Test Paper English

RESONANCE ERRPT1200312C0 1
(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

PARTA
SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 24 multiple choice
questions. Each question has 4 choices (1),
(2), (3) and (4) for its answer, out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.
1. In the figure shown, A is a fixed charged. B
(of mass m) is given a velocity V as shown
in figure. At this moment the radius of
curvature of the resultant path of B is
(1)
2
2 2
0
q 3
mv r 8!"
(2)
2
2 2
0
q
mv r 3!"
(3)
2
2 2
0
q
mv r 4 # !
(4) r
2. A positive point charge +Q is fixed in space.
A negative point charge q of mass m
revolves around fixed charge in elliptical orbit.
The fixed charge +Q is at one focus of the
ellipse. The only force acting on negative
charge is the electrostatic force due to
positive charge. Then which of the following
statement is true.
(1) Linear momentum of negative point
charge is conserved.
(2) Angular momentum of negative point
charge about fixed positive charge is not
conserved.
(3) Angular momentum of negative point
charge about f i xed posi t i ve charge i s
conserved.
(4) Angular velocity of the charge q is
conserved about +Q charge.
3. A point charge q is revolving in a circle of
radius '

r

' around a fixed infinite line charge
with positive charge $ per unit length. Now the
point charge is shifted and it revolves in a circle
of radius '

2

r

'. Then :
(1) Speed of the point charge q remain
constant
(2) Speed of the point charge q will be change
(3) Angular velocity of the point charge q about
line charge does not change.
(4) work done by all forces is non-zero.
4. Two point charges placed at a distance r in
air exert a force F on each other. The value
of distance R at which they experience force
4F when placed in a medium of dielectric
constant K = 9 is :
(1) r
(2)
6
r
(3)
8
r
(4) 2r
5. Charges +9Q and 4Q are placed as shown
in figure. The point at which electric field
intensity is zero at a distance from B on the
line joining AB will be:
(1) ! (2) 3 !
(3)
4
9
! (4) 2!
6. Three large parallel plates have uniform surface
charge densities as shown in the figure. Find
out electric field intensity at point P.
(1)
0
4
#
&
k
(2)
0
2
3
"
& '
k
(3)
k
2
5
0
"
&
(4)
k
2
5
0
#
&
'
7. A charged particle of charge q= 1(C and mass
m = 1g is released from rest in a uniform electric
field E = 100 volt/m. Neglecting the effect of
gravity, the kinetic energy of the charged
particle after time 2 seconds is
(1) 20 J (2) 20 (J
(3) 1 (J (4) 1mJ
8. Two point charges +q and +9q are placed at
(a, 0) and (+a, 0). Take el ectric f ield
intensity to be positive if it is along positive
x-direction. The variation of the electric field
intensity as one moves along the x-axis is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
9. The current through a wire depends on time
as i = i
0
+ 3)t
2
, where i
0
= 10 A and
) =
2
1
A/sec
2
. Average current for that interval
t = 0 to t = 2s:
(1) 16.28 A
(2) 10.28 A
(3) 12 A
(4) 10 A
10. Four identical bulbs each rated 100 watt at
220 volts and two bulb each of 200 watt at
220 volts are connected with a battery as
shown. The total electric power consumed by
the bulbs is:
(1) 75 watt
(2) 80 watt
(3) 20 watt
(4) 800 watt
11. If radius of a resistor is decreased by 0.5% by
stretching then percentage change i n
resistance :
(1) 0.5 % (2) 1%
(3) 1.5% (4) 2%
12. In the network shown, points A, B and C are
potentials of 10 V, 5 V and 10 V respectively
then
(1) Point D is at a potential of 5 V
(2) Point D is at a potential of 55 V
(3) Point D is at a potential of 5.5 V
(4) Point D is at a potential of 5.5 V
13. Two wires each of radius of cross section r
but of different materials are connected
together end to end (i.e. in series). If the
densities of charge carriers in the two wires
are in the ratio 2: 3, the drift velocity of electrons
in the two wires will be in the ratio:
(1) 2: 3
(2) 3 : 2
(3) 4 : 9
(4) 9 : 4
14. Three similar cells, each of emf 2V and
internal resistance r send the same current
through an external resistance of 2*, when
connected in series or in parallel. Then the
magnitude of current flowing through the
external resistance is :
(1) 0.75 A
(2) 1 A
(3) 1.5 A
(4) zero
15. Five resistances are connected as shown in
figure. The effective resistance between the
points A and B is -
(1) 10/3 *
(2) 20/3 *
(3) 15 *
(4) 6 *
16. A parallel plate condenser of capacity C is
connected to a battery and is charged to
potential V. Another condenser of capacity 2C
is connected to another battery and is charged
to potential 2V. The charging batteries are
removed and now the condensers are
connected in such a way that the positive plate
of one is connected to negative plate of
another. The final energy of this system is
(1) zero (2)
6
CV 25
2
(3)
2
CV 3
2
(4)
2
CV 9
2
17. The charge on capacitor in two different RC
circuits 1 and 2 are plotted as shown in figure.
Choose the correct statement(s) related to
the two circuits.
(1) Both the capacitors are charged to the
same magnitude of charge
(2) The emf's of cells in both the circuits are
equal.
(3) The emf's of the cells must be different
(4) The emf E
1
is equal to E
2
18. The equivalent resistance between points A and
B is
(1) R
(2) R/2
(3) 5R/8
(4) 2R/3
19. The equivalent capacitance between x and
y is:
(1)
5
6
(

F
(2)
7
6
(

F
(3)
8
3
(

F
(4) 4 (

F
20. Find the equivalent emf of the three batteries
as shown in the figure.
(1) 4 v
(2) 8 v
(3) 2 v
(4) 1 v
21. In the given circuit the ammeter reading is zero.
what is the value of resistance 'R' -
(1) 100 *
(2) 10 *
(3) 0.1 *
(4) None of these
22. Consider the situation shown in the figure.
The capacitor A has a charge q on it whereas
B is uncharged. The charge appearing on
the capacitor B a long time after the switch
is closed is
(1) zero (2) q/2
(3) q (4) 2

q
23. A parallel combination of 0.1 M

*

resistor
and a 10 (F capacitor is connected across
a 1.5 volt source of negligible resistance. The
time required for the capacitor to set charged
upto 0.75 volt is approximately (in seconds):
(1) +
(2) log
e
2
(3) log
10
2
(4) zero
24. The work done in placi ng a charge of
8 10
18
C on a condenser of capacity
100 micro-farad is
(1) 16 10
32
J (2) 3.1 10
26
J
(3) 4 10
10
J (4) 32 10
32
J
SECTION - II
Reasoning Type
This section contains 3 reasoning type
(2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is
correct.
25. STATEMENT-1 : When a point charge q is
placed inside the cavity of a neutral conductor,
equal and opposite charges are induced on
inner and outer surfaces of the conductor. At a
point P, electric field due to charges induced
on cavity surface must be non-zero.
+
+
+
+
+
+
+
+
+
+
+
+
+ + +
+
+ + + +
+
+
+
+
+
+
+
+
+
+
+q
P
STATEMENT-2 : Electric field at point P due
to point charge q is zero.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1.
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
26. STATEMENT-1 : If the potential difference
across a plane parallel plate capacitor is
doubled then the potential energy of the
capacitor becomes four times under all
conditions.
STATEMENT-2 : The potential energy U
stored in the capacitor is U =
2
1
CV
2
, where
C and V have usual meaning.
Statement-1.
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
27. STATEMENT-1 : The current density
J
"
at any
point in ohmic resistor is in direction of electric
field E
"
at that point.
STATEMENT-2 : A point charge when released
from rest in a region having only electrostatic
field always moves along electric lines of force.
Statement-1
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
SECTION - III
Comprehension Type
This section contains 1 paragraph. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions
have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 28 to 30
Consider a solid neutral conducting sphere of radius 2R having a concentric cavity of radius R.
Points A , D and B are at distances 3 R ,
2
R 3
&
2
R
from centre C respectively. S
1
& S
2
are inner
and outer surface of the hollow sphere.
28. If we place a point charge q
0
at C then choose the correct statement :
(1) Induced charge on S
1
is q
0
(2) Electric field at D is not zero
(3) Potential at D is zero (4) induced charge on S
2
is q
0
/2
29. If we place that point charge q
0
at A (instead of C) then choose the correct statement :
(1) potential at C ( i.e. V
C
) is
R 3
kq
0
(2) V
C
, V
B
(3) electric field at B ( i.e. E
B
) , 0 (4) net induced charge on S
2
, 0
30. If we place that point charge q
0
on B (instead of A or C) then choose the correct statement :
2
will be distributed uniformly
1
will be distributed uniformly
(3) V
A

!

R 3
kq
0
(4) E
A

!
2
0
R 9
kq
RESONANCE
ERPT1200312C0 - 9
PART- B
This section contains 30 questions. Each
question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) for
its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
31. The number of real solutions of the equation
|x 5| = [2!] + [e
2
] is (where [.] denotes
greatest integer function)
(1) one solution
(2) two solutions
(3) no solution
(4) none of these
32. If sin
1

"
#
$
%
&
' !
4
tan
sin
1
x
3
=
6
!
, then x is a
root of the equation
(1) x
2
x 6 = 0
(2) x
2
+ x 6 = 0
(3) x
2
x 12 = 0
(4) x
2
+ x 12 = 0
33. If (tan
1
x)
2
+ (cot
1
x)
2
=
8
5
2
!
, then x =
(1) 1
(2) 0
(3) 1
(4) 2
34.
"
#
$
%
&
'
( (
)
*
2 m m
m 2
tan
2 4
n
1 m
1
=
(1) tan
1
(n
2
+ n + 1)
(2) tan
1
(n
2
n + 1)
(3) tan
1
"
"
#
$
%
%
&
'
( (
(
2 n n
n n
2
2
(4) none of these
RESONANCE
ERPT1200312C0 - 10
35. The domain of sin
1

"
#
$
%
&
' (
3
1 x 2
is
(1) (2, 1)
(2) [2, 1]
(3) R
(4) [1, 1]
36. The period of the function f (x) = cos
"
#
$
%
&
'
!
(
4
5 x 8
is
(1) 2!
(2) !
(3) !
2
(4) None of these
37. Which of the following functions is an even
function ?
(1) f (x) = sin x + cos x
(2) f (x) = log
"
#
$
%
&
'
( x 1
x 1
(3) f (x) =
1 e
x
x
+
2
x
(4) None of these
38. Which of the following functions is not
injective ?
(1) f : R + R, f (x) = 2x + 7
(2) f : [0,!] + [ 1,1 ], f (x) = cos x
(3) f : ,
-
.
/
0
1 ! !
2
,
2
+ R , f (x) = 2 sin x + 3
(4) f : R + [ 1, 1 ], f (x) = sin x
RESONANCE
ERPT1200312C0 - 11
39.
1 ) x 1 (
1 2
lim
2 / 1
x
0 x
(
+
=
(1) log 2
(2) 2 log 2
(3)
2
1
log 2
(4) 0
40. Consider the function f (x) =
2
3
2
4
5
*
6
0 x , 0
0 x ,
x
1
sin x
m
then.
(1) f(x) is continuous as well as differentiable
if m < 0
(2) f (x) is continuous as well as defferentiable
if 0 < m < 1
(3) f (x) is continuous as well as differentiable
if m > 0
(4) f (x) is continuous as well as differentiable
if m > 1.
41. Let f(x + y) = f(x) . f(y) for all x 7 R and
f(x) = 1 + x8(x) log2 where
0 x
lim
+
8(x) = 1. Then
f9(x) is equal to
(1) log2
f(x)
(2) log(f(x))
2
(3) log2
(4) none of these
42. The function f(x) is defined as follows
f(x) =
2
3
2
4
5
:
;
( (
1 x
1 x
;
;
c bx ax
x
2
3
What must be the values of a, b, c so that
f 99(x) is continuous everywhere ?
(1) a = 3, b = 3, c = 1
(2) a = 3, b = 3, c = 1
(3) a = 3, b = 3, c = 2
(4) can not be determined
RESONANCE
ERPT1200312C0 - 12
43. If function f(x) = log
2

"
"
#
$
%
%
&
'
(
2
2 3 x cos x sin
, then
(1) Domain of f(x) is R
(2) Domain of f(x) is R {n!}, n7I
(3) Range of f(x) is [0,1]
(4) Range of f(x) is R [1,2]
44. Which of the following functions (is) are
injective map(s) ?
(1) f(x) = x
2
+ 2, x 7 (<, <)
(2) f(x) = |x + 2|, x 7 [2, <)
(3) f(x) = (x 4)(x 5), x 7 (<, <)
(4) f(x) =
2
2
x 5 x 3 4
5 x 3 x 4
(
(
, x 7 (<, <)
45. If f(x) + 2f(1 x) = x
2
+ 2 ; > x 7 R, then f(x)
is given by
(1)
3
) 1 x (
2
(2)
3
) 2 x (
2
(3) x
2
1
(4) x
2
2
46. Find the domain of f(x) =
1
x
1
e 1
1
.
(1) (<, 0) ? (1, <)
(2) (<, <)
(3) (<, 0] ? [1, <)
(4) none of these
RESONANCE
ERPT1200312C0 - 13
47.
Lim
x < +
(1
x
+ 2
x
+ 3
x
+ ..............+n
x
)
1/x
is
(1) ln (n!)
(2) n
(3) n!
(4) 0
48. The value of
x sin x
x sin
0 x x
x sin
lim "
#
$
%
&
'
+
is
(1) 1
(2) 1
(3) e
(4)
e
1
49.
< + n
lim

3
2 2 2 2
n
n ......... 3 2 1 ( ( ( (
=
(1) 1
(2)
2
1
(3)
3
1
(4) 0
50. Find (
! ( + ) 1 n 2 ( x
lim

"
#
$
%
&
' !
6
] x [sin sin
, where [.] is a
greatest integer function and n 7 @.
(1) 0
(2)
2
1
(3)
2
1
(4) none of these
RESONANCE
ERPT1200312C0 - 14
51. The value of of
0 x
lim
+

} x {
}) x { 1 ( n ( !
is (where {x}
denotes the fractional part of x)
(1) 1
(2) n ! 1
(3) n ! 2
(4) 2
52. The function f(x) = x |x x
2
|, 1 ; x ; 1 is
continuous on the interval
(1) [1, 1]
(2) (1, 1)
(3) [1, 1]/ {0}
(4) (1, 1)/ {0}
53. The function
f(x) =
2
3
2
4
5
*
6 < ( (
1 x , 1
1 x , to .... x 4 x 3 x 2 1
3 2
is
(1) continuous and derivable at x = 1
(2) neither continuous nor derivable at x = 1
(3) continuous but not derivable at x = 1
(4) none of these
54. If f(x) = [x 2], then
(1) f 9(2.5) =
2
1
and f 9(5) = 3
(2) f 9(2.5) = 0 and f 9(5) = 3
(3) f 9(2.5) = 0 and f 9(5) does not exist
(4) Both f 9(2.5) and f 9(5) do not exist.
RESONANCE
ERPT1200312C0 - 15
55. If f(x) =
2
x
e 1
, then at x = 0, f(x) is
(1) differentiable as well as continuous
(2) continuous but not differentiable
(3) differentiable but not continuous
(4) neither differetiable nor continuous
56. If f(x) =
2
3
2
4
5
; A
; ;
4 x 1 , x 4
1 x 1 , 3
x
, then
(1) f(x) is continuous as well as differentiable
at x = 1
(2) f(x) is continuous but not differentiable at
x = 1
(3) f(x) is differentiable but not continuous at
x = 1
(4) none of these
57. If f (x) =
2
3
2
4
5
*
6
( !
0 x
0 x
,
,
k
)] x 4 / tan( [
x / 1
, then
? 0 x at continuous is ) x ( f , k of value what for *
(1) 1
(2) e
(3) e
2
(4) e
1
58. If f(x) = ||x|
2
2|x| 3| then f(x) is non
differentiable at x equal to
(1) 1,0,1
(2) 1, 2
(3) 3, 1, 0, 1, 3
(4) 3, 0, 3
RESONANCE
ERPT1200312C0 - 16
59. If f 9(c) exi sts and i s non-zero then
0 x
lim
+
h
) c ( f 2 ) h c ( f ) h c ( f ( (
is equal to
(1) f 9(c)
(2) 0
(3) 2f 9(c)
(4) none of these
60. Let f and g be differentiable functions satisfying
g9(a) = 2, g(a) = 2 and fog = @(Identity function).
Then f9(b) is equal to
(1)
2
1
(2) 2
(3)
3
2
(4) none of these
This section contains 30 multiple choice
(2), (3) and (4) for its answer, out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.
61. Match List-! with List-!! and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists.
List-! List-!!
(Metals) (Process/methods involved
in extraction process)
(a) Au 1. Self reduction
(b) Al 2. Liquation
(c) Pb 3. Electrolysis
(d) Sn 4. Bayer's process
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) 3 1 2 4
(2) 3 4 1 2
(3) 1 2 4 3
(4) 3 2 4 1
PARTC
Atomic masses : [H = 1, D = 2, Li = 7, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24, Al = 27,
Si = 28, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65,
As = 75, Br = 80, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, Hg = 200, Pb = 207]
62. Main function of frothers is:
(1) Stick to the ore and then take it to rise upto
the top
(2) Convert the insoluble ore into soluble part
(3) Make the ore hydrophobic
(4) None
63. Consider the following metallurgical processes
(i) Heating impure metal with CO and distilling
the resulting volatile carbonyl (boiling point
43C) and finally decomposing at 150C to
200C to get the pure metal.
(ii) Heating the sulphide ore in air until a part
is converted to oxide and then further heating
in the absence of air to let the oxide react with
unchanged sulphide.
(iii) Electrolysing the molten electrolyte
containing approximately equal amounts of the
metal chloride and CaCl
2
to obtain the metal.
The process used for obtaining sodium, nickel
and copper are, respectively,
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii) (2) (ii), (iii) and (i)
(3) (iii), (i) and (ii) (4) (ii), (i) and (iii)
64. Consider the cell potentials
Mg | Mg
2 E ! = 2.37
V and
Fe | Fe
3 E !
= 0.04 V. The best reducing
agent would be
(1) Mg
2+
(2) Fe
3+
(3) Mg
(4) Fe
65. How much the potential of a hydrogen
electrode will change when its solution initially
at pH = 0 is neutralised to pH = 7 ?
(1) Increase by 0.059 V
(2) Decrease by 0.059 V
(3) Increase by 0.41 V
(4) Decrease by 0.41 V
66. Equivalent conductance of 1M CH
3
COOH is
10 ohm
1
cm
2
equiv
1
and that at infinite dilution
is 200 ohm
1
cm
2
, equiv
1
. Hence % ionisation
of CH
3
COOH is :
(1) 5% (2) 2%
(3) 4% (4) 1%
67. Which of following cell can produce more
electrical work.
(1) Pt, H
2
|0.1M NH
4
Cl || 0.1 M CH
3
COOH | H
2
, Pt
(2) Pt, H
2
| 0.1 M HCl || 0.1 M NaOH | H
2
, Pt
(3) Pt, H
2
| 0.1 M HCl || 0.1 M CH
3
COOK | H
2
, Pt
(4) Pt, H
2
| 0.1 M CH
3
COOK || 0.1 M HCl | H
2
, Pt
68. A current of 0.1A was passed for 2hr through
a solution of cuprocyanide and 0.3745 g of
copper was deposited on the cathode.
Calculate the current efficiency for the copper
deposition. (Cu 63.5)
(1) 79% (2) 39.5 %
(3) 63.25% (4) 63.5%
69. BY the electrolysis of aqueous solution of
CuSO
4
, the products obtained at both the
electrodes are
(1) O
2
at anode and H
2
at cathode
(2) H
2
at anode and Cu at cathode
(3) O
2
at anode and Cu at cathode
(4) H
2
S
2
O
8
at anode and O
2
at cathode
70. How many gm of silver will be displaced from
a solution of AgNO
3
by 4 gm of magnesium?
(1) 18 gm
(2) 4 gm
(3) 36 gm
(4) 16 gm
71. Given : Hg
2
2+
+ 2

e #$ 2

Hg

,

E
0
= 0.789 V
& Hg
2+
+ 2

e #$ Hg

,

E
0
= 0.854 V,
calculate the equilibrium constant for
Hg
2
2+
#$ Hg + Hg
2+
.
(1) 3.13 10
%3
(2) 3.13 10
%4
(3) 6.26 10
%3
(4) 6.26 10
%4
72. The reduction potential of hydrogen electrode
when placed in a buffer solution is found to be
0.413V. The pH of the buffer is -
(1) 10
(2) 4
(3) 7
(4) 12
73. Which of the following acids is monobasic ?
(1) Hypophosphorous acid (H
3
PO
2
)
(2) Orthophosphoric acid (H
3
PO
4
)
(3) Pyrophosphoric acid (H
4
P
2
O
7
)
(4) Hypophosphoric acid (H
4
P
2
O
6
)
74. Which of the following oxides is amphoteric in
nature ?
(1) N
2
O
3
(2) P
4
O
6
(3) Sb
4
O
6
(4) Bi
2
O
3
75. Which of the following is least reactive ?
(1) White phosphorus
(2) Yellow phosphorus
(3) Red phosphorus
(4) Black phosphorus
76. .... is obtained when ammonium dichromate
is heated.
(1) nitrogen
(2) oxygen
(3) ammonia
(4) none
77. Which of the following oxides of nitrogen is
solid at or below 273 K ?
(1) NO
2
(2) N
2
O
3
(3) N
2
O
(4) N
2
O
5
78. Estimation of ozone can be made quantitatively
by :
(1) decomposition into O
2
and absorption of
O
2
into pyrogallol
(2) volumetric method using KI and titration of
the liberated iodine using hypo solution
(3) oxidative ozonolysis method
(4) all methods given above
79. Out of H
2
S
2
O
3
, H
2
S
4
O
6
, H
2
SO
5
and H
2
S
2
O
8
peroxy acids are :
(1) H
2
S
2
O
3
, H
2
S
4
O
6
(2) H
2
S
4
O
6
, H
2
SO
5
(3) H
2
SO
5
, H
2
S
2
O
8
(4) H
2
S
2
O
3
, H
2
S
2
O
8
80. Bleaching of a fabric cloth is done using A and
excess of chlorine is removed using B. A and
B are :
(1) CaOCl
2
, Na
2
SO
3
(2) Na
2
S
2
O
3
, CaOCl
2
(3) CaCl
2
, Na
2
S
2
O
3
(4) CaOCl
2
, Na
2
S
2
O
3
81. Which of the following carbonyl gives 4-methyl
pent -3-en-2-one on reaction with dilute NaOH
solution with heating.
(1) Acetaldehyde
(2) Acetone
(3) Formaldehyde
(4) Propanal
82. Which one of the following will not give &-
hydroxy acid.
(1) C
6
H
5
CH=O
(2)
(3)
(4) All of these
83. Reaction of cyclohexanone with dimethylamine
in the presence of catalytic amount of an acid
forms a compound. If water during the reaction
is continuously removed the compound formed
is generally known as
(1) an amine (2) an imine
(3) an enamine (4) a Shiff's base
84.
The structure of compound x is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
85. The following sequence of reactions gives :
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
86. A mixture of benzaldehyde and formaldehyde
on heating with NaOH solution gives :
(1) Benzyl alcohol and sodium formate
(2) Sodium benzoate and methyl alcohol
(3) Sodium benzoate and sodium formate
(4) Benzyl alcohol and methyl alcohol
87. Base catalysed aldol condensation occurs
with:
(1) benzaldehyde
(2) 2-methyl propanal
(3) 2, 2-dimethylpropanal
(4) Formaldehyde
88.
O H , Zn ) ii (
O ) i (
2
3
# # $ #
'
(
# # $ #
OH
X major
X will be :
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
89. Order of reactivities of carbonyl compounds
towards nucleophilic addition reactions is
(1) III < II < I < IV (2) IV < I < III < II
(3) I < IV < II < III (4) IV < I < II < III
90. What will be the reactivity order of following
compounds with PhMgBr.
(I) CH
3
CHO (II) PhCHO
(III) CH
3
COPh (IV) HCHO
(1) III > II > I > IV
(2) IV > I > III > II
(3) IV > I > II > III
(4) I > IV > II > III

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