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c...O-M.

11U/101/26
11456
Set No: (2) Question Booklet No .................................... .
( To be filled up by the candidate by blue/black bali-point pen)
Roll No ..
Roll No.
(Write the digits in words) ..................................................................................................................................................... .
Serial No. of Answer ........................... .
Day and Date .................................................. .
(Signature of Invigilalor)
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
(Use only blue/black ball-point pen in the space above and on both sides of the Answer Sheet)
1. Within 10 minutes of the issue of the Question Booklet. check the Question Booklet to ensure that it contains
all the pages in correct sequence and that no page/question is missing. In case of faulty Question Booklet bring
it to the notice of the Superintendentllnvigilators immediately to obtain a fresh Question Booklet.
2. Do not bring any loose paper. written or blank, inside.the Examination Hall except the Admit Card without its
envelope.
3. A separate Answer Sheet is given. It should not be folded or mutilated. A second Answer Sheet shall not
be provided. Only the Answer Sheet will be evaluated.
4. Write your Roll Number and Serial Number of the Answer Sheet by pen in the space provided above.
5. On the front page of the Answer Sheet, write by pen your Roll Number in the space provided at the top,
and by darkening the circles at the bottom. Also, wherever applicable, write the Question Booklet Number
a'!d the Set Number In appropriate places.
6. No overwriting is allowed in the entries of Roll No., Question Booklet No. and Set No. (if any) on OMR sheet
'and Roll No. and OMR sheet No. on tne Question Booklet.
7. Any changes in the aforesaid entries is to be verified by the invigilator, otherwise it will be tqken as unfair means
8. Each question in this Booklet is followed by four alternative answers. For each question, you are to record
the co"ect option on the Answer Sheet by darkenIng the appropriate circle In the co"espondlng row
of the Answer Sheet, by pen as mentioned in the guidelines given on the first page of the Answer Sheet.
9. For each question. darken only one circle on the Answer Sheet. If you darken more than one
circle or darken a circle partially, the answer will be treated as incorrect.
10. Note that the answer once filled In Ink cannot be changed. If you do not wish to attempt a question
leave all the circles in the corresponding row blank (such question will be awarded zero marks)
11. For rou9h work, use the inner back page of the title cover and the blank page the end of this Booklet
12. Deposit only OMR Answer Sheet at the end of the Test.
13. You are not permitted to leave the Examination Hall until the end of the Test.
14. If a candidate attempts to use any form of unfair means, he/she shall be liable to such punishment as the UniverSity
may determine and impose on him/her.

Time : hours]
2
11U/101/26 (2)
[Full A1arks : 450
450
Instructions : This paper consists of Objective Type Questions and is divided
into Five Sections:
(i) Sections I, II, III and IV are compUlsory. In addition, a candidate is
required to answer questions on EITHER English Language
OR Hindi Language (Section V).
(ii) There are in all 180 questions. Attempt as many questions as you
can. Each question carries 3 (THREE) marks. One mark will be
deducted for each incorrect answer. Zero mark will b9 awarded for
each unattempted question.
(iii) Each question is followed by FOUR alternative answers (1), (2), (3)
and (4). Only one of these answers is correct. Select the correct answer
and record it against the question by darkening the appropriate circle
in the OMR Answer-sheet by Blue/Black ball point Pen.
(iv) If more than one alternative answers seem to be approximate to the
correct answer, choose the closest one.
Rffl: q"{:mmfuf qfq if
{i} I, II, III 3fu: IV I 31fufufl CfiT 'lWIT <IT
'lWIT
(Ii) 1,80 m 0fiT!Ff(q oRl m 3 (rn)
0fiT m
0fiT mrrr I
(Iii) m (l), (2), (3) (4)
W I W CfiT OMR 3m:-3ffilCfiI iT CfiT
IDU CFiK1T Cfl{ I
(iv) 3m:@ 3m: f.rcfiz m ill RCfildlO1 W 3rR I
( I ) (Tum O,er)
llU/lO1l26 (2)
SECTION-I

(Economics And MoneK Banking)
( f!!i tw 5fWr )
1. 'Economics is the science which studies human behaviour as a relationship
between ends and scare means which have alternative uses.' Who gave this
detinition ?
{ I} Adam Smith (2) Marshall
{3} J. B. Say {4} Robins
CfiT mmo 3fu: u
l1RCf CfiT I' <:f6 qftmq-r ?
{2}
(4)
2. 'Economic Laws are essentially hypothetical.' Who gave this statement?
{ I} Saligman
{3} Boulding
(I)
( 3 )
(2) Marshall
(4) Adam Smith
(2)
(4)
3. Who is the author of this book- 'Economics of Welfare' ?
{I} Jevons
(3) J. K. Mehta
(2) A. C. Pigou
(4) Robbins
'Economics of Welfare'- ?

(3) ifw
(2) t;o cftrt
(4)
( 2 l { Continued l
llU/lO1l26 (2)
4. What are the various factors of production?
(1) Land (2) Labour
(3) Capital (4) All of the above
Cflt.r -Cflt.r if ?
(1)

(2) l3P1
(3)
crrr
(4)
5. Indifference curve is
(1) Convex to the origin
(2) Concave to the origin
(3) Parallel to the origin
(4) None of these

(1) smr
(2)
{3}
(4)
6. Who introduced the' consumer surplus' tirst?
(1) Taussing (2) Stigler
(3) Dupit (4) Benham

. (1) iffWT (2)
(3) (4)
( 3 )
(Tum Over)
llU/101l26 (2)
7. What is the formula of measuring the Income Elasticity of Demand?
( I) Change of income
Previous income
(2) Change in demand
Previous demand
Proportional change in income
(3)
Proportional change in quantity demanded
(4) Proportional change in quantity demanded
Proportional change in income
{2}


3iljqlR!6fl qf{qd'l
(3)
lIDlT qf{qJ;t
( 4 ) rr<ft lffi{f 3'lljq (rn6fl qf{q d"1
ij 3iljqlrn6fl qf<qd'Oi
8. How many methods are there to measure National Income?
(1) Five {2} One (3) Three (4) Two
( 4 ) (Collli{/uca)
llU/101/26 (2)
9. Which of the most important theory for the explanation of distribution?
( I) Marginal productivity theory
(2) Demand and supply theory
(3) Classical theory
(4) None of these
fcrn\ur cxm<IT m
(1) 3rtlla,Cf)dl
(2)

(4)
10. Who contributed the concept of 'Kinked Demand Curve'?
(1) William Falner (2) Mrs. John Robinson
(3) Paw M. Swiji (4) Fritj Macklup

'-'
(1)
(3) tnCf,
(2)

11. ':\tloney is a link between present and future.' Who said it?
( 1) Crowther (2) Trescott
(3) Robertson (4) J. M. Keynes
(f'<.JT it W it Cfinf CfifT I' fcmcnT ?
.
(l) (2)
(3) (4) m
( 5 )
(Tum O'erl
llUilO1l26 (2)
12. The market where the short term securities arc traded is known as
(I) Securities Market (2) Stock Markct
(3) Capital Market (4) Money Market
"" 'If"IR.m 31('Q""kl'" 'liT "IT'!R 'li6ctTdT
(1) 'If"IR ( 2 ) "'"' 'If"IR
( 3) 'If"IR ( 4) 'If"IR
13, Money Market is regulated by
(1) Financial Institution
(2) Indian Commercial Banks
(3) Reserve Bank ofindia
(4) Foreign Banks, operating in India
'If"IR 'liT f.twH 'fiR 'Ii@! ?
(1) j<iwnif'lH
(2) q,iU,fOll",
(3)
(4) 'lffiI it 'Iif1fuf
14, SEBI stands for
(I) Statutory Export Bureau of India
(2) Securities Exchange Bank of India
(3) Securities and Exchange Board ofindia
(4) State Export Bank ofindia
'liT W
(1) Q,<ffiq];1 '''!If 31fq;
(2) 31fq;
(3) <i,s Q,<ffiil", aM 31fq;
(4) <ll Q,<ffiq];1 31fq;
( 6 )
llU/lOl/26 (2)
15. Which Bank operates Bank Rate and Open Market operations?
( 1) Cooperative Bank
(2) Central Bank of India
(3) Reserve Bank of India
(4) None of these

(1) ('Ii\Cf.IU
(2)
(3)
(4)
16. The first stage of the evolution of money was
(1) Commodity moeny (2) Metallic money
(3) Paper money (4) Credit money
cfJ 31cW4T
(1)
(3)

(4)
17. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(1) Good money drives bad money out of circulation
(2) Bad money drives good money out of circulation

(3) Good and Bad money cannot circulate together
(4) Cannot say?
RRil?f.C1 if Cht.1 m
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
( 7 )
I\U/IOI/26 (2)
18. Which of the following can be call cd financial institution?
(I) Banks
(2) State Financial Corporation
(3) !DB!
(4) All of the above
f.i",R1l@d it it M _ "IT WOOl
(I)
(2) '"'" ft!ir f.rm
(3)
(4) .mft
19. When was Regional Rural Bank established first in India?
'lTU! it <l'ffi m !!Pftur m'
(I) 1935 (2) 1975 (3) 1980 (4) 10Rl
20. Who is issuer of paper money of Rs. Five in India?
(I) Central Government
{2} State Governments
(3) State Bank ofindia
(4) Reserve Bank ofindia
'lTU! it qjq '1'f wr (oiR:) '!ir.r f.rfflm iW!T ?
(1)
( 2 ) '"'" >miTU
(3)
(4)
( 8 I
I COlllllw<,d)
llU/lOtl26 (2)
21. If money is not the heart of our economic system, it can certainly be
considered its blood stream.' Who said it ?
( 1) Trescott
(3) Saligman
(1)
22. Who may cross a cheque?
(1) Drawer
(3) Banker
(1)
(3) fu
23. A Bill of Exchange is drawn by
( 1) Creditor
(3) Shareholder
(2) Pigou
(4) Hartley Brothers
(2) tft1t
(4)
(2) Holder
(4) All of the above
(2) tTRCfi
(4)
..
(2) Debtor
(4) Debentureholder
(1) (2)
( 9 ) ( Tum
llU/lO1l26 (2)
24. In which year and date NABARD was established?
(1) 12 June, 1982 (2) 12 July, 1982
(3) 12 May. 1982 (4) 12 July, 1983

(1) 1982
(3) 12 1982
(2) 1982
(4) 12 1983
25. How many Commercial Banks were nationalised by the Government of
India on 19th July, 1969?
19 1969, CiiT 'ijffif 00 CfiT fcfi<rr mIT
2lT?
. (1) 5
(2) 6 (3) 14 (4) 10
26. U.T.I. Bank has now changed its name to
( 1) Excel Bank (2) Trade Bank
(3) United Bank (4) AXIS Bank
it enr ;w:r cstGclCfl< m 'lm
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
27. Who is the Union Finance Minister in India?
(1) Mr. Pranab Mukherjee (2) Mr. Kamalnath
(3) Mr. Sharad Pawar (4) Mr. Kapil Sibbal
\lmf it fcffl mfi cnt.f ?
(1) (2) mCfl4cl"ll\!.f
(3) (4)
I 10 ) ( Continued)
28. Which Bank first introduced Mobile ATM in India?
mr if ;r Mobile ATM CfiT ffi1l fcnm? .
(1) I.D.B.I. (2) I.C.I.C.I. (3) S.B.I.
29. Following is Credit Rating Agency?
(1) CRISIL
(3) CARE
RRR1!l9d
(1) CRISIL
(3) CARE
(2) ICRA
(4) All of the above
(2) ICRA
(4)
llU/lO1l26 (2)
(4) H.D.F.e.
30. In which year International Monetary Fund (IMF) was established?
wr efiT qq: Wt ?
(1) 1935 (2) 1944 (3) 1950 (4) 1955
( 11 ). (Tum Over)
llU/lO1l26 (2)
SECTION-IT

(Accounting and Business Organisation)
( &&72tJOf .&- d/
i
::/fl7f4Ch WJo;r) ,
31. Double Entry System of Book Keeping was first propounded by
( 1) Chanakya
(3) Luea Pacioli
(2) Lere Iccocea
(4) Confucious
cqif)@ldl
(1) (2)
(3)
32. What is the nature of Goodwill ?
(1) Dog Goodwill
(3) Rat Goodwill

(1)
(3)
(4)
(2) Cat Goodwill
(4) All of the above
(2)
(4) $B'fi
33. Which method of Depreciation is must suitable in the case of mineral
deposits?
(1) Depletion Method
(3) Annuity Method
( 1) a;t<ftCfi(OI
(3)
(2) Revaluation Method
(4) None of these
( 2 ) CfI i CflOi fcrltr if
(4)
( 12 ) (Continued)
\1U/\01l26(2)
34. Machine cost Rs. 5,500, Life 10 years, Residual Value Rs. 5,000, each
year's depreciation according to Straight Line Method would be
(I) Rs.5,000
(3) Rs. 5,500
(2) Rs. 6,000
(4) Rs.500
,,"0, >5ft"""'1<:110 <ri, 5,000 ,,"0 I $I\"&rfilfu
<ri 0iT;;m
(1) 5,000,,"0
(3) 5.500.0
(2) 6,000,,"0
(4) 500,,"0
35. Income and Expenditure Account includes figures related to
(I) Previous Year (2) Current Year
(3) Future Year (4) All of these
(1) '10 qtf ;itar (2)
(3) iI; <ri ( 4) <l'if ;itar
36. Which of the following is the Accounting Equation?
(1) Capital = Assets - Liabilities
(2) Capital = Assets + Liabilities
(3) Assets = Liabilities - Capital
(4) Liabilities = Assets - Capital
(1) 't'ft qjqRl.i -
(2) 't'ft = ';qRl.i +
(3) ';qRl.i = - 't'ft
(4) = ';qRl.i - 't'ft
( 13 ) (Tum O'er)
llU/lOll16(l)
37. Secret Reserve will be shown in
(I) Profit and Loss Account
(2) Profit and Loss Appropriation Account
(3) Balance Sheet
(4) None of the above
RRR1fuid it
(1) 8N - m.r @TOT it
(2) R<O!l'i11"1 {9fijf it
(3)
(4)
38. Ledger is a principal book in which
(1) All accounts are kept
(2) Only personal accounts are kept
{3} Only real accounts are kept
(4) Only nominal accounts are kept
{9fijf Gftft Q,Cfi Q:dt Gftft
(l)
(2) OlIRtiJld &
(3)
(4)
39. The balance of Petty Cash Book is
(1) an asset
(3) an Income
c:tlT irtf t
(1)
(3)
(2) a liability
(4) an expenditure
(2)
(4)
( 14 ) ( Comillucd )
40. Outstanding Expenses are shown as
(1) an expense
(3) a liability
(1)
(3)
(2) an mcome
(4) an asset
(2)
(4)
41. An example of Intangible Asset is
( 1) Goodwill
(2) Debit balance of Protit and Loss Account
(3) Preliminary Expenses
(4) Deferred Revenue Expenditure
(1)
(2) ffi'l-mH if
(3)
(4)
42. Object of preparing Trial Balance is--
(1) to check the arithmetic accuracy of accounts
llU/lOl/26 (2)
(2) to check the accounting book in complete and total nature
(3) to tind the economic condition of business
(4) to get the information of assets and liabilities
GAR CfiT -
(1) JlfU,d)lI CfiBT
(2)
(3)
(4)
( 15 I
llU/IOll26 (2)
43. Which of the Assets below are lixed ?
(I) Carts (2) Cash (3) Furniture (4) Debtors
(I) (2) (3) q;;fW (4)
44. Goods sold on credit are recorded in - .
(I) Cash Book
(3) Sales Return Book
(2) Sales Book
(4) Journal
3tlR ;if<t 1]if 'lR'f 'liT - if f<\;m "IT<lT
(I) (2)
(4) m
45. of the following government in India followed the education of
Accountancy first?
(1) Government of Delhi (2) Government of Bihar
(3) Government of Mumbai (4) None of these
1lmI if <ll!lJ,,,,f <fit w.rr 'liT m'Iif{ f<\;m
(1) m'Iif{ 't (2) Forw m'Iif{
(3) (4)
46. Single Entry system of accounting is
(I) Best System
(3) Most Popular System
(I)
(3) <:11if;m" !r'II<'ft
(2) Scientific System
(4) Incomplete System
(2 ) f.i if; !r'II<'ft
( 4 )
16 )
llU/lOl/26 (2)
47. Under Hire Purchase System, the ownership of property remains with
(1) 'Buyer (2) Owner
(3) Guarantor (4) None of the above
fcfium m Q\ f<41f?irCl tffi1 \W
(1) (2) f<Wft
(3) (4)
48. Interim Dividend is shown in
( 1) Revenue AI c
(3) Capital AI c
c;W:rr \1fTffi"
(1) 3nrm &N if
(3) 'tit&Nif
49. Liability of Sole Trader is
(2) Net Revenue Alc
(4) None of these
(2)
(4)
(1) Limited (2) Unlimited (3) Undecided (4) Qualified
cxrrqffi CfiT Nor
(1) mf?Rr (2) (4)
50. Partner and Firm are mutually related
(1) (2) Servant
(3) Agent (4) Shareholder
3ltt qjJf CfiT q I(fC1 F(Gfl m mcrr
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
( 17 ) (Tum Oler)
llU/lO1l26 (2)
51. Nominal Partner is that who
( 1) Invest nominal capital (2) Earn nominal profit
(3) Allows the use of his name (4) Allows limited liability
CfiT
(1) cfit wmrr "i1441:i1 CfiT <::1N %IT
(3) (4)
52. In company risk is born by
(1) Directors (2) Shareholders
(3) Creditors. of Company (4) Managing Director

(1) (2)
(3) (4)
53. Registration of Cooperative Societies is
(1) Voluntary (2) Compulsory (3) Harmful (4) Desirable
flfMa41 CfiT
(1) (2) (3)
54. The Indian Partnership Act was came into force from the year
1l1Uft<r qtf :"31T m
(1) 1932 (2) 1940 (3) 1948 (4) 1956
( 18 I
)
55. Advertising is
(1) a wastage
(3) a Luxury
(1)
(3) W<:'lIruol
(2) an investment
(4) inessential
56. Amendments were made due to Liberalisation Policy
( 1) In Industrial Policy
(2) In Industries (Development and Regulation) Act, 1951
(3) In Act, 1965
(4) In all the above
(1) til fll Cfl ;ftRr 1f
(2) (fcrcm:r RwH) 1951 1f
(3) 1965lf
(4)
llU/101!26 (2)
57. \Vhich one of the following is the oldest form of organisation?
(I) Functional Organisation
(2) Line Organisation
(3) Line and Staff Organisation
(4) Departmentation
RRR1R9o 1f B- Brrc-r CfiT
( 1) Brrc-r
(2)
(3) WRH
(4)
( 19 ) (TumOler)
llU/lO1l26 (2)
58. In the case of a deemed Public Limited Company the maximum number
of members is restricted to
film \l"tl"" \l,<l",f,l", fctfllZg <i;q;ft 1f; if <lit mr
iWt
(1) 10 (2) 30 (3) 50 (4) 100
59. Converting a public company into a private company requires a special
resolution
(1) Passed by members
(2) Passed by members and approval of the Registrar of Companies
(3) Oflbe member and approval of the Company Law Board
(4) Of the member and approval by the creditors
\l,<l",f,l", <i;q;ft """ f.r;ft <i;q;ft if 1f; fctiI Q,<li
(1) WT 'lTful it
(2) WT 'lTfulit aW <i;q;ft WT "<:J<ilRd it
(3) <liT m- aW :m 'R <i;q;ft fufu oiIt <liT it
(4)
60. Which one of the following is not a form of business organisation?
(I) Sole proprietorship (2) Partnership
(3) Charitable Trust (4) Joint Stock Company
(2)
( 20 j
SECTION-ill

( G. K. and Current Affairs)
( (fT117rl:f )
llU/lOl/26(2)
61. The 'Teachers Day' is celebrated every year on which of the following
days?
(1) 5th September
(3) 5th July
(3)
(2) 15th August
(4) 15th October
( 2 ) 1 5 f11f
(4) 15
62. Nationalisation of Life Assurance was done in the year
(1) 1950 (2) 1956 (3) 1970
63. The first Stock Exchange in India was established in
(1) Kolkata (2) Delhi
(3) (4) Chennai
'ffi(f if S"*
(1) (2)

(3) (4)
( 21 )
(4) 1971
(Tum O"cr)
llU/lOl/26 (2)
64. The Securities and Exchange Board of India, Act (SEBI) was passed in
the year
(1) 1990
(3) 1992
(1) qrf 1990 it
(3) qrf 1992 it
(2) 1991
(4) 1993
(2) qrf 1991 it
(4) 1993 it
65. Which of the following is a type of tax levied by the government on
goods and services?
(l)PAN
(3) SAT
(1) tH
(3) W:
(2) NET
(4) VAT
(2)
(4)
66. Who is the Union Agriculture Minister in India?
( 1) Mr. Kamalnath (2) Mr. P. Chidumbaram
(3) Mr. Pranab Mukherji (4) Sharad Pawar
( 4) &t!ffiG qcffi
( 22 ) ( CO/Jti/Jued )
67. 'Aamer Fort' is located in which State?
(1) Gujarat
(3) D.P.

(1)
(3)
(2) Assam
(4) Rajasthan
( 2 ) 3ffi1rl1

llU/101l26 (2)
68. Which of the following is the Centre for British Newspapers?
(1) Wall Street
(3) Fleet Street
(2) First Street
(4) Press Street
(2) W$
(4)
69. The Headquarters of the European Economic Community is at
( 1) Brussels (2) Copenhagan (3) Bonn

(1) (2) qi)qOi%JH (3) GfR
70. What is haemoglobin?
( 1) A substance found in plant leaves
(2) A substance found in bone marrow
(3) A substance found in human blood
(4) A secretion of pituitary glands
RH q:<.IT ?
(1)
(2)
(3) 4HCl14 \m tn<n" crR1T
(4) fCI:S:<lltl rim crR1T mer
( 23 )
(4) Paris
(4) ttfu:r
(Tum Oler)
IIU/IOI/26(2)
71. Indian Government has established some 'Biosphere Reserves Centres'
in the country. Which of the following rcsclVcs was established first?
(I) Gulf of Manner
(3) Nilgiri
(2) Sundervan
(4) I\"anda Devi
'IffiI ffilm if !'!"J Ii ,;<., i\;;j::' !>!TfitI I f.l "" FIiI it if i\
lIT !>!TfitI 'I'IT ?
(I) 1001: <I;t
(3) oft",1il6
(2) \j4.4
(4)
72. Colours in a colour Television are produced by a combination of three
basic colours. These arc
( I) Red, llIue and Orange
(2) Red, Yellow and Hlue
(3) Red, Yellow and Green
(4) Red, Green and Brown
t('fi m Mflt .. 4 if <fR 3!NR'!.'I irif fit'lf1Jr i\ irr "!1H I H
(I) <1l<1",:ft<lr it'll 4Wft
(2) <1l<1", <1t<1T it'll :ft<lr
(3 ) <1l<1", <1t<1T it!lT tm
( 4 ) <1l<1", tm it!lT 'Ill
73, 'Food, Work and Productivity' was the slogan given In
( I) Seventh Five Year Plan
(2) Fifth Five Year Plan
(3) Election Manifesto of the Janta Dal
(4) UN Charter of human rights
''"'"'" ""'" 3lR <Oil:nu if 'I'IT 'IT
(I) 11!11'11 ",,<I'ff,,1Il-.;rr
(2) qjq,tf "".off. IIl-.;rr
(3) 'R<tT <Oil WI'"
(4)
t 24 I I I
l1U/IOl/26 (2)
74. The most important aspect of 'Folk Song' is
(1) Entertainment (2) Development of Music
(3) Preservations of traditions (4) Source of livelihood
ctlCfll ftJi CiiT
(1) q"ili'JI"l m-
(3)
(2)
(4) m-
75. Venezuela is world's one of the largest
(1) Banana cultivators (2) Zinc mining States
(3) Heroin producing countries (4) Oil producing centres

(1) (2)
76. When is 'World Literacy Day' observed?
( I) October, 10 (2) December, 20
(3) November,30 (4) September, 8
ma.mrr Cfjaf lHM ?
(1) 1 0 (2) 20 ReJOa1(
(3) (4) 8 RH1JOa1(
77. The recent 'Commonwealth Games' were held at
(1) Tokyo (2) Shanghai (3) Delhi (4) Perth
gr it
(1) (2) (3) tWit (4)
( 2S ) (Tum Over)
llU/lOl/26(2)
78. The Planning Commission of India is
(I) an Autonomous body
(3) a Constitutional body
(3)
(2) an Advisory body
(4) a Statutory body
79. When an information is dialed on the telephone and read on the television
screen, it is known as
(l)Telex (2) Telefax (3) Teletex (4) Teleprocessing
mu zdIRl'JI'i BiR q{ % ciT 3B

(l) (3)
80. Method of recording three-dimensional photographs using Laser
Beam is
(l) Halography (2) Xerography (3) Videography (4) Audiography
ffi:R (afN) cfiT (it\14("11 B- cfiT fum Cfif;wr
(I) (2) 4lil!Olli1 (3) qlfutll!Oll':hl . (4) 3'llfu41!OlIi1
81. The book entitled 'Planning and the Poor' has been authored by
(I) B. S. Minhas (2) L. C. Jain
(3) Gunnar Myradal (4) L. K. Iha
'wf.N g31{' WfCfi
(I) Gft'o
(3)
(2) IDo $:r
(4) W
( 26 ) (CO/l/i/lued)
82. The famous lama Mas jid of Delhi was built by
(1) Humayun (2) Shah lahan
(3) Akbar (4) Ibrahim Lodhi

(1) (2)
(3) 31cfiGR (4) ffim
83. Who is known as 'Father of White Revolution' in India?
(1) Y1. S. Swaminathan (2) V. Kurien
(3) B.P.Pal (4) K.N. Bahal

(1) Q!1o (2) cfio
(3) aft"o tIT.) 'ffi1 (4) Q';To
84. The tax on Import and Export is known as
(1) Income Tax (2) Trade Tax
(3) Custom Duty (4) None of the above
3Wmf tR wrm Cfi\ CfiT fcR:r ::rm 'J1TcfT ?
(1)
(3)
85. Centre for DNA Fingerprinting is located at
(I) New Delhi
(3) Pune
tTo Q';To Q;o
(1)
(3)
(2) Bangluru
(4) Hydrabad
(2)
(4) if
( 27 )
llU/lOl/26 (2)
(Tum a.'cr)
llU/lO1l26 (2)
86. Who among the following was the founder of the 'Satya Shodhok Samaj' ?
( 1) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar (2) Jyotiba Phule
(3) Narayan Guru (4) Ramaswamy Naicker
(4)
87. 'Special Economic Zones' are being set up in V.P. at
(1) Agra, Kanpur and Noida
(2) Agra, Kanpur and Greater Noida
(3) Meerut, Moradabad, Kanpur and Noida
(4) Moradabad, Kanpur, Noida and Greater Noida

(1) 3WfU,
(2) 3WfU, if
(3) mo,
(4) 3ltt!)G{;fi<mif
88. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(1) Diesel Locomotive Works: Varanasi
(2) Indian Telephone Industries: Rae Bareli
(3) Bharat Electronics Ltd: Noida
(4) Oil Refinery: Mathura
(1) . ctht1141fc:CI crcRf : Cll(loll
(2) ld)4)lOi .. : uc:r
(3) "lmf : Oilw
(4)
( 28 ) ( CoJllinucd )
tlU/I01l26 (2)
89. The Fourth estate is
(1) Press (2) Property (3) Metals (4) Tax
(2) (3)
(4) Cfi"{
90. In the V.P. and M.P. States 'The Joint Rajghat River Valley Project' is
launched on
( 1) Ken River (2) Son River
(3) Chambal River (4) Betwa River
( 29 ) (Tum Over)
llU/101!26 (2)
SECTION-IV

(Mathematics)
( TJfUrn)
91. Ram's expenses are increased from Rs. 730 to Rs. 876. The percentage
. .
mcrease IS

0
(l) 10% (2) 20% (3) 300 (4) 40%
92. In an examination 15% of the students failed. while 1275 students passed.
The number of students appeared in the examination is
fcfim wan if 1 5% ffi;f 1 275 m;f 3TfruT I wan if 1
ffi;f fi1l R1 (1
(1) 1000 (2) 2000 (3) 1500 (4) 2500
93. The value of % of Rs. 1500 is
2
1 500 CfiT %
2
(1) Rs.387.5m
(3) Rs. 487.5 m
(2) Rs. 382.5 R
(4) Rs. 482.5 R
94. If percentage of saving on income is 25. Then percentage of saving on
expense IS
(l) 15% (2) 25%
( 30 ) ( Continued)
llUlIOI/26(2)
95. In a competitive examination 2000 students appeared out of which 500
students selected. The percentage of examinees not selected is
flRjt Slfu"l'n W'JT it 2000 mor 8fAlHd S'( fuPt it 500 mor f'F;it cit I
" f'F;it cit '!iT !lRiw
(I) 75% (2) 25% (4) 45%
96. The equivalent discount rate for successive discounts 1m;" 1 0% and
IS
10%, lO'Pltt 5% <lit 'lOW"
(I) 25" (2) 23.05% (3) 24% (4) 22.75%
97. A radio dealer sold a radio for Rs. 480 the list price of which was
Rs. 580. The rate of trade discount is
!('I' (fu<i\ h,'li (fu<i\ 480 l5'lit it '!i"! 580 l5'lit 'IT, "1IQlf{iti
<lit "
(I) 17-'%

%(2)
6
(4) 9-'-%
"
98. Find the rate percent of discount if a scooter which costs Rs. 8,000, the
purchaser paid Rs. 7,800
!('I' 8,000 "0 0t 00<f.t <R 7,800 l5'lit I
<lit " !lRiw jffif
(J) 2So (2) 1.5% (3) 3.5% (4) 0.5%
99. The average age of 25 persons is 30 years. The average age irincascd
by 1 year. if ages of 5 other persons arc also included. The average age
of these 5 persons is
25 "1 Rh" I afura- 3iT1 3 0 'l'i I 5 afu: <lit 3lI 'iii >it I <f.t <R afura-
3iT1 I 'l'i 'fi;" "fl<ft I 'R 5 "1 Rh"l <lit afura- 3lI
(I) 18 (2) 36 (3) 31 (4) 54
( 31 (Tuni Over]
llU/101l26 (2)
100. Average age of 30 students of a class is 15 years. Average age remain
unaltered even if 3 new students are admitted. The total age of three
new students is
30 m:rr CfiT 15 3 3fu: m:rr qJG m
3iQf{Clfdd wft I 3 3!f CfiT
(1) 1 5 years (Ci1U) (2) 30 years
(3) 45 years (Ci1U) (4) 60 years
101. A General Manager gets a commission on 20% of the net profit of the
business. If the protit of the business stands at Rs. 2,450. Find his
commission.
Q;Cfi cnT ffi"\1 CfiT 20%
CfiT ffi112,450 m aT I
(1) 408.33 (2) 508.33 (3) 608.33 (4) 308.33
102. A Manager of a tirm is to be given commission at 25% on net protits
after charging the own commission. If the profit prior to charging
manager's commission is Rs. 25,000, then find the amount of
, . .
manager s commISSIon
q;Jf cnT m Cfit qJG ffi"\1 q-{ 25%
W:rr Cfit tTlR" q;tf CfiT 25,000 m
aT
(1) Rs. 1,000 (2) Rs. 2,000
(3) Rs. 3,000 (4) Rs. 5,000
( 32 ) ( Continued)
llU/lO1l26 (2)
103. A dealer buys a radio for 1,050. He wants to earn a protit of 30%
after allowing % discount. What price should be fix for the radio?
2
1,050 if 30% CfilIT1T
2

(l) Rs. 1 ,360 (2) Rs. 1 ,460
(3) Rs. 1 ,560 (4) Rs. 1 ,660
104. If a suitcase of Rs. 240 is sold for Rs. 202 only loss is
(2) . (3)
8 .50
lOS. Selling price is equal to .
(I) Purchase Price + Loss % (2) Purchase Price + Loss
(3) Purchase Price + Protit % (4) Purchase Price + Protit
(3) +
106. A trader gains 20% at the selling price. The percentage of profit on the
cost price is
(1) 1 (2) %
(3) 25 % (4)
3 2 3
( 33 ) (Tum Over)
llU/lO1l26 (2)
107. Calculate the simple interest on Rs. 1,268 for 219 days at the rate of
1
6-% per annum
4
1,268 219
4
(1) Rs. 47.55
(3) Rs. 37.55
(2) Rs. 57.55
(4) Rs. 27.55
108. What principal will gain Rs. 120 as simple interest at 6% per annum in
2
2- years?
3
q)f qrf if 6% tT mtffiUT I 20 if
3

(1) Rs. 650
(3) Rs. 850
(2) Rs. 750 m
(4) Rs. 550 m
109. A sum of money doubles itself in 50 years at a certain rate percent of
simple interest. How long it will take to double itself at the same rate
of compound interest?
tT CfiT{ 50 qr:if if if tT

(1) 25 years (qtff if)
. (3) 35 years (qtffif)
(2) 27 years (qtff if)
(4) 37 years (qr:if if)
110. What should come in place of question mark ( ? ) in the following series?
RAifCnct if m ( ? ) tR q<IT mr ?
5,10,20,40, (?), 160
(1) 80 (2) 100 (3) 120
( 34 )
(4) 320
( Continued)
llU/101l26 (2)
111. Find the value of

63.42 x 7.639
(1) 384.4 (2) 484.4 (3) 387.4 (4) 487.4
112. What percent is 125 metre of 3 kilometer?
(2)
6
113. In a class there are 100 students and their average age is 15 years.
Five students have left the class and their ages are 17 years, 15
years, 16 years, 13 years and 14 years. Average age (in years)
of the remaining students is
CfiW it 1 00 rn;f 3fu: RCfit 311wr 1 5 qrf I Cf}?JT ca 1 7 qrf, 1 5
qrf, 16 1 3 qrf 3fu: 14 qrf ct qtq rn;f tg I Cf}?JT
mit 311wr (qrf it)
(1) 15 years (2) 15.7 years
(3) 16.1 years I (4) 14.8 years
114. A and B are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio
of 3 : 2. C is admitted as a partner with 1 /4 share in profits. A and B will
share profits in future equally. Find the new profit sharing ratio.
3T 3fu: q qj1f it I CfiT 3 : 2 Iff ca 1/4
't.TflT fum GHT<IT I it 3T am q CfiT - Nf.t GffiGR
mrrri
(1) 3:3:2 (2) 3:2:1 (3) 3:3:3 (4) 3:1:3
( 35 ) (Tum Over)
llU/101l26(2)
115. Find the value of

(5)'x(3)2-;-(5)2
(I) 40 (2) 45 (3) 50 (4) 55
116. Select the correct answer

15x 15x 15=?
(I) 4545 (2) 3545 (3) 3375 (4) 3030
117. A person buys a car for Rs. 10,000 and sells it at Rs. 12,500 less
25% discount. Find his gain or loss percent.
'n iXI'fu; 'n '1m: 10,000 \>0 i'f &tlGor 3fu: 12,500 \>0 i'f 25% iiI<f
iRrr I 3{!'!if ffi'l' - mf.t 'lIT srllr.mr ;;mr I
(I) 5.25% (2) 6.25% (3) 7.25% (4) 8.25%
118. At what rate of simple interest will Rs. 800 amount to Rs. 836 in 9
months?
(I) 3% (2) 4% (3) 5% (4) 6%
119. Find the value of

7.5 x 1.5
0.5
(I) 3.50 (2) 2.50 (3) 2.25 (4) 2.00
120. What should come in place of question mark ( ? ) in the following series?
H",jfll>d i'f m ( ? ) ,. f'lF[ 'R il'IT tiRT
10,20,40, 80 (? ) 320
(I) 160 (2) 180 (3) 240
( 36 )
(4) 640
(CvlI/JilUedJ
SECTION-V
~ V
(ENGLISH LANGUAGE)
llU/lOl/26 (2)
[ For the Candidates Opting for English Language]
Directions (Q. Nos. 121-124): Select the word nearest in meaning to the.
given word:
121. Quit
(1) resign (2) Jom (3) be quiet (4) work
122. Endeavour
(1) attempt (2) last (3) appeal (4) announce
123. Instigate
(I) pacify (2) provoke (3) give peace (4) enter
124. Vigilant
(1) alert (2) lazy (3) weak (4) careless
Directions (Q. Nos. 125-128) : In each of the given sentences select the word
which is opposite in meaning to the underlined word to fill ~ n the blanks:
125. Take this stale bread away and bring the --one
(1) new (2) rotten (3) fresh (4) sweet
126. Such talks are absurd; you should indulge in --talks.
( I) rational (2) foolish (3) wrong (4) correct
( 37 ) (Tum Over)
llU/lOl/26 (2)
127. Nature teaches us not to destroy but to --.
(I) invest (2) produce (3) make (4) create
128. Generally she is cautious but sometimes she is --.
(1) rash (2) kind (3) careful (4) fast
Directions (Q. Nos. 129-132): Choose the correct preposition to fill in the
blanks:
129. We should rely --our own efforts.
(I) in (2) on (3) for (4) through
130. There is no exception -- this rule.
(I) to (2) for (3) into (4) from
131. I deliberately refrained --speaking morc.
(I) from (2) in (3) against (4) with
132. He was born --humble parents.
(I) from (2) on (3) of (4) otl
Directions (Q. Nos. 133-136) : Fill in the blanks with the correct form of
the verb:
133. I --a new scooter last week.
(I) is buying (2) was bought
(3) bought (4) was buying
( 38 ) ( CVllIJiJUcd)
llU/IOI/26 (2)
134. He --asleep while he was driving.
(1) fall (2) felled (3) falled (4) fell
135. 1-- thc lcttcr before he arrived.
(1) have written (2) had written
(3) had wrotc (4) h l been written
136. They -- crickct for two hours.
(1) are playing (2) have been playing
(3) were playing (4) havc been play
Directions (Q. Nos. 137-140) : Select the word which has been wronglyspeJt :
137. (1) ceremony (2) beneficial
(3) delicious (4) guargmn
138. (1) height (2) jealous
(3) disgisc (4) violate
139. (1) ncighbour (2) ommission
(3) whistle (4) wrinkle
140. (1) sacrifise (2) sufficient
(3) valuable (4) mosquito
Directions (Q. Nos. 141-144): Select the part of speech of the underlined
word in the given sentences :
141. Every man wants to be happy.
(1) Pronoun (2) Adjective
(3) Determiner (4) None of the above
( 39 ) (Tum Olerl
lIU/101/26 (2)
142. He always walks with a limp.
(I) Adjective (2) Adverb
(3) Verb (4) None of the above
143. One hardly knows what to do.
(I) Noun (2) Personal Pronoun
(3) Indefinite Pronoun (4) Relative Pronoun
144. The show opens at six o clock.
(I) Transitive Verb (2) Intransitive Verb
(3) Auxiliary Verb (4) None of the above
Directions (Q. Nos. 145-148): Change the given sentences into the passive
voice:
145.
146.
They found him guilty of murder.
(I) He is found guilty of murder.
(2) He was founded guilty of murder.
(3) They made him gUilty of murder.
(4) He was found guilty of murder.
Who has written this letter?
(I) By whom this letter is written?
(2) By whom have this letter written?
(3) By whom has this letter been written?
(4) By whom has this letter written?
I 40 J
llU/lOl/26 (2)
147. They crowned him king.
(1) He was crown king.
(2) He was crowned king.
(3) He crowned by the king.
(4) Him was crowned king.
148. You surprise me.
(1) Me is surprised.
(2) I am surprise.
(3) I am surprised.
(4) I am surprising you.
Directions (Q. Nos. 149-150): Fill in the blanks to complete the following
proverbs:
149. Rome was not built in --.
(1) a day (2) one day
(3) a decade (4) one year
150. Necessity is the --of invention.
(1) result (2) parent
(3) mother (4) father
( 41 ) ( 1um Over)
llU/101l26 (2)
152.
153.
154.
SECTION-V

(I-llNDI LANGUAGE)

[ For the Candidates Opting lor Hindi Language]
(1) or (2) ;r (3) q- (4) 6-

(1) (2) (3) nWr (4) 009H
'mur -mutt' cfiT ('q.IT ?
(1) (2)
(3)
(4)

(1)
(2)
(3) qqf (4)
(1) (2) 411cfi (3) (4)
156. 'qi 3W 3fR tt 3fR'- cfiT
(1) (2) (3) lf4Cfi
( 42 ) I rOllflilUed I
157. S!'fi< mit m<f\. mtf(pIT;fit 'I1<it iT I
'!AT <n; m <%" ;if, m: qq.;- it iT II
- Qfu; if \1T 3lWm ;rgm
(I) = (2) :mm (3)
158. 'fR1' <!fur ffi ;;M, * im at fWm: I
<!fur 38lW mIT;;M, :mit <fiq.r '!it fmIiK II
- Qfu; if ;rgm 3lWm "" 'i'f1H I
(1)=
(I)
(3) %AT
(2)
(4) :mm
(2) '!Wi'
(4) ffiffif
160. fu;t if f<!m it "'"'"
(I)
(3) '"'"
(I)
(3)
(1) =
(I)3ffi"IT
(2) f'rlGr
(2)
(2) '<if. qllf
(4)
(2) 3Wl\
(3) f'Iqfu
(3)
( 43 )
llU/IOl/26 (2)
(4)
(4)
(4) \<\WI
(Tum Over)
lIU/IOl/26 (2)
164. R",fctf{g" it 'li'R ill 'fI&G fiffl
(I) 3lOIffi
(2) =
(3) m1lT (4)
165.
R '" fct f{g" it fiffl 'fI&G "I'!fuT
(I) (2) (3) 1IW!' 14) N<srr!t
166. 'liT IJtT "I'!fuT
(I) w:R- q]ffi" (2) GT<IT (3) 'RilR
14)
167. '!jttq' "" IJtT <i<lT
(I) 'lWn (2) "",<\,,,<"11
(4)
168. 'Il';!" 'liT IJtT <i<lT
(I) f<rm (2) (3) lif<f (4) <ffirr
169. 'liT <:'1\1" ,,,,,,,1 'fI&G <i<lT 7
(I) M- (2) M"<j; (3) Wrtl (4)
170. 'liT <:'I\!"",Fi/l 'fI&G <i<lT
(1) (2) 'lMt
(3) 3TI'T
171. "" IJtT (fffil1" 'fI&G <i<lT ?
(I) ,,;<ftqfd
(2) ",""'"
(3) ""'''';
(4) """" ill
llU/l01l26 (2)
(1) (3)

(2) (3)
'" '"'
(4l 4)dG1 I
175.
(1) (2) qiH?HI
(3) (4)
176.
(1)31 (2) 3H (3) (4;
177.
(1) ;r
(2) (3) 31 (4) r;{
(2)
(4)
180.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
( 45 ) 8-18,000
(w .. """ -..r -'!ll" '" "'" "'" -..- .. <ir.if '!if '" iI;...,. ;fh;ft / <nT1'ft iifTM - r:qrfr it.r I't ;it fffiif)
1. m .. 10 fiR< .. ;it R fO; Sim'I it 'f!f afu: w-r \lP ;r;ft
;;if.t 'R w<lit f.Rt\f'li "" Sim'I <lit
iI11! if': <if I
2. <R\>;T """ it FRQ;JQ;J dt.r .-q;r iIr JTfitfffi;, Rf"'P1T >it 'WIT """" 'ill'! it I
3. JW -'f'[ OTWT I't "'" I W" 1fT Iitf Jhr " tt fiq;ir q;f / <;!'" mr -q;r :rtf "*" /
mr-qt( "" tt 'If'I,4;. Iii;w "*" I
4. 0l'f.lT >ljihq/4; ?rPJT mr-q;r "" p;q;q,!lW1f JmUr-'!lf '" it.r it f.I>rtf\o <"1R 'R fffiii I
5. mr-q;r iIr!lW1f '!If '" it.r iT:wr.rr >ljihqilb f.tuffI;r wr.r '" fiirif?rPJT:fIit fifIT ofr
ib( 'lfif-'lfif ;'''",,<J1b it ""' ;nr.r-!jfiiJlb/ "" p;q;q, ?rPJT i/z<nr """ ff.l1f F'lT'1l' '" fiirif I
6. >it, ll' >!R' 'fI 'R "':JiMi,.; \Wrr, \Wrr q iiz \Wrr ('If<; lit) 0>11 '"
"':JlI'"i"; \Wrr afu: >it, ll' >!Ro 'f'[ \Wrr <lit "!<om", it <lit 311'Ifif;r;ft
7. $ "!<om,,'; it >it f.Rt\f'li oo!ll!lfUm mr...nm = 'It: l('li \mH ibT
.,w,. I!RT "ITWrr I
8. it w-r .. "" JW 'lit I Jlfit;!; >IF ilnilbfi01b mr in fiirit J1I!T<1fT
mr-q;r ;fft riff!; in mrf.t fifIT 'l" ofr mr -q;r iIr !lW1f '!If '" fifIT f#m in
JI311I' it.r it iIWIT I
9. 1m" .. JW .. IRit iI;...,. l('li ;it "" qit I l('li it 3!fuq; 'jill 'liT m 'R = l('li
'liT 3!'J?I 'If.r 'R ... ow 'l<'ffi I!RT "ITWrr I
1 o. """ Ii; 'I'" onr f'lIi/t i[T(f Jifii;;r mr iiI<1'fT :rtf ",. mmrr / 'If<; >iN flIim rn ibT mr:rtf
f. <i\ qfu; .. mIf.r 'lit 'jill "" <liR'IT Ji9 I Q.I't rnT 'R :;jq;
;;nWT1
1 1 (q; 'IiT'l .. 1Rit I" .. .. """ 'f!f 0>11 :>ffi\q <liR'IT 'f!f ibT .,w,. qit I
1 2. <R\>;T .. 3'RRf 3ITo 11'1' am; mr -q;r <R\>;T """ it "'" qit I
1 3. <R\>;T @!Ill i'! it <R\>;T """ I't '""' ;;if.t <lit ;r;ft Mt I
14. 'If<; 3l"1'ff q(\1\iT it wm ibT .,w,. <m!T <i\ ... 00 f.I>rtf\o ibT/<lit
'Wit .<tm / Mt I