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Online Question Paper..

1.Which of the following metals forms an amalgam with other metals?


a) Tin b) Mercury c) Lead d) Zinc

2.The gas usually filled in the electric bulb is
a) Nitrogen b) Hydrogen c) Corbon Dioxide d) Oxygen

3.Washing soda is the common name for.
a) Sodium carbonate b) Calcium bicarbonate c) Sodium bicarbonate d)
Calcium carbonate

4.baking soda is the common name for.
a) Sodium carbonate b) Calcium bicarbonate c) Sodium bicarbonate d)
Calcium carbonate

5.Quartz crystals normally used in quartz clocks et is chemically
a) silicon dioxide b) germanium oxide c) a mixture of germanium oxide and silicon
dioxide d) sodium silicate

6.Which of the gas is not known as green house gas?
a) Methane b) Nitrous oxide c) Carbon dioxide d) Hydrogen

7.Bromine is a
a) black solid b) red liquid c) colourless gas d) highly inflammable gas

8.The hardest substance available on earth is
a) Gold b) Iron c) Diamond d) Platinum

9.The variety of coal in which the deposit contains recognisable traces of the original
plant material is
a) bitumen b) anthracite c) lignite d) peat

10.Tetraethyl lead is used as
a) pain killer b) fire extinguisher c) mosquito repellent d) petrol additive

11.Which of the following is used as a lubricant?
a) Graphite b) Silica c) Iron Oxide d) Diamond

12.The inert gas which is substituted for nitrogen in the air used by deep sea divers for
breathing, is
a) Argon b) Xenon c) Helium d) Krypton

13.The property of a substance to absorb moisture from the air on exposure is called
a) osmosis b) deliquescence c) efflorescence d) desiccation

14.The average salinity of sea water is
a) 3% b) 3.5% c) 2.5% d) 2%

15.When an iron nail gets rusted, iron oxide is formed
a) without any change in the weight of the nail b) with decrease in the weight of the
nail c) with increase in the weight of the nail d) without any change in colour or weight of
the nail

16.Among the various allotropes of carbon,
a) coke is the hardest, graphite is the softest b) diamond is the hardest, coke is the
softest c) diamond is the hardest, graphite is the softest d) diamond is the hardest, lamp
black is the softest

17.The group of metals Fe, Co, Ni may best called as
a) transition metals b) main group metals c) alkali metals d) rare metals

18.Heavy water is
a) deuterium oxide b) PH7 c) rain water d) tritium oxide

19.The chemical (ethyl mercaptan) added to the otherwise odourless LPG cooking gas
for imparting a detectable smell to the gas is a compound of
a) bromine b) fluorine c) chlorine d) sulphur

20.The element common to all acids is
a) hydrogen b) carbon c) sulphur d) oxygen

21.Non stick cooking utensils are coated with
a) Teflon b) PVC c) black paint d) polystyrene

22.Carbon, diamond and graphite are together called
a) allotropes b) isomers c) isomorphs d) isotopes

23.Permanent hardness of water may be removed by the addition of
a) sodium carbonate b) alum c) potassium permanganate d) lime

24.Soda water contains
a) carbonic acid b) sulphuric acid c) carbon dioxide d) nitrous acid

25.The most important ore of aluminium is
a) galena b) calamine c) calcite d) bauxite

26.Most soluble in water is
a) camphor b) sulphur c) common salt d) sugar

27.Which of the following was to be discovered first in the chromospheres of the sun?
a) Krypton b) Xenon c) Neon d) Helium

28.Which of the following is in liquid form at room temperature?
a) Lithium b) Sodium c) Francium d) Cerium

29.Sodium metal is kept under
a) petrol b) alcohol c) water d) kerosene

30.Which of the following are the ingredients of gun metal?
a) Iron, Zinc, Titanium b) Iron, tin c) Iron, Brass, Tin d) Copper, Tin

31.From which mineral is radium obtained?
a) Rutile b) Haematite c) Limestone d) Pitchblende

32.What is laughing gas?
a) Nitrous Oxide b) Carbon monoxide c) Sulphur dioxide d) Hydrogen peroxide

33.The filament of an electric bulb is made of
a) tungsten b) nichrome c) graphite d) iron

34.In fireworks, the green flame is produced because of
a) sodium b) barium c) mercury d) potassium

35.Marsh gas is
a) nitrogen b) ethane c) methane d) hydrogen

36.LPG consists of mainly
a) methane, ethane and hexane b) ethane, hexane and nonane c) methane,
hexane and nonane d) methane, butane and propane

37.Air is a/an
a) compound b) element c) electrolyte d) mixture

38.Production of chlorofluorocarbons (CFC) gas which is proposed to be banned in
India, is used in which of the following domestic products?
a) Television b) Refrigerator c) Tube light d) Cooking gas

39.Balloons are filled with
a) nitrogen b) helium c) oxygen d) argon

40.Which of the following does not contain a coinage metal?
a) Silver and Gold b) Zinc and Gold c) Copper and Silver d) Copper and Gold

41.Which of the following is a non metal that remains liquid at room temperature
a) Phosphorous b) Bromine c) Chlorine. d) Helium

42.The Paithan (Jayakwadi) Hydro-electric project, completed with the help of Japan, is
on the river
a) Ganga b) Cauvery c) Narmada d) Godavari

43.The percentage of irrigated land in India is about
a) 45 b) 65 c) 35 d) 25

44.The southernmost point of peninsular India, that is, Kanyakumari, is
a) north of Tropic of Cancer b) south of the Equator c) south of the Capricorn d)
north of the Equator

45.The pass located at the southern end of the Nilgiri Hills in south India is called
a) the Palghat gap b) the Bhorghat pass c) the Thalgat pass d) the Bolan pass

46.Which of the following factors are responsible for the rapid growth of sugar
production in south India as compared to north India?
I. Higher per acre field of sugarcane
II. Higher sucrose content of sugarcane
III. Lower labour cost
IV. Longer crushing p
a) I and II b) I, II and III c) I, III and IV d) I, II and IV

T47.he principal copper deposits of India lie in which of the following places?
a) Hazaribag and Singbhum of Bihar b) Khetri and Daribo areas of Rajasthan c)
Anantapur in Andhra Pradesh d) Siwaliks in Uttar Pradesh and in Karnataka

48.Which of the following are true regarding Jhum cultivation in India?
I. It is largely practiced in Assam
II. It is referred to as 'slash and burn' technique
III. In it, the fertility is exhausted in a few years
a) I, II and III b) II and III c) I and II d) I and III

49.The Yarlung Zangbo river, in India, is known as
a) Ganga b) Indus c) Brahmaputra d) Mahanadi

50.The Salal Project is on the river
a) Chenab b) Jhelum c) Ravi d) Sutlej
Online Question Paper..
01.Which of the following is a non metal that remains liquid at room temperature
a) Phosphorous b) Bromine c) Chlorine. d) Helium

02. The Paithan (Jayakwadi) Hydro-electric project, completed with the help of Japan, is
on the river
a) Ganga b) Cauvery c) Narmada d) Godavari

03. The percentage of irrigated land in India is about
a) 45 b) 65 c) 35 d) 25

04. The southernmost point of peninsular India, that is, Kanyakumari, is
a) north of Tropic of Cancer b) south of the Equator c) south of the Capricorn d)
north of the Equator

05. The pass located at the southern end of the Nilgiri Hills in south India is called
a) the Palghat gap b) the Bhorghat pass c) the Thalgat pass d) the Bolan pass

06. Which of the following factors are responsible for the rapid growth of sugar
production in south India as compared to north India?
I. Higher per acre field of sugarcane
II. Higher sucrose content of sugarcane
III.Lower labour cost
a) I and II b) I, II and III c) I, III and IV d) I, II and IV

07. The principal copper deposits of India lie in which of the following places?
a) Hazaribag and Singbhum of Bihar b) Khetri and Daribo areas of Rajasthan c)
Anantapur in Andhra Pradesh d) Siwaliks in Uttar Pradesh and in Karnataka

08. Which of the following are true regarding Jhum cultivation in India?
I. It is largely practiced in Assam
II. It is referred to as 'slash and burn' technique
III. In it, the fertility is exhausted in a few years
a) I, II and III b) II and III c) I and II d) I and III

09. The Yarlung Zangbo river, in India, is known as
a) Ganga b) Indus c) Brahmaputra d) Mahanadi

10. The Salal Project is on the river
a) Chenab b) Jhelum c) Ravi d) Sutlej

11. The state having a largest area of forest cover in India is
a) Arunachal Pradesh b) Haryana c) Madhya Pradesh d) Assam

12. The year ____ is called a Great Divide in the demographic history of Indi
a) 1901 b) 1921 c) 1941 d) 1951

13. The only private sector refinery set up by Reliance Petroleum Lt is located at
a) Guwahati b) Jamnagar c) Mumbai d) Chennai

14. The only state in India that produces saffron is
a) Assam b) Himachal Pradesh c) Jammu and Kashmir d) Meghalaya

15. Three important rivers of the Indian subcontinent have their sources near the
Mansarover Lake in the Great Himalayas. These rivers are
a) Indus, Jhelum and Sutlej b) Brahmaputra, Sutlej and Yamuna c) Brahmaputra,
Indus and Sutlej d) Jhelum, Sutlej and Yamuna

16. The zonal soil type of peninsular India belongs to
a) red soils b) yellow soils c) black soils d) older alluvium

17. The most plausible explanation for the location of the Thar desert in western India is
:-
a) the obstruction caused by the Aravalis to the rain-bearing wind that proceeds to the
Ganga Valley b) the evaporation of moisture by heat c) the absence of mountains to the
north of Rajasthan to cause orographic rainfall in it d) that the moisture carried by the
South-west monsoon is driven away by the dry upper air current

18. The northern boundary of the peninsular plateau of Indian runs parallel to the Ganga
and the Yamuna from Rajmahal hills to a point near
a) Allahabad b) Delhi c) Gwalior d) Jaipur

19. Which of the following food grain crops occupies the largest part of the cropped area
in India?
a) Barley and maize b) Jowar and bajra c) Rice d) Wheat

20. The number of major languages, recognized in the Indian Union as official language,
are
a) 15 b) 22 c) 12 d) 9

21. The oldest rocks in India are reported from
a) Dharwar region, Karnataka b) Aravalli range, Rajasthan c) Vindhyan range,
Madhya Pradesh d) Siwalik range, Punjab

22. Which of the following groups of rivers originate from the Himachal mountains?
a) Beas, Ravi and Chenab b) Ravi, Chenab and Jhelum c) Sutlej, Beas and
Ravi d) Sutlej, Ravi and Jhelum

23. Which of the following groups of states has the largest deposits of iron ore?
a) Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka b) Bihar and Orissa c) Madhya Pradesh and
Maharashtra d) West Bengal and Assam

24. Which of the following union territories of India has the highest density of population
per sq km?
a) Pondicherry b) Lakshadweep c) Delhi d) Chandigarh

25. which atomic power station in India is built completely indigenously?
a) Kalpakkam b) Narora c) Rawat Bhata d) Tarapore

26. The south-west monsoon contributes ____ of the total rain in Indi
a) 86% b) 50% c) 22% d) 100%

27. The Shimla Convention is an agreement that sets
a) Shimla as a tourist spot b) Shimla as the capital of Himachal Pradesh c)
boundary between India and Tibet d) None of the above

28. Which of the following events took place in the Cenozoic era?
a) Formation of the rockies, India collides with Asia and the formation of the Himalayas and
the Alps b) Formation of the Appalachians and central European mountains c) Splitting
of India from Antarctic d) Breaking up of Pangaea

29. The oldest oil field in India is the ____ field, in ____
a) Anleshwar, Gujarat b) Bombay High, Maharashtra c) Nawagam, Gujarat d)
Digboi, Assam

30. Unlike other parts of the Indian Coast, fishing industry has not developed along the
Saurashtra coast because
a) there are few indentions suitable for fishing b) of overwhelming dependence on
agriculture and animal husbandary c) the sea water is relatively more saline d) of
industrial development leading to widespread pollution of coastal area

31. The mountain building in Himalayas began
a) about 45 million years ago b) when the continental plates of India and Eurasia
converged on each other c) both (a) and (b) d) None of the above

32. The outer Himalayas lie between
a) the lease Himalayas and the Indo Gangetic plain b) the foot hills and the Indo
Gangetic plain c) the greater Himalayas and the lesser Himalayas d) Indo-Gangetic
plains and the peninsula

33. Which of the following geographical features have played a great unifying role in
strengthening the forces of homogeneity of the Indian people?
I.The expanses of water surrounding the peninsula
II.The Himalayan Mountains
III.The vastne
a) I b) II c) I and II d) I, II, III and IV

34. Which of the following drainage systems fall into Bay of Bengal?
a) Ganga, Brahmaputra and Godavari b) Mahanadi, Krishna and Cauvery c) Luni,
Narnada and Tapti d) Both (a) and (b)

35. The oldest oil refinery in India is at
a) Digboi, Assam b) Haldia, near Kolkata c) Koyali, near Baroda d) Noonmati,
Assam

36. The oldest mountains in India are
a) Aravalis b) Vindhyas c) Satpuras d) Nilgiri hills

37. Which of the following groups of rivers have their source of origin in Tibet?
a) Brahmaputra, Ganges and Sutlej b) Ganges, Sutlej and Yamuna c)
Brahmaputra, Indus and Sutlej d) Chenab, Ravi and Sutlej

38. Which of the following measures are effective for soil conservation in India?
I.Avoiding crop rotation
II.Afforestation
III.Encouraging the use of chemical fertilizers
IV.Limiting shifting cultivation
a) I and II b) II and IV c) III and IV d) I, II and III

39. Which of the following crops needs maximum water per hectare?
a) Barley b) Maize c) Sugarcane d) Wheat

40. The watershed between India and Myanmar is formed by
a) the Naga hills b) the Garo hills c) Khasi hills d) the Jaintia hills

41. The originating in the Himalayan mountain complex consists of how many distinct
drainage systems of the Indian Subcontinent?
a) Two b) Three c) Four d) Five

42. The percentage of India's total population employed in agriculture is nearly
a) 40% b) 50% c) 60% d) 70%

43. Which of the following important rivers of India does not originate from the Western
Ghats?
a) Cauvery b) Godavari c) Krishna d) Mahanadi

44. Which of the following areas or regions is most prone to earthquakes?
a) Ganga-Brahmaputra valley b) Deccan plateau c) Plains of northern India d)
Western ghats

45. The proportion of forest to the total national geographical area of India as envisaged
by National Forest Policy is
a) 30.3% b) 33.3% c) 38.3% d) 42.3%

46. Which of the following dams has generations of power more than irrigation as its
main purpose?
a) Gandhi Sagar b) Hirakud c) Periyar d) Tungabhadra

47. Which of the following crops is regarded as a plantation crop?
a) Coconut b) Cotton c) Sugarcane d) Rice

48. Which of the following countries leads in the production of aluminium and its
products in the world?
a) Australia b) France c) India d) USA

49. The natural region which holds the Indian subcontinent is
a) equatorial climate change region b) hot deset c) monsoon d) mediterranean

50. The most ideal region for the cultivation of cotton in India is
a) the Brahmaputra valley b) the Indo-Gangetic valley c) the Deccan plateau d)
the Rann of Kutch

51. Which of the following are true with respect to the Indian Peninsular Plateau?
I.The southern plateau block is formed mainly of granite and gneiss
II.The Deccan lava plateau is an elevated tableland consisting of horizontally arranged
lav
a) I, II and III b) I and II c) I, II, III and IV d) I, III and IV

52. Which of the following types of soil are mostly confined to river basins and coastal
plains of India?
a) Alluvial soils b) Black soils c) Laterite soils d) Red soils

53. The two states of India, most richly endowed with iron ore, are
a) Bihar and Orissa b) Madhya Pradesh and Orissa c) Bihar and West
Bengal d) Madhya Pradesh and West Bengal

54. The most fertile region of India is
a) the Himalayas b) the central Highlands c) the Indo-Gangetic plain d)
peninsular plateau

55. Which of the following groups accounts for over 90 per cent of India's annual coal
production?
a) Bihar, Orissa and West Bengal b) Bihar, Orissa and Madhya Pradesh c) Orissa,
Madhya Pradesh and Tamil Nadu d) West Bengal, Madhya Pradesh and Tamil Nadu

56. The significant shifts in Indian agriculture during green revolution include :
a) non-food grains reported some spectacular progress and shift in the cropping
pattern b) major food grains, in the eastern regions productions decreased and in the
northern states increased c) both (a) and (b) d) None of the above

57. The number of major ports in India is
a) 5 b) 8 c) 13 d) 15

58. Which of the following is a peninsular river of India?
a) Gandak b) Kosi c) Krishna d) Sutlej

59. Which of the following is the most important raw material for generation of power in
India?
a) Coal b) Mineral Oil c) Natural Gas d) Uranium

60. When it is noon IST at Allahabad in India, the time at Greenwich, London, will be
a) midnight ,GMT b) 1730 hours c) 0630 hours d) None of the above

61. Which country has the largest coast line?
a) USA b) Australia c) Canada d) India

62. The river Godavari is often referred to as Vridha Ganga because
a) it is the older river of India b) of its large size and extent among the peninsular
rivers c) there are a fairly large number of pilgrimage centres situated on its banks d) its
length is nearly the same as that of the river Ganges

63. The scarcity or crop failure of which of the following can cause a serious edible oil
crisis in India?
a) coconut b) Groundnut c) Linseed d) Mustard

64. The pennines (Europe), Appalachians (America) and the Aravallis (India) are
examples of
a) old mountains b) young mountains c) fold mountains d) block mountains

65. Which of the following factors are responsible for present crisis in the jute industry in
India?
I.The decline in overseas market
II.Inadequately supply of raw jute
III.Stiff competition from synthetic packing materials
Select the
a) I and II b) I, II and III c) I and III d) II and III

.
1.ALU stands for
a) Arithmetic Logic Unit b) Array Logic Unit c) Application Logic Unit d) None of
the above

2.VGA stands for
a) Video Graphics Array b) Visual Graphics Array c) Volatile Graphics Array d)
Vedio Graphics Adapter

3.The capacity of a 3.5 inch floppy disk is
a) 1.40 MB b) 1.44 GB c) 1.40 GB d) 1.44 MB

4.EBCDIC stands for
a) Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code b) Extended Bit Code Decimal
Interchange Code c) Extended Bit Case Decimal Interchange Code d) Extended Binary
Case Decimal Interchange Code

5.ASCII stands for
a) American Stable Code for International Interchange b) American Standard Case for
Institutional Interchange c) American Standard Code for Information Interchange d)
American Standard Code For Interchange Information

6.EEPROM stands for
a) Electrically Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory b) Easily Erasable
Programmable Read Only Memory c) Electronic Erasable Programmable Read Only
Memory d) Electronic Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory

7.The output quality of a Dot Matrix printers is measured by
a) Dots per inch b) Dots per square inch c) Dots printed on line d) All of the
above

8.In analog computer
a) Input is first converted into digital form b) Input is never converted into digital
form c) Out put is displayed in digital form d) None of the above

9.In the latest computers, the instructions are executed in
a) Parelelly b) Sequentially c) Both sequentially and parelelly d) All of the
above

10.A computer program that converts the entire program into machine language is called
as
a) Interpretor b) Simulator c) Compiler d) Editor

11.A computer program that translates the program instructions one at a time into
machine language is known as
a) Interpreter b) CPU c) Compiler d) Simulator

12.The ALU of a computer responds to the commands coming from
a) Primary Memory b) Control Section c) External Memory d) Cache Memory

13.Instructions and memory address are represented by
a) Character Code b) Binary Code c) Binary Word d) Parity Bit

14.The CPU (Central Processing Unit) consists of
a) Input, output, and processing b) Control Unit, Primary Storage, and secondary
storage c) Control Unit, Arithmetic Logic Unit and Primary Storage d) Control Unit,
Processing and Primary Storage

15.The ALU of a computer normally contains a number of high speed storage elements
called
a) semiconductor memory b) registers c) hard disks d) magnetic disk

16.Which of the following is used only for data entry and storage and never for
processing
a) mouse b) micro computer c) dedicated data entry system d) dumb terminal

17.What is the responsibility of a logical unit in CPU
a) to produce the result b) to compare numbers c) to control flow of
information d) to do mathematical works

18.The secondary storage devices can only store data but they can not perform
a) arithmetic operations b) logic operations c) fetch operations d) either of the
above

19.Which of the following memories allow simultaneous read and write operations
a) ROM b) RAM c) EPROM d) None

20.Which of the following memories has the shortest access time
a) Cache Memory b) Magnetic Bubble Memory c) Magnetic Core Memory d)
RAM

21.A 32 bit microprocessor has the word length equal to
a) 2 byte b) 32 byte c) 4 byte d) None

22.A set of information that defines the status of resources allocated to a process is
a) Process Control b) ALU c) Register Unit d) Process Description

23.The device operates under the control of another device
a) Stem b) Slave c) Simulator d) Emulator

24.The storage capacity of a disk system depends on the bits per inch of track and the
tracks per inch of
a) cylinder b) hum c) cluster d) surface

25.Which number system is commonly used as a shortcut notation for groups of four
binary digits?
a) Binary b) Decimal c) Octal d) Hexadecimal

26.Interface electronic circuit is used to interconnect i/o devices to a computer's CPU or
a) ALU b) Memory c) Buffer d) Register

27.Properly arranged data is called
a) FIeld b) Words c) Information d) File

28.A physical connection between the microprocessor memory and other parts of the
microcomputer is known as
a) Path b) Address Bus c) Route d) All of the above

29.The brain of any computer system is
a) ALU b) Memory c) CPU d) Control Unit

30.Each model of a computer has a unique
a) Assembly of computer b) Machine Language c) High Level Language d) All
of the above

31.One of the main feature that distinguishes microprocessors from micro-computers is
a) Words are usually larger in microprocessors b) Words are shorter in
microprocessors c) Microprocessor does not contain I/O devices d) Exactly the same as
the machine cycle time

32.The arranging of data in a logical sequence is known as
a) Sorting b) Classifying c) Reproducing d) Summarizing

33.Central Processing Units is a combination of
a) Control and Storage b) Control and output unit c) Arithmetic logic and input
unit d) Arithmetic logic and control unit

34.The brain of any computer is
a) Control Unit b) Arithmetic Logic Unit c) Central Processing Unit d) Storage
Unit

35.Pick the one that is used for logical operations or comparisons such as less than or
equal to or greater than
a) Arithmetic and Logic Unit b) Control Unit c) Both of the above d) None of the
above

36.Analog computer works on the supply of
a) Continuous electrical pulses b) Electrical pulses but not continuous c) Magnetic
Strength d) None of the above

37.A computer that processes both analog and digital is known as
a) Analog Computer b) Digital Computer c) Hybrid Computer d) Mainframe
Computer

38.Which of the following are the two main components of the CPU
a) Control Unit and Registers b) Registers and Main memory c) Control Unit and
ALU d) ALU and bus

39.The two basic types of record access methods are
a) Sequential and Random b) Sequential and indexed c) Direct and
immediate d) Online and Real TIme

40.Different components on the mother board of a PC unit are linked together by sets of
parallel electrical conducting lines. What are these lines called?
a) Conducters b) Buses c) Connectors d) consecutives

41.Which of the following types of memories need a refresh
a) SRAM b) DRAM c) ROM d) All of the above

42.Access time is
a) seek time + latency time b) seek time c) seek time - latency time d) latency
time

43.Seek time is
a) time to position the head over the proper track b) time to position the head over
proper sector c) time to position the head over proper cylinder d) none of the above

44.Latency Time is
a) time to spin the needed data under head b) Time to spin the needed under
track c) Time to spin data under sector d) None

45.Which of the following is not a computer language
a) High level language b) Low level language c) Medium level language d)
None of the above

46.Machine language is
a) machine dependent b) difficult to program c) error prone d) all of the above

47.A compiler is a translating program which
a) translates instruction of a high level language into machine language b) translates
entire source program into machine language program c) it is not invlolved in program
execution d) all of the above

48.What statement is valid in case of an Interpretor
a) It translates one insturction at a time b) Object code is saved for future use c)
Repeated interpretation is not necessary d) All of the above

49.A name or number that is used to identify a storage location device
a) A byte b) A Record c) An Address d) All of the above

50.The basic difference between memory and storage is, While the memory is
____________ and storage is_________
a) Temporary, permanent b) Permanent, temporary c) Slow, fast d) All of the
above


Digital Electronics

1. One hex digit is sometimes referred to as a(n):
a) byte b) nibble c) grouping d) instruction

2. Which of the following is the most widely used alphanumeric code for computer input
and output?
a) Gray b) ASCII c) parity d) EBCDIC

3. A binary number's value changes most drastically when the ________ is changed.
a) MSB b) frequency c) LSB d) duty cycle

4. When using even parity, where is the parity bit placed?
a) Before the MSB b) After the LSB c) In the parity word d) After the odd parity
bit

5. What is the difference between binary coding and binary-coded decimal?
a) BCD is pure binary b) Binary coding has a decimal format c) BCD has no
decimal format d) Binary coding is pure binary

6. Digital electronics is based on the ________ numbering system.
a) decimal b) octal c) binary d) hexadecimal

7.An informational signal that makes use of binary digits is considered to be:
a) solid state b) digital c) analog d) non-oscillating

8. The binary-coded decimal (BCD) system can be used to represent each of the 10
decimal digits as a(n):
a) 4-bit binary code b) 8-bit binary code c) 16-bit binary code d) ASCII code

9. The American Standard Code for Information Interchange (ASCII) uses how many
individual pulses for any given character?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 7 d) 8

10. A device used to display one or more digital signals so that they can be compared to
expected timing diagrams for the signals is a:
a) DMM b) spectrum analyzer c) logic anlyzer d) frequecy counter

11. Which of the following logical operations is represented by the + sign in Boolean
algebra?
a) inversion b) AND c) OR d) complementation

12. TTL operates from a
a) 9 V supply b) 3 volt supply c) 12 volt supply d) 5 volt supply

13. The switching speed of CMOS is now
a) competitive with TTL b) three times that of TTL c) slower than TTL d) twice
that of TTL

14. Logically, the output of a NOR gate would have the same Boolean expression as a
a) NAND gate immediately followed by an inverter b) OR gate immediately followed by
an inverter c) AND gate immediately followed by an inverter d) NOR gate immediately
followed by an inverter

15. The terms "low speed" and "high speed," applied to logic circuits, refer to the
a) rise time b) fall time c) propagation delay time d) clock speed

16. What is the name of a digital circuit that produces several repetitive digital
waveforms?
a) an inverter b) an OR gate c) a johnson shift counter d) an AND gate

17. What is another name for a one-shot?
a) Monostable b) Multivibrator c) Bistable d) Astable

18. A correct output is achieved from a master-slave J-K flip-flop only if its inputs are
stable while the:
a) clock is LOW b) slave is transferring c) flip-flop is reset d) clock is HIGH

19. What is the hold condition of a flip-flop?
a) botn S and R inputs activated b) no active S or R input c) Only S is active d)
Only R is active

20. Which of the following is not generally associated with flip-flops?
a) Hold time b) Propagation delay time c) Interval time d) Set up time

21. Edge-triggered flip-flops must have:
a) very fast response times b) at least two inputs to handle rising and falling
edges c) positive edge-detection circuits d) negative edge-detection circuits

22. What is one disadvantage of an S-R flip-flop?
a) It has no enable input b) It has an invalid state c) It has no clock input d) It
has only a single output

23. If an input is activated by a signal transition, it is ______
a) edge-triggered b) toggle triggered c) clock triggered d) noise triggered

24.Latches constructed with NOR and NAND gates tend to remain in the latched
condition due to which configuration feature?
a) cross coupling b) gate impedance c) low input voltages d) asynchronous
operation

25. The output of a gated S-R flip-flop changes only if the:
a) flip-flop is set b) control input data has changed c) flip-flop is reset d) input
data has no change

26. Pulse stretching, time-delay, and pulse generation are all easily accomplished with
which type of multivibrator circuit?
a) astable b) mono stable c) multistable d) bistable

27. An astable multivibrator requires:
a) balanced time constants b) a pair of matched transistors c) no input signal d)
dual J-K flip-flops

28. A crystal demonstrates the ________ effect when a mechanical force across the
crystal causes a small voltage to be generated.
a) photoelectric b) co-pitts c) piezoelectric d) flywheel

29. What is the difference between an astable multivibrator and a monostable
multivibrator?
a) The astable is free running b) The astable needs to be clocked c) The
monostable is free running d) none of the above

30. The output of the astable circuit ________
a) constantly switches between two states b) is LOW until a trigger is received c) is
HIGH until a trigger is received d) floats until triggered

31. A monostable 555 timer has the following number of stable states:
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3

32. What is a shift register that will accept a parallel input, or a bidirectional serial load
and internal shift features, called?
a) tristate b) endaround c) universal d) conversion

33. To operate correctly, starting a ring shift counter requires:
a) clearing all flip-flops b) presetting one flip-flop and clearing all others c) clearing
one flip-flop and presetting all others d) presetting all the flip-flops

34. A modulus-12 ring counter requires a minimum of ---flip-flops
a) 10 b) 12 c) 6 d) 2

35. Stepper motors have become popular in digital automation systems because
a) of their low cost b) they are driven by sequential digital signals c) they can be
used to provide repetitive mechanical movement d) they are driven by sequential digital
signals and can be used to provide repetitive mechanical movem

36. A sequence of equally spaced timing pulses may be easily generated by which type
of counter circuit?
a) ring shift b) clock c) johnson d) binary

37. How many clock pulses will be required to completely load serially a 5-bit shift
register?
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5

38. How is a strobe signal used when serially loading a shift register?
a) to turn the register on and off b) to control the number of clocks c) to determine
which output Qs are used d) to determine the FFs that will be used

39. What is the difference between a ring shift counter and a Johnson shift counter?
a) there is no difference b) A ring is faster c) The feedback is reversed d) The
Johnson is faster

40. What is a recirculating register?
a) serial out connected to serial in b) all Q outpus connected together c) a register
that can be used over again d) all of the above

41. Ring shift and Johnson counters are:
a) synchronous counters b) asynchronous counters c) true binary counters d)
synchronous and true binary counters

42. What is a transceiver circuit?
a) a buffer that transfers data from input to output b) a buffer that transfers data from
output to input c) buffer that can operate in both directions d) all of the above

43. Which type of device may be used to interface a parallel data format with external
equipment's serial format?
a) key matrix b) UART c) memory chip d) series in,parallel out

44. What is the function of a buffer circuit?
a) to provide an output that is inverted from that on the input b) to provide an output that
is equal to its input c) to clean up the input d) to clean up the output

45. Another way to connect devices to a shared data bus is to use a ________.
a) circulating gate b) transceiver c) bidirectional encoder d) strobed latch

46. Computers operate on data internally in a ________ format.
a) tristate b) universal c) parallel d) serial

47. How much storage capacity does each stage in a shift register represent?
a) one bit b) two bits c) nibble d) byte

48. When two counters are cascaded, the overall MOD number is equal to the ________
of their individual MOD numbers.
a) product b) sum c) log d) reciprocal

49. A BCD counter is a ________.
a) binary counter b) full-modulus counter c) decade counter d) divide-by-10
counter

50. How many different states does a 3-bit asynchronous counter have?
a) 2 b) 4 c) 8 d) 16
Solution to Quiz
Question 1=b
Question 2=b
Question 3=a
Question 4=a
Question 5=d
Question 6=c
Question 7=b
Question 8=a
Question 9=c
Question 10=c
Question 11=c
Question 12=d
Question 13=a
Question 14=b
Question 15=c
Question 16=c
Question 17=a
Question 18=d
Question 19=b
Question 20=c
Question 21=c
Question 22=b
Question 23=a
Question 24=a
Question 25=b
Question 26=b
Question 27=c
Question 28=c
Question 29=a
Question 30=a
Question 31=b
Question 32=c
Question 33=b
Question 34=b
Question 35=d
Question 36=a
Question 37=d
Question 38=b
Question 39=c
Question 40=a
Question 41=a
Question 42=c
Question 43=b
Question 44=b
Question 45=b
Question 46=c
Question 47=a
Question 48=a
Question 49=c
Question 50=c
Note: The solutions in red are the ones to the questions you had incorrectly answered.
Analog Communication (Communication Systems)

1. The value of madulation index in AM is
a) always zero b) >1 c) inbeteen o and 1 d) negetive

2. In AM the peak value of the modulating signal should be less than the peak value of
the carrier.
a) TRUE b) FALSE c) not always d) none of the above

3. In AM if the amplitude of the modulating signal is greater than the amplitude of the
carrier,distortion will occur
a) TRUE b) FALSE c) not always d) none of the above

4. In AM distortion caused by over modulation also produces adjacent channel
interference
a) TRUE b) FALSE c) not always d) none of the above

5. The bandwidth of an AM signal is ----- the highest frequency in the modulating signal
a) equals b) twice c) thrice d) none of the above

6. The bandwidth of voice signal which has max. frequecy 3KHz is
a) 3 KHz b) 6 KHz c) 9 KHz d) none of the above

7. Disadvantage of DSB and SSB are
a) difficult to transmit b) difficult to receive c) difficult to demodulate d) none of
the above

8. In SSB which sideband can be used
a) LSB b) USB c) both d) none of the above

9. Two way SSB communication used in marine applications
a) TRUE b) FALSE c) both d) none of the above

10. _____is used to suppress the lower sideband of TV signal
a) SSB b) DSB c) VSB d) none of the above

11. Which is called as angle modulation
a) AM b) PM c) FM d) both b & c

12. Which is most popular form of analog modulation
a) AM b) PM c) FM d) none of the above

13. Bessel functions are used in
a) AM b) FM c) PM d) none of the above

14. Bandwidth is independent of signal bandwidth in case of
a) FM b) PM c) both d) none of the above

15. In ----- frequency or phase of carrier is varied in proportion with the amplitude of
modulating signal.
a) Angle modulation b) Amplitude modulation c) both d) none of the above

16. Which of the following characterizes an analog quantity
a) Discrete levels represent changes in a quantity b) Its values follow a logarithmic
response curve c) It can be described with a finite number of steps d) It has a
continuous set of values over a given range.

17. Which type of signal is represented by discrete values
a) noisy signal b) nonlinear c) analog d) digital

18. The two basic types of signals are analog and------------
a) digilog b) vetilog c) digital d) sine wave

19. Digitizing a signal converts it from digital to analog
a) TRUE b) FALSE c) a&b d) none of the above

20. Digitizing a signal converts it from digital to analog
a) TRUE b) FALSE c) a&b d) none of the above

21. In digital electronic circuits, information is first converted to a coded group of pulses
a) TRUE b) FALSE c) a&b d) none of the above

22. Digital systems using the 10-state system are more accurate than those using the
two-state system.
a) TRUE b) FALSE c) a&b d) none of the above

23. The decimal code system used ten levels of voltage
a) TRUE b) FALSE c) a&b d) none of the above

24. AM and FM are examples of ________ conversion.
a) digital to digital b) digital to analog c) analog to analog d) analaog to digital

25. ASK, PSK, FSK, and QAM are examples of ________ conversion
a) digital to digital b) digital to analog c) analog to analog d) analaog to digital

26. In QAM, both ________ of a carrier frequency are varied
a) frequency and amplitude b) phase and frequency c) amplitude and phase d)
none of the above

27. If the baud rate is 400 for a QPSK signal, the bit rate is ________ bps
a) 100 b) 400 c) 800 d) 1600

28. If the bit rate for an ASK signal is 1200 bps, the baud rate is
a) 300 b) 400 c) 600 d) 1200

29. If the bit rate for an FSK signal is 1200 bps, the baud rate is
a) 300 b) 400 c) 600 d) 1200

30. FCC stands for
a) Federal communication commission b) frequency communication commission c)
fourier communication commission d) none of the above

31. Given an AM radio signal with a bandwidth of 10 KHz and the highest-frequency
component at 705 KHz, what is the frequency of the carrier signal?
a) 700 KHz b) 705 KHz c) 710 KHz d) cannot be determined from given info

32. _______ conversion is the process of changing one of the characteristics of an
analog signal based on the information in the digital data
a) digital to analog b) analog to analog c) analog to digital d) digital to digital

33. Which of the following is not a digital-to-analog conversion
a) ASK b) PSK c) FSK d) AM

34. In ________, the amplitude of the carrier signal is varied to create signal elements.
Both frequency and phase remain constant
a) ASK b) PSK c) FSK d) QAM

35. In _________, the frequency of the carrier signal is varied to represent data. Both
peak amplitude and phase remain constant
a) ASK b) PSK c) FSK d) QAM

36. In ________, the phase of the carrier is varied to represent two or more different
signal elements. Both peak amplitude and frequency remain constant
a) ASK b) PSK c) FSK d) QAM

37. A constellation diagram shows us the __________ of a signal element, particularly
when we are using two carriers (one in-phase and one quadrature)
a) amplitude and phase b) amplitude and frequency c) frequency and phase d)
none of the above

38. Quadrature amplitude modulation (QAM) is a combination of ___________.
a) ASK and FSK b) ASK and PSK c) PSK and FSK d) none of the above

39. ________ uses two carriers, one in-phase and the other quadrature
a) ASK b) PSK c) FSK d) QAM

40. _________ conversion is the representation of analog information by an analog
signal.
a) digital to analog b) analog to analog c) analog to digital d) digital to digital

41. Analog-to-analog conversion is needed if the available bandwidth is _______.
a) low pass b) band pass c) either (a) or (b) d) neither (a) or (b)

42. Which of the following is not an analog-to-analog conversion?
a) AM b) PM c) FM d) QAM

43. In _____ transmission, the carrier signal is modulated so that its amplitude varies
with the changing amplitudes of the modulating signal
a) AM b) PM c) FM d) none of the above

44. In _____ transmission, the phase of the carrier signal is modulated to follow the
changing voltage level (amplitude) of the modulating signal
a) AM b) PM c) FM d) none of the above

45. In _______, the peak amplitude of one signal level is 0; the other is the same as the
amplitude of the carrier frequency
a) PSK b) OOK c) FSK d) none of the above

46. How many carrier frequencies are used in BASK
a) 2 b) 1 c) 0 d) none of the above

47. How many carrier frequencies are used in BFSK
a) 2 b) 1 c) 0 d) none of the above

48. How many carrier frequencies are used in BPSK
a) 2 b) 1 c) 0 d) none of the above

49. How many carrier frequencies are used in QPSK
a) 2 b) 1 c) 0 d) none of the above
Solution to Quiz
Question 1=c
Question 2=a
Question 3=a
Question 4=a
Question 5=b
Question 6=b
Question 7=c
Question 8=c
Question 9=a
Question 10=c
Question 11=d
Question 12=c
Question 13=b
Question 14=b
Question 15=a
Question 16=d
Question 17=d
Question 18=c
Question 19=b
Question 20=b
Question 21=a
Question 22=b
Question 23=a
Question 24=c
Question 25=b
Question 26=c
Question 27=c
Question 28=d
Question 29=d
Question 30=a
Question 31=a
Question 32=a
Question 33=d
Question 34=a
Question 35=c
Question 36=b
Question 37=a
Question 38=b
Question 39=d
Question 40=b
Question 41=b
Question 42=d
Question 43=a
Question 44=b
Question 45=b
Question 46=b
Question 47=a
Question 48=b
Question 49=a
Note: The solutions in red are the ones to the questions you had incorrectly answered.
1. Telephone systems may be classified as:
a) duplex and symmetrical. b) duplex and asymmetrical. c) simplex and
assymmetrical d) simplex and symmetrical

2. A network that provides a constant bandwidth for the complete duration of a message
transfer is a:
a) circuit switched network b) cell switched network c) packet switched
network d) None

3. A router:
a) determines on which outgoing link a packet is to be forwarded. b) forwards a packet
to the next free outgoing link. c) forwards a packet to all outgoing links d) forwards a
packet to all outgoing links, except the link upon which the packet originated.

4. The Internet is an example of a:
a) packet switched network b) cell switched network c) circuit switched
network d) None

5. Baseband transmission may be defined as the transmission of a signal over a link:
a) which is relatively short. b) by means of wires. c) at a different band of
frequencies d) without any change in frequency.

6.A telephone customarily includes a 4-wire to 2-wire hybrid. The purpose of a hybrid is:
a) to combine the signals associated with the microphone and speaker. b) to
interconnect the 4 wires of a telephone to a line. c) to merge/separate signals associated
with the microphone and speaker. d) None

7.Which of the following definitions correctly describes the Dynamic Host Configuration
Protocol (DHCP)?
a) DHCP enables a NIC to determine the IP address for a given MAC address. b)
DHCP is a technique whereby IP addresses are assigned centrally by a server to each
host c) DHCP enables a NIC to determine the MAC address for a given IP address d)
DHCP is a routing protocol run by routers within a network

8. The Domain Name System (DNS) is primarily used to:
a) remove the need for a user to indicate a host they wish to communicate with by means of
an IP addres b) determine the symbolic name of a host, given its IP address c)
determine the IP address of a host, given its MAC address d) determine the MAC address
of a host, given its IP address.

9.Which data communication method is used to transmit the data over a serial
communication link?
a) simplex b) half duplex c) full duplex d) none of the above

10. What is the minimum number of wires needed to send data over a serial
communication link layer?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 4 d) 6

11. Which of the following types of channels moves data relatively slowly?
a) wide band channel b) voice band channel c) narrow band channel d)
broadband channle

12. Most data communications involving telegraph lines use:
a) simplex lines b) wide band channel c) narrow band channel d) dialed service

13. A communications device that combines transmissions from several I/O devices into
one line is a
a) concentrator b) modifier c) full-duplex line d) multiplexer

14. In a synchronous modem, the digital-to-analog converter transmits signal to the
a) equilizer b) modulator c) demodulator d) terminal

15. Which of the following communications lines is best suited to interactive processing
applications?
a) narrow band channel b) simplex lines c) full duplex lines d) mixed band
channel

16. Why IP Protocol is considered as unreliable
a) A packet may be lost b) Packets may arrive out of order c) Duplicate packets
may be generated d) all of the above

17. What is the minimum header size of an IP Packet?
a) 16 bytes b) 10 bytes c) 20 bytes d) 32bytes

18. Which of following provides reliable communication
a) TCP b) IP c) UDP d) all of the above

19. What is address size of IPV6?
a) 32 bit b) 64 bit c) 128 it d) 256 bit

20.What is a Firewall in computer network?
a) The physical boundary of Network b) An operating system of computer
network c) A system designed to prevent unauthorized access d) A web browing
Software

21. What does Protocol defines?
a) Protocol defines what data is communicated b) Protocol defines how data is
communicated c) Protocol defines when data is communicated d) all of the above

22 .What is the uses of subnetting?
a) It divides one large network into several smaller ones b) it divides network into
network classes c) it speeds up the speed of network d) none of the above

23. Repeater operates in which layer of the OSI model ?
a) Physical layer b) Data link layer c) Network layer d) Transport layer

24. IPV4 address is
a) 8 bit b) 16 bit c) 32 bit d) 64bit

25. What is the meaning of Bandwidth in Network?
a) Transmission capacity of a communication channels b) Connected computers in the
network c) Class of IP use in Network d) none of the above

26. What is the use of Bridge in Network ?
a) to connect LANs b) to separate LANs c) to control Network Speed d) all of
the above

27. Router operates in which layer of OSI Reference Model?
a) Layer 1 b) Layer 3 c) Layer 4 d) Layer 7

28. Each IP packet must contain
a) Only source address b) Only Destination address c) source and Destination
address d) Source or Destination address

29. Bridge works in which layer of the OSI model
a) Application layer b) Transport layer c) Network layer d) Datalink layer

30. which provides a connetion-oriented reliable service of sending messages
a) TCP b) IP c) UDP d) all of the above

31. Which layers of OSI model are host-to-host layers?
a) Transport,Session,Presentaion,Application b)
Network,Transport,Session,Presentation c) Datalink,Network,Transport,Session d)
Physical,Datalink,Network,Transport

32. which of the following IP address class is Mulitcast
a) Class A b) Class B c) Class C d) Class D

33. The last address of IP address represents
a) Unicast address b) Network address c) Broadcast address d) none of the
above

34. How many bits are there in the Ethernet address
a) 64 bits b) 48 bits c) 32 bits d) 16 bits

35. How many layers are in the TCP/IP model
a) 4 layers b) 5 layers c) 6 layers d) 7 layers

36. Which of the following layer of OSI model also called end-to -end layer?
a) Presentation layer b) Network layer c) Session layer d) Transport layer

37. what is the benefit of the Networking?
a) File sharing b) Easier access to resources c) Easier Backups d) all of the
above

38. Which of the following is not in the Networking Devices
a) Gateways b) Linux c) Routers d) Firewalls

39. What is the size of MAC Address ?
a) 16-bits b) 32-bits c) 48-bits d) 64-bits

40. Which of the following can be software?
a) Routers b) Firewalls c) Gateways d) Modems

41. What is the use of Ping command?
a) To test a device on the network is reachable b) to test a hard disk fault c) to test
a bug in a application d) to test a printer quality

42. MAC Address is the example of
a) Transport Layer b) Data link layer c) application layer d) physical layer

43. Routing table of a router keeps track of
a) MAC address assignments b) port assignments to network devices c) Distribute
IP address to network devices d) Routes to use for forwarding data to its destination

44. Layer-2 switch is also called
a) Multiport Hub b) Multiport Switch c) Multiport Bridge d) Miultiport NIC

45. The meanig of Straight-through Cable is-
a) Four painrs connect to the same pin on each end b) The cable which Directly
connects computer to computer c) Four wire pairs not twisted with each other d) The
cable which is not twisted

46. What is the maximum header size of an IP packet
a) 32 bytes b) 64 bytes c) 30 bytes d) 60 bytes

47. What is the size of Host bits in Class B of IP address?
a) 4 b) 8 c) 16 d) 32

48. Which of the following is/are Protocols of Application?
a) FTP b) DNS c) Telnet d) All of above

49. Which of the following protocol is/are defined in Transport layer
a) FTP b) TCP c) UDP d) B&C

50. ADSL is the abbreviation of
a) Asymmetric Dual Subscriber line b) Asymmetric Digital system Line c)
Asymmetric Dual system Line d) Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line
Solution to Quiz
Question 1=a
Question 2=a
Question 3=c
Question 4=a
Question 5=d
Question 6=c
Question 7=b
Question 8=a
Question 9=c
Question 10=b
Question 11=c
Question 12=c
Question 13=d
Question 14=a
Question 15=c
Question 16=d
Question 17=c
Question 18=a
Question 19=c
Question 20=c
Question 21=d
Question 22=a
Question 23=a
Question 24=c
Question 25=a
Question 26=a
Question 27=b
Question 28=c
Question 29=d
Question 30=a
Question 31=a
Question 32=d
Question 33=c
Question 34=b
Question 35=a
Question 36=d
Question 37=d
Question 38=b
Question 39=c
Question 40=b
Question 41=a
Question 42=b
Question 43=d
Question 44=c
Question 45=a
Question 46=d
Question 47=c
Question 48=d
Question 49=d
Question 50=d


Instrumentation and Measurements (A set of 35 Questions)

1.Insulation resistance is measured by????
a) ohm meter b) megger c) strain guage d) watt meter

2.DC potentiometer in an instrument to measure ???..
a) unknown emf b) large voltages c) large power d) direct current

3.Ohm meter is
a) a meter to record ohm b) used to measure resistance c) combination of ohm &
meter d) an indicating instrument

4.Volt meter resistivity is defined as
a) reciprocal of full scale deflection b) volts/ohm c) ohm/volt d) a&c

5.Volt meter sensitivity is defined as
a) reciprocal of full scale deflection b) volts/ohm c) ohm/volt d) a&c

6.The parallax & approximation errors are nil in
a) DVM b) AVM c) AM d) none

7.A CRO can be used to measure
a) voltage b) waveform c) frequency d) all the above

8.The o/p of a schmitt trigger is
a) sinusoidal wave b) parabolic c) direct current d) square wave

9.Hall effect transducers are used for measuring
a) magnetic field b) current c) pressure d) electric field

10.Induction watt meter can be used to measure
a) ac power b) dc power c) ac&dc power d) none

11.An ohm meter is basically
a) ammeter b) volt meter c) multimeter d) none

12.Integrating meters are used to measure
a) voltage b) current c) phase d) energy

13.How many coils are required in the megger
a) one b) two c) four d) five

14.Measuring range of a voltmeter can be extended by
a) high shunt resistance b) high series resistance c) low shunt resistance d) low
series resistance

15.In measuring system which of the following static characteristics are desirable
a) accuracy b) sensitivity c) reprocibility d) none

16.Electro static instruments are primarily used as
a) ammeters b) volt meters c) watt meters d) ohm meters

17.Frequency can be measured by
a) maxwells bridge b) schering bridge c) campbell bridge d) weins bridge

18.The pointer of an indicating instrument should have
a) very light b) very heavy c) very thick d) very wide

19.The displacement can be measured by
a) thermo couple b) thermistor c) megger d) strain guage

20.In electronic voltmeters the measuring device usually a
a) moving coil b) dynamometer c) moving coil d) hot wire

21.The moving coil instrument cannot be used for measurment of a.c. voltage or current
a) TRUE b) FALSE c) either d) none

22.Moving iron instruments can be used in both a.c. and d.c. ckts
a) TRUE b) FALSE c) either d) none

23.the operating torque is high in case of moving ???.. Instruments
a) coil b) iron c) core d) none

24.A moving coil ammeter can measure
a) ac current b) dc current c) eddy current d) stray current

25.A moving iron ammeter can measure
a) ac current b) dc current c) eddy current d) a&b

26.Electro dynamic instrument can measure
a) ac current b) dc current c) ac & dc power d) all the above

27.An induction type instrument can measure
a) ac current b) ac power c) ac energy d) all the above

28.Cost of the moving coil ammeter is --------than that of moving iron ammeter
a) more b) less c) same as d) none

29.An electro dynamic instrument has two fixed coils and ----- moving coils
a) one b) two c) three d) none

30.Scale of moving coil ammeter is linear and in the moving iron is --------
a) also linear b) non linear c) vertical d) none

31.????.is the closeness with which an instrument readily approches the true value
a) accuracy b) sensitivity c) error d) resolution

32.????? is a measure of the reproducibility of the measuring instrument for a given
fixed value of a variable
a) accuracy b) sensitivity c) precision d) resolution

33.?????. is the ratio of o/p signal of the instrument to the change of i/p
a) accuracy b) sensitivity c) error d) resolution

34.????..is the deviation from the true value of the measured value
a) accuracy b) precision c) error d) resolution

35.??.. Is the smallest change in the measured value to which the instument will respond.
a) accuracy b) sensitivity c) error d) resolution

Question 1=b
Question 2=a
Question 3=b
Question 4=d
Question 5=c
Question 6=a
Question 7=d
Question 8=d
Question 9=a
Question 10=a
Question 11=c
Question 12=d
Question 13=b
Question 14=b
Question 15=b
Question 16=b
Question 17=d
Question 18=b
Question 19=a
Question 20=c
Question 21=a
Question 22=a
Question 23=b
Question 24=b
Question 25=d
Question 26=d
Question 27=d
Question 28=a
Question 29=a
Question 30=b
Question 31=a
Question 32=c
Question 33=b
Question 34=c
Question 35=d




1 Resistivity of a wire depends on
a) material b) length c) cross section area d) all of above
2
When n numbers resistances of each value r are connected in parallel, then the resultant
resistance is x. When these n resistances are connected in series, total resistance is
a) nx. b) n2x. c) x/n d) rnx.
3
Resistance of a wire is r ohms. The wire is stretched to double its length, then its
resistance will be
a) r/2 b) 4r c) 2r d) r/4
4
Kirchhoff's second law is based on law of conservation of
a) charge b) energy c) momentum d) mass
5
One coulomb of electrical charge is contributed by how many electrons ?
a) 0.625X10^19 b) 1.6X10^19 c) 10^19 d) 1.6X10^12
6
Tow bulbs marked 200 watts - 250 V, and 100 watts - 250 V are joined in series to 250 V
supply. The power consumed by the circuit is
a) 33W b) 200W c) 300W d) 67W
7
Ampere second is the unit of
a) conductance b) power c) energy d) charge
8
Which of the following is not the unit of electrical power
a) volt/amp b) volt amp c) watt d) joule/second
9
One kilowatt hour is same as
a) 36X10^5W b) 36X10^5ergs c) 36X10^5joules d) 36X10^5BTU
10
An electric current of 6A is same as
a) 6 joules/sec b) 6 coulomb/sec c) 6 watt/sec d) none of the above
11
A circuit contains two un equal resistor in parallel
a) voltage drops across both are same b) currents in both are same c) heat losses
in both are same d) voltage drops are according to their resistive value
12
Conductance of any conductor is expressed as
a) ampere/watt b) mho c) volt2/watt d) watt/ampere2
13
Two resistances R1 and R2 give combined resistances 4.5? and 1? when they are
connected in series and parallel respectively. What would be the values of these
resistances ?
a) 3? and 6? b) 1.5? and 3? c) 3? and 9? d) 6? and 9?
14
Two equal resistors R connected in series across a voltage source V dissipate power P.
What would be the power dissipated in the same resistors when they are connected in
parallel across the same voltage source ?
a) 4P b) P c) 2P d) 16P
15
The resistance of 200W 200V lamp is
a) 100 ? b) 200 ? c) 400 ? d) 800 ?
16
Two1 k? 1 W resistors are connected in series. Their combine resistance and wattage will
be
a) 2 k?, 0.5 W b) 1 k?, 1 W c) 0.5 k?, 2 W d) 2 k?, 1 W
17
Three 3 ? resistors are connected to form a triangle. What is the resistance between any
two of the corners ?
a) 9? b) 6? c) 3? d) 2?
18
A 10 ? resistor is stretched to increase its length double. Its resistance will now be
a) 40? b) 20? c) 10? d) 5?
19
A wire of resistance R has it length and cross - section both doubled. Its resistance will
become
a) 0.5R b) R c) 2R d) 4R
20
Three element having conductance G1, G2 and G3 are connected in parallel. their
combined conductance will be
a) (G1 + G2 + G3) - 1 b) G1 + G2 + G3 c) 1/G1 + 1/G2 + 1/G3 d) (1/G1 + 1/G2
+ 1/G3) - 1
21
Which of the following has negative temperature coefficient ?
a) electrolytes b) brass c) copper d) silver
222
Which of the following has positive temperature coefficient ?
a) germanium b) gold c) paper d) rubber
23
A 60 W bulb in series with a room heater is connected across the mains. If the 60 W bulb
is replaced by 100 W bulb
a) the heater output will increase b) the heater output will decrease c) the heater
output will be same d) the heater output will slightly decrease.
24
A cube of material of side 1 cm has a resistance of 0.002 ? between its opposite faces. If
the same volume of the material has a length of 4 cm and a uniform cross - section, the
resistance of this length will be
a) 0.128? b) 0.064? c) 0.032? d) 0.016?
25
The phase angle difference between current and voltage is 90o, the power will be
a) minimum b) maximum c) zero d) VI
26
If E1 = A.sin?t & E2 = A.sin(?t - ?), then
a) E1 lags E2 by ? / 2. b) E1 leads E2 by ?. c) E2 leads E1 by ?. d) E2 leads
E1 by ?.
27
What will be the rms value of rectangular wave with amplitude 10V
a) 5?2 V b) 10 V c) 11.2 V d) 7.7 V
28
If one cycle of ac waveform occurs every milli - second, the frequency will be
a) 100 Hz b) 1000 Hz c) 50 Hz d) 10 kHz
29
If emf in a given circuit is given by e = 100sin628t, then maximum value of voltage and
frequency will be
a) 100 V, 100 Hz b) 100 V, 50 Hz c) 100?2 V, 100 Hz d) 50?2 V, 100 Hz
30
A capacitor
a) passes ac but blocks dc. b) passes dc but blocks ac. c) passes both ac and
dc. d) blocks both ac and dc.
31
The unit of inductive susceptance is
a) Henry b) Siemens c) Ohm d) Mho
32
Resistance of which material does not change with change in temperature ?
a) platinum b) Metal alloys Constantan and Manganin c) brass d) tungsten
33
Which of the following has least resistivity
a) copper b) lead c) mercury d) aluminium
34
Rating of fuse wire is expressed in
a) Watt b) Mho c) Ohm d) Ampere
35
Which of the following material is not used as fuse element
a) Silver b) Copper c) Aluminium d) Corbon
36
Which of the following lamp has least resistance ?
a) 200W, 220V b) 100W, 220V c) 60W, 220V d) 25W, 220V
37
Filaments of electric bulbs are generally made of
a) nichrome b) tungsten c) copper d) carbon
38
Four resistance R1, R2, R3, & R4 are connected in series across a 220V supply. The
resistances are such that, R1 > R2 > R3 > R4. The least power consumption will be in
a) R1 b) R2 c) R3 d) R4
39
A series circuit consists of R = 20?, L = 20 mH, and ac supply 60V with f = 100 Hz. The
current in R is
a) 2.54 A b) 1.27 A c) 5.08 A d) 10.16 A
40
A series circuit consists of R = 20?, L = 20 mH, and ac supply 60V with f = 100 Hz. The
voltage drop across L is
a) 39.1V b) 31.9V c) 45.5V d) 50.5V
41
Which of the following case represents the largest mmf ?
a) A 20 turn coil wound around a 10 cm iron core and passing a current of 3A b) A 60
turn coil wound around a 10 cm iron core and passing a current of 1A c) A 100 turn coil
wound around a 10 cm iron core and passing a current of 0.75A d) A 50 turn coil wound
around a 10 cm iron core and passing a current of 0.75A
42
If a resistance is connected in series with the primary of a transformer, what will be the
probable effect
a) Increase in primary current b) Increase in magnetizing current c) Increase in
secondary induced emf d) Decrease in secondary induced emf.
43
If number of turns in the primary winding of transformer increases, what will be the effect
in secondary emf ?
a) secondary induced emf will be increased. b) secondary induced emf will be
increased abruptly. c) secondary induced emf will remain unchanged d) secondary
induced emf will be reduced.
44
A 20 ?F capacitor and 200W, 220V lamp is connected in series across a 220V alternating
supply. In which frequency of the supply the lamp will glow dimmest?
a) 1000 Hz b) 1 Hz c) 10 Hz d) 100 Hz
45
A 100 mH inductor is connected across a supply fo 50V AC. For which of the following
frequency the circuit will have least rms current ?
a) 100 Hz b) 10 Hz c) 1 Hz d) 0.1 Hz
46
If a resistor and an inductor are connected in series across a voltage source. Which two
parameters in that circuit increase if frequency of voltage source increases ?
a) VL & Z b) VR & I c) Z & I d) VL & VR
47
If a resistor and a capacitor are connected to form series R - C circuit across a voltage
source. If frequency of voltage source increases
a) the current increases b) the current decreases c) the current remain
unaltered d) the current decreases abruptly
48
The maximum and minimum values of power factor in an ac circuit are
a) 1 & 0 b) ? & 0 c) ? & 1 d) 1 & 0.1
49
When ac flows through a pure inductance then the current
a) is in phase with emf b) lags the emf by - 90o c) lags the emf by 90o d) leads
the emf by 90o
50
When ac flows through a pure capacitance then the current
a) leads the emf by 90o b) lags the emf by 90o c) leads the emf by - 90o d) is in
phase with emf
Solution to Quiz
Question 1=a
Question 2=b
Question 3=b
Question 4=b
Question 5=a
Question 6=d
Question 7=d
Question 8=a
Question 9=c
Question 10=b
Question 11=a
Question 12=b
Question 13=b
Question 14=a
Question 15=b
Question 16=a
Question 17=d
Question 18=a
Question 19=b
Question 20=b
Question 21=a
Question 22=b
Question 23=a
Question 24=c
Question 25=c
Question 26=b
Question 27=b
Question 28=b
Question 29=a
Question 30=a
Question 31=b
Question 32=b
Question 33=a
Question 34=d
Question 35=d
Question 36=a
Question 37=b
Question 38=b
Question 39=a
Question 40=b
Question 41=c
Question 42=d
Question 43=d
Question 44=b
Question 45=a
Question 46=b
Question 47=a
Question 48=a
Question 49=c
Question 50=a
Microprocessors

1. The devices that provide the means for a computer to communicate with the user or
other computers are referred to as:
a) CPU b) ALU c) I/O d) none of the above

2.The software used to drive microprocessor-based systems is called:
a) assembly language b) firmware c) machine language code d) BASIC
interpreter instructions

3. The circuits in the 8085A that provide the arithmetic and logic functions are called the:
a) CPU b) ALU c) I/O d) none of the above

4. How many buses are connected as part of the 8085A microprocessor?
a) 2 b) 3 c) 5 d) 8

5. The ________ ensures that only one IC is active at a time to avoid a bus conflict
caused by two ICs writing different data to the same bus.
a) control bus b) control instructions c) address decoder d) CPU

6. How many bits are used in the data bus?
a) 7 b) 8 c) 9 d) 16

7. The items that you can physically touch in a computer system are called:
a) software b) firmware c) hardware d) none of the above

8. Single-bit indicators that may be set or cleared to show the results of logical or
arithmetic operations are the:
a) flags b) registers c) monitors d) decisions

9. When referring to instruction words, a mnemonic is:
a) a short abbreviation for the operand address b) a short abbreviation for the operation
to be performed c) a short abbreviation for the data word stored at the operand
address d) shorthand for machine language

10. The technique of assigning a memory address to each I/O device in the computer
system is called
a) memory-mapped I/O b) ported I/O c) dedicated I/O d) wired I/O

11. When was the first 8-bit microprocessor introduced?
a) 1969 b) 1974 c) 1979 d) 1985

12. What type of circuit is used at the interface point of an output port?
a) decoder b) latch c) tristate buffer d) none of the above

13. I/O mapped systems identify their input/output devices by giving them a(n) ________.
a) 8-bit port number b) 16-bit port number c) 8-bit buffer number d) 8-bit
instruction

14. What type of circuit is used at the interface point of an input port?
a) decoder b) latch c) tristate buffer d) none of the above

15. The register in the 8085A that is used to keep track of the memory address of the next
op-code to be run in the program is the:
a) stack pointer b) program counter c) instruction pointer d) accumlator

16. The 8085A is a(n):
a) 16-bit parallel CPU b) 8-bit serial CPU c) 8-bit parallel CPU d) none of the
above

17.Because microprocessor CPUs do not understand mnemonics as they are,the have to
be converted to------
a) hexadecimal machine code b) binary machine code c) assembly language d)
all of the above

18. A register in the microprocessor that keeps track of the answer or results of any
aritmetic or logic operaiton is the:
a) stack pointer b) program counter c) instruction pointer d) accumlator

19. What is the difference between a mnemonic code and machine code?
a) there is no difference b) Machine codes are in binary,mnemonic codes are in
shorthand english c) Machine codes are in shorthand english,mnemonics codes are in
binary d) all of the above

20. Which bus is a bidrectional bus?
a) address bus b) data bus c) address bus and data bus d) none of the above

21, Which of the following buses is primarily used to carry signals that direct other ICs to
find out what type of operation is being performed?
a) databus b) control bus c) address bus d) address decoder bus

22. What kind of computer program is used to convert mnemonic code to machine code?
a) debug b) assembler c) C++ d) Fortran

23 Which of the following are the three basic sections of a microprocessor unit?
a) operand, register, and arithmetic/logic unit (ALU) b) control and timing, register, and
arithmetic/logic unit (ALU) c) control and timing, register, and memory d) arithmetic/logic
unit (ALU), memory, and input/output

24. 8086 microprocessor is interfaced to 8253 programmable Interval Timer, the
maximum number by which the clk frequency on one of the timer is divided by
a) 2 16 b) 2 8 c) 2 10 d) 2 20

25. Which interrupt has highest priority
a) INTR b) TRAP c) RST 7.5 d) RST 6.5

26. In 8085 name the 16 bit registors
a) stack pointer b) program counter c) IR d) a and b

27.What is RST for the TRAP
a) RST 5.5 b) RST 4.5 c) RST 4 d) RST 5

28. Which of the following is a hardware interrupt
a) RST 5.5,TST 6.5,RST 7.5 b) INTR,TRAP c) TRAP d) a and b

29. What are level triggering interrupts
a) RST 6.5 AND RST 5.5 b) RST 7.5 AND RST 6.5 c) RST 5.5 AND RST 7.5 d)
INTR and TRAP

30. What is SIM
a) select interruput mask b) Sorting interrupt mask c) Set interrupt mask d)
softer interrupt mask

31. Whai is software interrupt?
a) RST 0-7 b) RST 5.5 c) INTR d) TRAP

32.Which stack in 8085?
a) FIFO b) LIFO c) FILO d) LILO

33. RIM is used to check whether??..?
a) The write operation is done or not b) The interrupt is masked or not c) The read
operation is done or not d) a&b

34. In 8085,example of non maskable interrupts are
a) TRAP b) RST 6.5 c) INTR d) RST 5.5

35. What does mp speed depends on
a) clock b) databus width c) address bus width d) sixe of register

36. Can ROM be used as stack?
a) Yes b) No c) Some times yes d) Sometimes no

37.Which Processor structure is pipelined ?
a) all x80 processor b) all x85 processor c) all X86processor d) pentium

38.Address line for RST 3 is
a) 0020H b) 00028H c) 0018H d) 0038H

39. In 8086 the overflow flag is set when
a) The sum is more than 16 bit b) Single digit numbers go out of their range after an
arithmatic operation c) Carry&Sign flag are set d) Zero flag is set

40. The adavantage of memory mappedi/o over i/o mapped i/o is
a) Faster b) Many instructions supporting memory mapped i/o c) Require a bigger
address decoder d) all of the above

41. BHE of 8086 microprocessor signal is used to interface the
a) even bank memory b) odd bank memory c) I/O d) DMA

42. In 8086 the following has the higherst priority among all interrupts
a) NMI b) DIV 0 c) TYPE 255 d) OVER FLOW

43. 8088 differs 8086 in
a) Data width on the outpur b) supports of co processor c) address capability d)
supports of max/min code

44. Address line for TRAP is
a) 0023H b) 0024H c) 0033H d) 0034H

45. What is meant by Maskable interrupts?
a) An interrupt which can never turned off b) An interrupt that can be turned off by the
programmer c) both d) none of the above

46. In 8086, Example for Non maskable interrupts are
a) TRAP b) RST 6.5 c) INTR d) RST 5.5

47. IN 8086 microprocessor one of the following statements is not true
a) Coprocessor is interfaced in MAX mode b) Coprocessor is interfaced in MIN
mode c) I/O can be interfaced in MAX/MIN mode d) Supports pipelining

48. Why 8085 processor is called an 8 bit processor?
a) Because it has 8 bit ALU b) Because it has 8 bit data bus c) both a&b d)
none of the above

49. Which interrupt is not level sensitive in 8085 ?
a) RST 6.5 is a raising edge-triggering interrupt b) RST 7.5 is raising edge-trigging
interrupt c) a&b d) none of the above

50 .Acess time is faster for
a) ROM b) SRAM c) DRAM d) EPROM
Solution to Quiz
Question 1=c
Question 2=a
Question 3=b
Question 4=b
Question 5=c
Question 6=b
Question 7=c
Question 8=a
Question 9=b
Question 10=a
Question 11=b
Question 12=b
Question 13=a
Question 14=c
Question 15=b
Question 16=c
Question 17=b
Question 18=d
Question 19=
Question 20=b
Question 21=b
Question 22=d
Question 23=b
Question 24=a
Question 25=b
Question 26=d
Question 27=b
Question 28=d
Question 29=a
Question 30=c
Question 31=a
Question 32=b
Question 33=b
Question 34=a
Question 35=c
Question 36=b
Question 37=c
Question 38=c
Question 39=b
Question 40=d
Question 41=b
Question 42=a
Question 43=a
Question 44=b
Question 45=b
Question 46=a
Question 47=b
Question 48=a
Question 49=b
Question 50=b


1.A long specimen of p-type semiconductor material:
a) Is positively charged b) Is electrically neutral c) Has an electric filed directed
along its length d) None of the above

2.n-type semiconductors are:
a) Negatively charged b) Produced when Indium is added as an impurity to
Germanium c) Produced when Phosphorous is added as an impurity to Silicon d) None
of the above

3.The probability that an electron in a metal occupies the Fermi-level, at any temperature
(>0 K) is:
a) 0 b) 1 c) 0.5 d) None of the above

4.Measurement of Hall coefficient enables the determination of:
a) Mobility of charge carriers b) Type of conductivity and concentration of charge
carriers c) Temperature coefficient and thermal conductivity d) None of the above

5.If the energy gap of a semiconductor is 1.1 e V it would be:
a) Opaque to the visible light b) Transparent to the visible light c) Transparent to the
ultraviolet radiation d) None of the above

6.In an intrinsic semiconductor, the mobility of electrons in the conduction band is:
a) Less than the mobility of holes in the valence band b) Zero c) Greater than the
mobility of holes in the valence band d) None of the above

7.The Hall Effect voltage in intrinsic silicon is:
a) Positive b) Zero c) Negative d) None of the above

8.The Hall coefficient of an intrinsic semiconductor is
a) Positive under all conditions b) Negative under all conditions c) Zero under all
conditions d) None of the above

9.The electron and hole concentrations in a intrinsic semiconductor are ni and pi
respectively. When doped with a p-type material, these change to n and p, respectively.
Then
a) n + p = ni + pi b) n + ni = p + pi c) np = nipi d) None of the above

10.If the temperature of an extrinsic semiconductor is increased so that the intrinsic
carrier concentration is doubled, then
a) The majority carrier density doubles b) The minority carrier density doubles c)
Both majority and minority carrier densities double d) None of the above

11.At room temperature, the current in an intrinsic semiconductor is due to
a) Holes b) Electrons c) Holes and electrons d) None of the above

12.Measurement of Hall coefficient in a semiconductor provides information on the
a) Sign and mass of charge carriers b) Mass and concentration of charge
carriers c) Sign of charge carriers alone d) Sign and concentration of charge carriers

13.In a p-n junction diode: identify the false statement
a) The depletion capacitance increases with increase in the reverse-bias b) The
depletion capacitance decreases with increase in the reverse-bias c) The diffusion
capacitance increases with increase in the forward-bias d) The diffusion capacitance is
much higher than the depletion capacitance when it is forward-biased

14.A p-n junction in series with a 100ohm resistor is fwd-biased so that a current of
100mA flows. If the voltage across this combination is instantaneously reversed to 10vt
at t=0 then reverse current that flows through the diode at t=0 is appx. given by
a) 20 mA b) 100 mA c) 200 mA d) None of the above

15.The width of the depletion region is
a) Directly proportional to doping b) Inversely proportional to doping c) Independent
of doping d) None of the above

16.The Fermi energy in p-n junction at thermal equilibrium is
a) Proportional to distance b) Directly increases with the temperature c) Invariant
with respect to distance d) None of the above

17.Gold is often diffused into silicon p-n junction devices to
a) Is proportional to the square of the recombination rate b) Is proportional to the cube
of the recombination rate c) Make silicon a direct gap semiconductor d) None of the
above

18.In a forward-biased photo diode with increase in incident light intensity, the diode
current
a) Increases b) Remains constant c) Decreases d) None of the above

19.The varactor diode is
a) Voltage-dependent resistance b) Voltage-dependent capacitance c) Voltage-
dependent inductor d) None of the above

20.The electric field in abrupt p-n junction is
a) Linear function of distance b) Parabolic function of distance c) Independent of
distance d) None of the above

21.A p-n junction, which is produced by recrystallisation on a base crystal, from a liquid
phase of one or more components and the semiconductor is called
a) Doped junction b) Alloy junction c) Fused junction d) None of the above

22.Each diode of full wave centre-tapped rectifier conducts for
a) 450 only b) 1800 only c) 3600 complete period d) 2700 only

23.Bulk resistance of a diode is
a) The sum of resistance values of n-material and p-material b) The sum of half the
resistance value of n-material and p-material c) Equivalent resistance of the resistance
value of p- and n-material is parallel d) None of the above

24.In a diode circuit, the point where the diode starts conducting is known as
a) Cut-in point b) Cut-out point c) Knee point d) Cut-off point

25.A Zener diode should have
a) Heavily doped p- and n-regions b) Lightly doped p- and n-regions c) Narrow
depletion region d) Both (a) and (c)

26.When a diode is forward-biased, the recombination of free electron and holes may
produce
a) Heat b) Light c) Radiation d) All of the above

27.A Zener diode is based on the principle of
a) Thermionic emission b) Tunneling of charge carriers across the junction c)
Diffusion of charge carriers across the junction d) None of the above

28.Silicon diode is less suited for low voltage rectifier operation because
a) Its breakdown voltage is high b) Its reverse saturation current is low c) Its cut-in
voltage is high d) None of the above

29.Silicon is not suitable for fabrication of light-emitting diodes because it is
a) An indirect band gap semiconductor b) A direct band gap semiconductor c) A
wide band gap semiconductor d) None of the above

30.A Zener diode
a) Has a high forward voltage rating b) Has a sharp breakdown at low reverse
voltage c) Is useful as an amplifier d) None of the above

31.Which of these is a best description of a Zener diode?
a) It operates in the reverse region b) It is a constant voltage device c) It is a
constant current device d) All of the above

32.When two Zener diodes each of 10 V and 15 V are connected in series, then the overall
voltage between them when they are in conduction is
a) 10 V b) 25 V c) 15 V d) Zero

33.The LED is usually made of materials like
a) GaAs b) C and Si c) GeAs d) None of the above

34.Varactor diodes are used in FM receivers to obtain
a) Automatic frequency control b) Automatic gain control c) Automatic volume
control d) None of the above

35.No-load voltage of power supply is 100 V and full-load voltage is 80 V, the percentage
of regulation is
a) 0 b) 25 c) 15.75 d) None of the above

36.Zener diodes are used as
a) Reference voltage elements b) Reference current elements c) Reference
resistance d) None of the above

37.Zener diodes are
a) Specially doped p-n junctions b) Normally doped p-n junctions c) Lightly doped
p-n junctions d) None of the above

38.A general propose diode is more likely to suffer an avalanche breakdown rather than a
Zener breakdown because
a) It is lightly doped b) It is heavily doped c) It has weak covalent bonds d)
None of the above

39.A Zener diode
a) Has a high forward voltage rating b) Is useful as an amplifier c) Has a sharp
breakdown at low reverse voltage d) None of the above

40.If the junction temperature of LED is increased the radiant output power
a) Decreases b) Increases c) Remains the same d) None of the above

41.The Zener effect is valid approximately
a) Below 5 V b) Above 5 V c) Equal to 5 V d) None of the above

42.The clipping action of a diode requires that its forward resistance
a) Be zero b) Have a finite value c) Be infinite d) None of the above

43.For a low voltage rectification
a) Two diode full-wave rectifier is suitable b) Both bridge and full-wave rectifier are
suitable c) Bridge rectifier is suitable d) None of the above

44.If Vm is the peak value of an applied voltage in a half-wave rectifier with a large
capacitor across the load, then PIV is
a) Vm b) Vm/2 c) 2Vm d) None of the above

45.The most significant component of ripple voltage in a half-wave rectifier is contained
in
a) Fundamental frequency b) Second harmonic c) DC component d) None of
the above

46.The disadvantages of capacitor input LC filter are
a) High cost, more weight and external field produced by a series inductor b) High cost,
less weight c) Low cost, more weight d) None of the above

47.Larger the value of the capacitor filter
a) Smaller the dc voltage across the load b) Longer the time that current pulse flows
through the diode c) Larger the peak current in the rectifying diode d) None of the
above

48.Which rectifier requires four diodes?
a) Half-wave voltage doublers b) Full-wave voltage doublers c) Full-wave bridge
circuit d) None of the above
Solution to Quiz
Question 1=b
Question 2=c
Question 3=c
Question 4=b
Question 5=a
Question 6=c
Question 7=c
Question 8=b
Question 9=c
Question 10=c
Question 11=c
Question 12=d
Question 13=c
Question 14=b
Question 15=b
Question 16=c
Question 17=d
Question 18=a
Question 19=b
Question 20=a
Question 21=c
Question 22=b
Question 23=a
Question 24=a
Question 25=d
Question 26=d
Question 27=b
Question 28=c
Question 29=a
Question 30=b
Question 31=b
Question 32=c
Question 33=a
Question 34=a
Question 35=b
Question 36=a
Question 37=a
Question 38=a
Question 39=c
Question 40=a
Question 41=a
Question 42=a
Question 43=a
Question 44=c
Question 45=a
Question 46=a
Question 47=c
Question 48=c
Note: The solutions in red ar