CPL Sample Paper

GALAXY INDIA AVIATION ACADEMY
1/51, 2nd Floor opp. Mc. Donald's, Central Market, West Punjabi bagh, New Delhi - 110026
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SAMPLE QUESTION
NAVIGATION
Q1. In the event of delayed departure a flight plan must be amended for a VFR flight if the
delay is ________ or more?
a)10 min b)20 min c)30 min d)60min
Q2. In flight , if the average speed of the aeroplane changed by _________ of the TAS or
________ Mach it must be notified to the controlling authority?
a)5%,0.10 b)10%,0.10 c)5%,0.01 d)10%,0.01
Q3. In flight, a flight plan must be submitted to the appropriate authority at least ________
Before entering controlled aeroplane?
a)5min b)10min c)15min d)20min
Q4. In the flight is subject to Air traffic flow management the flight plane must be filed_____
Hours before the departure time from the ramp?
a)1hr b)2hr c)3hr d)4hr
Q5. For a flight plan submitted before departure, the estimated time should be entered in the
time block?
a)Take block b)Off-block time c)Time you start taxi
Q6. For a wake turbulence category an aircraft is categorised heavy if its maximum take off
mass (MTOM) is?
a)136000 kg or more b)7001-135,999kg c)7000kg or less
Q7. The minimum amount of contingency fuel that may be carried is enough to fly for_____
At the holding speed at a height of_____ above the aerodrome level in ISA conditions?
a)5min,1500ft ( Generally 5% of trip fuel or 3% ) b)5min,2000ft
c)10min,1500ft

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Q8. The fuel requirements for an isolated destination aeroplane include additional fuel which
for a jet aeroplane must not be less than that required to fly for ________ form over head the
destination aerodrome elation?
a)1hr,30min b)2hr,30min c)3hr,15min
Q9. The final reserve fuel for an aeroplane having reciprocating engine should be sufficient
to fly for?
a)5min b)30min (for jet engine) c)45min
Q10. In an ICAO flight plan if total number of person onboard is unknown, it is filled as:-
a)UKN b)TBN c)ABY
Q11. In an ICAO flight plane, box 15, speed filled is :-
a) Ground speed b)CAS c)TAS
Q12. In an TCAO flight plan TAS 180 kts is filled as :-
a) 0180 k b)K 0180 c)N 0180
Q13. The maximum range in a primary radar depends on :-
a)PRF b)BW c)Pw
Q14. Minimum pick up range in a primary radar depends on :-
a)PRF b)PW c)BW
Q15. In a made C transponder total codes available are :-
a)4096 b)4069 c)7777
Q16. Minimum width of clearway should be :-
a)100 ft b)152 m c)1000 ft
Q17. Minimum width of an stop way should be :-
a)Twice width of runway b)At least width of runway c)152 m
Q18. What effect has a centre of greasily close to forward limit?
a) A better rate of climb capability
b) A reduction in specific fuel consumption
c) A reduce rate of climb

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Q19. The operating mass of an aircraft is :-
a) The dry operating mass plus the t/o fuel mass
b) The empty mass plus the take off fuel mass
c) The empty mass plus trip fuel mass
Q20. FMS Database is valid for:-
a)1 year b)56 days c)28 days
Q21. VMU is
a)Minimum unstick speed b)Rough air speed c)Maximum uniform speed
Q22. VEF is :-
a) Maximum extended flap speed b)CAS at which critical engine is assumed to fail
c) Maximum landing gear extended speed
Q23. When does perihelion occur?
a) Early January b)Mid march c)Early Jul
Q24. Nautical twilight and Astronomic Twilight are twilight periods that follow civil twilight.
Nautical twilight occurs when the sum is between ___ and ___ below the sensible Horizon?
a) 0/6 b)6/12 C)12/18
Q25. At the second stage of integration E/W speed is converted into E/W distance gone. To
convert the departure into change of longitude it has to:-
a) Be divided by secant of latitude
b) Be multiplied by secant of latitude
c) Be divided by secant of latitude
Q26. Height and inclination of GPS satellites are:-
a)10200Nm,19000K b)10898Nm,20200Km c)10800Km,20,890Km
Q27. Which of the following is an occasion for carrying out a compass swing on direct
reading compass?
a) After any of the aircraft radio equipment has been changed due to unserviceability
b) Whenever an aircraft carries a large freight load regardless of its content

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c) After an aircraft has passed through a surer electrical storm or has Bren struck by
lighting
Q28.Aicumfersnce of earth is:-
a) 10800Nm b)5400Nm c)21600Nm
Q29.Given GS=120kt. Distance from A to B=84 NM. What is the time from A to B?
a) 00HR 45MIN b)00HR 43MIN c)00HR 42MIN
Q30. Runway direction 305(M) Surface W/V 260 (M)/30kt calculate the crosswind
component?
a) 18kt b)21kt c)27kt
Q31.A Mercator chart has a scale at the equator 1:3704000.What is scale at latitude 60S?
a) 1:7408000 b)1:3208000 c)1:1852000
Q32. If an aeroplane was to circle around the earth following parallel of 60N at a ground
speed of 480kt In order to circle around the earth along the equator in the same amount of
time, it should fly at aground speed of :-
a) 240kt b)550kt c)960kt
Q33. The maximum difference between geocentric and geodetic latitude occurs at about :-
a) 90North and South b)45North & South c)0North and South
Q34. The scale on a Lambert conformal conic chart :-
a) Is constant across the map
b) Is constant along a meridian of longitude
c) Is constant along a meridian of longitude
Q35. Given air craft height 2500ft. ILS GP angle 3.At What approximate distance form
THR can you expect to capture the G.P.
a) 14.5Nm b)8.3Nm c)13.1Nm
Q36. On a transverse Mercator chart, the scale is exactly correct along the
a) meridians of tangency b)equator and parallel of origin c)prime meridian
and equator

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Q37. On a transverse Mercator chart, with the exception of the equator, parallel of latitude
appear as :-
a) Ellipses b)Hyperbolic lines c)Straight line
Q38.When accelerating on easterly heading in the northern hemisphere, the compass card of
a direct reading magnetic compass will turn:-
a) Clockwise giving an apparent turn to north
b) Antilock wise giving an apparent turn to south
c) Clockwise giving an apparent turn to south
Q39.Given TAS=270kt,True HDG=270,wind 205/30kt. Calculate Drift angle & GS?
a) 6L-256kts b)8R-259kts c)6R-259kts
Q40.An aeroplane is flying at TAS 180kt on a track of 090 the W/V is 045/50kt.
a) 176Nm b)56Nm c)85Nm
Q41.Given AD=Air Distance, GD=Ground Distance, TAS=True air speed.GS=Ground
speed. Which of the following in the correct formula to calculate ground distance (GD) gone?
a) GD=(AD x GD)/TAS b)GD=TAS(GD x AD) c)GD=(AD-TAS)/TAS
Q42.An aircraft in northern hemisphere makes an accurate rate one turn on right/star board .if
the initial heading was 330. After 30sec.of the turn the DRMC should read :-
a) Less then 060 b)060 c)more than 060
Q43. Fuel flow per HR is 22 US-GAL, total fuel on board is 83 IMPGAL. What is
endurance?
a) 4hr 32min b)3hr 12min c)2hr 15min
Q44.For turbojet engine driven aeroplane given:-
Taxi fuel- 600kg,fuel flaw for cruise-10,000kg/h, fuel flow for holding-8,000kg/h, Alternate
fuel -10,200kg.,planned flight time-6hr,to destination-fore cast visibility at destination-
2000m.The minimum ramp fuel required is:-
a) 80500kg b)79200kg c)77800
Q45. Given : Dry operating mass = 33510 kg

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Load = 7600 kg, final reserve fuel = 983 kg, contingency fuel = 102 kg, Alternate fuel = 1100
kg.
The estimated landing mass at alternate should be
a) 42195 b)42093 kg c)42210
Q46. Distance A to B = 600 Nm, climb 30 min@160K GS cruise GS = 250kt, descent 20min
@ 180K .Flight duration is:-
a) 2:30 b)2:25 c)2:41
Q47. Descend form A 150 to PA 1000ft at CAS 180 kts hwc 20kts, temp at mid altitude
=15A+20,ROD=500fpm Descent distance ______ NMS ______ min.
a) 80 25 b)88.7 28 c)93 32
Q48. To convent QDMS indicated on RMI by NDB and VOR needles apply variation for
finding the true bearings?
NDB VOR
a) a/c position beacon position
b) beacon position beacon position
c) a/c position a/c position
Q49.For obtaining a 3D fix GPS an a/c Rx must obtain range position lines form at least :-
a)3 satellites b)4 satellites c)5 satellites
Q50.Calculate the beam width of a 3cm radar using a 45 cm diameter antennae:-
a) 7 b) 6 c)4.7
B.W

Q51.An a/c on MH=170 has ADF reading 355[R] is asked to intercept radial 355 at 50
intercept angle and track in. What is initial heading:-
a) 130 b)125 c)135
Q52.In 2D RNAV system, to define position, range and bearing information is derived form:-
a) VOR/VOR b)VOR/DME c)DME/DME

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Q53. Wind is caused due to:-
a) Earth rotation b)Difference in pressure c)Inclination of earth on its axis
Q54.Which cloud is found in stratosphere:-
a) Cumulonimbus b)Nacreous cloud c)Stratus
Q55.Radiation fog occurs:-
a) Over land b)Over Sea c)During Day
Q56.AC cloud with cumuli form protuberances are indicative of:
a) Stability b)Instability c)Neutrality
Q57. Dark grey clouds giving continuous rain called:-
a) AS b)NS c)ST
Q58. A tropical CS has outer storm area of about:-
a) >400km b)>700km c)900km
Q59. The huge vertical circulations one between the equator and 30N and another between
equator 30s are called:-
a) Hadley cells b) Farrell cells c)Polar cells
Q60.The season during which Tamil Nadu gets maximum rain fall is _________ monsoon:-
a) Post b)SW c)Pre
Q61. Advection fog occurs due to _____ air. Moving over _____ surface over ______ :-
a) Dry, wet, land only b)Moist and cold c)Warm & moist air,
cold, both land and sea
Q62.300 hpa in ISA correspond to the level:-
a) 20,000 b)30,000 c)55,000
Q63. Diurnal variation of temperature is maximum over :-
a) Forest b)Ocean c)Land
Q64. Coriolis force is strongest at:-
a) Mid latitude b)Poles c)Equator

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Q65.Radiation fog occurs:-
a) Over land b)Over Sea c)During day
Q66.Drizzle occurs from:-
a) CS b)ST c)NS
Q67. Lenticular clouds & Rotor cloud indicate presence of:-
a) Warm front b)Cold front c)Mountain wave
Q68. The most hazardous cloud for aviation is:-
a) CB b)CU c)NS
Q69. A mature thunderstorm has strong:-
a)Updraft only b)Downdraft only c)Updraft and downdraft
Q70.For mountain waves to form there should be flow of air across the ridge, generally
within_____ of the perpendicular to the ridge -
a) 30 b)45 c)60
Q71.In mountain waves the rotor clouds form in:-
a)Trough b)Ridges c)Valley
Q72.The ______ is the most dangerous part of the cyclone:-
a) Eye wall b)Eye c)Outer storm area
Q73.TAF are generally valid for -
a)18hr b)12 c)30
Q74. Flying condition associated with CB during pre monsoon:-
a) Continuous rain, poor visibility, light turbulence
b) Good visibility, drizzle, turbulence
c) Hail, gusts, shower, severe turbulence
Q75. The main cause of season in India is :-
a)Oscillation of sun 23
N to 23
S
b) Advection of air form Arabian Sea

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c) Earth rotating around its axis
Q76. Number of segment in Instrument approach procedure is:-
a)3 b)4 c)5
Q77. Number of freedom of air are:-
a)3 b)9 c)8
Q78. For Vmcg maximum weight should not exceed:-
a)150kgs b)150lbs c)200lbs
Q79. Line joining places of equal magnetic variation ________ Zero magnetic variation is
_________,equal dip _______ zero dip _______ ;-
a) Agonal, Isoclinal, Aclinal, Isogonal
b)Isogonal,Agonal,Isoclinal,Aclinal
c)Isogonal,Aclinal,Isoclinal,Agonal
Q80.EAT means:-
a)Time at which a/c reaches over destination aerodrome
b)Time of landing
c)Time at which a/c leaves hold to initiate instrument approach procedure
Q81. Which of the following would occur if an aircraft were flown with its C of G of T of the
neutral point?
a)It would be statically unstable
b) It would be statically stable
c) It would be neutrally statically stable
Q82.If a fuel tank contains 145 Imperial Gallons of fuel with a SG of 0.6, its mass is :-
a) 87 b)395 c)387
Q83. Number of hours required for ALTP is:-
a)1500 b)2000 c)1000
Q84. What are the characteristic of stable air?

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a) Poor visibility, intermittent precipitation, cumulus clouds
b) Good visibility, steady precipitation, stratus cloud
c)poor visibility, steady precipitation, stratus cloud
Q85.What is the approximate base of the cumulus cloud if the temperature at 2000 ft AMSL
is 11c and the dew point is 1c :-

a) 4000AMSL b)6000AMSL c)3000AMSL
Q86. In which condition probability of wing lip vortices is most :-
a) A/C is light, slow, flaps are down
b)A/C is heavy clean , slow
c) A/C is light, slow, flaps down
Q87. To avoid wake turbulence of a departing a/c :-
a) T/O after the T/O point of departed a/c
b) leave the ground before the point the departed a/c and stay above its flight path
c) leave the ground before the point the departed a/c and stay below its path.
Q88.To avoid wake turbulence while landing behind a heavy jet :-
a) Touch down well beyond the touch down point of heavy jet.
b) Touch down before Touchdown point of heavy jet.
c) Do not land.
Q89. Photography is permitted in the terminal building with permission of :-
a)Police commissioner b)DGP & T
c)Director general, deputy director general, director of regulations controller of
aerodrome
Q90. Unusual breathing patterns with symptoms similar to hypoxia at low cabin attitude may
indicate:-

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a)Hypoxia b)carbon monoxide poisoning c)hyperventilation
Q91. Scuba diving shortly before flying may cause decompression sickness :-
a) Form bubbles formed in the blood by oxygen
b) Form bubbles formed in the blood by carbon dioxide
c) Form bubbles formed in the blood by nitrogen
Q92. The chances of carbon monoxide poisoning increases with:-
a) increase of air pressure b) increase of altitude c)increase of
altitude
Q93.When spatial disorientation occurs, the best remedy is:-
a)Concentration of flight instruments
b) Rely on a sense of balance
c) Rely on the seat-of-the pants feeling
Q94. Oxygen lack is known as :-
a) Anoxia b)Hypoxia c)Hyperventilation
Q95. The most serious risk form a leaking engine exhaust is:-
a)An excess of carbon monoxide
b) An excess of carbon dioxide
c) A reduction of ambient oxygen
Q96. Hyperventilation may be alleviated by:-
a)Slower breathing b)Faster breathing c)Increased oxygen under
pressure
Q97. A steady red light and a flashing red light are seen in front and at the same attitude. The general
direction of the other aircraft is that is :-
a)Crossing to the left b)Crossing to the right c)Flying away from you
Q98. A steady white light and a flashing red light are seen in front and at the same attitude. The
general direction of other aircraft is that it is :-
a)Crossing to the left b) Crossing to the right c)Approaching head on

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Q99. Before night flight, bright lights should be avoided for at least :-
a)5min b)30min c)45min
Q100. The term for the state of confusion produced by misleading:-
a)Attic barotraumas b)Spatial disorientation c)Neurasthenia
Q101. A runway which is larger than usual will appear on landing on landing to be :-
a) Further away than realty b)Closer than reality c)At the normal distance
Q102. When on normal approach, a narrow runway will give the impression of being :-
a)Higher than normal on the descent
b) Lower than normal on the descent glide slope
c) On the normal glide slop
Q103 Vmcg caters for rudder weight of -:
a) 300 lbs b) 150 lbs c)150kg
Q104 Tenure for ICAO president is -:
a) 1 year b) 10 year c) 5 year
Q105 ICAO annexure 7 deals with-:
a) Rules of the air b) nationality and registration c) accident and incident
investigation

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GALAXY INDIA AVIATION ACADEMY

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