attract a penalty of 1 mark.
4. Do your rough work only on the Test Booklet and NOT on the Answer Sheet.
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After the Test:
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leave the hall until the invigilator announces. “You may leave now.” The invigilator will make the announcement
only after collecting the Answer Sheets from all the candidates in the room.
2. You may retain this Test Booklet with you.
Candidates giving assistance or seeking/receiving help from any source in answering questions or copying
in any manner in the test will have their Answer Sheets cancelled.

MCT-0009/08 Test Form Number: 005

 SECTION – I

Number of Questions = 25

DIRECTIONS for Questions 1 to 4: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The line graph provides information about the weight(in ‘000 tonnes) of eight different crops namely
Rice(R), Wheat(W), Pulses(P), Maize(M), Bajra(B), Jowar(J), Potatoes(PO) and Onions(O) produced in India.

The bar graph provides information about the weight(in ‘000 tonnes) of the crops produced in ten different
states of India namely Haryana(H), Uttar Pradesh(U), Punjab(P), West Bengal(W), Madhya Pradesh(MP),
Gujarat(G), Tamil Nadu(T), Andhra Pradesh(A), Karnataka(K) and Maharashtra(M).

Assume that these eight mentioned crops are the only crops produced in India and that these ten mentioned
states are the only states in India that produce crops.

30 20 18
16 15
25 14
WEIGHT 15 13 12 13
WEIGHT

20 25 11
9
15 19 10 7
18 17 16
10
13 11 5
5 9
0 0
R W P M B J PO O H U P W MP G T A K M
CROPS STATES

1. If W, P, B and M are the only crops that are produced in the states of H, U, P and T, then the weight of
the crop P produced in the state G as a percentage of the total weight of the crops produced in the
state G cannot be more than
(1) 88.75% (2) 80.5% (3) 86.25% (4) 81.25% (5) 85.75%

2. If the crops PO and O are produced in exactly 3 states and no other crop is grown in these 3 states, then
the state in which the crop PO is definitely not produced is
(1) G (2) M (3) MP (4) U (5) H

Additional Information for questions 3 and 4:

Maximum possible number of crops are produced in equal quantities(by weight) in all the given states.

3. What is the number of crops that are not produced in equal quantities in the given states?
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 1 (5) 2

4. At most what weight(in ‘000 tonnes) of the crop W is produced in the state MP?
(1) 2.4 (2) 2.8 (3) 3.8 (4) 3.4 (5) 4.8

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DIRECTIONS for Questions 5 to 8: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
An entrance test “JAT” was conducted for admission to a B-school called “SLRI”. The test had 15 questions
divided under three sections each having five questions. Each question had five answer options among which
only one was a correct answer. Students were awarded twelve marks for marking every correct answer option.
If no more than two incorrect answer options are marked in any section, 2 marks per incorrect answer option
are deducted from candidate’s total score. For marking every subsequent incorrect answer option in that
section, 4 marks per incorrect answer option are deducted from candidate’s total score. No marks are deducted
if a candidate does not mark any answer option of a question.
Immediately after the test each of the three coaching institutes A, B and C published their own list of correct
answer options to all the questions in the test. A few days after that, “SLRI” published the list of correct
answer options to all the questions in “JAT”. The lists of correct answer options published are given in
Table - I. “SLRI” also declared that out of the five candidates namely Rohit, Megha, Amar, Feroz and Richa
the three who had more marks than at least two of the other candidates, were eligible for the second round of
selection process.
The answer options marked by each of the mentioned candidates are given in Table - II.
(“NA” means that the candidate did not mark any answer option of that question).
Table – I
Sections Question Number A B C SLRI
1 a a b a
2 b b b b
Section-1 3 c a a a
4 c a c c
5 e e e e
6 d d d d
7 d d b d
Section-2 8 d c c c
9 a a a a
10 c c c c
11 a a a a
12 a c d a
Section-3 13 b c c c
14 d d d d
15 e e b e
Table – II
Sections Question Number Rohit Megha Amar Feroz Richa
1 a a a a a
2 c b NA b NA
Section-1 3 c a a c a
4 c c a a a
5 d e e e e
6 d d d d d
7 e d d d d
Section-2 8 d c c NA c
9 a a a a a
10 b NA c c NA
11 a a b a a
12 a b a a b
Section-3 13 a c c c c
14 d d d NA d
15 b e e b b

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5. Based on the lists of correct answer options published by the three institutes, all the five candidates
calculated their total marks. For any question, if and only if the answer option marked by a candidate
matched with the answer options published in atleast two of the institutes, the candidate considered it to
be the correct answer option otherwise it was considered to be the incorrect answer option. What could
have been the highest marks obtained in section-3 of “JAT” by any of the five candidates?
(1) 16 (2) 46 (3) 44 (4) 32 (5) 30

6. From the previous question, refer the method that the candidates applied for calculating their individual
total marks in “JAT”. After comparing their individual total marks with the total marks of each of the
other four candidates, some of the candidates expected to become eligible for the second round of
selection. Who amongst all such candidates were definitely eligible for the second round of selection
based on the list of correct answer options published by “SLRI”?
(1) Megha, Amar and Richa (2) Megha and Amar (3) Amar and Richa
(4) Amar, Feroz and Richa (5) Megha

7. Two months after it published the list of correct answer options, “SLRI” deleted question numbers 3, 8
and 15 from “JAT”. The school now calculated the total scores of the five candidates based on their
answer options to the remaining 12 questions. Who is/are the student(s) whose eligibility status (either
eligible or ineligible) for the second round of selection, got changed because of this?
(1) Richa (2) Amar (3) Both Amar and Richa
(4) Feroz (5) Cannot be determined

8. Amongst the three institutes, the institute whose list of correct answer options had the maximum number
of matches with the list of correct answer options published by “SLRI”, was rated as the best institute by
the credit rating agency, KRISIL. Which of the institutes was rated as the best institute?
(1) Both A and B (2) Both B and C (3) C
(4) A and C (5) B

DIRECTIONS for Questions 9 to 12: Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Answer each
question using the following instructions:
Mark (1) If the question can be answered by using the statement A alone but not by using the statement B
alone.
Mark (2) If the question can be answered by using the statement B alone but not by using the statement A
alone.
Mark (3) If the question can be answered by using either of the statements alone.
Mark (4) If the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not by either of the
statements alone.
Mark (5) If the question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements.

9. A company launched five products namely X, Y, K, Z and W in five different months of the year 2007
January, March, June, August and May such that only one product was launched in each month. X and
W were launched in the months that have names starting with the same alphabet. Z was not the last
product that was launched and W was neither the second nor the third product that was launched. In
which month Z was launched?
A: Y was not the second or the last product that was launched.
B: K was not the third or the last product that was launched.

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10. Carol has three different kinds of pets dogs, cats and rabbits. The number of pets of each kind with
Carol is more than 1 but is not more than 6. If the total number of pets with Carol is 12, then what is the
number of rabbits with Carol?
A: The number of dogs is same as the number of cats and the number of rabbits is not more than the
number of dogs.
B: The number of cats is three more than the number of dogs and the number of rabbits is less than the
number of cats.

11. The position of the line segment AB at time t = 0 is shown in the figure given below, where 0° < x < 90°.
The point A is fixed and the line segment AB is rotating at a uniform rate in the X-Y plane in an
anticlockwise direction. In which of the four quadrants will the line segment AB lie at time t = 30
seconds?

x° X
A

A: The angular distance covered by the line segment AB in every 5 seconds is 615°.
B: The angular distance covered by the line segment AB in every 10 seconds is 640°.

X
12.
A C B

X is stationed at point B facing point A on a straight road AB. Y is stationed at a point between A and
B facing point B. X and Y start moving towards each other simultaneously and both of them reverse the
direction in which they are moving once they reach the respective ends of the road. Do A and B meet
facing each other when they meet for the second time?
A: Y is standing between the points C and B. C is the mid point of AB and the ratio of the speeds of
X and Y is 4:5.
B: Y is standing between the points A and C. C is the point which divides AB in the ratio 1:2 and the
ratio of the speeds of X and Y is 4:1.

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DIRECTIONS for Questions 13 to 16: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Aseem, Ayaan and Samantha are students who appeared for the board examinations in March 2008. Each of
the three mentioned students appeared for tests in six different subjects namely Maths, Social Studies, Science,
English, Hindi and Commerce. The following table provides information about the marks obtained by each
student in every subject as a percentage of the aggregate number of marks obtained by that student in all the
six subjects.

Maths Social Studies Science English Hindi Commerce

Aseem 12% 20% 18% 10% 24% 16%
Ayaan 10% 10% 36% 24% 5% 15%
Samantha 20% 20% 10% 16% 10% 24%

The marks lost by each of the three students in each of the six subjects are due to five different reasons namely
P, Q, R, S and T. The following bar graph provides information about the marks lost by each student due to
each of the mentioned reasons as a percentage of the aggregate marks lost by that student in Maths. This holds
true for all the given six subjects.

40% 36%
Percentage

30% 22% 20%

20% 12% 10%
10%
0%
P Q R S T
Reasons
The marks lost by Assem, Ayaan and Samantha in each subject as a percentage of the marks obtained by each
one of them in that subject is 40%, 25% and 20% respectively.
13. If the total marks obtained by Samantha, Ayaan and Aseem in all the subjects is in the ratio 1: 2: 5, then
the marks obtained by Ayaan in Social Studies as a percentage of aggregate marks obtained by Samantha
in Social Studies and Aseem in Commerce is
(1) 20% (2) 16% (3) 15% (4) 18% (5) 24%
14. If the marks lost by Aseem, Samantha and Ayaan in English is the same, then the marks lost by Ayaan
in Science due to reason R as the percentage of the total marks obtained by Aseem in all the subjects is
(1) 2% (2) 0.6% (3) 1% (4) 1.5% (5) 0.2%

Additional Information for questions 15 and 16:

The marks obtained by Aseem in Maths is not less than the marks obtained by Ayaan in Social Studies and
marks obtained by Ayaan in English is not less than the marks obtained by Samantha in Hindi.
15. If the marks obtained by Samantha in Commerce is 144, then at least how many marks is obtained by
Aseem in Science?
1 1 3 1 1
(1) 25 (2) 40 (3) 48 (4) 32 (5) 37
4 4 4 2 2
16. If the marks lost by Ayaan in English due to reason Q is 45, then the marks lost by Samantha in Maths
due to reason T cannot be more than
(1) 50 (2) 32 (3) 36 (4) 40 (5) 45

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DIRECTIONS for questions 17 to 21: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Mr. Alfonso has six cars such that each car is of a different brand. The cars with Mr. Alfonso are of one out of
the six brands Chevrolet, Ferrari, Honda, Mercedes, BMW and Hyundai. In the months of January and February
in the year 2008, Mr. Alfonso drove only one car a day. The following table gives details about the days in
January and February 2008 on which he did not drive a car of each of the given six brands. Given that
January 1, 2008 was a Tuesday.

Chevrolet Sunday Monday Wednesday Friday

Ferrari Tuesday Thursday Saturday Monday
Honda Sunday Wednesday Thursday Friday
Mercedes Tuesday Monday Wednesday Thursday
BMW Friday Monday Saturday Tuesday
Hyundai Sunday Tuesday Wednesday Saturday

The number of days in January and February 2008 on which he drove a car of brand Chevrolet, Ferrari,
Honda, Mercedes, BMW and Hyundai is denoted by CH, FE, HO, ME, BM and HY respectively.
It is also known that HO > ME > CH > BM > HY > FE.
The following pie – chart gives details about the number of days in January and February 2008 on which he
drove a car of brand Honda, BMW and Hyundai.

Percentage_Break up

Honda, 25%

Others, 50%

BMW, 15%

Hyundai, 10%

17. Given that the number of days in January 2008 on which Mr. Alfonso drove the car of brand Honda is
the maximum. What is the number of days in February 2008 on which he drove the car of brand
Honda?
(1) Zero (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) Four
18. If Mr. Alfonso drove the car of brand Ferrari only once on each of the possible different days of a week
in the given two months, what is the total number of days in the given two months on which he drove
the car of brand Chevrolet?
(1) 11 (2) 12 (3) 13
(4) 10 (5) Cannot be uniquely determined.
19. Which of the following statements CANNOT be true?
(1) The difference between the number of days on which Mr. Alfonso drove the car of brand Mercedes
and Chevrolet is 3.
(2) Mr. Alfonso drove the car of brand Mercedes only in January 2008.
(3) Mr. Alfonso drove the car of brand Ferrari only in January 2008.
(4) The difference between the number of days on which Mr. Alfonso drove the car of brand Chevrolet
and Ferrari is 9.
(5) More than one of the above given statements.

6 005
Additional Information for questions 20 and 21:
Mr. Alfonso drove the cars of the brand Mercedes only in February 2008.

20. The difference between the total number of days on which Mr. Alfonso drove the car of brand Mercedes
and Chevrolet in January and February 2008 is
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4
(4) 1 (5) Cannot be uniquely determined.

21. The total number of Fridays on which Mr. Alfonso drove the car of brand Ferrari cannot be more than
(1) Five (2) Four (3) One (4) Two (5) Three

DIRECTIONS for questions 22 to 25: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J are 10 friends. These 10 friends are divided into three different groups namely
group X, group Y and group Z. Each group must contain at least two friends.

Additional Information Given:

1. B and J are in the same group.
2. D, E and F are in different groups.
3. A is in group X.
4. C is not in group Y and D is not in group Z.
5. H, I and C are in the same group.

22. If C and D are in the same group, then which of the following friends can never be in the group which
has exactly three friends?
(1) B (2) E (3) F (4) G (5) Both (2) and (3)

23. If F is in group X and G is not in group Y, then how many of the following pairs of friends cannot be in
the same group?
I. (J, F)
II. (D, G)
III. (C, E)
IV. (D, I)
V. (B, E)
VI. (A, H)
(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 2 (5) 1

24. Which of the following persons can never be in the group that has six friends?
(1) A (2) G (3) D
(4) Both (1) and (2) (5) (1), (2) and (3)

25. If there are exactly five friends in group Z, then which of the following persons is definitely in group Y?
(1) J (2) D (3) E (4) G (5) None of these

005 7
 SECTION – II

Number of Questions = 25

DIRECTIONS for Questions 26 to 28: Given below is a passage, whose paragraphs have been jumbled up.
Read the paragraphs carefully and arrange them in a sequence to answer the questions given at the end of the
passage.

PASSAGE – 1

1. September 11 shocked many Americans into an awareness that they had better pay much closer attention
to what the US government does in the world and how it is perceived. Many issues have been opened
for discussion that were not on the agenda before. That’s all to the good.

2. Such perceptions are not changed by the fact that, on September 11, for the first time, a western country
was subjected on home soil to a horrendous terrorist attack of a kind all too familiar to victims of
western power. The attack goes far beyond what’s sometimes called the “retail terror” of the IRA, FLN
or Red Brigades.

3. Post-September 11 surveys in the Arab world reveal that the same reasons hold today, compounded
with resentment over specific policies. Strikingly, that is even true of privileged, western-oriented sectors
in the third-world.

4. In the most sober establishment journal, Foreign Affairs, Samuel Huntington wrote in 1999: “While the
US regularly denounces various countries as ‘rogue states,’ in the eyes of many countries it is becoming
the rogue superpower ... the single greatest external threat to their societies.”

5. For such reasons, the post-September 11 rantings of Osama bin Laden - for example, about US support
for corrupt and brutal regimes, or about the US “invasion” of Saudi Arabia - have a certain resonance,
even among those who despise and fear him. From resentment, anger and frustration, terrorist bands
hope to draw support and recruits.

6. We should also be aware that much of the world regards Washington as a terrorist regime. In recent
years, the US has taken or backed actions in Colombia, Nicaragua, Panama, Sudan and Turkey, to
name a few, that meet official US definitions of “terrorism” - that is, when Americans apply the term to
enemies.

7. Today we do ourselves few favours by choosing to believe that “they hate us” and “hate our freedoms”.
On the contrary, these are attitudes of people who like Americans and admire much about the US,
including its freedoms. What they hate is official policies that deny them the freedoms to which they too
aspire.

8. The president is not the first to ask: “Why do they hate us?” In a staff discussion 44 years ago, President
Eisenhower described “the campaign of hatred against us [in the Arab world], not by the governments
but by the people”. His National Security Council outlined the basic reasons: the US supports corrupt
and oppressive governments and is “opposing political or economic progress” because of its interest in
controlling the oil resources of the region.

8 005
9. It is also the merest sanity, if we hope to reduce the likelihood of future atrocities. It may be comforting
to pretend that our enemies “hate our freedoms,” as President Bush stated, but it is hardly wise to ignore
the real world, which conveys different lessons.

10. To cite just one recent example: in the August 1 issue of Far Eastern Economic Review, the internationally
recognised regional specialist Ahmed Rashid writes that in Pakistan “there is growing anger that US
support is allowing [Musharraf’s] military regime to delay the promise of democracy”.

26. Which of the following would be the third paragraph of the sequentially arranged passage?
(1) Paragraph 6 (2) Paragraph 1 (3) Paragraph 8
(4) Paragraph 10 (5) Paragraph 5

27. Which of the following would be the opening paragraph?

(1) Paragraph 7 (2) Paragraph 1 (3) Paragraph 3
(4) Paragraph 9 (5) Paragraph 2

28. Which of the following is likely to continue the passage further?

(1) An international Gallup poll in late September found little support for “a military attack” by the US
in Afghanistan. In Latin America, the region with the most experience of US intervention, support
ranged from 2% in Mexico to 16% in Panama.
(2) The current “campaign of hatred” in the Arab world is, of course, also fuelled by US policies
toward Israel, Palestine and Iraq. The US has provided the crucial support for Israel’s harsh military
occupation, now in its 35th year.
(3) The September 11 terrorism elicited harsh condemnation throughout the world and an outpouring
of sympathy for the innocent victims. But with qualifications.
(4) They presumably also welcome the “Bush doctrine” that proclaims the right of attack against potential
threats, which are virtually limitless. The president has announced: “There’s no telling how many
wars it will take to secure freedom in the homeland.” That’s true.
(5) Threats are everywhere, even at home. The prescription for endless war poses a far greater danger
to Americans than perceived enemies do, for reasons the terrorist organisations understand very
well.

DIRECTIONS for Questions 29 to 31: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.

PASSAGE – 2

Structuralism is a theory of humankind in which all elements of human culture, including literature, are
thought to be parts of a system of signs. Critic Robert Scholes has described structuralism as a reaction to
“’modernist’ alienation and despair.”

European structuralists such as Roman Jakobson, Claude Lévi.-trauss, and Roland Barthes (before his shift
toward poststructuralism) attempted to develop a semiology, or semiotics (science of signs). Barthes, among
others, sought to recover literature and even language from the isolation in which they had been studied and
to show that the laws that govern them govern all signs, from road signs to articles of clothing.

Structuralism was heavily influenced by linguistics, especially by the pioneering work of Ferdinand de Saussure.
Particularly useful to structuralists was Saussure’s concept of the phoneme (the smallest basic speech sound
or unit of pronunciation) and his idea that phonemes exist in two kinds of relationships: diachronic and
synchronic. A phoneme has a diachronic, or “horizontal,” relationship with those other phonemes that precede
and follow it (as the words appear, left to right, on this page) in a particular usage, utterance, or narrative—

005 9
what Saussure, a linguist, called parole (French for “word”). A phoneme has a synchronic, or “vertical,”
relationship with the entire system of language within which individual usages, utterances, or narratives have
meaning—what Saussure called langue (French for “tongue,” as in “native tongue,” meaning language). An
means what it means in English because those of us who speak the language are plugged into the same system
(think of it as a computer network where different individuals can access the same information in the same
way at a given time).

Following Saussure, Lévi-Strauss, an anthropologist, studied hundreds of myths, breaking them into their
smallest meaningful units, which he called “mythemes.” Removing each from its diachronic relations with
other mythemes in a single myth (such as the myth of Oedipus and his mother), he vertically aligned those
mythemes that he found to be homologous (structurally correspondent). He then studied the relationships
within as well as between vertically aligned columns, in an attempt to understand scientifically, through ratios
and proportions, those thoughts and processes that humankind has shared, both at one particular time and
across time. Whether Lévi-Strauss was studying the structure of myths or the structure of villages, he looked
for recurring, common elements that transcended the differences within and among cultures.

Structuralists followed Saussure in preferring to think about the overriding langue, or language of myth, in
which each mytheme and mytheme-constituted myth fits meaningfully, rather than about isolated individual
paroles, or narratives. Structuralists also followed Saussure’s lead in believing that sign systems must be
understood in terms of binary oppositions (a proposition later disputed by poststructuralist Jacques Derrida).
In analyzing myths and texts to find basic structures, structuralists found that opposite terms modulate until
they are finally resolved or reconciled by some intermediary third term. Thus a structuralist reading of Milton’s
Paradise Lost (1667) might show that the war between God and the rebellious angels becomes a rift between
God and sinful, fallen man, a rift that is healed by the Son of God, the mediating third term.

Although structuralism was largely a European phenomenon in its origin and development, it was influenced
by American thinkers as well. Noam Chomsky, for instance, who powerfully influenced structuralism through
works such as Reflections on Language (1975), identified and distinguished between “surface structures” and
“deep structures” in language and linguistic literatures, including texts.
29. It can be inferred that structuralism primarily seeks to
(1) isolate individual elements from the whole.
(2) understand the unity permeating in and through the diversity of human culture.
(3) resolve opposing terms in human culture.
(4) eliminate the study of the isolated elements of human culture.
(5) prove that myths can be scientifically explained.
30. Which of the following statements cannot be inferred from the passage?
A. The main aim of structuralists was to find that third element which would resolve opposition.
B. Poststructuralism was opposed to structuralism.
C. Structuralism would have died a premature death if the concept of phoneme had not been elucidated
by Saussure.
(1) Only A (2) A and C (3) B and C
(4) All of the above (5) None of the above
31. The relationship between Levi strauss’s work and that of Saussure can be said to be?
(1) Strauss refined Saussure’s theory.
(2) Strauss showed that anthropology was connected to linguistics.
(3) Strauss showed the superiority of langue over paroles.
(4) Strauss applied Saussure’s theory to find commonality in structures.
(5) Strauss provided evidence which proved that Saussure’s theory was universally applicable.

10 005
DIRECTIONS for Questions 32 to 35: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.

PASSAGE – 3

Leslie A. Adelson, whom Andreas Huyssen has accurately called “the leading scholar in the field of ‘Turkish-
German literature,’” seeks in her latest book to redefine those often arbitrarily applied terms “Turkish” and
“German.” Adelson adamantly advocates for understanding “Turkish” and “German” less as historically
loaded labels and more as the names of two living cultures that exist essentially inside one another. Although
her title includes the phrase “A New Critical Grammar of Migration,” much of the secondary material, analysis,
and primary texts are not so new at all. Instead, Adelson has based this book on at least three previous journal
articles and one conference paper.Readers familiar with Adelson’s previous articles will find themselves re-
reading key passages from those publications transplanted verbatim into the book manuscript. In addition,
they will find that the chief aims of the articles have much in common with the book’s goals as well. Knowing
this research history, one central question emerged for me as a reviewer: what would motivate readers to
devote time to a book that at first glance simply seems to repeat previously-published material? As I read
further, however, more and more valid reasons became clear.

One general answer might be that, although Adelson obviously incorporates previous research, The Turkish
Turn just as clearly indicates steady development and productive expansion of theoretical ideas that address
viewing Turkish literature as an inextricable part of German culture. One more specific answer is that Adelson’s
new twist more intently considers “the literature of Turkish migration as part of an evolving national tradition
of Holocaust memory in Germany” . By reorganizing and supplementing old material, the author, in her own
words, attempts to broach the “relative novum in German literature” of the “sustained combination of story
lines about Turkish migration and twentieth-century German history” .

In most of her works on Turkish-German literature, Adelson contends in one formulation or another that
German and Turkish experiences since World War II and again since reunification share more similarities
than differences . In her 2000 article as well as the present book, she identifies her central frustration with
current German Studies: “Despite the fact that ensuing migrations and births have made Turks the largest
minority in unified Germany, they are rarely seen as intervening meaningfully in the narrative of postwar
German history” . As far back as her 1994 publication “Opposing Oppositions: Turkish-German Questions in
Contemporary German Studies,” and as recently as a paper presented in 2004, “Hello Germany! Toward a
New Critical Grammar of Migration,” Adelson has been proposing innovative methods for confronting non-
constructive labels that have encased Turks and Germans in the language of stereotype.

In her latest study, she reiterates her scholarly interest in overturning ways that other scholars have defined the
relationship between Turkish-German citizens and German society as the dominant culture. To name one
example, Adelson demands her readers to reject boldly the prevalent idea that Turkish literature is “situated in
a predictable sense ‘between two worlds’” . According to the author, taking this first step and subsequently
performing the suggested style of reading would allow scholars to produce a more complete picture of the
Turkish experience as a fundamental part of German history. In addition, this enlightened reading highlights
ways that Turkish literature “touches” German history as incontestably as German literature meets German
history. As in previous texts, the author again aims to expand the analytical paradigms scholars have used to
study German-Turkish relationships in this century. Expanding current methods of analysis involves, for
Adelson, devising methodological alternatives in order to produce new readings of narratives from authentic
Turkish voices, including Aras Ören, Emine Sevgi Özdamar, Zafir Senoçak, and Feridun Zaimoglu.

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In order to study anew previously analyzed works such as Der Hof im Spiegel (2001), Gefährliche
Verwandtschaft (1998), and Kanak Sprak (1995), Adelson broadly splits the study into three thematically-
divided chapters with subdivisions featuring theoretical and literary analysis. In its own way, each of the
divisions skillfully encourages and sustains her far-reaching intention of “undoing accepted ideas and methods
of analysis and dichotomies after the Third Reich” , as well as imparting an undeniable “Turkish inflection of
German memory” . In the first chapter, “Dialogue and Storytelling,” she focuses on the medium of dialog and
its corresponding opposite, silence, in various texts to intimate specific ways that Turks have begun to join the
conversation about the German past. By embracing or remaining just outside dialogs with Germans, Turkish
characters in the texts leave ambiguous impressions. On one hand, they have begun finding their own words
for the Nazi past, while on the other, they simultaneously desire and yet do not desire to join these conversations.
Focusing on this key issue, Adelson emphasizes the common ground that Germans and Turks share.
In contexts like these, according to Adelson, Germans and Turks produce “touching tales,” and thereby
reveal their overwhelming similarities.

Chapter 2 carries the ambiguous title “Genocide and Taboo,” which once again causes Turkish history and
German history to touch. In this chapter, Adelson contemplates the “crisis of historical consciousness” in the
twentieth century, but especially since the 1990s, when the “culture of memory [underwent] a radical shift” .
Focusing on the novel, Perilous Kinship (2001), Adelson describes how the intertwined worlds at work in the
story represent the “entangled tale of German taboos” . In the spirit of shattering old stereotypes, the second
part of the chapter elucidates how, for example, mention of the Holocaust in Kanak Sprak essentially “defies
myths of the lovable oppressed Turk” and rejects images of the silenced, victimized “defiant young Turks”.
Adelson deftly uses these examples to support her claims that the new triangulated formation between Germans,
Jews, and Turks “releases conventional victim/perpetrator labels” . Not limiting the discussion of genocide to
the Holocaust, Adelson also presents and analyzes texts that consider the Turks’ double memory work of
dealing with the Armenian genocide as well as the Holocaust in Germany.

Chapter 3, “Capital and Labor,” illuminates the role that economics and labor have played in forming the
conventional picture of the Turk in Germany. Adelson cites theories that make migrant laborers into emblematic
subjects of a global economy only to ask readers to challenge such outdated tropes . In a discussion that spans
popular perception of the Turkish Gastarbeiter to popular perception of headscarves as “related to a gendered
critique of violence” , Adelson leaves no stone unturned in her profound consideration of the formation and
sustainability of Turkish stereotypes in Germany in this century. The chapter’s combination of extensive
theory and close readings encourages viewing literature and literary theory at the “crossroads of German
national history and Turkish migration” . Adelson’s three all-embracing chapters strongly imply that this
intersection marks the point of a major, yet ignored or underestimated, national German transformation.

32. Adelson does not

(1) Advocate understanding “Turkish” and “German” as historically loaded labels.
(2) Propose innovative methods for confronting non-constructive stereotypical labels.
(3) Incorporate previous research in the Turkish Turn.
(4) Reorganize and supplement old material in the Turkish Turn.
(5) View turks as intervening meaningfully in post war German History.

33. The primary purpose of Adelson is to

(1) Refute the domination of German culture.
(2) To refute the idea that Turkish literature and German literature are disjoint.
(3) To prove that significant overlaps exist between Turkish and German culture.
(4) To prove that Turks have played a significant role in German history.
(5) To prove that the use of stereotypes-Turkish and German- should be examined.

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34. The closest meanings of the words-novum and trope-as used in the passage are
(1) New and outdated
(2) New and metaphor
(3) Game and Figure of speech
(4) Cult and metaphor
(5) Trend and Figure of speech

35. According to Adelson, Germans and Turks are similar because

(1) Both leave ambiguous impressions while talking about the past.
(2) Turks have begun to join German conversations.
(3) Germans have started accommodating Turks in their dialogues.
(4) Both carry similar poignant impressions about the past.
(5) The words used by both are similar in various contexts.

DIRECTIONS for Questions 36 to 39: Upstream & Downstream Arguments:

In the following questions a passage is given with four statements following it. Read the passage and on the
basis of the information available decide if:

a. If the argument is an upstream argument

b. If the argument is a downstream argument
c. If the argument is a lateral argument
d. If the argument is irrelevant to the passage.

Then from the answer choices choose the option where the statements have been labeled correctly.

Example of upstream, downstream and lateral arguments.

Passage: Ram was keen to get admission into the IIM’s - the top notch management institutions in India.

Upstream Argument: If the passage is a direct conclusion or inference that can be drawn from the statement,
the statement is an upstream argument

E.g. Ram studied very hard for the entrance exam for the IIMs and even joined the best coaching class for the
entrance exam.

One gets to know why Ram studied very hard from the passage. Therefore in case of an upstream argu-
ment the passage logically follows the question statement

Downstream Argument: If the statement is a direct conclusion or inference that can be drawn from the
passage then the argument is a downstream argument.

E.g. Getting admission into an IIM would be positive for Ram’s Career.

This would clearly be a downstream argument. Here, the statement happens to logically follow the passage.

Lateral Argument: If the statement supports the passage but is neither upstream nor downstream, then it is a
lateral argument

E.g. The IIMs hold an entrance exam called CAT.

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Here the statement adds to the passage and supports it. However, it is neither an inference nor a conclusion.
Such an argument is called a Lateral Argument. Also, a lateral argument is not related to the central idea of
the passage but is not completely irrelevant to the topic of discussion.

36. The interview is an essential part of a successful hiring program because, with it, job applicants who
have personalities that are unsuited to the requirements of the job will be eliminated from consideration.
i. Apart from relevant qualification and experience, a candidate who is hired for a job should ideally
have a personality that matches the demands of the job for him or her to perform effectively.
ii. In a recent case where a senior executive in a Fortune 500 company was hired and fired within a
short span of time it was found that the executive had been hired without having undergone a
formal interview.
iii. Different jobs call for different personalities – the aggressive go-getter, the pensive deliberator, the
quick thinking decision-maker and so on.
iv. These days many companies are outsourcing the recruitment of their personnel to professional
hiring agencies who are experienced in modern recruitment practices.
(1) badc (2) bacd (3) acbd (4) abcd (5) cbad

37. A recent spate of launching and operating mishaps with television satellites led to a corresponding
surge in claims against companies underwriting satellite insurance.
i. Most television satellites are produced in such small numbers and operate under such unpredictable
circumstances that they are necessarily heavily insured.
ii. The manufacturers of satellite television operate in an oligopolistic market framework.
iii. Insurance premiums shot up, making satellites more expensive to launch and operate, in turn,
adding to the pressure to squeeze more performance out of currently operating satellites.
iv. The use of satellites in television broadcasting has gained importance as viewers have become used
to real-time exposure to events happening around the globe.
(1) bdac (2) cabd (3) cdba (4) adbc (5) dcab

38. When widespread tax evasion forces the government to raise income tax rates, causing the tax burden
on non-evading taxpayers to become heavier, this encourages even more taxpayers to evade income
taxes by hiding taxable income.
i. The government does not face this peculiar problem when it comes to collection of corporate taxes,
duties and levies.
ii. It is important for the government to realize its income tax collection targets to meet its revenue
goals in a fiscal year.
iii. Usually, when the government establishes income tax rates in order to generate a certain level of
revenue, it does not allow adequately for revenues that will be lost through evasion.
iv. When people evade income taxes by not declaring taxable income, a vicious cycle results.
(1) badc (2) bcad (3) dacb (4) bcda (5) acda

39. It is unlikely for an individual starting a new company to be skilled in the diverse business areas the
company needs to excel in.
i. It is important for a new company to simultaneously pursue successful strategies in different business
areas, viz. marketing, technology and management
ii. Companies founded by groups are more likely to succeed than companies founded by individuals.
iii. Recent statistics on start-up ventures floated over the last two years show that more ventures have
failed in the technology space than in any other area.
iv. New companies are more likely to succeed when their founders are from diverse backgrounds and
can provide adequate skills in marketing, management and technical abilities.
(1) cbda (2) bcda (3) adcb (4) abcd (5) cadb

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DIRECTIONS for Questions 40 to 42: In each question, there are five sentences or parts of sentences that
forms a paragraph. Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence that is/are correct in terms of grammar and
usage. Then choose the most appropriate option.
40. A. Thatched roofs catch the fire
B. in the summer. Send a word to me
C. if this happens. I shall definitely
D. give an ear to the message. The messenger
E. who brings the message will be rewarded.
(1) A and C (2) D only (3) C and E (4) A, C and D (5) A, B and E

41. A. One of the most important line of evidence

B. for the inheritance of intelligence
C. in humans comes of from studies of
D. similar twins which were separated
E. shortly after birth and reared in different homes.
(1) A, B and C (2) B and E (3) C only (4) C, D and E (5) A, D and E.

42. A. Whatever his shortcoming in other

B. fields, at least in the Geography it was not
C. possible to fault his performance
D. for he rightly said that Switzerland
E. lies among France, Italy Austria and Germany.
(1) A, B and D (2) A and D (3) B, D and E (4) C and D (5) Only E

DIRECTIONS for Questions 43 to 45: In each question, there are three to five sentences. Each sentence has
pair/s of words/phrases that are highlighted. From the highlighted words / phrase(s) select the most appropriate
word(s) / phrases to form correct sentences. Then from the options given choose the right sequence
43 A smooth final rehearsal should augur [A] / auger [B] well for the grand finale.
Various oral [A] / aural [B] effects preceded the migraine headache.
The boys spent the night in jail because no one would stand bail [A] / bale [B] for them.
The debater refused to cede [A] / seed [B] the point to her opponent.
The police fight a [A] / the [B] relentless battle against crime.
(1) AAABA (2) BBBAB (3) ABAAA (4) BAAAA (5) BBAAA

44. In the rainy season, raincoats and umbrellas really sell [A] / cell [B].
Her constant chatter greats [A] / grates [B] on my nerves.
The shelf was made of gneiss [A] / nice [B].
We could hear the horses naying [A] / neighing [B] in the vicinity.
The behaviour patterns of teenagers are [A] / is [B] very unpredictable these days.
(1) BAABA (2) BBBAB (3) BAABB (4) AAABA (5) ABABA

45. She needed to pear [A] / pare [B] down her monthly expenses.
We heard the grown [A] / groan [B] of the hinges as the crane lowered the weighty cargo into the
vessel’s hold.
After a momentary paws [A] / pause [B] the audience broke into cheers.
The aircraft [A] / aircrafts [B] were flown out once the storm had subsided.
The central part of the hangar [A] / hanger [B] is of a cylindrical shape consisting of five steel arches
covered with concrete.
(1) AAABA (2) BBBAA (3) BBBBA (4) ABABA (5) BBAAB

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DIRECTIONS for Questions 46 to 50: Fill up the blanks, numbered (46), (47) ..... up to (50), in the passages
below with the most appropriate word from the options given for each blank.
I feel that we magicians, especially mentalists, feel that we have to apologize for creating fantasy. That is why
there is so much debate in mentalist circles on how one should structure, or even have, a statement ___(46)___
that what we are doing isn’t real. Sometimes this ranges from the goofy to the clever to the misleading. I think
all approaches are wrong. It is ironic to me that the one group of people trying to ___(47)___ peoples’
feelings of astonishment, wonder, and magic are magicians. We should be at the front of the line promoting
magic and wonder. We should not be making excuses for creating surprise, joy, and magic. We should be the
ones, not tearing other peoples’ beliefs down but building up the ___(48)___ value that a sense of wonder can
bring to people. Yet, so many magicians are so scared to create a magic that is so strong that people are really
getting into it. It is my opinion that most people are thirsty to experience real wonder. I know that I am. I got
into magic like many of you did: I had an experience with a magician that brought a sense of wonder to me.
This feeling was like a white flash of brilliance that seared into my mind a sense that there is something more
than the ___(49)___ “real” world. This event happened to me around six years old and it placed within me a
desire to learn more about magic and it led me to become a magician. My personal ___(50)___ about how
magic should be presented is very different from my early years. I want to make people experience what I felt
when I experience magic for the first time.

46 (1) celebrating (2) gruntling (3) proclaiming

(4) impounding (5) floundering

47. (1) sabotage (2) aggrandise (3) permeate

(4) corroborate (5) ratify

48. (1) pecuniary (2) therapeutic (3) underlying

(4) perimetric (5) esoteric

49. (1) surreal (2) execrable (3) sorcerous

(4) prosaic (5) theurgic

50. (1) desire (2) affliction (3) paradigm

(4) quandary (5) ambitions

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 SECTION – III

Number of Questions = 25

DIRECTIONS for questions 51 to 54: Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Answer each
question using the following instructions:
Mark (1) If the question can be answered by using the statement A alone but not by using the statement B
alone.
Mark (2) If the question can be answered by using the statement B alone but not by using the statement A
alone.
Mark (3) If the question can be answered by using either of the statements alone.
Mark (4) If the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not by either of the
statements alone.
Mark (5) If the question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements.

51. What is the remainder when (P6 + P4 + Q) is divided by 3, where ‘P’ and ‘Q’ are natural numbers?
A: Both P and Q are prime numbers and each divides (P + Q) completely.
B: Both P and Q are not divisible by 3 and Q is a perfect square.

52. If P, Q, R and the roots of the equation Px2 + Qx + R = 0 are integers, then what is the sum of the roots
of the given equation?
A: The roots of the given equation are positive, real and equal. Also, (P + Q + R) is equal to the smallest
possible non negative integer.
R
B: = 2 and the maxima of Px2 + Qx + R exists.
P

53. Points P and Q lie on the diagonal BD of rectangle ABCD. Find the area of rectangle ABCD.
A: The lengths of perpendiculars dropped from P on AD and BC are 2 cm and 4 cm respectively. The
lengths of perpendiculars dropped from Q on BC and CD are 3 cm and 4 cm respectively.
B: The lengths of perpendiculars dropped from P on CD and AD are 1 cm and 2 cm respectively. The
lengths of perpendiculars dropped from Q on BC and CD are 4 cm and 3 cm respectively.

54. There are two beakers, the first beaker is filled with a solution having milk and water in the ratio P:Q
and the second beaker is empty. Two liters of the solution is taken from the first beaker and is poured
into the second beaker. What is the volume of the solution left in the first beaker?
A: The quantity of water in the second beaker is 50%(by volume) of the total solution in it.
B: The quantity of milk left in the first beaker is 40%(by volume) of the original quantity of milk in the
that beaker.

55. Ajay, Vijay and Dhananjay purchased 1, 10 and 25 notebooks for a total of Rs.14, Rs.130 and Rs.300
respectively from a stationery shop. In his transaction with Ajay and Dhananjay, the shopkeeper made
a profit of p% and q% respectively such that p = 2q. How much profit did the shopkeeper make in his
transaction with Vijay?(Assume that the shopkeeper bought each note book at the same price)
(1) 22% (2) 25% (3) 28% (4) 30% (5) 27%

005 17
56. PQRS is a square and T is point that lies in the same plane but outside the square. If areas of ∆ TPQ,
∆TQR and ∆ TRS are 2 cm 2, 3 cm 2 and 4 cm2 respectively, then what can be the possible area of
∆ TPS?
(1) 6 cm2 (2) 9 cm2 (3) 4 cm2 (4) 1 cm2 (5) Both (2) and (4)

57. There are 10 students out of which three are boys and seven are girls. In how many different ways can
the students be paired such that no pair consists of two boys?
(1) 630 (2) 1260 (3) 105 (4) 210 (5) None of these

58. For how many values of (P – Q), the following equations have a common integral root?
x2 – Px – Q = 1
x2 – Qx + P – 2Q = 10
(here, P and Q are integers and P > Q)
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (5) 6

59. Find the sum of all the integers N > 1 such that the each prime factor of N is either 2, 3 or 7 and N is not
divisible by any perfect cube greater than 1.
(1) 2820 (2) 4004 (3) 5186 (4) 3184 (5) 6186

DIRECTIONS for Questions 60 and 61: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Some particular dates, when written in the format ‘mm/dd/yy’, it is found that (yy) = (mm) × (dd).
For example: 22nd April 1988 is written as 04/22/88, where 88 = 4 × 22.

60. What is the maximum possible number of days in a single year, in which this could happen?
(1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 8 (4) 9 (5) 5

61. How many years in the 18th century had no such day that satisfied yy = mm × dd?
(1) 20 (2) 23 (3) 18 (4) 21 (5) 19

62. A store owner plans to sell two types of MP3 players. One type costs the store owner $200 each; the
other type costs $400 each. The $200 models yield a profit of $25 dollars each and the $400 models a
profit of $30 each. The store owner estimates that the total demand for the MP3 players will not exceed
300 units. The store owner can invest up to $80,000 on the inventory of MP3 players. The store owner
sells some models of each type to maximize the profit. What is the value of the maximum possible
profit the store owner can make?
(1) $8000 (2) $7000 (3) $9000 (4) $7500 (5) $6000

63. The sum of the reciprocal of integers ‘a’ and ‘b’ is equal to the sum of twice the reciprocal of ‘c’ and the
reciprocal of ‘10a’. What is the value of (a + b)? (a, b, c are three distinct integers between 0 and 10).
(1) 2c – 1 (2) 2c (3) 2c + 1 (4) 2c + 3 (5) None of these

64. For which of the following values of ‘p’, (x + p)(x + 10) + q = (x + m)(x + n) + r for all values of x, where
m, n are integers and q and r consecutive integers with q > r?
(1) 30 (2) 12 (3) 24 (4) 8 (5) Both (2) and (4)

65. A pond is inhabited by only four types of fishes, namely A, B, C and D. There are 25 percent more
fishes of type A than type C, 10 percent fewer fishes of type B than type A, and 20 percent of the fishes
are of type D. If there are 144 fishes of type B, then how many fishes are there in the pond?
(1) 407 (2) 540 (3) 532 (4) 601 (5) 600

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66. A bag has 10 balls which are red or blue or green in colour. In every trial, one ball is drawn and put
back in the bag before the next trial. The probability of not getting a blue ball in either of the two
81 49
consecutive trials is . The probability of getting two green balls in two consecutive trials is .
100 100
What is the probability of getting balls of three different colours in three consecutive trials?
7 21 7 21 3
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
100 250 250 500 125

67. In the X-Y plane, P and Q are points on straight lines 4y = x and 3y = x respectively. If R(10, 3) is the
midpoint of line segment PQ, then find the length of line segment PQ.
(1) 2 5 units (2) 3 5 units (3) 4 2 units (4) 5 2 units (5) None of these

68. In the figure shown below, O is the center of a circle with radius 10 cm. A line AB passes through the
¼
point M which lies on the circle. With M as the centre and AM as the radius, a semicircle ATB is drawn.
If AT is a tangent to the circle at point T, then find the length of BS.

O S

A M B

(1) 5 3 cm (2) 8 3 cm (3) 12 cm (4) 10 cm (5) 8 cm

DIRECTIONS for Questions 69 and 70: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
A company intending to advertise its products through a particular TV channel, finds that the advertisement
rates applicable for a particular day are as follows.

Times Slots Rates

0600 to 1200 hrs $300 per min
1200 to 1800 hrs $125 per min

The channel has 70,000 viewers during the time slot 0600 to 1200 hours.
69. If the channel charges the same amount per viewer per minute for an advertisement in both the mentioned
time slots, then how many viewers watch that channel in the time slot 1200 to 1800 hours?
(1) 30,266 (2) 29,166 (3) 28,000 (4) 31,000 (5) 25,000

70. The company has $10,000 to spend on advertising on the given day. If the company does not want less
than 25% of its total number of advertisements to be aired in either of the mentioned time slots, then
how many one minute advertisements should the company book so that the channel can air maximum
possible number of advertisements of that company in the time slot 0600 to 1200 hours?
(Assume that the entire budget of $10,000 need not be completely spent.)
(1) 32 (2) 34 (3) 46 (4) 29 (5) 39

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71. What is the smallest possible positive integer such that the product of all its digits equals to 9!?
(1) 2578899 (2) 13856789 (3) 2345678 (4) 12345789 (5) None of these

72. In the figure shown below, all the vertical lines are parallel to each other. All the horizontal lines are
parallel to each other and are equally spaced. What fraction of the area of ABCD, is shaded?
A B

D C

1 2 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) Data Insufficient
2 3 4 3

73. Three elements a, b and c are selected from the set A = {2, 3, 5, 6, 7} to form a three-digit number ‘abc’,
where a < b < c. Similarly, two elements p and q are selected from the set B = {0, 1, 8, 9} to form a
two-digit number ‘pq’, where p > q. Let, M be the total number of all the possible values of ‘abc’ and
N be the total number of all the possible values of ‘pq’. What is the value of (M – N)?
(1) 7 (2) 6 (3) 5 (4) 4 (5) 1

74. In a triangle ABC, the incircle touches the three sides AB, BC and CA at the points D, E and F respectively.
If the length(in cm) of the sides AB, BC and CA are three consecutive even numbers, then which of the
following cannot be the radius(in cm) of the incircle?
(1) 2 (2) 7 (3) 15 (4) 32 (5) 3
75. Gautam decided to go to a temple only on first and the last day of a year. He continues to go to the
temple in this fashion till the time he finds that he has visited the temple atleast once on each of the
different days of a week. The minimum number of days required to achieve this is
(1) 1255 (2) 1462 (3) 1463 (4) 1827 (5) 1826

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