Assignment 3

Math 406/506 2014

1. Let v
1
= (3, 1) and v
2
= (1, 0) . The two vectors form a basis for R
2
. Let L: R
2

R
2
be the unique linear map such that
L(v
1
) = (1, 2) and L(v
2
) = (1, 0) .
Calculate L(x) for any vector x = (x
1
, x
2
) R
2
.
Proof. Suppose you already know that x = a
1
v
1
+ a
2
v
2
. Then what is L(x) ?
Answer: L(x) = L(a
1
v
1
+ a
2
v
2
)
= L(a
1
v
1
) + L(a
2
v
2
) [By the additivity of L]
= a
1
L(v
1
) + a
2
L(v
2
) [By the homogeneity of L]
= a
1
(1, 2) + a
2
(1, 0)
= (a
1
a
2
, 2a
1
)
Find formulas for a
1
and a
2
.
Answer: From previous step we know, x = (a
1
v
1
+ a
2
v
2
)
So, (x
1
, x
2
) = a
1
(3, 1) + a
2
(1, 0) , Since x = (x
1
, x
2
) R
2
.
Then we have,
x
1
= 3a
1
a
2
and x
2
= a
1
By solving these we get, a
1
= x
2
and a
2
= 3x
2
x
1
2. Let K C be a subeld. For each x = (x
1
, . . . , x
n
), y = (y
1
, . . . , y
n
) K
n
, dene
x, y =
n

i=1
x
i
y
i
.
See page 6 of the text. For each y K
n
, the function
x
y
(x) = x, y
denes a functional on K
n
, that is,
y
(K
n
)

the dual space to K

n
. Prove that
the function
: y
y
is an isomorphism from K
n
to (K
n
)

.
Proof. The rst step is to show that for each y, z K
n
, (y +z) = (y) +(z) ,
that is,

y+z
(x) =
y
(x) +
z
(x)
for all x K
n
. Verify that this equation holds.
Answer:
y+z
(x) = x, y + z
=

n
i=1
x
i
(y
i
+ z
i
)
=

n
i=1
x
i
y
i
+

n
i=1
x
i
z
i
=
y
(x) +
z
(x)
The second step is to show that for each c K and y K
n
,
cy
(x) = c
y
(x)
for all x K
n
. Verify this equation.
Answer:
cy
(x) = x, cy
=

n
i=1
x
i
(cy
i
)
= c

n
i=1
x
i
(y
i
)
= c
y
(x)
What do steps 1 and 2 imply about the function : K
n
(K
n
)

?
Answer: Step 1 and 2 shows the additivity and homogeneity of . So,we get
: K
n
(K
n
)

is a linear function.
Next, suppose that
y
(x) = 0 for all x K
n
. Prove that y = O = (0, . . . , 0) .
Answer: Let x
1
= (1, 0, .., 0); x
2
= (0, 1, 0, .., 0); ....; x
n
= (0, ..., 1)
We have
y
(x) = 0 for all x K
n
.
So, x, y = 0

n
i=1
x
i
y
i
= 0 y
i
= 0 , for 1 i n.
Hence we get, y = O = (0, . . . , 0) .
Why does the previous step imply that is 1-1? See page 14 of the class notes
or page 60 of the text.
Answer: From previous step we get that ker () = {O} . So, is 1-1.
The set Im() is a subspace of (K
n
)

. What general fact implies this fact?

Answer:Using Proposition 1.1.1 of our class notes we can say that, Im() is a
subspace of (K
n
)

.
From what has been proven thus far, we know the dimension of Im() ? What is
the dimension?
Answer: By using proposition 1.1.2 of our notes we get,dim (K
n
) = dim Im() ,
Since ker () = {O} . In other words, Im() = (K
n
)

.
Does knowing the dimension of Im() imply that is onto? Explain.
Answer: Yes. From proposition 1.1.1 we know is onto, because from previous
step we get Im() = (K
n
)

.
Is the proof complete?
Answer: Yes the proof is complete, because we have proved that is 1-1 and
onto. Hence, by denition is isomorphism.
3. Let V be a vector space over R of dimension n; let V

denote the dual vector space

to V .
(a) Let A V

. Prove that if A is not the zero function, then ker A is a subspace

of V of dimension n 1 .
Proof. In class, it was shown that ker A is a subspace. Also see page 59 of
the text. So you dont need to reprove this fact.
The functional A: V R is surjective (page 48 of the text). Why?
Answer: For any w R we can nd a v V . So, we get A(v) = w.
So, A: V R is surjective.
Choose v
0
V such that A(v
0
) = 0 . Let {v
1
, . . . , v
m
} be a basis for
ker A. Then {v
0
, v
1
, v
2
, . . . , v
m
} is a basis for V . Explain. Hint: read over
Assignment 2.
Answer: Let,

m
i=0
b
i
v
i
= 0 . Now applying functional A we get,
A(

m
i=0
b
i
v
i
) = 0
Then,

m
i=0
b
i
(Av
i
) = 0 [using homogeneity property]
But, {v
1
, . . . , v
m
} be a basis for ker A. So from above equation we get,
b
0
Av
0
= 0 . Then, a
0
= 0 . Now, since {v
1
, . . . , v
m
} be a basis for ker A,
then we also get a
i
= 0 for 1 i m. So we can say, a
i
= 0 for 0 i m.
Now, to see {v
0
, v
1
, ...., v
m
} spans V ,let any v V , then v =

m
i=0
b
i
v
i
.
Applying A we get, A(v) = A(

m
i=0
b
i
v
i
)
A(v) =

m
i=0
b
i
A(v
i
)
Then, A(v) = b
0
A(v
0
) [Since v
i
kerA for 1 i m and so
A(v
i
) = 0 for 1 i m]
So, we get b
0
=
A(v)
A(v
0
)
R, since A(v
0
) = 0 .
Also we get A(v b
0
v
0
) =

m
i=1
b
i
A(v
i
) = 0 . Which means (v b
0
v
0
) kerA
and the set {v
1
, ..., v
m
} spans ker A means there is uniquely determined b
i
such that v b
0
v
0
=

m
i=1
b
i
(v
i
) . Then for any v V we can nd b
i
R
such that v =

m
i=0
b
i
(v
i
) . So the set {v
0
, v
1
, ..., v
m
} spans V . Hence,
{v
0
, v
1
, ..., v
m
} is the basis for V .
How does the previous step get used to prove dim(ker A) = n 1 ?
Answer: We know that every basis contains same number of elements. So we
get dim(V ) = n = m + 1 . But from previous step we know ker (A) has m
elements.
So, dim(ker A) = m = n 1 .
(b) Let U V be a subspace of dimension n 1 . Prove that there exists a linear
functional A V

such that ker A = U .

Proof. There is a vector v V that is not in U . Why? Also v = O. Why?
Answer: Given, U V be a subspace of dimension n 1 . Now, dim(V ) =
n > n 1 =dim(U) . So there should be a vector v V that is not in
U . Now since V and U both are linear spaces, so they contains O. Hence
v = O.
Let {v
1
, . . . , v
n1
} be a basis for U . Relabel v as v
n
. From the previous
step, it follows that {v
1
, v
2
, . . . , v
n
} is a linearly independent set. Why?
Provide proof.
Answer: Since {v
1
, . . . , v
n1
} be a basis for U , then we have

n1
i=1
a
i
v
i
= 0
and a
i
= 0 for 1 i n 1 .
Now, consider

n
i=1
a
i
v
i
= 0 . Then we get a
n
v
n
= 0 , since a
i
= 0 for
1 i n 1 . But v
n
= v = 0 . So, we get a
n
= 0 . Which implies the set
{v
1
, v
2
...., v
n
} is linearly independent.
Does the previous step imply that {v
1
, v
2
, . . . , v
n
} is a basis for V ? Explain.
Answer: Yes. Because the set {v
1
, v
2
, ..., v
n
} contains n elements and we
know dim(V ) = n. So the set must be a basis for V .
Let
i
, 1 i n be the basis of V

that is dual to {v
1
, v
2
, . . . , v
n
} . Deter-
mine ker
n
by nding a basis for ker
n
.
Answer: By denition of ker
n
we know, for each v
i
, where 1 i n

n
(v
i
) =

1 if i = n
0 if i = n
Is the proof complete? In other words, have we found a functional A with
ker A = U ? Explain.
Answer: Yes, the proof is complete. We have found a functional A =
n
with ker A = U , since both U and ker
n
are subspaces of V and have
same basis.
(c) Let A, B V

be nonzero functionals. Prove that

ker A = ker B B = bA
for some nonzero scalar b .
Proof. Suppose rst that ker A = ker B. In other words, A(v) = 0
B(v) = 0 .
Choose v
0
such that A(v
0
) = 1 . Then B(v
0
) = 0 . Why?
Answer: If B(v
0
) = 0 then by assumption A(v
0
) = 0 . But which is a
contradiction, since A(v
0
) = 1 . So B(v
0
) = 0 .
Let b = B(v
0
) . We will show that for each v V
B(v) = bA(v) .
For each v V there is a scalar c and w ker A such that v = cv
0
+ w.
Why?
Answer: Each v V may be in the set ker (A) V or in V \ ker A. So
there is a scalar c and w ker A such that v = cv
0
+w. If v ker A then
v = 0 v
0
+ w
for some w ker A.
Otherwise, v = cv
0
+ 0 ,where c is a scalar.
Calculate bA(v) using v = cv
0
+ w.
Answer:
bA(v) = bA(cv
0
+ w) .
= bcA(v
0
) + bA(w) [By additivity and homogeneity of A]
= bcA(v
0
) [since w ker A]
= bc [since A(v
0
) = 1 ]
Calculate B(v) using v = cv
0
+ w.
Answer:
B(v) = B(cv
0
+ w) .
= cB(v
0
) + B(w) [By additivity and homogeneity of B]
= cB(v
0
) [since w ker B]
= bc [since B(v
0
) = b ]
Therefore we have bA(v) = B(v) for v V .
Conversely, suppose that B = bA for some nonzero scalar b .
Let v ker A. Then B(v) = 0 (Why?) so that ker A ker B.
Answer: Let v ker A. Then A(v) = 0 . Now, B(v) = bA(v) = b 0 = 0 .
So, we get that v ker B. Then, we get ker A ker B.
Let v ker B. Then bA(v) = 0 so that A(v) = 0 . Why? (Hint: read over
Assignment 1.)
Answer: Let v ker B. Then B(v) = 0 . Now, B(v) = bA(v) = 0 . So, we
get A(v) = 0 , because b is a non zero scalar. So, v ker A. Then, we get
ker B ker A.
Thus,we get ker B ker A and also ker A ker B.
Hence ker A = ker B.
(d) Let V be a vector space over R of dimension n. A linear hyperplane in V
is by denition a subspace of dimension n 1 . The set of all linear hyperplanes
in V is an important geometric object in mathematics. This set is denoted by
Gr
n1
(V ) and referred to as the Grassmannian of hyperplanes in V . It is
named after Hermann Grassmann. (See the course description in your syllabus.)
Let P
n1
(V

) denote the set of all subspaces l of V

where dim(l) = 1 , i.e., the

set of all lines in V

through 0 . Historically, P
n1
(V

) rst arose in projective

geometry. The set P
n1
(V

) is referred to as the projective space of dimension

n 1 .
Parts a, b and c of this problem imply something about the sets Gr
n1
(V )
and P
n1
(V

) . The something is called projective duality. What precisely

is projective duality?
Answer: Since, dimV =dimGr
n1
(V )+diml . Then P
n1
(V

) is a subspace
of V

and Gr
n1
(V ) is a subspace o V. So, P
n1
(V

) is the project duality of

Gr
n1
(V ) .