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x, a = 1000,
5.
(a) exponentiate both sides and solve. f 1 (x) =
2
(b) And: . write tan1 (3/2) = y => tan y = 3/2. Use sec2 y = 1 + tan2 y.
13
2) The idea is to calculate dV /V 100,
dr
= 0.05. dV = 4r2 dr. So dV /V = 3 dr
r = 3 0.05 = .15 = 15 %
r
(a) Ans:
y 2 + 2x cos x + y
dy
=
dx
cos x + y 2xy
00
x, a = 121,
(8) f (x) = x3 + 2x 5
(i) For every value of x, g(x) = x3 is one-one, and h(x) = x is one-one. Therefore f (x) = g(x) + h(x) 5 is
one-one. Therefore inverse exists.
0
1
5
9
6x2
4x
+
x2 + 1 3x 1 x3 + 5
6. Ans: y 3 = (3/2)(x 2)
f. s = sin y. The domain implies it has an inverse.
dy
ds
1
1s2
2.
x+1
= y. Domain of this function is (1, ). Next exponentiate
x1
y
(1 + ex )
x+1
)
1
= ey . Simple algebra leads first to x = (1+e
.
(x) =
both sides. This gives
y ) . Swap x and y. f
(1e
x1
(1 ex )
Domain of this is all real numbers except 0.
(b) f (x) = sin x + cos x. f (x) = cos x sin x. When you apply the derivative of inverse formula, you will need
f 1 (1). Find a number that when plugged in the function gives you -1. That number is , because f () = 1.
Therefore f 1 (1) = . Plug in the derivative formula. Answer: 1.
18.
(a) f (1) = 4.
(b) x is one-one on R, 3x is one to one on R, therefore inverse exists on R. f 1 (4) = 1.
(c) Ans:
1
3 + 3 ln 3
2e2x
4. y 0 =
1 e4x
1.
(a) Typo in the problem. limit should be x > 2+ . Replace 3/(2 x) = t. Ans 0.
(b) make it into a log of ratio. divide all the terms by x. Ans: ln 2
2.
dy
= (cos x)x (ln(cos x) x tan x)
Ans:
dx
2.
dy
= ecos x sin x ex sin ex (you dont need log differentiation. simple chainrule is sufficient)
(b) Ans:
dx
2x
2
dy
= 2
(b) f =
g (ln x)
x
1
(1+2x)
1
(1+4x)
1
(1+3x)
1
1
1
1
1
ln(1 + 2x) + ln(1 + 4x) ln(1 + 3x) ln(1 + 5x) ln(1 + 7x)
2
4
3
5
7
1
(1+5x)
1
(1+7x)
4
2) Tangent line eqn: y = ln 3 + (x 1)
3
8
3) Tangent line eqn: y = 1 (x 2)
5
2
1)
(a) f 0 (x) =
2xex + 2x 4
(b) g (x) = 2 1+x
ex + 1 + x4
0
t ln 4
5
5 ln 40
.
ln 4