Fulltest IV Advanced Paper 2 Question Paper Aits 2013 Jeea FT IV Paper 2

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FULL TEST IV

Paper 2

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 198
Pl ease r ead t he i nst r uct i ons car ef ul l y. You ar e al l ot t ed 5 mi nut es
speci f i cal l y f or t hi s pur pose.
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t he t est .

INSTRUCTIONS

A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part has only one section: Section-A.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.

B. Filling of OMR Sheet
1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers
on OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with black pen for each character of your
Enrolment No. and write your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.

C. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts.
(i) Section-A (01 to 08) contains 8 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer.
Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and 1 mark for wrong answer.

Section-A (09 to 14) contains 3 paragraphs with each having 2 questions. Each question carries
+3 marks for correct answer and 1 mark for wrong answer.

Section-A (15 to 20) contains 6 multiple choice questions which have more than one correct
answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.

Name of the Candidate

Enrolment No.

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AITS-FT-IV(Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/13

FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 46106000, 26569493, Fax 26513942
4

Useful Data

PHYSICS
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s
2

Planck constant h = 6.6 10
34
J-s
Charge of electron e = 1.6 10
19
C
Mass of electron m
e
= 9.1 10
31
kg
Permittivity of free space
0
= 8.85 10
12
C
2
/N-m
2
Density of water
water
= 10
3
kg/m
3

Atmospheric pressure P
a
= 10
5
N/m
2

Gas constant R = 8.314 J K
1
mol
1
CHEMISTRY

Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K
1
mol
1

= 0.0821 Lit atm K
1
mol
1

= 1.987 2 Cal K
1
mol
1

Avogadro's Number N
a
= 6.023 10
23

Plancks constant h = 6.625 10
34
Js
= 6.625 10
27
ergs
1 Faraday = 96500 coulomb
1 calorie = 4.2 joule
1 amu = 1.66 10
27
kg
1 eV = 1.6 10
19
J

Atomic No: H=1, He = 2, Li=3, Be=4, B=5, C=6, N=7, O=8,
N=9, Na=11, Mg=12, Si=14, Al=13, P=15, S=16,
Cl=17, Ar=18, K =19, Ca=20, Cr=24, Mn=25,
Fe=26, Co=27, Ni=28, Cu = 29, Zn=30, As=33,
Br=35, Ag=47, Sn=50, I=53, Xe=54, Ba=56,
Pb=82, U=92.
Atomic masses: H=1, He=4, Li=7, Be=9, B=11, C=12, N=14, O=16,
F=19, Na=23, Mg=24, Al = 27, Si=28, P=31, S=32,
Cl=35.5, K=39, Ca=40, Cr=52, Mn=55, Fe=56, Co=59,
Ni=58.7, Cu=63.5, Zn=65.4, As=75, Br=80, Ag=108,
Sn=118.7, I=127, Xe=131, Ba=137, Pb=207, U=238.


3
P Ph hy ys si ic cs s PART I

SECTION A
Single Correct Answer Type
This section contain 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. A conducting disc of radius R is rolling without sliding on a horizontal
surface with a constant velocity of centre of mass, V
0
. A uniform
magnetic field of strength B is applied normal to the plane of the disc.
Then the EMF induced between points B and C will be : (Take AB =
2R, D as centre and length AC = 3R ).
(A)
0
3BV R
2
(B)
0
5BV R
2

(C)
0
BV R
2
(D) 2BV
0
R

2. A cylindrical conducting piston of mass M slides smoothly
inside a long cylinder closed at one end, enclosing a certain
mass of a gas. The cylinder is kept with its axis horizontal. If
the piston is disturbed from its equilibrium position, it
oscillates simple harmonically. The period of oscillation will
be (process is isothermal)

(A)
Mh
T 2
PA
= (B)
MA
T 2
Ph
=
(C)
M
T 2
PAh
= (D) T 2 MPhA =
Rough work

4

3. A rod of mass m and length L is hinged at its one end and
carries a block of same mass m at its lower end. Two springs
of same force constant k are installed at distances a = L/2
and b = L/4 respectively as shown in the figure. If the whole
arrangement lies in the vertical plane, the frequency of small
vibration is :
(A)
2
2
3mgL 5kL
1
2 4
2
4mL
+
(B)
2
2
5kL
3mgL
1
4
2
4mL
3
+

(C)
2
2
mgL 5kL
1
2 16
2
mL
3
+
(D)
2
2
3mgL 5kL
1
2 16
2
4mL
3
+

4. In radioactive chain reaction shown, initially at t = 0; only N
0

molecules of A are present. At some time t = t, number of
molecules of A, B, C, D and E are N
1
, N
2
, N
3
, N
4
and N
5

respectively. Then the activity of B at this time t is :
(A)
1
N
1
+
4
N
4

5
N
2

3
N
2

(B) (
3
+
5
)

N
2

(C)
1
N
1
+
4
N
4

5
N
5

3
N
3

(D) (
1
+
4

3

5
)N
2

5. In the given arrangement, the loop is moved with constant
velocity v in a uniform magnetic field B in a restricted region of
width a. The time for which the emf is induced in the circuit is:
(A)
2b
(B)
2a

(C)
(a b) +
(D)
2(a b)

Rough work


5

6. The wires A and B shown in the figure, are made of the same material and have
unequal radii of cross-section r
A
and r
B
. When a constant force F is applied as
shown, one of the wires breaks.
(A) A will break before B if r
A
> r
B

(B) B will break before A if r
A
< r
B

(C) Either A or B could break if r
A
= r
B

(D) The lengths of A and B must be known to decide which wire will break

7. Two moving lumps of clay collide head on and stick together, the composite lump moving with a
kinetic energy which is 80% less than the initial kinetic energy of the two initial lumps. If the final
velocity of the lumps is 0.5 m/s, the relative velocity of the lumps before collision is
(A) at least 2 m/s (B) at most 2 m/s
(C) at least 1 m/s (D) at most 1 m/s
8. A uniform magnetic field
=
0
B B j exists in space. A particle of mass m and charge q is projected

in the negative x-direction with speed v from a point (d, 0, 0). The maximum value of v for which
the particle does not hit the yz-plane is
(A)
Bqd
m
(B)
2Bqd
m

(C)
Bqd
2m
(D)
Bqd
3m

Rough work


6
Comprehension Type

This section contains 3 groups of questions. Each group has 2 multiple choice question based on a
paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is
correct.

Paragraph for Questions 9 and 10

In the shown figure, both the plates are moving. The
fluid between the plates moves such that fluid particles
in contact of the plates move with same velocity as the
plates. The fluid particles in the gap moves in a linear
velocity distribution function. As per Newton law of
viscosity, the tangential force F is given by
F =
A
0
u u
y

Where = coefficient of viscosity = 10
2
kg -sec/m
3
,
A = Area of the plate = 1 m
2
, y = distance
between both the plates = 2 cm. The velocity
gradient is given by
du
dy
.
9. If the tangential force F = 1 Newton and
u
0
= 1 m/s, then the velocity profile for
the given figure is
(A) u = 100

y
(B) u = 200

y
(C) u = 200

y + 1
(D) u = 100

y + 1

10. In the previous question, the constant velocity of the upper plate would be :
(A) 1 m/s (B) 2 m/s
(C) 3 m/s (D) 4 m/s
Rough work


7

Consider a star and two planet system. The star has mass M. The
planet A and B have the same mass m, radius a and they revolve
around the star in circular orbits of radius r and 4r respectively (M > >
m, r >> a). Planet A has intelligent life, and the people of this planet
have achieved a very high degree of technological advance. They
wish to shift a geostationary satellite of their own planet to a
geostationary orbit of planet B. They achieve this through a series of
high precision maneuvers in which the satellite never has to apply
brakes and not a single joule of energy is wasted. S
1
is a
geostationary satellite of planet A and S
2
is a geostationary satellite
of planet B. Neglect interaction between A and B, S
1
and S
2
, S
1
and
B & S
2
and A.

11. The ratio of time of revolution of planet A and planet B about star is :
(A)
A
B
T 1
T 8
= (B)
A
B
T
8
T
=
(C)
A
B
T
4
T
= (D)
A
B
T 1
T 4
=

12. If the radius of the geostationary orbit in planet A is given by r
G
=
1/ 3
m
r
M
| |
|
\ .
, then the time in which
the geostationary satellite will complete 1 revolution is
I. 1 planet year = time in which planet revolves around the star
II. 1 planet day = time in which planet revolves about its axis.
(A) I (B) II
(C) both I and II (D) neither I nor II.
Rough work


8

A horizontal spring block system executes SHM with amplitude

A = 10 cm initial phase = 0 and angular frequency . The mass of block
is M = 13 kg and there is no friction between the block and the horizontal
surface. The spring constant being 2500 N/m.
k
Mean position
M
m
At t = t
1
sec [for which t
1
=
1
= 30]. A mass m = 12 kg is gently put on the block. [Assume that collision
between the block and the mass is perfectly inelastic and mass m remains stationary w.r.t. the block M
always]

Read above passage carefully and answer the following questions.
13. The new angular frequency of the system will be
(A) 10 rad/sec (B) 15 rad/sec
(C) 20 rad/sec (D) none

14. The total energy of system after collision at any moment of time is
(A) 4 joule (B) 8 joule
(C) 12 joule (D) none of these
Rough work


9

Multiple Correct Answer(s) Type

The section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONE or MORE are correct.

15. A thin paper of thickness 0.02 mm having refractive index 1.45 is pasted across one of the slits in
a Youngs double slit experiment. The paper transmits 4/9 of light falling on it.
(
light
= 600 nm).
(A) Amplitude of light wave transmitted through the paper will be 2/3 times that of incident wave.
(B) The ratio of maximum and minimum intensity in the fringe pattern will be 25.
(C) The total number of fringe crossing the centre if an identical paper is pasted on the other slit
is 15.
(D) The ratio of maximum and minimum intensity in the pattern will be 5.

16. In the figure, there is a conducting ring having resistance R
placed in the plane of the paper in a uniform magnetic field B
0
.
The ring is rotating (in the plane of paper) about an axis passing
through point O with constant angular speed in clockwise
direction.
(A) Point A will be at higher potential than O.
(B) The potential of point B and C will be same.
(C) The current in ring will be zero.
(D) The current in the ring will be
2
0
2B .r
R
.
A
B C
O
r

17. Which of the following will have a different time period (compared to the earth), if taken to the
moon?
(A) A simple pendulum.
(B) A spring mass system oscillating vertically in the gravitational field.
(C) A torsion pendulum.
(D) An hourglass clock, which is essentially a vessel filled with a liquid, emptying through a hole
in the bottom.
Rough work


10
18. Hydrogen atoms absorbs radiation of wavelength
0
and consequently emit radiations of 6
different wavelengths of which three wavelengths are shorter than
0
.
(A) The final excited state of the atoms is n = 4
(B) The initial state of the atoms may be n = 2
(C) The initial state of the atoms may be n = 3
(D) There are three transitions belonging to Lyman series.

19. A particle is dropped from a height equal to the radius of the earth
above the tunnel dug through the earth as shown in the figure.
R : Radius of earth.
M : Mass of earth.
(A) Particle will oscillate through the earth to a height R on both sides
(B) Particle will execute simple harmonic motion
(C) Motion of the particle is periodic
(D) Particle passes the centre of earth with a speed =
2GM
R

R

C

20. In the LR circuit shown in the figure, the key K is closed at time t = 0.
(A) the current through R
1
decreases with time, t
(B) the drop across L increases with t
(C) the magnetic energy stored, in the steady state, equals
2
2
2
1 E
L
2
R

K
E
L
R
1
R
2
(D) the total current through the battery is, in the steady state,
1 2
E E
R R
+
Rough work

11
C Ch he em mi is st tr ry y PART II

SECTION A

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 8 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 8. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. In an amino acid the carboxylic acid group has K
a
=10
4
and amino group has K
b
= 10
5
. The
isoelectric point of that amino acid is
(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 6.5 (D) 4.5

2. Why do mercury batteries and lead acid batteries maintain approximate constant voltage?
(A) They never run down
(B) No aqueous species appear in the equation for the overall cell reaction
(C) Their E

values are very high
(D) The concentration of reagents in the half cell reactions remain approximately constant

3.
H
P.
+
OH
CH
3

The product P is

(A)
OH
CH
3

(B)
CH
3

(C)

CH
2
(D)
O CH
3

4. Which of the following quantities is proportional to the electron density at a point?
(A) the wave function (B) the de-Broglie wavelength
(C) the square of wave function (D) the reciprocal of the de Broglie wavelength
Rough Work


12
5. Which of the following will give maximum number of isomers?
(A) ( )
3 2
4
Co NH Cl (

(B) ( )( )
2
3
4
Ni en NH
+
(

(C) ( )( )
2 4
2
Ni C O en (

(D) ( ) ( )
2
3
2 4
Cr SCN NH
+
(

6. A compound Hagemanns Ester
O
CH
3
O
O CH
2
CH
3
can be prepared by treating a mixture
of formaldehyde and ethylacetoacetate. Following steps are used
1. Itnramolecular aldol condensation.
2. Acid hydrolysis followed by decarboxylation
3. Michael addition
4. Aldol like condensation
What is the correct sequence of reactions:
(A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 4 3 2 1 (D) 2 3 4 1

7. Which of the following compounds on decomposition, releases two gases containing the same
elements?
(A) FeSO
4
(B) FeCO
3

(C) Fe(NO
3
)
2
(D) Fe(ClO
3
)
2

8. If the energy of H-atom in the ground state is E, the velocity of photo-electron emitted when a
photon having energy E
p
striked a stationary Li
2+
ion in ground state, is given by:
(A)
( )
p
2 E E
V
m
= (B)
( )
p
2 E 9E
V
m
+
=
(C)
( )
p
2 E 9E
V
m
= (D)
( )
p
2 E 3E
V
m
=
Rough Work


13

Comprehension Type

This section contains 3 groups of questions. Each group has 2 multiple choice question based on a
paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is
correct.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 9 to 10

Read the paragraph carefully and answer the following questions:
Osmosis is a process of movement of solvent particles from a region of
lower to higher concentration through semi permeable membrane. The
pressure exerted by the liquids on semi permeable membrane at the
time of equilibrium is called osmotic pressure. If the pressure more than
osmotic pressure is applied at the more concentration side, reverse
osmosis takes place, which is used for the purification of water

H2O 1.0 M NaCl
9. Select the correct statement for the above diagram
(A) If semi permeable membrane is permeable to only H
2
O, level of liquid in the left arm will
decrease
(B) If membrane is permeable to H
2
O, Cl
and Na
+
all, the level of liquid in two arms is different
(C) In the reverse osmosis process water will move from NaCl side to H
2
O side
(D) all of these

10. A water desalination plant is set up near a salt marsh containing water that is 0.1 NaCl. The
minimum pressure (P) that must be applied at 27C to purify the water by reverse osmosis is
(A) P 4.926 atm (B) P 2.46 atm
(C) P 2.46 atm (D) P 4.926 atm
Rough Work

14

Read the paragraph carefully and answer the following questions:

EDTA is used as a complexing agent in chemical analysis. Solution of EDTA usually containing the
disodium salt Na
2
H
2
EDTA are also used to treat heavy metal poisoning. EDTA is a hexadentate ligand
having the following structure.

N CH
2
CH
2
CH
2
OOC
OOC
CH
2
N
CH
2
CH
2
COO
COO

Answer the following questions

11. A solution having equal moles of both reactant show the following equilibrium (Keq=10
3
)
Pb
2+
(aq) + H
2
EDTA
2
(aq) Pb EDTA
2
(aq) + 2H
+
(aq)
If concentration of complex at equilibrium is 10
3
M find the concentration of Pb
2+
at equilibrium
maintained at pH = 3
(A) 10
9
(B) 10
6

(C) 10
3
(D) None of these

12. EDTA forms stable complexes with many metal ions due to
(A) High negative charge density (B) Chelation
(C) Low negative charge density (D) Because it is very weak field ligand
Rough Work


15

The aliphatic aldehyde P and Q react in the presence of aqueous K
2
CO
3
to give compound R, which
upon treatment with HCN provides compound S. On acidification and heating, S gives the product
shown below:

O
C H
3
C H
3
OH
O

13. The compounds P and Q respectively are

(A)
O
H
&
H
O
(B)
O
H
&
H H
O

(C)
O
H
&
H
O (D)
O
H
&
H H
O

14. The compound S is
(A)
O
CN
H

(B)
O
CN
H
(C)
CN
OH
OH

(D)
CN
OH
OH

Rough Work


16
Multiple Correct Choice Type

This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

15.
2
H /Pt KCN(1 eq.)
(A) B
Cl
Cl
Correct statement for product B is
(A) It is gives positive carbyl amine test
(B) It gives coupting reaction with diazonum salt
(C) It gives alcohol on treatment with nitrous acid
(D) It forms dibromo derivative with bromine water

16. Trans-2-butene
3 3 3 4
CF CO H H O HIO
A B C
+

The incorrect statement is
(A) The product B is optically active
(B) Product C gives the iodoform test
(C) Product C does not gives iodoform test
(D) Product A is an alcohol

17. For which of the following species it is possible to solve equation analytically and obtain an
equation for its electronic energy level
(A) He (B) Li
2+

(C) H
2
(D) H
Rough Work


17
18. LiF and NaBr are ionic salts that both form a face centred cubic lattice. The ionic radii of Li
+
, F
,
Na
+
and Br
are 0.76, 1.33, 1.02 and 1.96 A

0
respectively, which of the following statement is /
are true
(A) The atomic radius of Na is smaller than 1.0 A
0

(B) The atomic radius of F

is smaller than 1.33 A
0

(C) Each Li
+
ion in LiF has 8F
ions as nearest neighbors

(D) The lattice energy of LiF is greater in magnitude than the lattice energy of NaBr

19. Which of the following reaction (s) can generate a five membered ring as the major product?
(A)
2
3
1. I
2. aq. NaHCO
C H
2
CH
OH
O
(B)
2
2 2
Br
CH Cl
C H
3
O
O
Na
+
(C)
2 5
P O
H
2
C
CH
2
CH
2
COOH
COOH
(D)
2 5
P O
H
2
C CH
2
H
2
C CH
2
COOH
COOH

20. Consider the following solid:
= A
4+
= B
2-

(distarted cubic structure)
Identify the correct statements regarding the above crystalline solid:
(A) The coordination number of A
4+
is 8 (B) The coordination number of B
2-
is 3
(C) The formula of the solid is AB
2
(D) Effective number of A
2+
ions per unit cell is 2
Rough Work

18
M Ma at th he em ma at ti ic cs s PART III

SECTION A

Single Correct Choice Type

This section contains 8 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 8. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. Consider P:
2
y 4ax = and RH:
2 2 2
x y a . = Let S = {mR/m is the slope of the normal to P that
touches the RH}. Then |S| is
(A) 0 (B) 2
(C) 4 (D) 6

2. Let x, y, zR. The number of integral values that x can take if x + y +z = 5 and x
2
+ y
2
+ z
2
= 9, is
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) infinitely many

3. The number of solutions of the equations 2 sin
2
x + sin
2
2x = 2, sin 2x + cos 2x = tan x in [0, 4]
satisfying the condition 2 cos
2
x + sin x 2 is
(A) 4 (B) 6
(C) 8 (D) 2

4. If |z| = 1 and z 0, then the points
1
z
z
+ lie on a
(A) straight line not through the origin (B) circle
(C) line segment lying on the x-axis (D) line segment lying on the y-axis

5. The vectors
( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
2 2 2 2 2 2
x 1 i 2 x 1 j 3 x 1 k, 2x 1 i 2x 1 j x k, + + + + and
( ) ( ) ( )
2 2 2
3x 2 i x 4 j x 1 k + + + + + are non-coplanar. The number of real values that x cannot take
is
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 4
Rough work


19
6. Let ( )
( )
1/ n
n
f x a x = and ( )
( ) f f f ...... f x
g x .
2m times

= Then
( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
( )
1/ n
n n
dx
g x 1 g x +
equals
(A)
n 1
n
n
n 1
1 C
n 1
x
| |
+ +
|
\ .
(B)
( )
n 1
n
n
1
1 x C
1 n
+ +

(C)
( )
n 1
n
n
1
1 x C
1 n
+
+ +
+
(D)
( )
n
n
n 1
1
1 x C
n
+
+

7. If ( ) y f x = and ( ) z g x = , then
2
2
d y
dz
equals
(A)
( )
2
g f f g
g

(B)
( )
3
g f f g
g

(C)
( )
3
g f f g
g

(D)
( )
3
g f f g
g
+

8. The function f(x) =
2
2
x
3
x 3
a | x x 6 |
, x 3
6 x x
x tdt
b lim , x 3
x 3
x [x]
, x 3
x 3

<
| |
= |
\ .
>

is continuous at x = 3. If f (3) 0, then {a, b} is (where [ ] denotes the greatest integer function)

(A) {3, 1} (B)
1
,1
3

`
)

(C)
1
1,
3

`
)
(D)
1
1,
9

`
)

Rough work


20
Comprehension Type

This section contains 3 paragraphs. Based upon paragraph 2 multiple choice questions have to be
answered. Each of these questions has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is
correct.


Read the following write up carefully and answer the following questions:
Let S
r
, r N, denote the sum of an infinite GP whose first term is 2r 1 and common ratio
1
2r.
. Let
n
n r
r 1
V S
=
=
and
n
n
r r 1
r 1
1
Q .
S S
+
=
=

9.
n
2
n
V
lim
n
equals
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 1 (D) 2

10. Consider the following statements:
I : Q
1
> Q
2
> Q
3
> .
II: V
1
< V
2
< V
3
< ..
Then
(A) Only I is true (B) Only II is true
(C) Both I and II are true (D) Neither I nor II is true


Consider the function f : R R defined by ( )
x |x|
f x a a , a 1
= + >

11. The interval in which f(x) is monotonic decreasing, is
(A) (0, a) (B) ( , 0)
(C) (0, ) (D) (2, 2a)
Rough work


21
12. Area bounded by the given curve and the lines x = 1, x = 1 and y = 0, is
(A)
2
e
2a 3a 1
log a
+ +
(B)
2
e
3a 2a 1
alog a

(C)
e
3a 1
alog a
(D)
( )( )
e
3a 1 2a 1
log a



Let S = set of triplets (A, B, C) where A, B, C are subsets of {1, 2, 3, ..... n}. E
1
= event that a selected
triplet at random from set S will satisfy ABC = , A B , B C . E
2
= events that a selected
triplet at random from set S will satisfy ABC = , AB BC , AC . P (E) represents
probability of an event E than

13. P(E
1
) is equal to
(A)
n n n
n
7 6 5
8
+
(B)
n n n
n
7 2 6 5
8
+

(C)
n n
n
7 2 6
8

(D)
n n n
n
7 2 6 5
8
+

14. P(E
2
) is equal to
(A)
n n n
n
7 3 6 5
8
+
(B)
n n n n
n
7 3 6 3 5 4
8
+

(C)
n n n n
n
7 2 6 2 5 4
8
+
(D)
n n n n
n
7 6 5 4
8
+

Rough work


22
Multiple Correct Answer(s) Type

This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONE or MORE are correct.

15. The straight line
1/ 3 1/ 3 2/ 3 2/ 3
b y a x a b 0 + + =
(A) touches the parabola y
2
= 4ax
(B) touches the parabola x
2
= 4by
(C) intersects both the parabolas y
2
= 4ax and x
2
= 4by in real points
(D) touches y
2
= 4ax and intersects x
2
= 4by

16. If x, y, a, b are real numbers such that (x + iy)
1/5
= a + ib and p =
x y
,
a b
then
(A) a b is a factor of p (B) a + b is a factor of p
(C) a + ib is a factor of p (D) a ib is a factor of p

17. Let 0 < < .
4
Then,
(A)
2k 2
k 0
sin sec
=
=
(B)
2k 2
k 0
cos cosec
=
=

(C)
2
2k
k 0
cos
tan
cos2
(D)
2k 2k
k 0 k 0
tan cot 1

= =
+ =

18. A number is chosen at random from the set of integers {1, 2, 3, 4,., n}. Let A denote the
event that the number chosen is divisible by 4, B denote the event that the number chosen is
divisible by 5 and C denote the event that the number chosen is divisible by 7. Then,
(A) A, B, C are always mutually independent
(B) A and B are always independent
(C) B and C are independent if n is of the form 35k (k positive integer)
(D) A and C are independent if n is of the form 28 ( positive integer)
Rough work


23
19. Let A be the set of real values of x, and B be the set of real values of y, satisfying the equation
x y
3 3 9. + = Let a = [x], x A, and b = [y], y B. Then
(A) The roots of the equation x
3
+ 2x
2
x 2 = 0 are x
1
, x
2
, x
3
such that x
1
, x
2
, x
3
A.
(B) The roots of the equation x
3
2x
2
x + 2 = 0 are x
1
, x
2
, x
3
such that x
1
, x
2
, x
3
B.
(C) a
max
+ b
max
= 2
(D) 17a
max
12b
max
= 5

20. Let T be the with vertices (0, 0), (0, c
2
) and (c, c
2
) and let R be the region between y = cx and
y = x
2
where c > 0 then
(A) Area of
( )
3
c
R
6
= (B) Area of
2
c
R
3
=
(C)
( )
( )
c 0
Area T
lim 3
Area R
+
= (D)
( )
( )
c 0
Area T 3
lim
Area R 2
+
=
Rough work

Fulltest IV Advanced Paper 2 Question Paper Aits 2013 Jeea FT IV Paper 2

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B B j exists in space. A particle of mass m and charge q is projected

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