Biology Study Guide 3

1) A cross between homozygous purple-flowered and homozygous white-flowered pea plants 1) _______
results in offspring with purple flowers. This demonstrates
A) the mistakes made by Mendel.
B) true-breeding.
C) dominance.
D) a dihybrid cross.
E) the blending model of gen etics.

2) A plant with purple flowers is allowed to self-pollinate. Generation after generation, it produces 2) _______
purple flowers. This is an example of
A) hybridization.
B) true-breeding.
C) polygenetics.
D) the law of segregation.
E) incomplete dominance.

3) The offspring of Mendel's classic pea cross always looked like one of the two parental varieties 3) _______
because
A) each allele affected phenotypic expression.
B) different genes interacted to produce the parental phenotype.
C) the traits blended together during fertilization.
D) one allele was completely dominant over another.
E) no genes interacted to produce the parental phenotype.

4) What was the most significant conclusion that Gregor Mendel drew from his experiments with 4) _______
pea plants?
A) An organism that is homozygous for many recessive traits is at a disadvantage.
B) Genes are composed of DNA.
C) There is considerable genetic variation in garden peas.
D) Traits are inherited in discrete units, and are not the results of "blending."
E) Recessive genes occur more frequently in the than do dominant ones.

5) When crossing a homozygous recessive with a heterozygote, what is the chance of getting an 5) _______
offspring with the homozygous recessive phenotype?
A) 25% B) 100% C) 75% D) 50% E) 0%

6) What are Punnett squares used for? 6) _______

A) testing for the presence of the recessive allele
B) predicting the result of genetic crosses between organisms of known genotypes
C) determining the DNA sequence of a given gene
D) identifying the gene locus where allelic variations are possible
E) more than one of the above

7) Which of the following is (are) true for alleles? 7) _______

A) They can represent alternative forms of a gene.
 B) They can be identical or different for any given gene in a somatic cell.
C) They can be dominant or recessive.
D) Only A and B are correct.
E) A, B, and C are correct.

8) It was important that Mendel examined not just the F1 generation in his breeding experiments, 8) _______
but the F2 generation as well, because
A) analysis of the F1 progeny would have allowed him to discover the law of segregation, but
not the law of independent assortment.
B) he obtained very few F1 progeny, making statistical analysis difficult.
C) the dominant phenotypes were visible in the F2 generation, but not in the F1 .
D) parental traits that were not observed in the F1 reappeared in the F2 , suggesting that the
traits did not truly disappear in the F1 .
E) all of the above

9) Black fur in mice (B) is dominant to brown fur (b). Short tails (T) are dominant to long tails (t). 9) _______
What fraction of the progeny of the cross BbTt × BBtt will have black fur and long tails?
A) 3/16 B) 1/2 C) 1/16 D) 9/16 E) 3/8

10) Mendel accounted for the observation that traits which had disappeared in the F1 generation 10) ______
reappeared in the F2 generation by proposing that
A) the mechanism controlling the appearance of traits was different between the F1 and the F2
plants.
B) new mutations were frequently generated in the F2 progeny, "reinventing" traits that had
been lost in the F1 .
C) the traits were lost in the F1 due to blending of the parental traits.
D) members of the F1 generation had only one allele for each character, but members of the F2
had two alleles for each character.
E) traits can be dominant or recessive, and the recessive traits were obscured by the dominant
ones in the F1 .

11) In certain plants, tall is dominant to short. If a heterozygous plant is crossed with a homozygous 11) ______
tall plant, what is the probability that the offspring will be short?
A) 1/2 B) 1/6 C) 0 D) 1 E) 1/4

12) A couple has three children, all of whom have brown eyes and blond hair. Both parents are 12) ______
homozygous for brown eyes (BB), but one is a blond (rr) and the other is a redhead (Rr). What is
the probability that their next child will be a brown-eyed redhead?
A) 1/8 B) 1/4 C) 1/2 D) 1/16 E) 1

13) In snapdragons, heterozygotes have pink flowers, whereas homozygotes have red or white 13) ______
flowers. When plants with red flowers are crossed with plants with white flowers, what
proportion of the offspring will have pink flowers?
A) 75% B) 0% C) 25% D) 100% E) 50%

14) If the intermediate F1 progeny were allowed to self-pollinate, and 25% of the F2 progeny were tall, 14) ______
50% were intermediate in size, and 25% were short, this would suggest
 A) multifactorial inheritance.
B) complete dominance.
C) polygenic inheritance.
D) pleiotropy.
E) incomplete dominance.

Refer to the following to answer the questions below.

Gene S controls the sharpness of spines in a type of cactus. Cactuses with the dominant allele, S, have sharp spines,
whereas homozygous recessive ss cactuses have dull spines. At the same time, a second gene, N, determines whether
cactuses have spines. Homozygous recessive nn cactuses have no spines at all.

15) The relationship between genes S and N is an example of 15) ______

A) epistasis.
B) incomplete dominance.
C) complete dominance.
D) codominance.
E) pleiotropy.

16) Three babies were mixed up in a hospital. After consideration of the data below, which of the 16) ______
following represent the correct baby and parent combinations?

A) I-2, II-3, III-1

B) I-3, II-2, III-1
C) I-1, II-3, III-2
D) I-3, II-1, III-2
E) I-2, II-1, III-3

The questions below refer to the following terms. Each term may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

A. incomplete dominance
B. multiple alleles
C. pleiotropy
D. epistasis

17) the ability of a single gene to have multiple phenotypic effects C. pleiotropy 17) _____________

18) the ABO blood group system B. multiple alleles 18) _____________

19) the phenotype of the heterozygote differs from the phenotypes of both homozygotes 19) _____________

A. incomplete dominance

20) cystic fibrosis affects the lungs, the pancreas, the digestive system, and other organs, 20) _____________
resulting in symptoms ranging from breathing difficulties to recurrent infections
C. pleiotropy
21) Huntington's disease is caused by a dominant allele. If on e of your parents has the disease, what 21) ______
is the probability that you, too, will have the disease?
A) 1/4 B) 0 C) 1 D) 1/2 E) 3/4

22) A woman has six sons. The chance that her next child will be a daughter is 22) ______
A) 1/2. B) 1/6. C) 5/6. D) 0. E) 1.

23) New combinations of linked genes are due to which of the following? 23) ______
A) crossing over
B) independent assortment
C) mixing of sperm and egg
D) nondisjunction
E) both A and C

24) The reason that linked genes are inherited together is that 24) ______
A) genes align that way during metaphase I.
B) chromosomes are unbreakable.
C) they are located on the same chromosome.
D) alleles are paired.
E) the number of genes in a cell is greater than the number of chromosomes.

25) What is the mechanism for the production of gen etic recombinants? 25) ______
A) X inactivation
B) deletions and duplications during meiosis
C) crossing over and independent assortment
D) nondisjunction
E) methylation of cytosine

26) Males are more often affected by sex-linked traits than females because 26) ______
A) males are hemizygous for the X chromosome.
B) mutations on the Y chromosome often exacerbate the effects of X -linked mutations.
C) male hormones such as testosterone often exacerbate the effects of mutations on the X
chromosome.
D) female hormones such as estrogen often compensate for the effects of mutations on the X.
E) X chromosomes in males generally have more mutations than X chromosomes in females.

27) In the following list, which term is least related to the others? 27) ______
A) sex-linked genes
B) hemophilia
C) color blindness
D) autosome
E) Duchenne muscular dystrophy

28) A recessive allele on the X chromosome is responsible for red-green color blindness in humans. A 28) ______
woman with normal vision whose father is color-blind marries a color-blind male. What is the
probability that a son of this couple will be color-blind?
A) 3/4 B) 1/4 C) 0 D) 1 E) 1/2

29) A man who carries an X-linked allele will pass it on to 29) ______
A) half of his daughters.
 B) half of his sons.
C) all of his sons.
D) all of his daughters.
E) all of his children.

30) If nondisjunction occurs in meiosis II during gametogen esis, what will be the result at the 30) ______
completion of meiosis?
A) One gamete will be n + 1, one will be n - 1, and two will be n.
B) There will be three extra gametes.
C) Two gametes will be n + 1, and two will be n - 1.
D) Two of the four gametes will be haploid, and two will be diploid.
E) All the gametes will be diploid.

31) If a pair of h omologous chromosomes fails to separate during anaphase of meiosis I, what will be 31) ______
the chromosome number of the four resulting gametes with respect to the normal haploid
number (n)?
A) n + 1; n + 1; n; n
B) n + 1; n + 1; n - 1; n - 1
C) n + 1; n - 1; n - 1; n - 1
D) n - 1; n - 1; n; n
E) n + 1; n - 1; n; n

32) If a chromosome lacks certain genes, what has most likely occurred? 32) ______
A) a translocation
B) a deletion
C) an inversion
D) disjunction
E) a nonduplication

33) One possible result of chromosomal breakage is for a fragment to join a nonhomologous 33) ______
chromosome. This is called a (an)
A) disjunction.
B) duplication.
C) translocation.
D) deletion.
E) inversion.

The following questions refer to the following simple metabol ic pathway:

34) A mutation results in a defective enzyme A. Which of the following would be a consequence of 34) ______
that mutation?
A) an accumulation of A and no production of B and C
B) an accumulation of A and B and no production of C
C) an accumulation of C and no production of A and B
D) an accumulation of B and C and no production of A
E) an accumulation of B and no production of A and C

35) Which of the following represents a similarity between RNA and DNA? 35) ______
A) the presence of an OH group on the 2' carbon of the sugar
 B) nucleotides consisting of a phosphate, sugar, and nitrogenous base
C) the presence of uracil
D) Both are found exclusively in the nucleus.
E) Both are double-stranded.

36) The nitrogenous base adenine is found in all members of which group? 36) ______
A) proteins, carbohydrates, and ATP
B) proteins, ATP, and DNA
C) proteins, triglycerides, and testosterone
D) ATP, RNA, and DNA
E) alpha glucose, ATP, and DNA

37) A particular triplet of bases in the template strand of DNA is AGT. Th e corresponding codon for 37) ______
the mRNA transcribed is
A) UGA B) AGT C) TCA
D) either UCA or TCA, depending on wobble in the first base E) ACU

The following questions refer to Figure 17.1, a table of codons

Figure 17.1

38) A possible sequence of nucleotides in the template strand of DNA that would code for the 38) ______
polypeptide sequence phe-leu-ile-val would be
A) 3' AAC-GAC-GUC-AUA 5'.
 B) 5' TTG-CTA-CAG-TAG 3'.
C) 5' AUG-CTG-CAG-TAT 3'.
D) 3' AAA-GAA-TAA-CAA 5'.
E) 3' AAA-AAT-ATA-ACA 5'.

39) What amino acid sequence will be generated, based on the following mRNA codon s equence? 39) ______
5'AUG-UCU-UCG-UUA-UCC-UUG
A) met-ser-leu-ser-leu-ser
B) met-arg-glu-arg-glu-arg
C) met-leu-phe-arg-glu-glu
D) met-glu-arg-arg-gln-leu
E) met-ser-ser-leu-ser-leu

40) A peptide has the sequence NH2 -phe-pro-lys-gly-phe-pro-COOH. Which of the following 40) ______
sequences in the coding strand of the DNA codes for this peptide?
A) 3' AUG-AAA-GGG-TTT-CCC-AAA-GGG
B) 5' TTT-CCC-AAA-GGG-TTT-CCC
C) 5' ACT-TAC-CAT-AAA-CAT-TAC-UGA
D) 3' UUU-CCC-AAA-GGG-UUU-CCC
E) 5' GGG-AAA-TTT-AAA-CCC-ACT-GGG

41) What is the sequence of a peptide based on the mRNA sequence 41) ______
A) cyc-phe-tyr-cys-leu
B) phe-leu-ile-met-val
C) leu-pro-asp-lys-gly
D) leu-cys-tyr-ser-phe
E) phe-ser-tyr-cys-leu

42) Suppose the following DNA sequence was mutated from 5' to 42) ______
What amino acid sequence will be generated based on this
mutated DNA?
A) ser-leu-ser-leu-ser-leu
B) leu-phe-arg-glu-glu-glu
C) ser-ser-leu
D) glu-arg-glu-leu-leu-leu
E) arg-glu-arg-glu-arg-glu

43) A particular eukaryotic protein is 300 amino acids long. Which of the following could be the 43) ______
maximum number of nucleotides in the DNA template strand that codes for the amino acids in
this protein?
A) 100 B) 300 C) 1,800 D) 900 E) 3

44) A codon 44) ______

A) is found in all eukaryotes, but not in prokaryotes.
B) consists of two nucleotides.
C) consists of discrete amino acid regions.
D) catalyzes RNA synthesis.
E) may code for the same amino acid as another codon.

45) If the triplet CCC codes for the amino acid proline in bacteria, then in plants CCC should code for 45) ______
A) proline.
B) cystine.
 C) phenylalanine.
D) valine.
E) leucine.

46) The gen etic code is essentially the same for all organisms. From this, one can logically assume all 46) ______
of the following except
A) a gene from an organism could theoretically be expressed by any other organism.
B) the same codons in different organisms usually translate into the same amino acids.
C) all organisms have a common ancestor.
D) different organisms have the same number of different types of amino acids.
E) DNA was the first genetic material.

47) Which of the following are transcribed from DNA? 47) ______
A) protein
B) rRNA
C) exons
D) B and C only
E) A, B, and C

48) RNA polymerase and DNA polymerase differ in that 48) ______
A) RNA polymerase does not need to separate the two strands of DNA in order to synthesize
an RNA copy, whereas DNA polymerase must unwind the double helix before it can
replicate the DNA.
B) RNA polymerase can initiate RNA synthesis, but DNA polymerase requires a primer to
initiate DNA synthesis.
C) RNA polymerase is much more accurate than DNA polymerase.
D) RNA polymerase binds to single-stranded DNA, and DNA polymerase binds to
double-stranded DNA.
E) RNA polymerase uses RNA as a template, and DNA polymerase uses a DNA template.

49) RNA polymerase moves along the template strand of DNA in the ________ direction, and adds 49) ______
nucleotides to the ________ end of the growing transcript.
A) 5' to 3'; 5' B) 3' to 5'; 3' C) 5' to 3'; 3' D) 3' to 5'; 5'

50) What are the coding segments of a stretch of eukaryotic DNA called? 50) ______
A) transposons
B) exons
C) replicons
D) codons
E) introns

51) A transcription unit that is 8,000 nucleotides long may use 1,200 nucleotides to make a protein 51) ______
consisting of 400 amino acids. This is best explained by the fact that
A) there are termination exons near the beginning of mRNA.
B) there is redundancy and ambiguity in the genetic code.
C) nucleotides break off and are lost during the transcription process.
D) many noncoding nucleotides are present in mRNA.
E) many nucleotides are needed to code for each amino acid.

52) Once transcribed, eukaryotic mRNA typically undergoes substantial alteration that includes 52) ______
A) fusion into circular forms known as plasmids.
B) linkage to histone molecules.
C) union with ribosomes.
 D) excision of introns.
E) fusion with other newly transcribed mRNA.

53) All of the following are directly involved in translation except 53) ______
A) mRNA.
B) ribosomes.
C) tRNA.
D) aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase enzymes.
E) DNA.

54) A particular triplet of bases in the coding sequence of DNA is AAA. The anticodon on the tRNA 54) ______
that binds the mRNA codon is
A) TTT.
B) UUU.
C) AAA.
D) UUA.
E) either UAA or TAA, depending on first base wobble.

55) Accuracy in the translation of mRNA into the primary structure of a protein depends on 55) ______
specificity in the
A) binding of ribosomes to mRNA.
B) shape of the A and P sites of ribosomes.
C) bonding of the anticodon to the codon.
D) attachment of amino acids to tRNAs.
E) both C and D

56) What is an anticodon part of? 56) ______

A) tRNA
B) mRNA
C) DNA
D) a ribosome
E) an activating enzyme

57) A part of an mRNA molecule with the following sequence is being read by a ribosome: 5' 57)
CCG-ACG 3' (mRNA). The following activated transfer RNA molecules (with their anticodons
shown in the 3' to 5' direction) are available. Two of them can correctly match the mRNA so that a
dipeptide can form.

The dipeptide that will form will be

A) alanine-alanine.
B) threonine-glycine.
C) proline-threonine.
D) glycine-cysteine.
E) cysteine-alanine.
58) What type of bonding is responsible for maintaining the shape of the tRNA molecule? 58) ______
A) peptide bonding between amino acids
B) ionic bonding between phosphates
C) van der Waals interactions between hydrogen atoms
D) hydrogen bonding between base pairs
E) covalent bonding between sulfur atoms

Figure 17.2

59) Figure 17.2 represents tRNA that recognizes and binds a particular amino acid (in this instance, 59) ______
phenylalanine). Which codon on the mRNA strand codes for this amino acid?
A) GUG B) CAU C) UGG D) UUC E) GUA

60) What are ribosomes composed of? 60) ______

A) mRNA, tRNA, rRNA, and protein
B) rRNA only
C) proteins only
D) both rRNA and protein
E) mRNA, rRNA, and protein

61) Where is eukaryotic ribosomal RNA transcribed? 61) ______

A) ribosomes
B) the nucleolus
C) the Golgi apparatus
D) prokaryotic cells only
E) X chromosomes

62) What is the most abundant type of RNA? 62) ______

A) pre-mRNA
B) mRNA
C) hnRNA
 D) tRNA
E) rRNA

63) From the following list, which is the first event in translation in eukaryotes? 63) ______
A) base pairing of activated methionine-tRNA to AUG of the messenger RNA
B) binding of the larger ribosomal subunit to smaller ribosomal subunits
C) elongation of the polypeptide
D) covalent bonding between the first two amino acids
E) Both B and D occur simultaneously.

64) Which of the following components are present upon the completion of translation initiation? 64) ______
A) large ribosomal subunit
B) small ribosomal subunit
C) initiator tRNA
D) A and C only
E) A, B, and C

65) During translation, chain elongation continues until what happens? 65) ______
A) The ribosomes run off the end of mRNA.
B) All tRNAs are empty.
C) No further amino acids are needed by the cell.
D) The polypeptide is long enough.
E) A stop codon is encountered.

66) Which of the following does not occur during the termination phase of translation? 66) ______
A) The two ribosomal subunits separate.
B) The newly formed polypeptide is released.
C) A termination codon causes the A site to accept a release factor.
D) A tRNA with the next amino acid enters the P site.
E) Translation stops.

67) What are polyribosomes? 67) ______

A) aggregations of vesicles containing ribosomal RNA
B) ribosomes containing more than two subunits
C) groups of ribosomes reading a single mRNA simultaneously
D) ribosomes associated with more than one tRNA
E) multiple copies of ribosomes associated with giant chromosomes

68) Of the following types of mutations, which one is likely to be the most common ? 68) ______
A) point mutation
B) missense mutation
C) nonsense mutation
D) frameshift mutation
E) base-pair substitution

69) Sickle-cell disease is probably the result of which kind of mutation? 69) ______
A) nonsense
B) point
 C) frameshift
D) nondisjunction
E) both B and D

70) Which point mutation would be most likely to have a catastrophic effect on the functioning of a 70) ______
protein?
A) deletion of three bases near the start of the coding sequence, but not in the initiator codon
B) a base deletion near the start of a gene
C) a base substitution
D) a base deletion near the end of the coding sequence, but not in the terminator codon
E) a base insertion near the end of the coding sequence, but not in the terminator codon

71) Which of the following statements concerning the eukaryotic chromosome is false? 71) ______
A) The nucleosome is the most basic structural subunit.
B) It consists of a single linear molecule of double-stranded DNA.
C) The number of gen es on each chromosome is different in different cell types.
D) Active transcription occurs on euchromatin.
E) It is composed of DNA and protein.

72) Approximately what proportion of the DNA in the human genome codes for proteins or 72) ______
functional RNA?
A) 32% B) 46% C) 2% D) 83% E) 13%

73) In both eukaryotes and prokaryotes, gene expression is primarily regulated at the level of 73) ______
A) mRNA splicing.
B) transcription.
C) mRNA stability.
D) protein stability.
E) translation.

The questions below refer to the following terms. Each term may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

A. enhancer
B. promoter
C. activator
D. repressor
E. terminator

74) binds to a site in the DNA far from the promoter to stimulate transcription A. activator 74) _____________

75) can inhibit transcription by blocking the binding of positively acting transcription factors 75) _____________
to the DNA D. repressor

76) site in the DNA located near the end of the final exon, encoding an RNA sequence that 76) _____________
determines the end of the transcript E. terminator

Use the following information to answer the questions below.

A woman and her spouse both show the normal phenotype for pigmentation, but both had one parent who was an albino.
Albinism is an autosomal recessive trait.
77) What is the probability that their first child will be an albino? 77) ______
A) 3/4 B) 0 C) 1/2 D) 1/4 E) 1

78) If their first two children have normal pigmentation, what is the probability that their third child 78) ______
will be an albino?
A) 0 B) 3/4 C) 1/2 D) 1/4 E) 1

79) When Thomas Hunt Morgan crossed his red-eyed generation flies to each other, the 79) ______
generation included both red- and white-eyed flies. Remarkably, all the white-eyed flies were
male. What was the explanation for this result?
A) The involved gene was on the X chromosome.
B) The involved gene was on an autosome.
C) Other male-specific factors influence eye color in flies.
D) The involved gene was on the Y chromosome.
E) Other female-specific factors influence eye color in flies.

80) In cats, black fur color is caused by an X-linked allele; the other allele at this locus causes orange 80) ______
color. The heterozygote is tortoiseshell. What kinds of offspring would you expect from the cross
of a black female and an orange male?
A) tortoiseshell female; tortoiseshell male
B) tortoiseshell female; black male
C) orange female; black male
D) black female; orange male
E) orange female; orange male