Board Exam AE Reviewer Volume II

UNIVERSITY PRESS
Central Philippine University

Iloilo City, Philippines

AGRICULTURAL
ENGINEERING
COMPREHENSIVE
BOARD EXAM
REVIEWER
Volume II
Agricultural Processing,
Structures, and Allied
Subjects

Department of Agricultural
Engineering
College of Agriculture

1. A dryer in which the material being dried moves
through the drying chamber is substantially in
continuous stream without being recirculated.
a. Recirculating-type dryer
b. Continuous-flow type dryer
c. Concurrent flow dryer
d. None of the above

2. A continuous-flow dryer in which the product
being dried moves in the same direction as the
drying air.
a. Cross-flow type dryer
b. Counter-flow type dryer
c. Concurrent-flow type dryer
d. All of the above

3. A continuous-flow type dryer in which the drying
bin is a columnar type with louvers causing
mixing to occur as the grain flows through the
system.
a. Mixing type
b. Non-mixing type
c. Recirculating type

4. A dryer in which the product of combustion
comes into contact with the product being dried.
a. Indirect fired dryer
b. Direct fired dryer
c. Combustion fired dryer
d. All of the above

5. It is the ratio of the total heat utilized to vaporize
moisture in the material being dried to the
amount of heat added to the drying air.
a. Dryer efficiency
b. Thermal efficiency
c. Heat of vaporization efficiency
d. All of the above

6. A fraction of grain with its length equal to or
greater than three-forth of the average.
a. Large broken grain
b. Small broken grains
c. Head grain

7. An air moving device to force heated air through
the mass of grain at a desired air-flow rate and
pressure.
a. Blower
b. Aspirator
c. Fanning mill

8. A mechanical grain dryer wherein grain is passed
intermittently in cycles or stages through a drying
chamber either by mechanical means or by
gravity with subsequent cooling and tempering
until the grain reaches the desired moisture
content.
a. Batch-in-bin dryer
b. Flat-bed dryer
c. Multipass dryer
d. All of the above

9. A chamber wherein air pressure forms uniform
distribution of heated air through the grain mass.
a. Plenum
b. Bin
c. Duct
d. All of the above

10. The minimum requirement for drying efficiency
based on the standard performance criteria for a
mechanical dryer.
a. 90%
b. 75%
c. 50%

11. The minimum requirement for heating efficiency
of direct-fired biomass-fueled grain dryer.
a. 75%
b. 65%
c. 50%

12. The minimum requirement for heat utilization
efficiency based on the standard performance
criteria of direct-fired petroleum-based fuel for
mechanical dryers.
a. 90%
b. 80%
c. 70%

13. Warranty period requirement for mechanical
grain dryers.
a. 6 months
b. 12 months
c. One year
d. Two of the above

14. It is the ratio of the heat released by the fuel to
the theoretical heat available from the fuel.
a. Burner efficiency
b. Thermal efficiency
c. Combustion efficiency

15. It is the percentage of grain free from foreign
matter.
a. Percentage foreign matter
b. Percentage Cleanliness
c. Purity

16. Pressure build up in the plenum chamber to
maintain uniform distribution of air flow through
the grain mass.
a. Velocity pressure
b. Static pressure
c. Dynamic pressure
d. Two of the above

17. It is the temporary holding of grains between
drying passes to allow the moisture in the center
of the grain equalize with that on its surface.
a. Tempering
b. Static drying
c. Dryaeration

18. It is the amount of moisture in the grain
expressed as percentage of the total weight of the
samples.
a. Moisture content dry basis
b. Moisture content wet basis
c. Moisture content
d. All of the above

19. It is the amount of moisture in the grain
expressed as percentage of the weight of dry
matter.
a. Moisture content dry basis
b. Moisture content wet basis
c. Moisture content

20. Screen cleaners that employ an air blast to assist
in cleaning.
a. Screen separator
b. Fanning mill
c. Blower

21. It is a part of a belt conveyor that is used to
discharge materials over the end of the belt by a
diagonal scraper.
a. Scraper
b. Tripper
c. Head pulley

22. A moisture meter that determines the moisture
content of the product based on the ability of
current to pass through the material.
a. Capacitance type moisture meter
b. Resistance type meter
c. Infrared moisture meter
d. All of the above

23. Moisture that can be found at the surface of the
material.
a. Unbound water
b. Bound water
c. Free moisture
d. All of the above

24. The blending of ingredients or materials in
agricultural processing operation.
a. Sorting
b. Molding
c. Mixing
d. All of the above

25. It is a burr or plate mill.
a. Micro mill
b. Attrition mill
c. Roller mill
d. All of the above

26. A process of reducing the size of materials by
applying force to the product in excess of its
strength.
a. Shearing
b. Crushing
c. Milling

27. A process of reducing the size of materials by
pushing or forcing a thin sharp knife into it.
a. Shearing
b. Crushing
c. Cutting
d. All of the above

28. It indicates the uniformity of grind in the
resultant product.
a. Uniformity sex
b. Particle size
c. Fineness modulus
d. All of the above

29. A process of reducing materials by a combination
of cutting and crushing actions.
a. Milling
b. Grinding
c. Shearing

30. If the amount of water in a product is determined
based on its dry matter content, the moisture
content is expressed in ________.
a. wet basis
b. dry basis
c. semi wet basis

31. A method of measuring the moisture content of
the product by direct extraction of water.
a. Primary method
b. Secondary method
c. Tertiary method

32. The process of detaching or separating rice grains
from the panicle by combing action.
a. Stripping
b. Reaping
a. Harvesting
b. All of the above

33. If 20 kg of water is to be removed from 110kg of
paddy, what is the percentage moisture content of
paddy in wet basis?
a. 1.8%
b. 18%
c. 22%

34. What is the percentage moisture content of paddy
above when expressed in dry basis?
a. 22%
b. 30%
c. 12%

35. What is the amount of moisture to be removed
from a material whose moisture content is 14.5%
with dry matter weight of 76 kg?
a. 12.9kg
b. 24.1kg
c. 14.5kg

36. If a product has a percentage moisture content of
12% wet basis, the equivalent percentage
moisture content in dry basis is ______.
a. 13.6%
b. 16.3%
c. 13.4%

37. A product expressed in dry basis has a percentage
moisture content of 25%, what is the percentage
moisture content of the product in wet basis?
a. 20%
b. 22%
c. 26%

38. If 9 ton of a product is to be dried from 24% to
14%, the final weight of the product would be
_________.
a. 7,953.4 kg
b. 8,837.3 kg
c. 9,741.4 kg

39. What is the moisture loss of the product in item
above?
a. 1046.5 kg
b. 2285.6 kg.
c. 2634.4 kg

40. It is the measure of the power output of fan in
relation to its power input.
a. Fan thermal efficiency
b. Fan performance index
c. Fan efficiency
d. All of the above

41. The recommended depth of grain in a shallow
bed dryer is:
a. up to 12 inches
b. up to 18 inches
c. up to 24 inches
d. All of the above

42. Recommended clearance for disk huller to
achieve higher brown rice recovery with less
breakage.
a. of the length of paddy grain
b. of the thickness of paddy grain
c. of the length of paddy grain

43. Manufacturers prescribed peripheral velocity of
a disk huller is ___________.
a. 10m/s
b. 14m/s
c. 18m/s

44. Manufacturers recommendation for the speed of
cone in a vertical abrasive whitening cone should
not exceed ________.
a. 13m/s
b. 14m/s
c. 15m/s

45. Manufacturers recommendation for the speed of
a horizontal abrasive whitener.
a. 800 rpm
b. 1000rpm
c. 1200 rpm
d. All of the above

46. The process in which air moves through stored
grains at a low rate to maintain its quality.
a. Cooling
b. Aeration
e. Fanning
f. None of the above

47. Maximum allowable safe height of sack pile in
bag storage.
a. 12-16 sacks
b. 18-25 sacks
c. 28-30 sacks

48. Recommended stacking density per cubic meter
of space for paddy.
a. 5 bags
b. 10 bags
c. 15 bags

of space for corn.
a. 12 bags
b. 14 bags
c. 16 bags

of space for milled rice.
a. 10 bags
b. 15 bags
c. 20 bags

51. If a pile of rice is 8-m long, 6-m wide, and 3.6-m
high, how many bags of rice are safe to be piled?
a. 2592 bags
b. 2952 bags
c. 2295 bags

52. If 5000 bags of paddy is to be piled 20-bag high,
how many square meters of floor space is
required?
a. 111sq.m.
b. 121sq.m.
c. 211sq.m.

53. A storage method wherein the gas concentration
in storage atmosphere is changed.
a. Sealed storage
b. Modified atmosphere
c. Controlled atmosphere
d. All of the above

54. A process of separating lower density materials
from grains.
a. Aspiration
b. Cleaning
c. Fanning
d. All of the above

55. A primary cleaner which separates larger
particles or performs rough cleaning of grains.
a. Rotary sieve
b. Scalper
g. Vibrating screen
h. All of the above

56. Recommended size of scalper for paddy is
_______.
a. 0.2-0.25 m
2
per ton
b. 0.3-0.35 m
2
per ton
c. 0.4-0.45 m
2
per ton

57. What is the theoretical rpm of a bucket elevator
whose head pulley diameter is 0.2 m and the
bucket projection is 0.1m.?
a. 77 rpm
b. 120 rpm
c. 160 rpm

58. If the operational efficiency of the bucket
elevator above is 85% of the theoretical speed,
what is the operation speed of the elevator?
a. 65 rpm
b. 102 rpm
c. 136 rpm

59. What is the theoretical horsepower requirement
of a bucket elevator whose capacity is 545kg/min
and lift of 10.7m. The elevator is loaded down
side.
a. 2.19 hp
b. 1.92 hp
c. 2.91 hp

60. A hydrothermal treatment of paddy before
milling.
a. Parboiling
b. Drying
c. Water treatment

61. In a disk huller, the stationary disk is located at
the _________.
a. top of the huller
b. bottom of the huller
c. side of the huller

62. The capacity of a compartment type separator is
________.
a. 20-30kg. brown rice per hour
b. 40-60kg. brown rice per hour
c. 70-80kg. brown rice per hour

63. The amount of foreign materials in a sample of
grains.
a. Impurities
b. Chalky grain
c. Dockage

64. A storage practice in which grains are stored in
loose form in a large container.
a. Bag storage
b. Bunker storage
c. Bulk storage
d. All of the above

65. A small metal probe for taking samples of paddy.
a. Sampling tube
b. Trier
c. Sampler

66. Wooden frame used in staking bags of rice.
a. Dunnage
b. Loading platform
c. Bag holder
d. All of the above

67. A warehouse used for storing paddy or rice either
in bulk or in bags.
a. Silo
b. Godown
c. Farmstead

68. Rough cleaning of paddy to remove most foreign
materials prior to drying and storage.
a. Aspiration
b. Scalping
c. Sieving
d. All of the above

69. A drying temperature of 45 C is equal to
__________.
a. 113 F
b. 131 F
c. 121 F

70. Five tons of paddy milled in 6 hours produces
3950 kg brown rice and 3250kg. of milled rice,
what is the milling recovery?
a. 60%
b. 65%
c. 70%

71. What is the hulling coefficient of the huller in
item above?
a. 0.79
b. 0.89
c. 0.99

72. If the head rice recovery of paddy in item above
is equal to 85%, what is the amount of broken
grains?
a. 487.50 kg
b. 478.50 kg
c. 475.85 kg

73. What is the amount of rice hull produced during
milling in item above?
a. 1000 kg
b. 1050 kg
c. 1100 kg

74. The optimum relative humidity for storing fruits
and vegetables is
a. 60-70%
b. 80-90%
c. 90-100%
d. All of the above

75. A two-ton mechanical dryer dries paddy from
24% to 14% in 8 hours. What is the final weight
of the product after drying?
a. 1767.4 kg
b. 1677.4 kg
c. 1776.4 kg

76. What is the drying capacity of the dryer in the
item above?
a. 200 kg/hr
b. 250 kg/hr
c. 125 kg/hr

77. What is the moisture reduction per hour in the
item above?
a. 29.07 kg/hr
b. 27.09 kg/hr
c. 20.97 kg/hr

78. The coefficient of friction of rice to a steel
material is 0.41. What is the minimum angle of
hopper required for the system?
a. 22 deg
b. 30 deg
c. 50 deg

79. The divisional layer between the dried and the
undried products in a drying system.
a. Drying layer
b. Drying zone
c. Drying front
d. All of the above

80. Amount of heat required to raise one gram of
water one degree centigrade.
a. One BTU
b. One Calorie
c. One Joule
d. All of the above

81. What is the peak storage capacity of a 5-m
diameter grain storage bin with an average height
and a minimum angle of fill of 6 m and 28 deg,
respectively?
a. 126.5m
b. 162.5m
c. 156.2m

82. The angle whose tangent equals the coefficient of
friction between surfaces of the stored materials.
a. Angle of contact
b. Angle of friction
c. Angle of repose
d. All for the above

83. Expression of moisture content commonly used
in commercial scale.
a. Moisture wet basis
b. Moisture content dry basis
c. Moisture content
d. All of the above

84. A solar dryers is used to reduce the moisture
content of four tons of paddy from 25% to 15%
wet basis. The amount of moisture removed is
about ___________.
a. 471 kilos
b. 417 kilos
c. 714 kilos

85. A device that remove excess moisture generally
by forced ventilation with or without addition of
heat.
a. Fryer
b. Dehydrator
c. Dryer

86. A batch-type dryer with vertical holding bin and
is used for shallow-bed drying.
a. Recirculating dryer
b. Vertical bin dryer
c. Batch-type dryer

87. A batch-type dryer equipped to circulate or mix
grain during drying operation.
a. Vertical-bin dryer
b. Recirculating dryer
c. Flat-bed dryer

88. A batch dryer with horizontal grain holding bin is
passed continuously through a drying chamber
utilizing agitator until the grain reaches the
specified moisture content reduction per pass.
a. Batch dryer
b. Continuous flow dryer
c. Recirculating dryer

89. An air chamber maintained under pressure
usually connected to one or more distribution
duct in a drying system.
a. Drying bin
b. Plenum chamber
c. Air duct

90. A machine that converts paddy to milled rice.
a. Paddy husker
b. Rice whitener
c. Rice mill
d. All of the above
19
91. An example of rice husker.
a. Rubber roll huller
b. Disk huller
c. Steel-huller
d. All of the above

92. One ton of coconut will produce approximately
______ of oil.
a. 400 kg
b. 500 kg
c. 600 kg

93. A machine used to remove bran .
a. Polisher
b. Husker
c. Whitener
d. All of the above

94. It is a part of a belt conveyor that is used to
discharge materials over the end of the belt by a
diagonal scraper.
a. Idler pulley
b. Tripper
c. Head pulley

95. It is the ratio of the quantity of light on the
working place to the quantity of light output from
the source.
a. Room index
b. Coefficient of utilization
c. Light intensity

96. A log has a smallest diameter of 24 inches and a
length of 18 inches. What is the net total number
of board foot that can be obtained from the log?
a. 450 bd ft
b. 500 bd ft
c. 550 bd ft

97. A dryer component that converts velocity
pressure of the fan to static pressure.
a. Drying bin
b. Plenum chamber
c. Manometer

98. The percentage speed difference between rubber
rollers.
a. 15 %
b. 20 %
c. 25 %

99. The maximum percentage of milling recovery
that can obtained from a rice mill is ______.
a. 69 %
b. 75 %
c. 80 %

100. Recommended clearance of disk huller to achieve
higher brown rice recovery with less breakage.
a. of the thickness of paddy grain
b. of the thickness of paddy grain
c. of the thickness of paddy grain

101. A vertical-axis hammer mill is more
advantageous than the horizontal-axis hammer
mill for the reason that __________.
a. it is more effective in grinding grains with
higher moisture content of up to 25%.
b. the power requirement of the vertical-axis
hammer mill is much lower than the
horizontal-axis hammer mill
c. less broken grains can be derived from
vertical-axis hammer mill

102. A grain milling machine consisting of two cast
iron disk plate with teeth or serration on one or
both faces.
a. Hammer mill
b. Attrition mill
c. Roller mill
d. All of the above

103. A grain milling machine suitable for grinding
grains with moisture content of up to 30%.
a. Hammer mill
b. Attrition mill
c. Roller mill
d. All of the above

104. A type of mill used for crushing grains by
allowing it to pass through a two rotating
cylinder steel one of which is smaller than the
other.
a. Hammer mill
b. Roller mill
c. Plate mill
d. All of the above

105. The density of pig and poultry feed is
approximately _______.
a. 250 kg/m
3

b. 450 kg/m
3

c. 650 kg/m
3


106. The auger that is centrally located at the vertical
feed mixer usually rotates at a speed of _______.
a. 100-250 rpm
b. 250-400 rpm
c. 400-650 rpm

107. Horizontal feed mixer is not advantageous for
feed mixing as compared with vertical feed mixer
for the reason that _________.
a. horizontal feed mixer has lower capacity
b. horizontal feed mixer has high power
requirement
c. horizontal feed mixer has lesser life span

108. A type of bearing used for tightening bucket
elevator belts.
a. Pillow block bearing
b. Flange bearing
c. Take-up units

109. When a bucket elevator is to be fed at the
downside section instead of the upside section of
the elevator booth, its power requirement will
_________.
a. decrease
b. increase
c. the same

110. A type of a conveyor feeder used for feeding
birds in cages on a poultry farm.
a. Flat chain feeder
b. Auger feeders
c. Round chain feeders
d. All of the above

111. An electrically-operated device commonly used
for automatic bagging of grains or feeds.
a. Solinoid switch
b. Transducer
c. Load cell

112. Manufacturers prescribed peripheral velocity of
disc for disc-type huller.
a. 10 m/s
b. 14 m/s
c. 18 m/s

113. Recommended peripheral speed of rubber roller
for hulling operation.
a. 10 m/s
b. 14 m/s
c. 18 m/s
d. none of the above

114. Manufacturers recommendation for maximum
speed cone on a vertical abrasive whitening
machine.
a. 13 m/s
b. 14 m/s
c. 18 m/s

115. An element used primarily to support axial
compressive load and with a height of at least three
times its least lateral dimension.
a. Pier
b. Column
c. Beams

116. A primary cleaner which separates larger
particles or rough cleaning of rough rice.
a. Rotary sieve
b. Scalper
c. Vibrating screen
d. All of the above

117. Recommended size of scalper for paddy cleaning.
a. 0.2-0.25m
2
/ton
b. 0.3-0.35m
2
/ton
c. 0.4-0.45m
2
/ton

118. What is the theoretical rpm of a bucket elevator
whose head pulley diameter is 0.2 m and the
bucket projection is 0.1 m.
a. 77 rpm
b. 120 rpm
c. 160 rpm

119. If the operational speed of the bucket elevator in
item above is 85 % of the theoretical speed, what
is the operational speed of the elevator?
a. 65 rpm
b. 102 rpm
c. 136 rpm

120. What is the theoretical horsepower requirement
of a bucket elevator with a capacity of 545
kg/min and lift of 10.7 m and the elevator is
loaded down side.
a. 2.19 hp
b. 1.92 hp
c. 2.91 hp

121. A rice mill huller which produces high milling
recovery.
a. Steel huller
b. Rubber huller
c. Stone disk
d. All of the above

122. On the disk huller, the stationary disk is located
on ________.
a. top of the huller
b. bottom of the huller
c. outside of the huller

123. An air moving device which produces high
airflow but low head.
a. Fans
b. Blower
c. Compressor
d. All of the above

124. A device that is used to move oil.
a. Blower
b. Pump
c. Compressor
d. All of the above

125. If mixing is needed to carryout during conveying,
the suitable conveyor is _________.
a. Bucket
b. Screw
c. Belt
d. All of the above

126. The horsepower requirement of belt conveyors
includes power ______.
a. to drive empty
b. to drive at horizontal
c. to drive vertical
d. All of the above

127. A conveyor with high power requirement per unit
capacity.
a. Bucket
b. Belt
c. Pneumatic
d. All of the above

128. An air moving device suitable for grain cleaning.
a. Axial fan
b. Propeller fan
c. Cross flow fan
d. All of the above

129. If the diameter of a blower is increased, the
pressure will ______.
a. increase
b. decrease
c. the same

130. A machine which separates paddy from brown
rice.
a. Screen sifter
b. Paddy separator
c. Paddy husker

131. A machine that smoothen milled rice.
a. Whitener
b. Polisher
c. Sifter
d. All of the above

132. Recommended for conveying product with less
damage.
a. Bucket elevator
b. Screw conveyor
c. Belt conveyor
d. All of the above

133. An air moving device commonly used for drying
which produces high pressure but low airflow.
a. Blower
b. Fan
c. Compressor

134. Recommended to remove metallic element
during conveying.
a. Screen separator
b. Magnetic separator
c. Pneumatic separator

135. A machine that separates brown rice from paddy.
a. Scalper
b. Paddy separator
c. Rice whitener
d. Paddy husker
e. None of the above

136. The speed of fixed rubber roll from the adjustable
roller on a rubber roll huller is slower by
________.
a. 20 %
b. 25 %
c. 30 %

137. A machine that is used to remove the bran from
the brown rice.
a. Polisher
b. Grader
c. Whitener

138. A machine that is used to make milled rice shiny
after removing the bran layer.
a. Polisher
b. Grader
c. Whitener

139. A machine that is used to segregate various
fractions/sizes of milled rice.
a. Whitener
b. Grader
c. Whitener
140. A type of whitener consisting of a fluted roller
rotating inside the hexagonal chamber with slot-
type perforations.
a. Abrasive-type whitener
b. Frictional-type whitener
c. All of the above
141. Commonly used material handling equipment.
a. Bucket elevator
b. Screw conveyor
c. Belt conveyor
d. All of the above

142. A conveyor which is essentially made of an
endless belt operating between two or more
pulleys with its load supported by idlers.
a. Bucket elevator
b. Screw conveyor
c. Pneumatic conveyor

143. A conveyor used for fine materials and is made
of a helical plate which rotates on a trough and
moves the product by dragging.
a. Chain conveyor
b. Pneumatic conveyor
c. Screw conveyor

144. A material handling equipment which consists of
cups attached to a chain or belt that revolves
around a bottom-and-top pulley where the cups
are discharged.
a. Chain conveyor
b. Belt conveyor
c. Bucket elevator

145. A conveyor which utilizes high terminal velocity
air to move the product.
a. Vibratory conveyor
b. Screw conveyor
c. Pneumatic conveyor

146. It is the method of determining grain moisture by
directly extracting the moisture from the product.
a. Primary method
b. Secondary method
c. Tertiary method

147. An example of moisture determination using
primary method.
a. Resistance type meter
b. Capacitance type meter
c. Oven
d. All of the above

148. It is a method of determining moisture from the
product which is based on the electrical
properties of the product.
a. Primary method
b. Secondary method
c. Tertiary method

149. A device used in oven-drying to prevent
dehydrated samples to re-adsorb moisture while
undergoing cooling process.
a. Distilling flask
b. Glass jar
c. Dessicator
d. All of the above

150. It is the ability of the machine to remove hulls
from the grains.
a. Coefficient of hulling
b. Hulling percentage
c. Husking efficiency
d. All of the above

151. Outer layer of brown rice consisting of aleurone
cells covering the endosperm of the rice grain.
a. Hull
b. Embryo
c. Bran
d. All of the above

152. The ASAE standard agricultural pallet bin for
square shape bin.
a. 100 cm x 100 cm
b. 120 cm x 120 cm
c. 150 cm x 150 cm

153. The ASAE standard agricultural pallet bin for
rectangular shape bin.
a. 120 cm x 100 cm
b. 150 cm x 120 cm
c. 150 cm x 100 cm

154. Overall height of agricultural pallet bin as
recommended by ASAE.
a. 72 or 133 cm
b. 62 or 122 cm
c. 52 or 112 cm

155. An auger capable of discharging materials to one
or more locations.
a. Feeding auger
b. Portable auger
c. Distributing auger

156. An auger which releases conveyed materials
essentially uniformly along a substantial portion
of its length.
a. Feeding auger
b. Portable auger

157. An auger whose accessories include a suitable
support system which provides mobility.
a. Feeding auger
b. Portable auger

158. Auger size refers to _________.
a. the diameter of the auger.
b. the inside diameter of the auger tube.
c. the outside diameter of the auger tube.

159. Hammer mills are designed purposely to
________.
a. chop forage materials.
b. reduce the sizes of granular products.
c. compact powered product.
160. The husking ratio of rubber roll huller is about
________.
a. 60-70 %
b. 80-90 %
c. 95-98 %

161. A rice thresher that is fed at one end and
discharges threshed product at the other end is
________.
a. radial-type thresher
b. hold on type thresher
c. axial-flow thresher

162. Commonly used threshing units for throw-in type
thresher.
a. Peg-tooth
b. Wire loop
c. Rasp bar

163. Part of rice thresher that causes the movement of
panicles from one end to the other end of the
threshing cylinder.
a. Louvers
b. Concave
c. Pegs

164. The recommended rpm of rice thresher cylinder.
a. 400-600 rpm
b. 800-1200 rpm
b. 2000-3000 rpm
c. None of the above
165. It is a dehulled paddy but the bran layer remains
intact.
a. Rough rice
b. Milled rice
c. Brown rice
d. All of the above

166. Measures the ability of the machine to remove
hulls with minimum breakage.
a. Coefficient of hulling
b. Coefficient of breakage
c. Coefficient of wholeness
d. All of the above

167. It is the extent by which the bran layer of brown
rice is removed as a result of whitening.
a. Milling degree
b. Degree of whitening
c. Milling recovery
d. All of the above

168. A multi-pass rice mill is determined by
___________.
a. having two or three separate hullers in the
system
b. having a series of two or three whitening
machines
c. paddy is loaded several times in the rice mill
169. It is the ratio of the weight of milled rice to the
weight of paddy multiplied by one hundred.
a. Percentage head rice recovery
b. Percentage milling recovery
c. Percentage milling capacity
d. None of the abov
170. It is an unhulled grain of Oryza sativa.
a. Palay
b. Paddy
c. Rough rice
d. All of the above

171. An auxillary device of a rice mil which receives
the remaining small bran particles of milled rice
and gives a glossy appearance to the product.
a. Whitener
b. Grader
c. Polisher
d. All of the above

172. An example of rice huller.
a. Steel-fluted
b. Rubber roll
c. Disk
d. Centrifugal
e. All of the above

173. A process of reducing the corn kernel into pieces
of grits, germ, and pericarp with or without
conditioning.
a. Dry milling
b. Hammer milling
c. Attrition milling

174. A machine used to remove the germ and pericarp
from the corn kernel.
a. Conditioner
b. De-germinator
c. Corn mill
175. A major component of a corn mill used to reduce
corn kernel into grits.
a. Roller mill
b. Ball mill
c. Attrition mill
d. All of the above

176. A kind of cleaner that uses air to separate lower
density material from corn kernel/corn grits such
as floured corn, germ, and bran.
a. Aspirator
b. Oscillating screen
c. Cleaner
d. Cyclone separator
e. All of the above

177. A kind of rice mill that employs only one
whitening machine.
a. Kiskisan rice mill
b. Single pass rice mill
c. Rubber roll rice mill

178. Minimum hulling efficiency requirement for rice
mill based on the standard performance criterion.
a. 90%
b. 80%
c. 70%

179. It is the process of rewetting of dried corn kernels
to about 18 to 22% moisture content and
tempered to make the pericarp and the germ more
pliable and easier to remove during de-
germination process.
a. Tempering
b. Conditioning
c. Drying
d. None of the

180. A storage system for holding buffer stocks
usually located at shipping receiving terminals.
a. Village level storage system
b. Commercial level storage system
c. Centralized storage system
d. All of the above

181. It is a storage structure made of pre-fabricated
reinforcement concrete of pre-fabricated metal
siding, which is either a hopper bottom or a flat
bottom.
a. Warehouse
b. Silo
c. Bulk container
d. All of the above

182. Size of wire mesh used in storage to protect
stored product from insects and rodents.
a. inch mesh
b. inch mesh
c. inch mesh
d. All of the above

183. GPEP stands for __________.
a. Grain Productivity Enhancement Project
b. Grain Productivity enhancement Program
c. Grain Production Enhancement Program
d. All of the above

184. Areas of concern of Philippine Postharvest
Industry.
a. Research and development
b. Training, extension, and commercialization
c. Postharvest facility assistance
d. Government support to the private sector
e. All of the above

185. It is the fibrous layer of paddy when hull is
removed and is frequently known as the silver
skin of brown rice.
a. Lemma and Palea
b. Pericarp
c. Bran layer

186. The free space between the husk of rough rice
and the brown rice kernel greatly affects milling
in the sense that ________.
a. the larger the free space increases the amount
of broken grains
b. the smaller the free space the lesser its
abrasive effect to the rubber roll huller
c. the larger the free space, the smaller the
breakage and losses
d. All of the above

187. Slender type paddy has a length to width ratio of
_________.
a. less than 2.0
b. between 2 to 3
c. more than 3.0

188. The uneven expansion and contraction of the
inner and outer layers of the grains that cause
fissuring is a factor of __________.
a. mechanical stress
b. thermal stress
c. physical stress
d. All of the above

189. Broken rice is a quality deterioration index
during ________.
a. drying
b. threshing
c. milling

190. Changes in texture, odor, flavor, and nutritive
value of grains during prolonged storage, even in
the absence of insects and microorganisms, are
due to _______.
a. moisture and temperature
b. vapor pressure and temperature
c. vapor pressure and moisture
d. All of the above

191. It is recommended that paddy should be
harvested when 80% of the panicle are fully ripe
for the reason that __________.
a. harvesting paddy below 80% will produce
more broken grains
b. harvesting paddy above 80% will produce
more empty grains
c. harvesting paddy above 80% will produce
more shattered and broken grains
d. All of the above

192. It is the manual method of harvesting paddy
using yatab.
a. Sickle harvesting
b. Panicle harvesting
c. Stripper harvesting
d. All of the above

193. Shelled corn initially at 24% is to be dried to
14%. If the initial weight of corn is 1000 kilos,
what is its final weight?
a. 782 kg
b. 827 kg
c. 872 kg

192. What is the moisture loss of corn grains above?
a. 128 kg
b. 173 kg
c. 218 kg

193. It is a plot representing the equilibrium moisture
content of grains at different relative humidity
but with constant temperature.
a. Isothermal graph
b. Sorption isotherms
c. Isothermal humidity

194. Factors that cause migration of moisture during
storage.
a. Variation of ambient temperature within the
grain mass
b. Moisture gradient within the grain mass
c. All of the above
e.
195. It is the process of diffusion from region of high
concentration to region of low concentration.
a. Energy transfer
b. Mass transfer
c. Heat transfer

196. In grain drying theory, drying will occur if
___________.
a. the vapor pressure of grains is higher than the
vapor pressure of air
b. the vapor pressure of grains is lower than the
c. the vapor pressure of grains is equal with the

197. The usual depth of grain in deep bed batch dryer
is __________.
a. 18 inches
b. 2 to 8 ft
c. 8 to 10 ft

198. What is the relative humidity of air if the
psychrometer measures 40 C for both dry bulb
and wet bulb temperatures?
a. 40%
b. 80%
c. 100%
d. All of the above

199. If the point is moved horizontally to the left of
the psychrometric chart, the process is
__________.
a. heating
b. cooling
c. drying

200. If the end-product in milling is brown rice, the
grain has just passed through a ________.
a. paddy cleaner
b. rubber roll huller
c. whitener
d. sifter

201. What machine is usually used before brown rice
will undergo whitening process?
a. Husker
b. Aspirator
c. Paddy separator
d. Rice polisher

202. Adjustment clearance for rubber brakes in
vertical abrasive whitening cone.
a. 1 to 2 mm from cone coating
b. 2 to 3 mm from cone coating
c. 3 to 4 mm from cone coating

203. Maximum speed requirement of vertical abrasive
whitening cone machine.
a. 13 m/s
b. 14 m/s
c. 15 m/s
d. All of the above

204. Normal setting speed of horizontal abrasive
whitener.
a. 800 rpm
b. 1000 rpm
c. 1200 rpm

205. Recommended clearance setting between stones
of a disk huller.
a. of the length of paddy
b. of the length of paddy
c. of the length of paddy
d. All of the above

206. If the rubber roll huller becomes worn-out, the
peripheral speed of the roller will _________.
a. decrease
b. increase
c. be the same

207. It is the process of compressing mash feeds with
the aid of live steam to produce small chunks or
cylinders of feed.
a. Mixing
b. Crumbling
c. Pelleting
d. All of the above

208. It is the process of grinding pellets into coarse
granular form.
a. Coarse pelleting
b. Crumbling
c. Milling

209. A feed mixer which have an auger that elevates
the feed on top of the mixing bin and spread
evenly in the bin by gravity for another mixing
cycle.
a. Horizontal mixer
b. Vertical mixer
c. Inclined mixer
d. All of the above

210. A mixer which consist of a U shaped bin which
contains a central mixing blade or ribbon
mounted on a rotating shaft.
a. Horizontal mixers
b. Inclined mixer
c. Vertical mixer
d. All of the above

211. Feed mixers that is characterized by high
capacity, short mixing time, and high power
requirement.
a. Horizontal mixer
b. Inclined mixer
c. Vertical mixer
d. All of the above

212. Feed mixer that is characterized by low capacity.
longer mixing time, and low power requirement.
a. Horizontal mixer
b. Inclined mixer
c. Vertical mixer
d. All of the above
45
213. It is the assembling and measuring out of the
required qualities of solid raw feed materials into
a batch of the desired composition.
a. Mixing
b. Blending
c. Pelleting
d. All of the above

214. Feed materials are mixed purposely to _______
a. obtain homogenous feed to ensure that
animals are given the same proportions of
nutrient
b. reduce the density of the feed material so that
it can be easily transported.
c. improve the digestability of feeds.

215. Grinding feeds basically will ____
a. make the feed attractive to the animals.
b. improve digestability of feeds materials.
c. improved storage period of the feeds.

216. Average velocity of hammer tip of a hammer
mill.
a. 50 m/s
b. 100 m/s
c. 150 m/s

217. It is used to control the flow of materials in a feed
milling plant to ensure that it will enters in the
full width of the mill chamber and at the same
time optimum capacity is obtained while the
motor is overloaded.
a. Discharge chute
b. Feeder
c. Auger

218. Optimum mixing time of vertical-type feed
mixer.
a. 5 minutes
b. 10 minutes
c. 15 minutes

219. Approximate speed of horizontal type feed mixer.
a. 10 rpm
b. 15 rpm
c. 25 rpm

220. Required mixing time for horizontal feed mixer.
a. 5 minutes
b. 10 minutes
c. 15 minutes

221. It is a coarse powder from outer covering of the
corn kernel removed during milling process.
a. Corn cob
b. Grit
c. Bran
d. Pericarp
47
222. By-product in corm milling refers to _____.
a. corn grit # 20 and # 24
b. corn grit # 16 and #18
c. corn grit # 12 and #14
d. All of the above

223. It is a milled corn kernel with particle size
between 1.5 mm to 1.7 mm.
a. Corn grit # 12
b. Corn grit # 14
c. Corn grit # 16
d. Corn grit # 18
e. All of the above

224. It is a milled corn kernel with particle size
between 1.10mm to 1.19 mm.
a. Corn grit # 12
b. Corn grit # 14
c. Corn grit # 16
d. Corn grit # 18
e. All of the above

225. It is a by-product after pressing copra when oil having
light color and very low fatty acids has been
removed.
a. Copra meal
b. Copra meat
c. Copra cake

226. It is the process of rewetting of dried corn kernels
to about 18 to 22% moisture content and
tempered to make the pericarp and the germ more
pliable and easier to remove during
degermination process.
a. Wet milling
b. Degermination process
c. Conditioning

227. The main product of corn milling.
a. Corn grit # 10
b. Corn grit # 12
c. Corn grit # 14
d. Corn grit # 16
e. All of the above

228. It is the milled corn kernel where the outer
covering and germs have been removed and with
particle size of not less than 0.86 mm..
a. Broken corn kernel
b. Cracked corn kernel
c. Corn grits

229. It is the ratio of the weight of corn grits to the
total weight of corn kernel input expressed in
percent.
a. % input capacity
b. % main product recovery
c. % milling recovery
d. All of the above

230. It is the major component of a corn mill that
reduce corn kernel into grits.
a. Burr mill
b. Hammer mill
c. Steel roller mill
d. All of the above
231. It is the minimum main product recovery required
in the performance criteria for corn mill.
a. 44%
b. 54%
c. 64 %

232. Shelled corn kernels where the germ and pericarp
have been removed.
a. Milled corn kernel
b. Degerminated corn kernel
c. Polished corn kernel

233. It is the ratio of the weight of corn kernel input to
the total operating time.
a. Input capacity
b. Output capacity
c. Milling capacity
d. All of the above

234. It is the minimum by-product recovery required
in the performance criteria for corn mill.
a. 21 %
b. 31%
c. 41%

235. A rice processing plant operates at 5 tons per
hour. The milling and head rice recoveries of the
rice mill are 69% and 95%, respectively. What is
the input capacity of the rice mill?
a. 7.24 tons per hour
b. 3.45 tons per hour
c. 4.75 tons per hour

236. What is the throughput rate of the rice mill in kg
broken grains per hour?
a. 0.172 ton per hour
b. 0.250 ton per hour
c. 0.350 ton per hour

237. If the machine rice huller has a hulling coefficient
of 0.90 and wholeness coefficient of 0.80, what is
the output in kg of brown rice per hour of the rice
huller in problem above?
a. 6.52 tons per hour
b. 4.50 tons per hour
c. 4.00 tons per hour

238. It is the process of preserving food materials in
hermetically-sealed container which has been
sterilized with the use of heat.
a. Drying
b. Canning
c. Steaming

239. It is the process of subjecting food product to a
temperature of about 65 C for 30 min which
causes the death of many but not all of the
organism present.
a. Dehydration
b. Sterilization
c. Pasteurization

240. It is the termination of entire organism in the
product using heat at a temperature of about 50 to
100 C.
a. Pasteurization
b. Heat sterilization
c. Dehydration

241. It is the process of removing solid particles from
liquid such as wine, fruit juices, vinegar, and
vegetable oil.
a. Screening
b. Filtration
c. Leaching

242. A process of segregating alcohol, sugar, and
some soluble materials with the use of water.
a. Leaching
b. Hydrolysis
c. Water adsorption

243. A process of separating volatile compound from
less volatile materials.
a. Distilling
b. Leaching
c. Diffusing

244. One ton nuts is equivalent to _______.
a. 4000 pieces of nuts
b. 5000 pieces of nuts
c. 6000 pieces of nuts

245. The process of separating coarse from fine
materials.
a. Sifting
b. Cleaning
c. Sorting

246. It is a device that separates materials such as oil
from water, and crystals from mother liquor by
means of whirling action.
a. Liquid separator
b. Centrifuge
c. Crystalizer

247. A process which is used to clean fruits and
vegetables to soften the dirt and other foreign
materials adhering to the skin thus making the
washing by spray more efficient.
a. Water soaking
b. Water agitation
c. Scalding

248. A term given to the process of heating fruits and
vegetables in live steam or in water before
canning to clean, to reduce volume, to eliminate
undesirable flavor or odor, and to remove slime
forming-materials.
a. Scalding
b. Blanching
c. Sterilizing

249. It is an instrument that is used to determine the
salt content of brine.
a. Hydrometer
b. pH meter
c. Manometer

250. It is the weight of animal minus 3 percent of its
total weight to account for the content of the
digestive tract.
a. Slaughter weight
b. Live weight
c. Dead weight

251. It is the weight of carcass or meat and bones
together with the fat and first-and second-class
by-product of an animal.
a. Slaughter weight
b. Dead weight
c. Live weight

252. It is a facility where the primary processing of
animal yielding meat carcasses, raw fat, internal
organ, and hides are carried out.
a. Slaughter house
b. Dressing Plant
c. Animal Butchering Plant
d. All of the above

253. Pump commonly used in food processing
industry.
a. Piston displacement pump
b. Rotary displacement pump
c. Centrifugal pump

254. A type of pump used in food industry that is
characterized by pulsating or periodic output.
a. Piston displacement pump
b. Rotary displacement pump
c. Centrifugal pump
d. All of the above

255. Drying temperature of copra is _______.
a. less than 50 C
b. between 50 to 95 C
c. above 95 C

256. A spiral kind of positive displacement pump used
in food industry wherein the product comes into
contact with a flexible kind of materials instead
of steel and in which air is utilized as a displacing
medium.
a. Peristaltic pump
b. Jet pump
c. Diaphragm pump
d. All of the above

257. An equipment used in food industry for feeding
solid/liquid mixture into a screw press or
wringers in the form of sheets, rods, or other
shapes.
a. Extruder
b. Screw press
c. Screw feeder
d. All of the above

258. A process of combining different materials until a
certain degree of homogeneity is achieved.
a. Milling
b. Mixing
c. Feeding

259. Basically, the purpose of mixing is ________.
a. To promote the transfer of heat between hot
or cold product
b. To obtain good contact between materials
being mixed
c. To promote reactions between reactants
d. All of the above
e. Two of the above

260. A type of mixer suitable for free flowing or non-
free flowing materials.
a. Rotating mixer without stirrers
b. Rotating mixer with stirrers
c. All of the above
d. Two of the above

261. A machine used for mixing solids and liquids in
such a ratio that very viscous mixture is formed
such as paste and doughs.
a. Kneader
b. Roller
c. Mixer

262. An equipment used for heating and cooling of
flowing products.
a. Condenser
b. Evaporator
c. Heat exchanger
d. All of the above

263. An example of Newtonian fluids of low
viscosity.
a. Soup
b. Chocolate
c. Juices
d. All of the above

264. An example of Non-Newtonian fluid with high
viscosity.
a. Juices
b. Drinks
c. Mashed vegetables
d. All of the above

265. It is the prevention or the protection of products
against spoilage.
a. Preservation
b. Drying
c. Dehydration

266. A process of preservation by means of heating
the product at a temperature below 100 C to kill
pathogenic bacteria.
a. Drying
b. Dehydration
c. Pasteurization
d. All of the above

267. A type of dryer commonly used in food industry
where dried materials are injected in the dryer in
automized form to produce powdered product.
a. Spray dryer
b. Drum dryer
c. Pneumatic dryer
d. All of the above

268. A drying technology which has the ability to
maintain the original appearance of the product
with no shrinkage, retain shape and structure.
a. Heated air drying
b. Conduction drying
c. Freeze drying
d. All of the above

269. It is the complete destruction of all forms of life
in the product being processed.
a. Cooking
b. Sterilization
c. Pasteurization

270. It is the process of heating the product nearly at
boiling point to render it stable against spoilage
by microorganism.
a. Cooking
b. Sterilization
c. Pasteurization

271. It is the indicator of the quality of food which
determines whether or not it is acceptable to the
consumers.
a. Taste
b. Flavor
c. Palatability

272. It is the process applied in the manufacture of
chocolate and similar products to produce a very
marked effect on appearance and flavor through
the elimination of moisture, harshness, and
acidity.
a. Conching
b. Roasting
c. Frying

273. A process of pumping product against a steel
plate through a very small opening of 0.0001
diameter at a pressure of about 3500 psi to reduce
the size of fat globule such as those in milk,
mayonnaise, and others to a point that fats have
no tendency to rise.
a. Homogenizing
b. Conching
c. Pressing

274. It is the process often used in heating of can and
its content under vacuum condition to remove air
and other entrapped gases before sealing.
a. Exhausting
b. Sterilizing
c. Heating
d. All of the above

275. A process used for many food products by giving
deaeration treatment to improve the color, flavor,
aroma retention, or reduce the volume of the
product.
a. Degassing
b. Blending
c. Exhausting
d. All of the above

276. A process usually applied to nuts and beans of
various sorts in order to bring about a desired
flavor rather than to effect on sterilization.
a. Drying
b. Blanching
c. Roasting
d. Pasteurization

277. A processing used in canning in which there is
rigid regulation of the cooking temperature in
such a manner that packages are not misshapen or
broken by too rapid cooling
a. Tempering
b. Freezing
c. Refrigeration

278. Brown spots on dried vegetables is caused by
______.
a. too high drying temperature used
b. low drying temperature used
c. optimum drying temperature used

279. A pretreatment method used for vegetables to
destroy enzymes that can cause undesirable
changes in color and flavor during drying and
storage.
a. Cleaning
b. Blanching
c. Drying

280. A pretreatment method for fruits and vegetables
to retard spoilage and darkening of fruits.
a. Blanching
b. Sulfuring
c. Sterilizing
d. All of the above

281. Roasting temperature for pumpkin seeds,
sunflower seeds, and peanuts.
a. 200-250 F
b. 250-300 F
c. 300-350 F

282. Pre-drying temperature requirement for
mushroom.
a. 80-90 F
b. 120-125 F
c. 250-300 F
e. All of the above

283. A case formed like a leathery material over the
outside of very high sugar food such as fruit
which doesnt allow water to pass through during
drying is a factor of _________.
a. slow drying
b. rapid drying
c. normal drying

284. Pretreatment of fruits and vegetables are
recommended to _______.
a. stop enzymatic activity which results in color,
flavor, and nutrient losses or changes
b. stop ripening and spoilage
c. hasten drying rate and improve storageability
of the product

285. Another term used for citric acid.
a. Table salt
b. Lemon salt
c. Acid salt
d. All of the above

286. Requirements for a good dehydrator.
a. Some form of temperature control
b. A fan to circulate air and remove moisture
c. Easily removable and washable trays
d. All of the above

287. Rotating trays or exchanging trays on a
dehydrator when drying fruits and vegetables is
recommended for the purpose of ______.
a. reducing drying time
b. increasing the efficiency of the dryer
c. promoting even drying of product
288. Conditioning dried fruits after drying basically is
done to _______.
a. allow moisture to equalize through all the
food so that there will no damp spots where
mold will grow
b. increase the quality of dried fruit prior to
packaging
c. improve the color and taste of fruit

289. Sulfured food are recommended for storage using
_______.
a. metal can container
b. plastic container
c. bottle with can cover container
d. All of the above

290. Recommended temperature for drying
vegetables.
a. 125 F
b. 150 F
c. 175 F
e. 200 F
f. All of the above

291. Which of the following statement is true?
a. Different foods requiring similar drying times
and temperature can be dried together
b. Vegetables with strong odors or flavor should
be dried separately
c. Dont dry strong-smelling vegetables outside
in an electric dehydrator because dehydrators
are not screened and insect may invade the
food
d. All of the above

292. Sulfur treatment on fruits and vegetables can be
replaced by _____.
a. aulfite dips
b. ateam blanching
c. water blanching
d. All of the above

293. An example of chemicals used as sulfite dips.
a. Sodium bisulfite
b. Sodium sulfite
c. Sodium metabisulfite
e. All of the above

294. Pasteurizing is recommended for foods that had
been contaminated or used as second treatment
for vegetables held in storage if the vegetables do
not have any mold on them ___________.
a. before drying
b. before and during storage
c. after storage
d. All of the above

295. Commonly methods used for pasteurizing foods.
a. Freezing and oven drying
b. Steaming and Blanching
c. Boiling and drying
d. All of the above

296. Recommended storage time for dried food.
a. 2 4 months
b. 4 12 months
c. 12 24 months
d. All of the above

297. Fruits rolls that is characterized by tasty chewy
dried fruit made by pouring pursed fruit into a flat
surface for drying.
a. Fruit rolls
b. Dried fruit
c. Fruit leathers
d. All of the above

298. Drying time requirement for solid yellow or
slightly brown-flecked bananas in a dehydrator.
a. 4-8 hours
b. 8-10 hours
c. 10- 16 hours
d. All of the above

299. It is the process of decomposition of
carbohydrates by microorganism or enzyme.
a. Fermentation
b. Spoilage
c. Preservation

300. It is the preservation of food in brine or vinegar
with or without bacterial fermentation.
a. Pickling
b. Salting
c. Blanching

301. A pre-treatment procedure to keep the color and
quality of vegetable before drying.
a. Trimming
b. Blanching
c. Salting

302. It is the process of boiling whole fruits or pieces
of fruit pulp with sugar to a moderate thick
consistency, without retaining the shape of the
fruit.
a. Jams
b. Jellies
c. Marmalades
d. All of the above

303. It is a product prepared by extracting the juice
from boiled fruits, and then boiled with sugar and
cooked to such consistency that gelatinization
takes place when cooled.
a. Jams
b. Jellies
c. Marmalades
d. All of the above

304. It is a clear jelly which contains evenly
suspended slices of fruits or peel.
a. Jam
b. Jellies
c. Marmalades
d. All of the above
305. It is the aseptic practice in the preparation,
processing, and packaging of food products.
a. Cleaning
b. Sanitation
c. Housekeeping

306. Substances used to prevent food by retarding
deterioration, rancidity, or discoloration due to
oxidation.
a. Additives
b. Antioxidants
c. Emulsifiers

307. Substances that modify surface tension in the
component phase of an emulsion to establish a
uniform dispersion.
a. Additives
b. Antioxidants
c. Emulsifiers

308. Any substance including a food additive used as a
component in the manufacture or preparation of a
food and present in the final product.
a. Nutrients
b. Microelement
c. Ingredients

309. Any tag, brand, mark, pictorial, or other
descriptive matter, written, printed, marked,
embossed or impressed on, or attached to a
container of food.
a. Nutrition facts
b. Label
c. Trademark

310. Canning temperature for fruits, tomatoes, and
pickles in water bath canner.
a. 115 deg C
b. 100 deg C
c. 74 deg C

311. Canning temperature for low-acid vegetables,
meat and poultry in pressure canner.
a. 115 deg C
b. 100 deg C
c. 74 deg C

312. Cooking temperature that destroys most bacteria
in foods.
a. 115 deg C
b. 100 deg C
c. 74 deg C

313. It is the process of removing heat from a
substance or a space at a lower temperature.
a. Sublimation
b. Heat of fusion
c. Refrigeration
d. All of the above

314. Heat moves from a substance naturally to another
substance _____.
a. at a higher temperature to lower temperature
b. at lower temperature to higher temperature
c. at either temperature
315. It is the intensity of the molecular movement of
matter.
a. Energy
b. Heat
c. Work
d. All of the above

316. A substance is cold if _________.
a. heat is present
b. heat is absent
c. heat is higher
d. All of the above

317. The quantity of heat in the substance is described
in terms of _____.
a. BTU
b. Calories
c. Pascal
d. All of the above

318. Ten BTU is equivalent to _______.
a. 2520 calories
b. 2250 calories
c. 2045 calories

319. One-hundred calories is equivalent to
__________.
a. 418.7 Joules
b. 481.7 Joules
c. 471.8 Joules

320. An instrument used to measure heat is ________.
a. thermometer
b. Watt meter
c. Calorimeter

321. It is the measurement of the heat level of a
substance.
a. Thermometer
b. Temperature
c. Calorimeter
d. All of the above

a. The freezing point of water is 0 F
b. The boiling point of water is 212 C
c. That 32 F and 0 C is the same temperature
level

323. It is the quantity of heat required to raise the
temperature of a substance one degree scale.
a. Sensible heat
b. Specific heat
c. Latent heat

324. The specific heat of water is _________.
a. 1 BTU/lb-F
b. 1 kcal/kg-C
c. 1 cal/g-C
d. All of the above

325. It is the amount of heat added or removed from a
substance with the change in temperature.
a. Sensible heat
b Latent heat
c. Specific heat
d. All of the above

326. It is the heat added or removed from a substance
causing a change in its state without changing its
temperature.
a. Sensible heat
b. Latent heat
c. Specific heat
d. All of the above

327. It is the quantity of heat required to change a unit
mass of a liquid into gaseous state without
change in temperature.
a. Latent heat of vaporization
b. Latent heat of fusion
c. Latent heat condensation

mass of solid to liquid state without change in
temperature.
b. Latent heat of fusion
c. Latent heat of sublimation
d. All of the above

mass of gas to liquid state without change in
temperature.
b. Latent heat of condensation
c. Latent heat of fusion
d. All of the above

mass of solid to gas without change in
temperature.
a. Latent heat of fusion
b. Latent heat of vaporization
c. Latent heat of sublimation

331. The latent heat of fusion of water is ________.
a. 336 kJ/kg
b. 144 BTU/lb
c. All of the above

332. At a higher elevation, ________.
a. water will boil at 100 C
b. water will boil above 100 C
c. water will boil below 100 C
c. Water will not boil

333. The amount of heat transmitted to a wall is a
factor of ______.
a. wall thickness
b. temperature difference
c. resistance of heat flow of the wall materials
d. All of the above

334. A material with high emissivity _________.
a. will collect more heat
b. will not collect heat
c. will transmit heat

335. The basic uses of insulating materials for
refrigeration system are:
a. To retard heat flow
b. To prevent surface condensation
c. To control noise and vibration
d. All of the above

336. Which of the following insulating materials for
refrigeration system is efficient and least
expensive?
a. Asbestos
b. Styrofoam
c. Aluminum foil
d. All of the above

337. It is the amount or quantity of current flowing in
a circuit
a. Voltage
b. Amperage
c. Ohms

338. It is the electrical pressure of a circuit
a. Voltage
b. Amperage
c. Ohms

339. It is the cooling coil of a refrigeration system
a. Condenser
b. Evaporator
c. Compressor

340. It is the basic part of a refrigeration system which
is characterized by a high pressure side.
a. Condenser
b. Evaporator
c. Expansion valve
d. All of the above

341. It is the part of a refrigeration system that causes
the circulation of a refrigerant.
a. Condenser
b. Expansion valve
c. Compressor

342. A part of a refrigeration system that causes the
reduction of pressure of the refrigerant.
a. Evaporator
b. Compressor
c. Expansion valve
d. All of the above

343. It is a fluid that easily boils at a lower
temperature.
a. Water
b. Oil
c. Refrigerant
d. All of the above
344. One ton refrigeration is the amount of heat
required to melt one ton of ice in ________.
a. 12 hours
b. 24 minutes
c. one day
345. One ton refrigeration is equal to _______.
a. 288,000 BTU/day
b. 12,000 BTU/hr
c. 200 BTU/min
d. All of the above

346. An example of refrigerant.
a. Ammonia
b. Carbon monoxide
c. Methyl bromide
d. All of the above

347. Commonly used refrigerant in ice plants.
a. Ammonia
b. Carbon dioxide
c. Methyl chloride

348. A refrigeration appliance that operates at a higher
temperature.
a. No-frost refrigerator
b. Air-conditioner
c. Domestic freezer
d. All of the above

349. The introduction of fresh ambient air to an air-
conditioned or refrigerated space.
a. Cooling
b. Air changes
c. Air filtration

350. It is the removal of accumulated ice from the
surfaces of cooling coils which operate below
freezing point.
a. Dehumidification
b. Defrosting
c. Ice melting

351. A refrigeration system which can be used either
to cool or to heat a given space, normally by
exchanging the functions of the evaporator and
the condenser.
a. Heat pump
b. Humidifier
c. Dehumidifier

352. Air that is flowing into a space through gaps
around doors, windows, and others.
a. Air intake
b. Air changes
c. Infiltration

353. The difference between dry bulb and wet bulb
temperatures
a. Wet bulb depression
b. Relative humidity
c. Dew point temperature

354. The temperature at which a liquid is converted to
solid state upon the removal of its latent heat of
fusion.
a. Cooling point
b. Solid point
c. Freezing point

355. To reduce the relative humidity of air, it is
recommended to use a _______.
a. humidifier
b. dehumidifier
c. psychrometer

356. In a domestic refrigerator, the condenser can be
found _______.
a. inside the refrigerator cabinet
b. outside the refrigerator cabinet
c. beneath the freezer

357. Freezers in refrigerator compartment are
normally found at the upper section of the cabinet
for the reason that _______.
a. it is easy to load product to the freezer
b. it is easy to install the freezer in the cabinet
c. heat will efficiently be distributed to the
refrigerator compartment

358. Chilling injury of banana will occur at a
temperature
a. Below 27 C
b. Below 14 C
c. Below 5 C
d. All of the above

359. Lowest temperature that is safe for storage of
banana is ________.
a. below 14 C
b. below 5 C
c. below 0 C
d. All of the above

360. When a product is termed as frozen storage, it is
________.
a. chilled and stored above freezing point
b. the product is stored between -10 F to 10 F
c. the product is stored at 10 F to 50 F
d. All of the above

361. Another important factors in cold storage of
perishable products are ________.
a. energy and power requirement inside the
storage room
b. temperature and heat loss in the storage room
c. humidity and air motion inside the storage
room

362. The use of plastic polyethylene sheet as
packaging material for cold storage is ________.
a. to provide heat insulating effect on the
product
b. to make the product attractive to the customer
c. to prevent moisture loss in the product

363. The purpose of refrigeration in storing perishable
product is _____.
a. to improve the quality of the product
b. to arrest or retard the natural process of
deterioration
c. to hasten ripening or maturity of product such
as fruits and vegetables
d. All of the above

364. It is the process of exposing freshly-harvested
product and carefully-prepared food to subzero
temperatures and holding them at 32 C during
storage period to maintain the quality of the
products.
a. Cold storage
b. Quick freezing
c. Sharp freezing
d. All of the above

365. If vegetables are stored at a temperature between
0 C to 30 C, the product is under _________.
a. frozen storage
b. refrigerated storage
c. All of the above

366. Important factor that contributes in proper
refrigeration of perishable crops is ______.
a. constant temperature
b. free air circulation
c. control of relative humidity
d. All of the above

367. It is the process of heating vegetables in steam or
in boiling water to inactivate enzymes and
reduce microbial population thereby prolonging
storage at subfreezing temperature.
a. Dehydration
b. Blanching
c. Drying

368. Most favorable cold storage temperature for eggs.
a. 29 30 C
b. 29 30 F
c. 28 F

369. Freezing temperature for eggs.
a. 29 30 C
b. 29 30 F
c. 28 F

370. Factors that change during cold storage of fish
due to oxidation of fish oils and pigments
particularly in more fatty species of fish.
a. Color and flavor
b. Color and texture
c. Flavor and texture
d. All of the above
371. A process of retarding moisture and oxidation
loss from the product during cold storage by
providing a continuous film or coating that will
adhere to the surface of the product.
a. Blaching
b. Thawing
c. Glazing

372. A freezer that operates at an air temperature of -
30 F and below and a velocity of 500 to 100 fpm.
a. Sharp freezer
b. Air-blast freezer
c. Contact plate freezer
d. All of the above

373. A freezer used for fish product wherein the
products are placed in shelves or in aluminum
pans or plates covered by pipe coils or
evaporators at a temperature of 20 to - 29 C.
a. Sharp freezer
b. Air-blast freezer
c. Contact plate freezer
d. All of the above

374. Freezing point of milk.
a. - 0.545 C
b. - 0.545 F
c. 0. 545 C

375. A frozen product made of a pasturized mixture of
sugar, solid milk, stabilizer, food acid, and
flavorings such as fruits, fruit juices or extract,
and water.
a. Ice cream
b. Sherbet
c. Frozen milk
d. All of the above

376. Which of the following are used for packaging
frozen poultry products?
a. Plastic
b. Edible coating
c. Aluminum foil
d. Waxed cardboard
e. All of the above
f.
377. A 3 hp engine is to be replace with electric
motor. Recommend for the size of the motor for
the drive.
a. 1 hp
b. 2 hp
c. 5 hp

78. Frozen poultry product gave only good for a
period of ________.
a. 1 to 6 months
b. 6 to 12 months
c. 1 to 2 years
d. All of the above

379. Term used for the internal organs of poultry
suitable for cold storage.
a. Carcass
b. Giblets
c. Gills

380. In order to minimize darkening of carcass of
poultry meat, it is recommended that before cold
storage poultry meat should be ______.
a. slowly be frozen and undergo scalding
process
b. frozen rapidly
c. undergo scalding process
381. Tenderness of poultry meat can be maintained
during cold storage by __________.
a. storing it in aluminum foil
b. storing it in plastic net
c. storing it unpacked
d. All of the above

382. Changes in the flavor of meat, fish, or poultry
during freezing is due to the ______.
a. change in temperature of the product
b. microorganisms that were killed during
storage
c. oxidation of fats

383. It is a method of freezing the surface of poultry
meat using mist of liquid prior to storage in an air
blast freezer or cold storage room.
a. Liquid immersion freezing
b. Liquid spray freezing
c. Conveyor tunnel freezing
d. All of the above

384. If a poultry product is stored at a temperature of
35-40 F, the product quality can be maintained
within ______.
a. 1 to 2 months
b. 1 to 2 days
c. 1 to 2 hours
385. It is a flesh obtained from domesticated animals.
a. Carcass
b. Meat
c. Giblets

386. It is the meat obtained from hogs.
a. Beef
b. Pork
c. Veal
d. All of the above

387. It is the meat of sheep that is less than one year
old.
a. Lamb
b. Muttons
c. Chevon

388. It is the meat from rabbit.
a. Lapan
b. Venison
c. Chevon

389. It is the meat from goat.
a. Chevon
b. Venison
c. Mutton
d. All of the above

390. It is the method used in preserving meat.
a. Smoking process
b. Refrigeration
c. Freeze drying
d. Irradiation
f. All of the above

391. It is a meat of less than one-year old cattle.
a. Beef
b. Veal
c. Carabeef
d. All of the above

392. Which of the following is true?
a. When beef is stored at lower temperature it
will have longer storage life than when cold
stored at higher temperature
b. Storing beef at lower temperature will reduce
its storage life
c. Storing beef at higher temperature will
increase its storage life
d. All of the above

393. Myoglobin content in meat is responsible for
_______.
a. odor of meat after cold storage
b. appearance of meat
c. color of meat
d. All of the above
e. Two of the above

394. It is the process of allowing meat to hang at
temperature of 0 to 3 C to create tenderizing
effect before freezing.
a. Aging
b. Freezing
c. Tempering

395. Which of the following is true in cold storage of
meat?
a. Extreme temperature fluctuation during
defrosting contributes to short storage life of
the meat.
b. Freezing meat and its subsequent frozen
storage improves the quality of meat products.
c. Proper handling of meat prior to freezing
reduces the quality of frozen products.

396. Freezer burn in meat product is a result of
______.
a. storing meat product in a freezer with plastic
sheet to prevent moisture loss
b. storing meat product without plastic sheet at
high relative humidity
c. storing meat product without plastic sheet at
low relative humidity

397. The recommended time for storing beef cuts at
18 C is ___.
a. 6 to 12 months
b. 3 to 4 months
c. 1 to 2 months

398. Ground beef can be stored at 18 C within a
period of ________.
a. 6 to 12 months
b. 3 to 4 months
c. 1 to 2 months

399. It is a method of freezing shrimp into an agitated
cold brine solution of a fixed concentration and
temperature.
a. Blast freezing
b. Immersion freezing
c. Tunnel freezing

400. At 18 C scallop meat have a frozen storage life
of ________.
a. 1- 2 months
b. 3 - 6 months
c. 7 - 12 months

401. ASHRAE is the acronym for __________.
a. Association of Heat, Refrigeration, and Air
Conditioning Engineers
b. American Society of Heating, Refrigerating,
and Air Conditioning Engineers
c. Association of Sensible Heating,
Refrigeration, and Air Cooling Engineers

402. An equipment that is used to clean, cool, heat,
humidify, or dehumidify air.
a. Air heat exchanger
b. Air conditioner
c. Air-cooled condenser
d. All of the above

403. The process of removing moisture from air.
a. Dehydration
b. Air suction
c. Dehumidify
d. All of the above

404. It is the most popular refrigerant used for
refrigeration system.
a. R-12 (Dichlordifluoromethane)
b. R- 22 (Monochlorodiflouromethane)
c. R-502
d. All of the above

405. It is the most popular refrigerant for air-
conditioning.
b. R-22 (Monochlorodiflouromethane)
c. R-502 (mixture of R-22 and R115)
d. All of the above

406. A popular refrigerant for low temperature
refrigeration systems.
b. R-22 (Monochlorodiflouromethane)
c. R-502 (mixture of R-22 and R115)
d. All of the above

407. It is the process by which air is cooled, cleaned,
and circulated.
a. Air conditioner
b. Air conditioning
c. Air cooling and cleaning
d. All of the above

408. Air conditioning system wherein the condenser is
located separately from the evaporator and uses
an interconnecting refrigerant lines.
a. Split-system air conditioning system
b. Package equipment air conditioning system
c. All of the above

409. It is the cooling equipment of air conditioner.
a. Condenser
b. Evaporator
c. Compressor
d. Expansion valve

410. Condenser efficiency of an air conditioner can be
increased by _____.
a. reducing the condenser surface area
b. increasing the condenser surface area
c. increasing the amount of refrigerant flowing
in the condenser

411. Operating temperature of evaporator in an air-
conditioning system.
a. 20 F
b. 40 F
c. 60 F
d. All of the above

412. Refrigerated-air conditioning is used in
________.
a. hot temperature with high humidity
b. hot temperature with low humidity
c. hot temperature with high or low humidity

413. A refrigerated system that cleans, dehydrates, and
cools a compartment.
a. No frost refrigerator
b. Chiller
c. Freezer
d. Air conditioner

414. Which of the following statement is true:
a. The motor and compressor of a refrigeration
system is separately installed.
b. The motor and compressor of a refrigeration
system is housed in the same compartment.
c. The compressor and the motor of a
refrigeration system is non-hermetic type?
d. None of the above.

415. The highest pressure in the refrigeration system
can be found at ____.
a. the capillary tube
b. the entrance of the evaporator coil
c. the entrance of the condenser tube
d. the evaporator coil immediately before the
compressor

416. A refrigeration system component after the
condenser.
a. Capillary tube
b. Filter
c. Compressor

417. A refrigeration system component after the
capillary tube.
a. Evaporator
b. Compressor
c. Condenser

418. A refrigeration system component before the
condenser.
a. Filter
b. Evaporator
c. Capillary tube
d. Compressor

419. Lowest temperature zone in refrigeration system.
a. Condenser
b. Capillary tube
c. Evaporator

420. State of refrigerant at the condenser side
immediately after leaving the compressor.
a. Superheated gas
b. Lukewarm liquid
c. Saturated gas

421. Sate of refrigerant at the evaporator side
immediately before the compressor.
a. Superheated gas
b. Lukewarm liquid
c. Saturated gas

422. A newly discovered refrigerant that is not
harmful for ozone layer or referred to as ozone
friendly gas.
a. R12
b. Ammonia
c. Suva Mp 52 (R-134a)
d. All of the above

423. It is a term used for the overcharging of
refrigerant.
a. Back frost
b. Sweating
c. Supercharging

424. It is a mixture of vapor and liquid.
a. Saturated gas
b. Saturated liquid
c. Superheated gas

425. It is a mixture of liquid and gas.
a. Saturated gas
b. Saturated liquid
c. Superheated gas

426. Charging pressure for refrigerator and freezer
using R-12 refrigerant.
a. 19 psi
b. 65 psi
c. 75 psi

427. Larger floor area for the same height of wall use
light _____ .
a. more efficiently than rooms with smaller floorarea
b. more inefficiently than rooms with smaller
floor area
c. the same with smaller rooms
428. Charging pressure for air conditioning unit using
R-12 refrigerant.
a. 19 - 45 psi
b. 65 - 75 psi
c. 80 - 90 psi

429. A dry ice is _____.
a.. Solid H
2
O
c. Solid CO
2

d. Solid O
2


430. A device used mostly in larger cooling units to
cool the water that absorbs the heat from the
condenser.
a. Cold storage room
b. Cooling Tower
c. Heat Exchanger

431. When a condenser of a refrigeration system is
cooling, what is the common trouble?
a. Too much refrigerant
b. Lacks refrigerant
c. No refrigerant

432. It is the passage of from the outside of a leaky
room caused by cracks in windows, doors, and
other possible sources.
a. Heat loss
b. Air infiltration
c. Air gap

433. Known as Dichlorodifluoromethane used as
primary refrigerant for refrigerator.
a. R-11
b. R-12
c. R-22

434. Known as Monochlorodifluoromethane used a
primary refrigerant for aircon systems.
a. R-11
b. R-12
c. R-22

435. The transfer of heat from one part of a solid body to
the other under the influence of temperature gradient.
a. Convection
b. Conduction
c. Radiation
d. All of the above

436. The transfer of heat by mixing one parcel of fluid
with another.
a. Convection
b. Conduction
c. Radiation
d. All of the above

437. Shape factor for heat by conduction is expressed
as ________.
a. A/dx
b. K A/dx
c. dt/dx

438. It is the amount of heat transferred per unit
temperature per unit length.
a. Emmissivity
b. Thermal conductivity
c. Heat transfer coefficient

439. When heat is transmitted through molecular
waves, it is transmitted by _______.
a. convection
b. conduction
c. radiation

440. The amount of heat required to raise one pound
of water one degree farenheight.
a. Thermal capacity
b. Specific heat
c. British Thermal Unit

441. It is a proportionality factor that represents the
property of material through heat conduction.
a. Thermal resistivity
c. Thermal coefficient

442. Cooling meat, fruits and vegetables are examples
of heat transmission by _________.
a. unsteady state conduction
b. steady state conduction
c. free convection

443. Factors influencing thermal conductivity.
a. Chemical composition of materials
b. Temperature of materials
c. Surrounding pressure
d. All of the above

444. If the temperature surrounding the material is
decreased, the thermal conductivity also
__________.
a. changes in decreasing manner
b. changes in increasing manner
c. does not change

445. Fluids with low molecular weight have
________.
a. high thermal conductivity
b. low thermal conductivity
c. no thermal conductivity

446. Heat basically transfers from ________.
a. lower temperature to high temperature
b. high temperature to lower temperature
c. lower pressure to high pressure

447. If more heat is to be transmitted from one side to
the other side of a solid body, what would you
recommend as an Engineer?
a. Increase the thickness of material
b. Decrease the thickness of material
c. Maintain the thickness of material

448. The shape factor for conduction heating on a
cylindrical wall is ______.
a. 6.3 L/ln r2/r1
b. 3.14 L/ln r2/r1
c. 3.14 kL/ln2/r1

449. The amount of heat transmitted per unit time and
temperature for a given surface area by a fluid .
a. Heat coefficient
b. Specific heat
c. Heat transfer coefficient

450. If a boiling water is pumped from a boiler to a
heat exchanger, heat is transmitted by ________.
a. natural convection
b. forced convection
c. radiation

451. Heat transfer coefficient is lower for _______.
a. liquids
b. gases
c. boiling water
d. condensing vapors

452. An example of heat conductor.
a. silica brick
b. refractory cement
c. asbestos fiber

453. In a vacuum condition, heat transfer by
conduction moves ____.
a. faster
b. slower
c. at constant rate

454. In sundrying, heat is released from a body by
_____.
a. radiation
b. force convection
c. natural convection

455. The amount of heat required to raise a kilogram
of water one degree centigrade.
a. Kilo calories
b. Joules
c. Watts

456. Dimensionless numbers used in determining heat
transfer coefficient by natural convection.
a. Nusselt/Grashof/Prantdl
b. Nusselt/Reynolds/Prantdl
c. Prantdl/Reynolds/Grashof

457. The unit of energy in SI system is ________.
a. Newton-meter
b. Joules
c. W-sec.
d. All of the above

458. It is the insulating ability of a material or the
resistance of material to the flow of heat.
a. Thermal resistance
c. Thermal insulator
d. All of the above

459. The ability of a body to give up or to receive
heat.
a. Heat
b. Temperature
c. Energy
d. All of the above

460. Temperature of surrounding air.
a. Dry bulb temperature
b. Wet bulb temperature
c. Ambient temperature
d. All of the above

461. It is the form of energy that provides difference in
temperature of molecular materials.
a. Heat
b. Temperature
c. Thermal resistance

462. Nusselt number is a function of _______.
a. convection coefficient, pipe diameter, and
thermal conductivity
b. thermal conductivity, viscosity, and diameter
of pipe
c. convection coefficient, velocity of fluid,
diameter of pipe

463. A thick wall tube of stainless steel (k = 19w/m-
C) with 2 cm. ID and 4 cm. OD) is covered with
3 cm. layer of asbestos insulation (k = 0.2 w/m-
C). If the inside wall temperature of the pipe is
maintained at 600 C and the outside of the
insulation at 100 C, what is the heat loss per foot
length of the tube?
a. 600 w/m
b. 680 w/m
c. 720 w/m

464. Which of the following has the highest heat
transfer coefficient?
a. Gases
b. Liquids
c. Boiling water
d. All of the above

465. The heat transfer coefficient of liquid in kcal/m-
hr-C is at the ranged of ________.
a. 3 to 20
b. 100 to 600
c. 1000 to 2000

466. Which of the following is true?
a. The thermal conductivity of aluminum is
higher than silver.
b. Silver is faster to transmit heat than
aluminum.
c. Aluminum and silver transfer heat at the same
rate.
d. All of the above

467. What is the total board foot of 5 pieces of 2 in x
6 in. x 14 feet wood?
a. 50 bd ft
b. 60 bd ft
c. 70 bd ft

468. What is the heat loss per ft of a brick kiln wall 9-
inches thick is made of a material with thermal
conductivity of 0.18 BTU/hr-ft-F? The outside
and inside temperature is 1500 F and 400 F,
respectively.
a. 224 BTU/hr-ft
b. 264 BTU/hr-ft
c. 246 BTU/hr-ft

469. What is the heat transfer loss per foot of 2 inches
nominal pipe (OD=2.37 in.) covered with 1-in.
thick of an insulating material having an average
thermal conductivity of 0.037 BTU/hr-ft-F. The
inner and outer temperatures of the insulation are
380 and 80 F, respectively.
a. 161 BTU/hr-ft
b. 111 BTU/hr-ft
c. 125 BTU/hr-ft

470. The Prantdl number is a function of ________.
a. viscosity, specific heat, and thermal
conductivity
b. specific heat, heat transfer coefficient, and
thermal conductivity
c. viscosity, diameter of pipe, thermal
conductivity

471. If the flow of fluid is on streamline
characteristics, the fluid is at _________.
a. turbulent condition
b. laminar condition
c. eddies
d. All of the above

472. Heat transfer coefficient by force convection is
determined by what dimensionless numbers?
a. Nusselt, Prantdl, Reynolds
b. Nusselt, Prantdl, Grashof
c. Reynolds, Grashof, Prantdl

473. One British thermal unit is equal to _______.
a. 1055 J
b. 1505 J
c. 1550 J

474. If the heated pipe is changed with to a higher pipe
schedule, the heat transfer will ________.
a. increase
b. decrease
c. remains the same
d. All of the above

475. Basically, the thermal conductivity of a material
will increase if the __________.
a. thickness is increased
b. temperature is increased
c. temperature is decreased
d. All of the above

a. Heat transfer rate is higher on edges of boxes.
b. Heat transfer rate is higher on corners of
boxes.
c. Heat transfer rate is lower on the walls of
boxes.

a. Layers produce more manure per day than
broilers.
b. Broiler produces more manure per day than
layers.
c. Both produce the same amount of manure per
day.

478. A good insulator for kiln dryer.
a. Rice husk
b. Brick
c. Concrete

479. A material which is poor conductor of heat or
has low thermal conductivity.
a. Conductor
b. Insulator
c. Resistor
d. All of the above

480. An example of a good insulating material at high
temperature.
a. Iron
b. Wood
c. Asbestos
d. All of the above

481. Which of the following has low thermal
conductivity?
a. Building brick
b. Asbestos
c. Firebrick
d. Concrete

482. Insulators used for steam lines are classified into
_______.
a. low temperature range insulator
b. medium temperature range insulator
c. high temperature range insulator

483. A good example of a dual temperature insulator.
a. Expanded silica
b. Cellular glass
c. Vermiculite
d. All of the above

484. Form of insulants used in industrial insulation
practice.
a. Flexible strips
b. Foil
c. Flexible pipe section and mattresses
d. All of the above

a. In insulation, heat gain is more costly than
heat loss.
b. The cost of extracting heat from refrigerated
space is the same with the cost of heat losses
from a high temperature system
c. The cost of insulating high temperature
system is the same with that of low
temperature system
d. All of the above

486. Moisture in low-temperature insulation material
may cause _______.
a. reduction in the insulating value of the
material
b. improvement in the insulating value of the
materials
c. to decrease the cost of the insulating materials
d. All of the above

487. A process of heating copra to facilitate the
removal of oil during pressing.
a. Drying
b. Steaming
c. Conditioning

488. One thousand nuts at 800 grams per nut will
produce _______ kg of copra.
a. 220 kg
b. 320 kg
c. 420 kg

489. It is an extruded foam used for low temperature
systems such as refrigeration, building, and sub-
zero insulation.
a. Polystyrene foam
b. PVC foam
c. Plastic foam
d. All of the above

490. It is essentially a ceramic material designed to be
resist amount to high temperature of 1000 to
1800 C.
a. Refractory
b. Asbestos
c. Fiber glass

491. Factor that need to be considered in selecting
insulants _______.
a. operating temperature
b. maintenance cost
c. ability to resist mechanical and heat damage
d. All of the above

492. To protect insulant from mechanical damage, the
insulant must be provided with __________.
a. metal sheet cladding
b. nets and asbestos cement
c. wire net and bituminous compound
d. All of the above
493. The Stefan Boltzmann constant is equal to
__________.
a. 0.147 x 10
-8
BTU/hr-ft
2
-F
4

b. 0.174 x 10
-8
BTU/hr-ft
2
-F
4

c. 0.174 x 10
-8
BTU/hr-ft
2
-F
3

494. The equation for heat transfer by radiation for
gray bodies is ______.
a. Qr = AT
4

b. Qr = AT
4

c. Qr = AT
4


495. It is a device used for transferring heat.
a. Insulator
b. Heat absorber
c. Heat exchanger
d. All of the above

496. The overall heat transfer coefficient includes
_______.
a. thermal conductivity and heat transfer
coefficient of the materials
b. heat transfer coefficient and emmissivity of
the materials
c. thermal conductivity and emmessivity of the
materials

a. When radiant energy falls on a body, part may
be reflected, absorbed and the remainder
transmitted.
b. When radiant energy fall on a body, part may
be reflected and absorbed.
c. When radiant fall on a body, all of the energy
are absorbed.

498. When two fluids in a heat exchanger move in
opposite direction, the device is classified as.
a. Parallel flow HE
b. Cross flow HE
c. Constant flow HE

499. Configuration factor for parallel planes in
calculating the heat radiated is.
a. higher than perpendicular planes
b. lower for perpendicular planes
c. equal to perpendicular planes

500. It is a mixture of cement, gravel, sand and water
to harden in forms of the shape and dimension of
the desired structure.
a. Bricks
b. Masonry
c. Concrete
d. All of the above

501. It is a project study of determining the quality,
quantity, and cost of every materials used in a
work of in every finished work.
a. Feasibility study
b. Project planning
c. Estimate

502. It is a slow hardening kind of concrete.
a. Portland blast furnace concrete
b. Low heat portland concrete
c. Portland pozzoland concrete
d. All of the above

503. Which of the following materials has the highest
percentage composition in cement.
a. Lime
b. Silica
c. Alumina

504. It is considered as refractory material.
a. Lime
b. Alumina
c. Silica
d. All of the above

505. Class AA concrete has a mixing proportion of
________.
a. 1 : 2 : 4
b. 1 : 2.5 : 5
c. 1 : 3 : 6

506. Mixing proportion for class A concrete.
a. 1 : 2 : 4
b. 1 : 2.5 : 5
c. 1 : 3 : 6

507. Recommended mixing proportion for machine
foundation.
a. 1 : 2 : 4
b 1 : 3 : 6
c. 1 : 2 : 3

508. Recommended mixing proportion for floor slabs
4 in. thick.
a. 1 : 2 : 4
b. 1 : 3 : 6
c. 1 : 2 : 3

509. A structure made by laying bricks, stones blocks,
and other stone like materials.
a. Masonry
b. Mortar
c. Concrete
d. All of the above

510. Approximate numbers of concrete hallow blocks
that can be produced per bag of cement.
a. 55 to 60 pieces
b. 30 to 35 pieces
c. 25 to 30 pieces

511. Two bags of cement is equal to.
a. 2 cubic feet in volume
b. 2 cubic meters in volume
c. 200 kilos in weight
512. Although it is a non-homogenous natural product
requiring judgment and critical appraisal, it
continues to be the primary structural materials
for farm building.
a. Concrete
b. Wood
c. Masonry
d. Metals
513. By classification, they come from broad leaf
deciduous trees.
a. Manufactured wood
b. Plywood
c. Softwood
d. Hardwood

514. A class of softwood lumber used for farm
building construction, with sub-classes, entitled
finish, common boards and common dimensions.
a. Yard lumber
b. Structural lumber
c. Factory lumber
d. Lumber grade
e. Manufactured lumber

515. A mixture of cement and water only, mixed to the
consistency of very thick cream used for coating
surfaces of concrete to improve their appearance.
a. Grout
b. Mortar
c. Plastic
d. Solution
e. Cement
516. The term generally applied to stonework of the
simpliest kind when little or no tool work is done
on the stones other than to break them with
hammer and roughly dress them.
a. Flagg
b. Mortar
c. Plastic
d. Rubble

517. A farm structure used to store and protect the
animal fodder so that it is preserved in an ideal
condition for the farm animals.
a. Silo
b. Warehouse
c. Farm shop
d. Motor pool

518. A barrel of cement consist of ______.
a. 3 bags
b. 2 bags
c. 5 bags
d. 4 bags

519. One half the horizontal distance of the truss.
a. Run
b. Rise
c. Span
d. Rafter

520. Volume of cement that can be contained in 4 in. x
8 in. x 16 in. concrete hallow block.
a. 0.001 m
3
b. 0.003 m
3
c. 0.004 m
3

521. Mixing proportion of cement/sand for class a
mortar.
a. 1 : 1
b. 1 : 2
c. 1 : 3
d. 1 : 4

522. A planed lumber having at least one side smooth.
a. Dressed lumber
b. Rough lumber
c. Lumber yard
d. All of the above

523. A piece of lumber having a minimum smallest
dimension of 5 inches or 13 cm.
a. Timber
b. Plank
c. Board
d. All of the above

524. A piece of lumber less than 4 cm thick with at
least 10 cm wide.
a. Timber
b. Plank
c. Board
d. All of the above

525. A wide piece of lumber from 4 to 13 cm thick.
a. Timber
b. Plank
c. Board

526. A dressed lumber having four sides are
smoothen.
a. S4S
b. 4SS
c. SS4
d. All of the above

527. It is an undressed lumber.
a. Surface lumber
b. Rough lumber
c. Planed Lumber

528. Approximate number of pieces per kilo of GI
roofing nails.
a. 100 pieces
b. 120 pieces
c. 150 pieces
d. 200 pieces
e. All of the above

529. It is the height of a flight of stairs from landing to
landing or the height between successive treads
or stairs.
a. Run
b. Rise
c. Pitch

530. One gallon of paint in first coating can cover an
area of _____.
a. 15 sq. m.
b. 20 sq. m.
c. 25 sq. m.
d. All of the abov
531. The rough estimate for the number of kilos of
need needed per 1000 bd.ft. of lumber.
a. 15 kg
b. 20 kg
c. 25 kg

532. The rough estimate number of bags of cement
required per cubic meter of concrete.
a. 10 bags
b. 15 bags
c. 20 bags
d. All of the above

533. Dwelling place for workers in the farm.
a. Farmstead
b. Farm house
c. Granaries

534. It is the characteristics of materials that retain
their strength and other properties over a
considerable period of time.
a. Reliability
b. Hardness
c. Durability
d. All of the above

535. Most widely used preservative treatment for
wood.
a. Asphalt
b. Black enamel paint
c. Creosote
d. All of the above

536. It is the capacity of material to resist fracture
under impact load.
a. Hardness
b. Toughness
c. Elasticity
d. All of the above

537. A wood which comes from needle-leaved cone
bearing trees.
a. Hardwood
b. Soft wood
c. Medium-hard wood
d. All of the above

538. Lumber used for mill work such as window
casing and sash, and cabinets.
a. Factory lumber
b. Yard lumber
c. Structural timber
d. All of the above

539. Material less than 5 in. thick and is used for
general building purposes.
a. Factory lumber
b. Yard lumber

540. It includes joist and plank, beams and stringers,
and post.
a. Factory lumber
b. Yard lumber

541. A lumber that comes from a saw, unfinished and
full dimension.
a. Planed lumber
b. Rough lumber
c. Factory lumber
d. All of the above

542. A lumber finished smooth on two edges
designated and one side and full dimension.
a. S2E1S
b. SE2S1
c. S2ES1
d. All of the above

543. A jointed frame that is used to support load over
a relatively large span.
a. Beam
b. Post
c. Truss
d. All of the above

544. The standard dimension of plywood is ______.
a. 4 x 8
b. 4 x 6
c. 4 x 12

545. The largest area in a piece of wood is the
_______.
a. edge
b. face
c. end

546. Nails are bought in the hardware in terms of
______.
a. pieces
b. kilo
c. volume

547. A screw used commonly in roof construction.
a. Cap screw
b. Tex screw
c. Self-tapping screw

548. The saw recommended for cutting plywood is
___________.
a. cross cut saw
b. rip saw
c. coping saw

549. Sizes of saw are given in number of teeth, the
more the saw teeth number, _____.
a. the courser the cut
b. the finer the cut
c. smaller the cut

550. One board foot is equivalent to ________.
a. l in x l in x 1 ft/144
b. l in x l in x l in/144
c. l in x l in x l in/12

551. It is the method of reducing the moisture of
timber using artificial heat on a heated chamber.
a. Air drying
b. Kiln drying
c. Wood dehydration

552. Sawing is the process of cutting wood and is
classified as _______.
a. Shearing method
b. Chip-forming method
c. Chemical method

553. A fastener used to properly fixed materials to a
concrete.
a. Tex screw
b. Tox
c. Adhesives

554. Nail used for making furniture or for flooring
purposes.
a. Common nail
b. Box nail
c. Finishing nail

555. It is a tool used to make the surface of wood level
and smooth.
a. Hammer
b. Drill
c. Jack plane
d. All of the above

556. A saw for making small round openings on
plywood.
a. Coping saw
b. Hole saw
c. Circular saw
d. All of the above

557. Lattice molding are bought in terms of ________.
a. board foot
b. linear footage
c. square footage
d. All of the above

558. If a wood is specified as S4S this mean that
_______.
a. 4 edges of wood are smooth
b. all surfaces are smooth
c. four sides of wood are smooth
d. All of the above

559. A saw used for cutting across a piece of wood.
a. Band saw
b. Rip saw
c. Cross-cut saw
d. All of the above

560. Materials used in supporting concrete structure.
a. Round bar
b. Square bar
c. Corrugated round bar

561. Paint recommended for wood.
a. Latex paint
b. Enamel paint
c. Acrylic paint

562. Wood is applied with paint for ________.
a. surface protection
b. decoration
c. moisture protection
d. All of the above

563. Which of the following does not composed of
cement?
a. Lime
b. Silica
c. Alummina

564. Which of the following is a refractory material?
a. Lime
b. Silica
c. Alummina

565. Cement mixture used for beams, slabs, and for all
members subjected to bending stress.
a. 1:2:3
b. 1:2:4
c. 1:3:6

566. Ten lumen distributed to an area of 10 square foot
is equal to _______ .
a. 1 foot-candle
b. 10 foot-candle
c. 100 foot-candle

567. A class A concrete has a mixing proportion of
______.
a. 1:2:3
b. 1:2:4
c. 1:3:6

568. Mixing proportion for machinery foundation.
a. 1: 2:3
b. 1:2:4
c. 1:3:6

569. Mixing proportions for walls and footings.
a. 1:2:4
b. 1:2.5:5
c. 1:3:6

570. Approximate time limit before the removal of
forms and support for walls.
a. 14 to 21 days
b. 3 to 10 days
c. 7 to 14 days

571. One barrel is equal to ______ of 96 lbs Portland
cement.
a. 2 bags
b. 3 bags
c. 4 bags

572. One bag of cement is equal to ______.
a. One cubic foot
b. Two cubic foot
c. Three cubic foot
d. All of the above

573. There are _______ concrete hollow blocks per
square meter of wall area.
a. 10 CHB
b. 13 CHB
c. 15 CHB
d. All of the above

574. The volume of cement for concrete hollow blocks
with dimension of 4 in. x 8 in. x 16 in. is
_________ cubic meter.
a. 0.001
b. 0.003
c. 0.004

575. A male breeding pig which is at least 8 months
old.
a. Gilt
b. Boar
c. Sow

576. An area in which a sow is confined during
farrowing and lactation period and are freely to
turn around.
a. Farrowing stall
b. Farrowing pen
c. Factating stall
d. All of the above

577. It is the act of separating the pigs and the sow.
a. Farrowing
b. Gestating
c. Weaning

578. An unbred female pig at least 8 months old.
a. Boar
b. Gilt
c. Sow

579. A device in which a sow is confined during
farrowing and lactation periods and which
prevents sow from turning around.
a. Farrowing pen
b. Farrowing stall
c. Farrowing house
d. All of the above

580. Period of time between conception and
farrowing.
a. Gestation
b. Lactation
c. Farrowing

581. The process of milk secretion.
a. Gestation
b. Lactation
c. Weaning

582. It is the production of a litter of one or more live
or dead pigs on or after 110 day of pregnancy.
a. Gestation
b. Lactation
c. Farrowing

583. Recommended orientation of swine house.
a. North-south direction
b. East-west direction
c. North west direction
d. South east direction
e. All of the above

584. Minimum recommended space requirement for
boar pens.
a. 0.85 sq.m. per animal
b. 2.50 sq.m. per animal
c. 7.5 sq.m. per animal

585. Minimum recommended space requirement for
adult pigs in group.
a. 1.0 sq.m. per animal
b. 2.5 sq.m. per animal
c. 7.5 sq.m. per animal

586. Minimum slope for pig housing floor.
a. 2 to 4 %
b. 5 to 7 %
c. 8 to 10 %

587. Floor thickness for pig housing.
a. 40 to 50 mm thick
b. 70 to 80 mm thick
c. 90 to 100 mm thick

588. Recommended concrete mixture for pig housing
floor.
a. 1:2:3
b. 1:2.25: 3
c. 1:2.5:3
d. All of the above

589. Materials used as floor slats in swine housing.
a. Wood slats
b. Concrete slats
c. Steel slats
d. Plastic slats
e. All of the above

590. Recommended door dimension for pig pens.
a. 40 cm wide x 50 cm high
b. 60 cm wide x 100 cm high
c. 80 cm wide x 120 cm high

591. Recommended ceiling height for pig housing.
a. 2 to 2.5 m
b. 2.5 to 3 m
c. 3 m to 3.5 m
d. All of the above

592. Minimum ventilation rate for farrowing unit and
breeding and gestating units.
a. 2.8 CFM
b. 4.2 CFM
c. 9.8 CFM

593. Daily water requirement of boar and sow at
normal ambient temperature.
a. 1-5 liters per day-animal
b. 5-10 liters per day-animal
c. 10-30 liters per day-animal

594. Recommended orientation of poultry building to
obtain proper sunlight, wind flow and
temperature.
a. North-east direction
b. East-west direction
c. North-south direction

595. Floor space requirement for 4-week old broilers
in cages.
a. 22 birds per m
2

b. 43 birds per m
2

c. 54 birds per m
2

d. All of the above

596. Floor space requirement for broilers in cages
more than 4 weeks old.
a. 22 birds per m
2

b. 43 birds per m
2

c. 54 birds per m
2

d. All of the above

597. Recommended floor height for poultry house.
a. 1.0 m above ground
b. 1.4 m above ground
c. 1.8 m above ground

598. Recommended dimension for entrance door for
poultry building.
a. 90 cm wide x 150 cm high
b. 90 cm wide x 200 cm high
c. 90 cm wide x 250 cm high
d. All of the above

599. Minimum height for ceiling in poultry building.
a. 2.0 m
b. 2.2 m
c. 2.4 m

600. Recommended brooding temperature for 7 day
old chick.
a. 27-29 deg C
b. 29-32 deg C
c. 32-35 deg C
d. All of the above

601. Fourteen day old chicks requires _______
brooding temperature than 7 day old chicks.
a. higher
b. lower
c. the same

602. The recommended distance of air inlets from fans
in poultry building should not be within
________.
a. 1.0 m and below
b. 2.5 m and below
c. 3.5 m and below

603. Artificial light requirement of chicks during the
first 48 hours at 2.4 m above the floor.
a. 15 watts per m
2

b. 25 watts per m
2

c. 35 watts per m
2

d. all of the above

604. Artificial light requirement of chicks after the
first 48 hours at floor level.
a. 10 watts per m
2

b. 20 watts per m
2

c. 30 watts per m
2
d. All of the above

605. Linear feeder space requirement for broiler 4
weeks and below.
a. 4 cm per bird
a. 8 cm per bird
b. 12 cm per bird
606. Number of pieces of 305 mm diameter round
feeder for chicks above 4 weeks old.
a. 2 pieces
b. 5 pieces
c. 8 pieces

607. Minimum height of hover required during
brooding operation.
a. 50-80 mm above the back of the birds
b. 80-120 mm above the back of the birds
c. 120-160 mm above the back of the birds

608. Waterer space requirement for linear-type waterer
for chicks below 4 weeks old.
a. 2.5 cm per bird
b. 5.0 cm per bird
c. 7.5 cm per bird
d. All of the above

609. Number of bird required per unit round waterer
for chicks above 4 weeks of age.
a. 50 birds
b. 75 birds
c. 100 birds
610. A wooden frame used on concrete floors for
stacking bags to prevent direct contact between
the grains and the floor.
a. Dunnage
b. Pallet
c. Tarima
d. All of the above
610. A building used for storing paddy or rice in bulk
or in bag form.
a. Warehouse
b. Silo
c. Grain Complex

611. The recommended dimension for warehouse with
10,000 cavans capacity.
a. 10 m x 30m
b. 10 m x 40 m
c. 10 m x 60 m
d. All of the above

612. The recommended dimension for warehouse with
a. 75 m x 142 m
b. 75 m x 152 m
c. 75 m x 162 m

613. Recommended dimension for warehouse with
a. 20 m x 48 m
b. 20 m x 58 m
c. 20 m x 68 m

614. Recommended dimension for warehouse with
a. 25 m x 78 m
b. 25 m x 88 m
c. 25 m x 98 m

615. The minimum height of the interior between the
beams and the floor for normal temperature
warehouse.
a. 4 meters
b. 5 meters
c. 6 meters
d. All of the above

616. The recommended size of entrance for normal
temperature warehouse.
a. 6 meters wide x 4 meters high
b. 4 meters wide x 6 meters high
c. 5 meters wide x 5 meters high

617. The minimum requirement for illumination of a
warehouse.
a. 3 watts per square meter
b. 4 watts per square meter
c. 5 watts per square meter

618. Recommended thickness of hallow blocks used
for walls of warehouse.
a. 100 mm
b. 125 mm
c. 150 mm
d. All of the above

619. Recommended size of reinforcing bars for
warehouse walls.
a. 8 mm RSB
b. 10 mm RSB
c. 12 mm RSB
620. Recommended thickness of concrete slabs for
warehouse permitted for loading and unloading
with trucks.
a. 100 mm
b. 120 mm
c. 150 mm

621. Recommended width of concrete strips to be laid
around warehouse to prevent rain from eroding
the base of the walls below the damp course.
a. 0.75 m
b. 1.00 m
c. 1.50 m

622. Minimum dimension of roof truss span for
warehouse.
a. 14.5 meters
b. 15.5 meters
c. 16.5 meters

623. Recommended spacing between the stacks and
wall of warehouse.
a. 0.5 meter wide
b. 1.0 meter wide
c. 1.5 meter wide
624. Maximum height of stacks for warehouse using
jute sacks.
a. 3 meters
b. 6 meters
c. 9 meters
625. Maximum height of stacks for warehouse when
using woven polypropylene bags.
a. 3 meters
b. 6 meters
c. 9 meters

626. Dimension for maximum piling of stacks to
conform with the fumigating sheets in situations
where warehouses cannot be made airtight.
a. 7.3 m x 21.9 m x 4.5 m
b. 6.3 m x 20.9 m x 4.5 m
c. 5.3 m x 19.8 m x 4.5 m

627. Recommended stack height for warehouse should
not exceed the height of the walls and a space of
at least ______ between the tops of the stacks and
the roof frame.
a. 1 meter
b. 1.5 meters
c. 2.0 meters

628. It is the system of piling grains that provides
ventilation space between bags and allows
circulation of convective air current that provides
a medium for heat dissipation.
a. Chinese Method
b. Japanese Method
c. Philippine Method

629. Any building or place used for killing of animals
where the flesh is intended for human
consumption.
a. Butcher house
b. Slaughter house
c. Large animal pen

630. A slaughter hose with required facilities and
operational procedures to serve any market.
a. A slaughter house
b. AA slaughter house
c. AAA slaughter house

631. A slaughter hose with required facilities and
operational procedures to serve local market
within the country.
a. A slaughter house
b. AA slaughter house
c. AAA slaughter house

632. A type of electrical load distribution center where the
meter and the disconnect switch are located at the
electric-load center of the farmstead.
a. Indoor-type
b. Outdoor-type
c. Pole-type

633. Water requirement of a slaughter house for large
animals.
a. 227 liters per day per animal
b. 114 liters per day per animal
c. 57 liters per day per animal

634. Water requirement of a slaughter house for small
animals.

635. Water requirement of a slaughter house for
swine.

636. Minimum distance required of slaughter house
when they are to be located near river, streams,
or lakes.
a. 10 meters from the bank
b. 20 meters from the bank
c. 30 meters from the bank

637. Minimum distance required for slaughter house
from buildings used for human habitation,
factory, public road and places.
a. 50 meters
b. 100 meters
c. 150 meters

638. Minimum pipeline pressure for water supply
system in slaughter houses.
a. 20 psi
b. 30 psi
c. 40 psi

639. Meat which is unfit for human consumption as
declared by a veterinary inspector after veterinary
examination.
a. Spoiled meat
b. Detained meat
c. Condemned meat

640. Meat requiring further examination as declared
by a veterinary inspector after veterinary
examination.
a. Spoiled meat
b. Detained meat
c. Condemned meat

641. Lowering of animal into a steam to prepare skin
for dehairing.
a. Flaying
b. Scalding
c. Gambrelling

642. It is the removal of hide of the carcass.
a. Flaying
b. Scalding
c. Gambrelling

643. It is the process or suspending the carcass for
particular operation.
a. Flaying
b. Scalding
c. Gambrelling

644. It renders the animal insensible before it is killed.
a. Stunning
b. Pithing
c. Sticking

645. It is the insertion of a rod or coiled wire through
the hole in the skull of cattle made by captive blot
to destroy the brain and spinal cord to prevent
reflex muscular action and possible injury to
operatives.
a. Stunning
b. Pithing
c. Sticking

646. It is the severance of the major blood vessels in
the neck or immediately anterior to the heart by
means of a knife.
a. Stunning
b. Pithing
c. Sticking

647. Site for slaughter houses should be elevated
______ above the adjacent ground.
a. 400 mm
b. 500 mm
c. 600 mm

648. Recommended dimension for slaughter house for
large animal with throughput rate of 30 animals
per day is ____.
a. 6 m x 5.8 m
b. 2.5 m x 6.4 m
c. 23.3 m x 15 m

649. Recommended slopes for wall tops of slaughter
houses.
a. 30 deg
b. 45 deg
c. 60 deg

650. Recommended thickness of concrete slabs for
slaughter houses.
a. 100 mm
b. 120 mm
c. 150 mm

651. Size of reinforcement bar for concrete slabs in
slaughter houses.
a. 8 mm RSB
b. 10 mm RSB
c. 12 mm RSB
652. Recommended height of windows for slaughter
houses.
a. 1 meters above the floor
b. 1.2 meters above the floor
c. 1.5 meters above the floor

653. Minimum width of doorways for slaughter
houses.
a. 1.0 meter wide
b. 1.2 meters wide
c. 1.5 meters wide

654. Numbers of drain inlets provided in slaughter
houses pr 40 m
2
space.
a. 1 inlet
b. 2 inlets
c. 3 inlets

655. Two hundred twenty (220) volt line with current
flowing at 10 ampere is equal to ________.
a. 2.2 kw
b. 2.2 volt-ampere
c. 2200 watts

656. A 10 ampere ventilation fan with a power factor
of 0.85 was connected to a 220 volt convenience
outlet. What is the current and power in the
circuit?
a. 1,870 watts
b. 1,870 volt-ampere
c. 2,200 watts
e. All of the above

657. An electric motor has an rated horsepower of 2
hp, a rated voltage of 240 volts, and a current of
15 amperes. What is the horsepower rating of the
motor in watts? Assume a motor efficiency of
85%.
a. 1492 watts
b. 1942 watts
c. 1249 watts

658. What is the input power of the motor above?
a. 1557 watts
b. 1755 watts
c. 1575 watts

659. What is the power factor of the motor above?
a. 0.4875
b. 0.4785
c. 0.4587

660. The power output of DC line in wattage is equal
to ______.
a. volts x ampere
b. volts x ampere x power factor
c. volt x ampere x efficiency

661. The power output of AC line in wattage is equal
to ______.
a. volts x ampere
b. volts x ampere x power factor
c. volt x ampere x efficiency

662. Advantage of 240 volt over to 120 volt.
a. Economical
b. Lower power loss
c. Smaller power drop
d. All of the above

663. Ampere capacity of AWG no. 12 wire.
a. 15 amperes
b. 20 amperes
c. 30 amperes

664. When AWG # 12 wire is replace with AWG no.
14, the ampere capacity of the will ______.
a. increase
b. decrease
c. remains the same

665. Electrical conductors which are 8 mm
2
(AWG#8)
or smaller in size.
a. Wire
b. Cables
c. Cord
d. All of the above

666. Electrical conductors larger than 8 mm
2
.
a. Wire
b. Cables
c. Cord
d. All of the above

667. Consist of a group of wires twisted to form a
metallic string.
a. Stranded wire
b. Cord
c. Co-axial wire
d. All of the above

668. A water heater draws 10 amperes at 240 volt
current supply. What is the heat resistance
delivered by heater?
a. 2.4 ohms
b. 24 ohms
c. 2400 ohms

669. Determine the monthly consumption of a farm
residence having the following loads: one-1200
watts electric iron in 2 hours, one-1000 watt
water heater in 3 hours, and one-1300 watt toaster
in 30 minutes.
a. 4.05 kw-hour
b. 5.05 kw-hour
c. 6.05 kw-hour

670. What is the size in circular mill of a cable with
rating 250 MCM?
a. 250 circular mill
b. 25, 000 circular mill
c. 250,000 circular mill
d. All of the above

671. It is a fabricated assembly of insulated conductors
enclosed flexible metal sheet primarily used for
both exposed and concealed work.
a. Metal clad cable
b. Armored cable
c. Mineral Insulated cable

672. It is a factory assembly of one or more
conductors each individually insulated and
enclosed in a metallic sheet of interlocking tape
of a smooth or corrugated tube and are usually
used for service feeders, branch circuits and for
indoor or outdoor work.
a. Metal clad cable
b. Armored cable
c. Mineral insulated cable

673. It is a wiring accessories or channels designed for
holding wires, cables, or busbars which are either
made of metal, plastic, or any insulating
materials.
a. Wire shield
b. Armor pipe
c. Raceways

674. It is a device which by insertion establishes
connection between the conductor of the flexible
cord and the conductors connected permanently
to the receptacle.
a. Convenience outlet
b. Junction box
c. Receptacles

675. A contact device installed at the outlet for the
connection of a single attachment plug.
a. Convenience outlet
b. Junction box
c. Receptacles

676. These are free standing assembly of switches,
fuses, and circuit breakers which provides
switching and feeder protection to a number of
circuits connected to a main source.
a. Panel board
b. Switchboard
c. Circuit breaker
d. All of the above
677. Electrical system that is adopted in buildings
where the load exceeds 50 KVA or where it is
required for bigger load such as motors and
machineries.
a. Single phase system
b. Dual phase system
c. Three phase system
d. All of the above
678. The maximum load in watts for each household
lighting outlet based on the National
Electrification Code.
a. 50 watts
b. 100 watts
c. 150 watts
d. All of the above

679. It is the ability of the wire or conductor to carry
the current without overheating.
a. Voltage drop
b. Power loss
c. Ampacity

680. National Electrification Code provides that the
ampacity of the connected load shall not exceed
_____ of the amperage capacity of the conductor
and the fuse.
a. 60%
b. 70%
c. 80%
d. All of the above

681. Allowable space between the tops of the stocks
and the roof truss of warehouse.
a. 1.0 meter
b. 1.5 meters
c. 2.0 meters

682. Optimum recommended stock height for paddy
stored in the warehouse.
a. 16 layers
b. 18 layers
c. 20 layers
d. All of the above

683. Optimum recommended stock height for maize
stored in the warehouse.
a. 16 layers
b. 18 layers
c. 20 layers
d. All of the above

684. In storing paddy, which of the following
statement is true?
a. More paddy can be stored in a warehouse
when placed in jute sacks.
b. More paddy can be stored in a warehouse
when placed in woven polypropylene bags.
c. The same volume of paddy can be stored in a
warehouse whether they are stored in jute
sacks or woven polypropylene bags.

685. Maximum stock height for grains stored in jute
bags.
a. the wall height
b. the wall height
c. Wall height
d. All of the above

686. Maximum stock height for grains stored in
woven polypropylene bags.
a. the wall height
c. the wall height
c. Wall height
d. All of the above

687. Allowable space between piles of bags in
warehouse.
a. 0.6 m
b. 1.0 m
c. 1.2 m

688. Minimum side space requirement between the
edge of the pile and the wall of the warehouse.
a. 0.5 m
b. 1.0 m
c. 1.5 m

689. Minimum recommended height of the interior
between the beam and the floor of warehouse.
a. 15 feet
b. 20 feet
c. 25 feet
d. All of the above

690. Preferred lighting fixtures for warehouse
building.
a. Incandescent lamp
b. Fluorescent lamp
c. Ultraviolet lamp

691. Minimum requirement for illumination of
warehouse.
a. 3 watts per square meter
b. 6 watts per square meter
c. 9 watts per square meter

692. Recommended size of concrete hallow blocks for
warehouse wall.
a. 4 in. x 8 in. x 16 in.
b. 6 in. x 8 in. x 16 in.
c. 8 in. x 8 in. x 16 in.

693. Recommended size of reinforcement bar for
warehouse.
a. 10 mm diameter
b. 12 mm diameter
c. 14 mm diameter

694. Recommended spacing of reinforcement bar for
warehouse wall.
a. 500 mm vertical and horizontal
b. 600 mm vertical and 500 horizontal
c. 600 mm vertical and horizontal

695. To prevent rain from eroding the warehouse wall,
it is recommended that ______
a one meter concrete strips should be provided
around the warehouse.
b. one meter metal strips should be provided on
the outside wall of the warehouse.
c. suitable drainage system should be provided
around the warehouse.

696. Recommended height of floor for warehouse to
permit easy loading and unloading by trucks at
the sides of the warehouse.
a. 0.5 meter above the ground
b. 1.0 meter above the ground
c. 1.5 meters above the ground

697. Recommended height of floor if trucks are
permitted to load and unload inside the
warehouse.
a. 0.30 m above the ground
b. 0.40 m above the ground
c. 0.50 m above the ground

698. Which of the following facilities are required for
warehouse?
a. Quality control laboratories
b. Toilet and washing facilities
c. Poisonous chemical store
d. All of the above

699. Construction of canopy for warehouse should be
done ______ to allow continuous loading and
unloading even when raining.
a. in all walls
b. in every entry door
c. in one edge of the outside wall

700. Locations of vents for warehouse.
a. Near the floor level
b. Top of the wall near grid line
c. Top of the roof and the ridge
d. All of the above

701. Factors that contribute to the increasing amount
of waste.
a. Over population
b. Utilization of chemicals in Agriculture
c. Natural catastrophes and droughts
d. All of the above

702. A treatment process which reduces the amount of
substances that cause unpleasant odor and
discoloration of water.
a. Filtration
b. Aeration
c. Disinfection

703. In an open aerator, the addition of air in water is
achieved by
a. Placing the water in an open tank
b. Providing opening to a water container
c. Spraying the water

704. In sedimentation, processed water is allowed to
pass through a settling chamber at __________.
a. low velocity
b. high velocity
c. zero velocity

705. In coagulation and flocculation processes, water
is mixed with coagulants to _______.
a. disperse colloidal particles
b. allow the formation of settable particles
c. mechanically screen colloidal matters

706. Sources of coagulants include ______.
a. earth from termite hills
b. aluminum and iron salts
c. potato starch
d. All of the above

707. In flocculation process, it is necessary that the
water being treated must be ___________.
a. agitated
b. stagnant
c. heated
d. All of the above

708. A water treatment process aimed to destroy
microorganisms that cause infectious disease .
a. Ozonation
b. Disinfection
c. Irradiation

709. Lesser amount of chorine is needed for water
being treated if the turbidity of water is ________
.
a. high
b. low
c. zero
710. It is the commonly practiced method of
disinfecting water by households.
a. chlorination
b. ozonation
c. boiling

711. A good material used for water filter.
a. Chlorine
b. Activated carbon
c. Filter paper

712. A mixture in air of irregular shape mineral
particles in the size ranged from 1 to 200
micrometer formed by crushing, chipping,
grinding or by natural disintegration of solid
substances.
a. Fumes
b. Sulfurous smog
c. Dusts
d. All of the above

713. If air is mixed with one or more constituents not
normally present in the atmosphere it is
considered as _______.
a. polluted air
b. turbid air
c. air pollution

714. It is the simplest method of separating solid
particles from air by allowing air to pass through
a large chamber to cause the solid material to fall
due to its weight.
a. Momentum separation
b. Gravity separation
c. Settling chamber

715. Much efficient method of separating particles
from air.
a. Cyclone separator
b. Gravity separator
c. Momentum separator

716. When a material goes with air, the velocity of air
that will cause it to pick-up the materials is
_______.
a. terminal velocity
b. superfluous velocity
c. laminar velocity

717. The efficiency of cyclone increases for
________.
a. small particle
b. medium particle
c. large particle

718. Cyclone efficiency decreases with a _________.
a. decrease in the amount of dust
b. reduction in length of cyclone body
c. decrease in the number of gas rotation inside
the cyclone
d. All of the above

719. A gas filter that is suitable for high temperature
condition.
a. Wool
b. Asbestos
c. Filter glass
d. All of the above

720. A method of separating fine dust by allowing it to
pass through a mist of water.
a. Water purifier
b. Water scrubber
c. Water spraying
d. All of the above

721. A partially lined or unlined underground pit into
which raw animal or household waste water is
discharged.
a. Cistern
b. Cesspool
c. Septic tank

722. It is the breakdown of organic matter in a water
solution or suspension into a simpler or more
biologically-stable compounds.
a. Digestion
b. Ammonification
c. Adsorption

723. Wastewater, which is treated or untreated, that is
being discharged from reservoir, basin, or
treatment plant.
a. Effluent
b. Influent
c. Turbid water

724. A dark carbonaceous residue resulting from
aerobic decomposition of organic matter.
a. Night soil
b. Slurry
c. Humus

725. It is a biological waste water treatment process in
which the mixture of waste water and biological
solids is agitated and aerated.
a. Activated sludge process
b. Agitation process
c. Anaerobic digestion process

726. Waste water flowing into a reservoir or treatment
plant.
a. Slurry
b. Influent
c. Intake

727. It is the ordinary killing of all living
microorganisms with the use of heat and pressure
or with the use of some chemicals.
a. Disinfection
b. Sterilization
c. Fumigation

728. It is the biological decomposition of nitrogenous
organic matter with the production of foul-
smelling products associated with anaerobic
degradation of proteins.
a. Anaerobic digestion
b. Putrefaction
c. Liquefaction

729. A portion of the total solids driven off by a
combustible gases at 500-600 C for at least one
hour.
a. Total solids
b. Volatile solids
c. Suspended solids

730. It is an earthen facility for biological treatment of
wastewater.
a. Lagoon
b. Detention pond
c. Cesspool

731. Biological degradation of organic solids under
aerobic conditions to a relatively stable humus-
like material.
a. Digestion
b. Composting
c. Manure production

732. Particles that ultimately settle after the
wastewater losses velocity.
a. Sediments
b. Colloids
c. Flocs

733. The precipitate or settled solids from treatment,
coagulation, or sedimentation of wastewater.
a. Sludge
b. Colloids
c. Sediments

734. A film produced during slow filtration
responsible for the bacteriological- purification
effect on water.
a. Filter skin
b. Scum
c. Bacteriological film

735. It is the method of cleaning on a rapid filter by
reversing the direction of flow of water.
a. Back splashing
b. Back washing
c. Reverse cleaning

736. Chemical reaction of disinfectant is speed up by
using _____.
a. cold water
b. raw water
c. hot water
d. All of the abov
737. Sedimentation and filtration are performed
preceding chlorination to _________.
a. enhance disinfection effect
b. reduce chlorination time
c. reduce treatment time
d. All of the above

738. The water-carried waste from households or
industry.
a. turbid water
b. sewage
c. slurry

739. The average time wherein waste is subjected to
stabilization process or held in storage.
a. Detention time
b. Retention time
c. Digestion time

740. The rapid oxidation of solids in a specially-
designed combustion chamber.
a. Solid burning
b. Incineration
c. Thermal activation

741. A type of biogas plant where the digester is
separated from the gas chamber.
a. Integrated plant
b. Multi-digester plant
c. Split-type plant
d. All of the above

742. Maximum ventilation rate requirement for
greenhouse.
a. 0.10 to 0.75 air change per minute
b. 0.75 to 1.00 air change per minute
c. 1.00 to 1.75 air change per minute

743. A structure that provide a reliable enclosure
within which an environment favorable to plant
growth can be attained.
a. Farm building
b. Warehouse
c. Greenhouse

744. Which of the following is not a greenhouse?
a. Glasshouse
b. Plastic house
c. Screen house

745. Recommended orientation for the installation of
greenhouse.
a. North to South
b. West to East
c. North-West to South East

746. Maximum recommended length for greenhouse.
a. 50 meters
b. 100 meters
c. 150 meters

747. Maximum recommended width for gutter
connected greenhouse.
a. 50 meters
b. 100 meters
c. 150 meters

748. C/N ratio requirement of organic materials for
proper biogas digestion.
a. 1:10 to 1:20
b. 1:20 to 1:30
c. 1:30 to 1:40

749. One pound per square inch is equal to ________.
a. 27.6 inches of water
b. 26.7 inches of water
c. 76. 2 inches of water

750. A process of gradually supplying moisture and
maintaining proper temperature so as to have
favorable conditions for hydration of the cement
particularly during the early hardening period.
a. Re-wetting
b. Tempering
c. Curing

751. A unit of deformation as a result of change in the
form produced by stress.
a. Fatigue strength
b. Shear force
c. Strain

752. An algebraic sum of all the external forces acting
parallel to cross-section of one side of the section
tending to cause failure by sliding movement.
a. Fatigue strength
b. Deflection
c. Shear force

753. It is the amount of stress that produce failure by
increasing the unit stress until breakage or
rupture occurs.
a. Ultimate strength
b. Unit stress
c. Shearing stress

754. It is the internal resistance per unit area that
results from external force.
b. Unit stress
c. Shearing stress

755. Stresses tending to cause two contiguous parts of
a body to slide, relative to each other in a
direction parallel to the plane of contact.
b. Unit stress
c. Shearing stress

756. Cutting metal sheet using a tin snip is a good
example of material subject to________ .
a. tensile stress
b. compressive stress
c. shear stress
d. All of the above

757. Ratio of the ultimate strength to the working
stress.
a. Allowable stress
b. Elastic limit
c. Factor of safety

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