Cod and astma

1. Asthma is characterized by irreversible airway obstruction and is associated with a reduction

in expiratory airflow, whereas chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is characterized
by reversible airway obstruction, such as in chronic bronchitis or emphysema.
A) Both parts of the statement are true.
B) Both parts of the statement are false.
C) The first part of the statement is true; the second part is false.
D) The first part of the statement is false; the second part is true.
2. All of the following medication groups are used in treatment of asthma except one. Which one
is the exception?
A) -Adrenergic agonists
B) Xanthines
C) Cholinergic agents
D) Cromolyn
E) Corticosteroids
F) Leukotriene-altering agents
3. Which components of asthma must be treated to control the disease?
A) Inflammation
B) Bronchodilation
C) Bronchoconstriction
D) Alveolar destruction
E) all of the above
F) a and c only
4. In __________, patients have persistent life-threatening bronchospasm despite drug therapy.
A) COPD
B) Chronic bronchitis
C) Status asthmaticus
D) Intermittent asthma
E) Emphysema
5. What treatment considerations should be made by the dental health care worker for patients
with asthma?
A) Minimal stress is induced during the appointment.
B) Patients should be asked to bring their fast-acting 2-agonist inhalers with them to the
appointments.
C) Observe and question the patient before the appointment to prevent acute asthma attack.
D) Advise the patient to reduce environmental pollution, such as strong perfumes.
E) All of the above
F) a and c only

6. COPD is associated with which of the following?
A) Chronic bronchitis
B) Smoking
C) Asthma
D) Emphysema
E) Decreased sputum production
F) All of the above
G) a, b, and d only
7. Medications used in the management of emphysema include which of the following?
A) Anticholinergics
B) -Adrenergic agonists
C) Corticosteroids
D) Xanthines
E) All of the above
F) a, b, and d only
8. The ventilation drive in normal persons is stimulated by elevated levels of the partial pressure
of oxygen, and the partial pressure of carbon dioxide can vary widely. In patients with COPD, a
gradual rise in the partial pressure oxygen over time causes the ventilation drive to be triggered
by an increase in carbon dioxide.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second statement is true.
9. Which of the following is an advantage of the metered-dose inhaler (MDI)?
A) Medication is delivered directly to bronchiole, reducing the total dose and systemic adverse
effects.
B) The bronchodilator effect is greater than the comparable dose by mouth.
C) Inhaler dose is very accurate.
D) Onset of action is rapid and predictable compared with dose by mouth.
E) MDIs are compact, portable, sterile, and are easily used by the patient.
F) All of the above
10. Disadvantages of the MDI include:
A) Difficulty of correct use, especially for children
B) Potential for abuse
C) Required additional patient education for proper use
D) Variable and unpredictable dose
E) All of the above
F) a, b, and c only

11. The action of sympathomimetic or adrenergic agonists in treatment of respiratory diseases is:
A) Vasoconstriction of arterioles
B) Increased blood pressure in lungs
C) Bronchodilation by -receptors of lungs
D) Increased secretions
12. Adverse effects of the short-acting 2-agonists include:
A) Bradycardia
B) Tachycardia
C) Central nervous system depression
D) Nervousness
E) Insomnia
F) a, c, and e only
G) b, d, and e only
13. Long-acting 2-agonists improve lung function, decrease symptoms, and reduce
exacerbations and rescue use of short-acting 2-agonists. They are also recommended as
monotherapy for asthma.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second statement is true
14. The first line of defense in an intermittent asthma attack would be:
A) Long-acting 2-agonists
B) Short-acting 2-agonists
C) Corticosteroids
D) Mucolytics
15. Management of normal breathing function is best achieved with treatment of short-acting 2-
agonists, and no danger of overuse of these medications has been found.
A) Both parts of the statement are true.
B) Both parts of the statement are false.
C) The first part of the statement is true; the second part is false.
D) The first part of the statement is false; the second part is true
16. Inhaled corticosteroids are the most effective long-term treatment for control of symptoms in
all patients with:
A) Mild asthma
B) Moderate asthma
C) Severe persistent asthma
D) All of the above
E) a and b only

17. Corticosteroids that are commonly used in inhaler devices include:
A) 2-agonists
B) Beclomethasone
C) Triamcinolone
D) Fluticasone
E) Prednisone
F) all of the above
G) b, c, and d only
18. What is the primary mechanism of action in inhaled corticosteroids in asthma treatment?
A) Bronchodilation
B) Reduction of inflammation, secretions and swelling
C) Immediate benefit in acute asthma attack
D) Reduce hyperreactive airway
E) a and b only
F) b and d only
19. Oral corticosteroids, such as prednisone, are sometimes indicated for severely asthmatic
patients and even for patients with moderate asthma, especially during respiratory infections.
Adverse reactions are similar to inhaled corticosteroids.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second statement is true
20. Oral adverse effects of chronic use of inhaled corticosteroids include the following:
A) Xerostomia
B) Candidiasis
C) Aphthous stomatitis
D) Herpetic lesions
21. When cells produce leukotrienes in response to inflammation, which of the following
physiologic actions occurs?
A) Bronchoconstriction
B) Bronchodilation
C) Increased mucus secretion and mucosal edema
D) Increased bronchial hyperreactivity
E) Decreased bronchial hyperreactivity
F) a, c, and d
G) b and e only



22. What is the primary indication for used of leukotriene modifiers?
A) Emphysema
B) Mild asthma
C) Asthma that is not controlled by 2-agonists and corticosteroid inhalers
D) Upper respiratory infections
E) Chronic bronchitis
23. Which of the following drugs are categorized as leukotriene modifiers?
A) Beclomethasone (Beconase, Vancenase)
B) Zileuton (Zyflo)
C) Fluticasone (Flovent)
D) Zafirlukast (Accolate)
E) Montelukast (Singulair)
F) All of the above
G) b, d, and e only
24. The adverse reactions of leukotriene modifiers include irritation of the stomach mucosa,
headache, and alteration of liver function tests. Fortunately, very few drug interactions occur
with these drugs.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second statement is true
25. __________ is used only for the prophylaxis of asthma and not for treatment of an acute
attack by preventing the antigen-induced release of histamine, leukotrienes, and other substances
from sensitized mast cells.
A) Beclomethasone (Beconase, Vancenase)
B) Zileuton (Zyflo)
C) Fluticasone (Flovent)
D) Zafirlukast (Accolate)
E) Cromolyn (Intal, Nasalcrom)
26. The xanthines and methylxanthines include which of the following medications?
A) Theophylline (Theo-Dur, Slo-Bid)
B) Caffeine
C) Theobromine
D) Anticholinergics
E) All of the above
F) a, b, and c
27. What are the primary side effects associated with the methylxanthines?
A) Bradycardia, sedation, and central nervous system depression
B) Central nervous system stimulation, cardiac stimulation, increased gastric secretion,
and diuresis
C) Hepatotoxicity, gastrointestinal motility, and tremors
29. Intravenous aminophylline and rapidly absorbed oral liquid preparations are used to manage
acute asthmatic attacks and status asthmaticus. Theophylline should be limited to patients whose
asthma is not controlled with other agents.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second statement is true
30. The primary group of drugs used to treat COPD is the __________, causing __________.
A) Cholinergics, bronchodilation
B) Anticholinergics, bronchoconstriction
C) Anticholinergics, bronchodilation
D) Methylxanthines, bronchodilation
31. Which anticholinergic drug s used in the management of COPD?
A) Ipratropium bromide (Atrovent)
B) Theophylline (Theo-Dur, Slo-Bid)
C) Tiotropium bromide (Spiriva)
D) Omalizumab (Xolair)
E) b and d
F) a and c
32. The mechanism of action for treatment of asthma of the class of recombinant humanized
monoclonal antibody is:
A) Bronchodilation in conjunction with the -adrenergic agonists
B) Blockage of effects of release of leukotrienes
C) Prevents immunoglobulin E from binding to mast cells and basophils
33. Nasal decongestants are -adrenergic agonists whose primary action is:
A) Constriction of the blood vessels of the nasal mucous membranes
B) Dilation of the blood vessels of the nasal mucous membranes
C) Bronchodilation
D) Sedation
34. Expectorants are drugs that destroy or dissolve mucus from the respiratory passages.
Mucolytics promote the removal of exudate or mucus.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second statement is true
35. Antitussives are used in symptomatic relief of:
A) Asthma
B) COPD
C) Cystic fibrosis
D) Nonproductive cough
E) Productive cough
36. Antitussive agents that are commonly used today include:
A) Opioids
B) Codeine-containing compounds
C) Pseudoephedrine
D) Dextromethorphan
E) All of the above
F) a, b, and d only