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OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

1. The double helix model of DNA was given by


a. Watson and Crick
b. Meselson and Stahl
c. Wilkins and Franklin
d. Sutton and Baveri
2. Transcription involves
a. synthesis of RNA over the template of DNA
b. joining of amino acids into a polypeptide
c. synthesis of RNA over ribosomes
d. synthesis of DNA over the template of DNA
3. In eukaryotes, which of the following is removed from initially transcribed
RNA before it is transported to the cytoplasm for translation?
a. Intron
b. 3 Poly A tail
c. Ribosome binding site
d. 5 cap
4. Choose the incorrect statement about the genetic code
a. includes 61 codons for amino acids and 3 stop codons
b. almost universal; exactly the same in most genetic systems
c. some amino acids are coded by multiple codons
d. it is degenerate but ambiguous
5. Identify the polypeptide that would be produced as a result of
transcribing and translating the following DNA sequence.
DNA: 3 A C C A A G T C T 5
a. arg-phg-trp

b. arg-leg-gly
c. thr-lys-ser
d. trp-phe-arg
6. DNA ligase is
a. an enzyme that joins fragments in normal DNA replication
b. an enzyme that joins amino acids together in a polypeptide chain
c. an enzyme that cuts ds DNA at specific sites
d. an enzyme that facilitates transcription of specific genes
7. A very Mc Cleod and Mc Carty conducted an experiment to prove the
nature of the transforming principle. What cannot be conclueded from
their experiment?
a. DNA could be involved in transformation
b. addition of proteases did not affect the sample.
c. the extraction of lipids and proteins from the principle only slightly
reduced its activity
d. DNA-digesting enzyme, DNase, destroyed all transcription activity
8. A genetic change involving the substitution of one base in the DNA for
another which results in the substitution of one amino acid in a
polypeptide for another is called as a
a. nonsense mutation
b. missense mutation
c. frame shift mutation
d. neutral mutation
9. Barbara Mclintock, the 1983 Nobel Laureate in Physiology or Medicine,
is famous for her work on
a. rice
b. wheat
c. maize

d. sugarcane
10.

Which of the following is not true about double stranded


a. A/T is one
b. A + G = C + T
c. C/G is one
d. A + T = C + G

11.

Hn RNA, also called as pre-mRNA, is


a. heteronuclear RNA
b. homonuclear RNA
c. heterogenous RNA
d. useful RNA

12.

Homobox sequences
a. are involved in the regulation of patterns of development
(mophogenesis) in animals, fungi and plants.
b. are found in prokaryotes but not in eukaryotes
c. are about 1800 base pairs long
d. represent integration sites for transposable elements

13.

Identify the incorrect statement


a. The repressor of the lac operon is synthesized constitutively.
b. Regulation of lac operon by repressor is referred to as negative
regulation.
c. Regulation of lac operon is a regulation of enzyme synthesis by its
substrate.
d. In the presence of lactose or allolactose, the repressor is activated
and it binds to the operator.

14.

The y gene of the lac operon codes for


a. beta galactosidase

b. transacetylase
c. permease
d. repressor
15.

Consider the following statements:


I. An activator is a DNA-binding protein that regulates one or more
genes by increasing the rate of transcription
II.

An activator essentially recruits the RNAP to its promoter


region

III.

A particular activator can bind only to one specific co


activator
The correct statements are
a. I and II
b. I and III
c. II and III
d. I, II and III

16.

The process of splicing in eukaryotes


a. is reminiscent of antiquity
b. represents dominance of RNA world
c. is an indicator of the complexity of the human genome
d. is a legacy of organic evolution

17.

Regulatory sequences
a. are a part of the operon structure in prokaryotes
b. are a part of promoter in the eukaryotes
c. do not code for any RNA or protein
d. are non-functional in eukaryotes

18.

Arabidopsis thaliana
I.

Is popular as a model organism in plant biology and genetics

II.

Its genome is one of the smallest plant genomes

III.

Genome was the first plant genome to be sequenced.

a. I and II are correct


b. I and III are correct
c. II and III are correct
d. I, II and III are correct
19.
Consider the following statements that attempt to explain why DNA
is a better storage molecule of genetic information.
I.

The protein synthesizing machinery has evolved around DNA

II.

DNA chemically is less reactive and structurally more stable when


compared to RNA

III.

Because of the rules of base pairing and complimentarity, DNA can


direct its duplication while RNA cannot do so.
Of the above statements, the correct explanation is/are
a. II alone
b. I and II only
c. II and III only
d. I, II and III

20.
Assuming that the level of glucose is low, constitute expression of
the lac operon genes would result from
a. a mutation in the repressor of the lac operon in E. coli, preventing
binding of the repressor to the operator.
b. a mutation in the repressor associated with the lac operon of E.coli
which prevents binding of the repressor to lactose.
c. a mutation in CAP binding site
d. all of these.
21.

Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

22.

Codon on mRNA

Amino acid coded for

a. AGU

Serine

b. AUU

Isolelucine

c. ACA

Asparagine

d. AGG

Arginine

Mitochondrial DNA

I.

Evolved from the circular genomes of the bacteria that were


engulfed by the early ancestors of todays eukaryotic cells.

II.

The two strands of mtDNA are differentiated by their nucleotide


content with the guanine rich strand referred to as the heavy
strand, and the cytosine rich strand referred to as the light strand.

III.

Is advantageous for evolutionary studies because it is inherited


only through the female parent and thus evolves in a way that
allows trees of relationship to be easily constructed
a. I, II and III are correct
b. I and II are correct
c. I and III are correct
d. II and III are correct

23.

Caenorhabditis elegans is a
a. Free-living non-pathogenic nematode
b. Symbiont non-pathogenic nematode
c. Free-living pathogenic nematode
d. Parasitic pathogenic nematode

24.

The inducer/s of the lac operon is/are


a. lactose
b. glucose
c. galactose

d. all of these
25.

Twin studies in humans are useful because


a. they allow more refined estimates of chromosome location to be
made
b. twins have a greater likelihood of being heterozygous
c. they allow improved expressions of genes
d. they allow genetic as opposed to environmental influences on
variation in a trait to be estimated

26.
The deleterious allele associated with sickle cell anaemia is found
in higher frequencies than expected in certain human populations. That
means it is selected by nature here. What can be the reason for this?
a. random mating
b. superior fitness of heterozygotes in areas where malaria was
present
c. migration of individuals with the allele into other populations
d. a high mutation rate at that specific gene
27.

The lac i gene is the regulator of the lac operon. i in lac i refers to
a. inducer
b. inhibitor
c. initial
d. intermediate

28.

Most new mutations appear to be


a. beneficial
b. neutral or deleterious
c. favorably selected by the nature
d. dominant

29.
Which of the following strands of DNA would be the complement
stand to G-C-A-T-C-G?

a. C-G-T-A-G-C
b. G-G-A-T-G-C
c. A-A-C-G-A-T
d. T-T-G-C-T-A
30.

Who proposed the semiconservative mode of replication of DNA?


a. Meselson and Stahl
b. Watson and Crick
c. Hershey and Chase
d. Wlikins and Franklin

31.
In Hershey and Chase experiment , the DNA of the phage was
labelled with

32.

a.

35

b.

32

c.

18

d.

14

S
P
O
C

Genetic information in a DNA molecule is coded in the


a. sequence of nucleotides
b. base pairings
c. proportion of each base present
d. the turning pattern of the helix

33.
In prokaryotes, the predominant site for control of gene expression
is the
a. transcription initiation
b. processing level
c. transport of mRNA
d. translational level

34.

In bacteria, an example of ribozyme is


a. 5s rRNA
b. 23s rRNA
c. 18s rRNA
d. 16s rRNA

35.

The site of protein synthesis is the


a. SER
b. RER
c. Ribosomes
d. Golgi

36.
The diploid number of chromosomes in chimpanzees is 48. How
many DNA molecules are in the genome of a chimpanzee cell before it
begins meiosis?
a. 48
b. 96
c. 24
d. 12
37.
A section of SN that contains the genetic code for a single
polypeptide and functions as a hereditary unit and is flanked by the start
codon and the stop codon, is called a
a. codon
b. cistron
c. translation unit
d. anticodon
38.

The untranslated regions (UTRs)


a. are located on the rRNA
b. are present only on the 3 end of the mRNA

c. are absent in the eukaryotes


d. are required for efficient translation
39.

At the end of the translation, a release factor binds to the


a. stop codon
b. ribosome
c. transfer RNA
d. last elongation factor

40.

How many tRNAs are there for stop codons?


a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3

41.

The two-dimensional structure of a tRNA molecule resembles


a. english alphabet L
b. a clover leaf
c. a beta pleated sheet
d. a double helix

42.
What forms the genetic basis of the proof that genetic code is
triplet and read in a contiguous manner?
a. Some point mutations do not change the amino acid coded for
b. A doublet or a singlet code would code for too few amino acids than
required
c. A frameshift insertion of three bases does not change the read in
frame
d. Most of the spontaneous mutations are lethal and recessive
43.
The enzymatic synthesis of RNA in a template independent manner
requires

a. RNA polymerase
b. DNA polymerase
c. Polynucleotide phosphorylase
d. Translocase
44.

A transcription unit does not include


a. Operator
b. Promoter
c. Structural gene
d. Terminator

45.
What defines a template strand and a coding strand in
transcription?
a. the complementary base pairing
b. presence of promoter in transcription unit
c. presence of terminator in transcription unit
d. presence of structural genes in the transcription unit
46.

A gene is defined as a DNA sequence coding for


a. mRNA
b. rRNA
c. tRNA
d. all of these

47.

A split gene in eukaryotes consists of


a. Introns only
b. Exons only
c. Both introns and exons
d. Neither introns nor exons

48.

The phase of the cell cycle associated with the replication of DNA is
a. G 1 phase
b. G 2 phase
c. S phase
d. M phase

49.

Identify the incorrect statement:


a. Deoxyibonucleoside triphosphates act as a substrate for DNA
polymerization as well as provide energy for polymerization
b. In transcription, unlike translation, only one of the two strands is
transcribed completely along its entire length
c. The replication of DNA does not initiate randomly at any place in
the DNA
d. There is a single DNA-dependent RNA polymerase that catalyses
transcription of all types of RNA in bacteria

50.
The culture in Meselson-stahl setup would contain equal amounts
of hybrid DNA and light DNA after the DNA has been allowed to replicate
for
a. 20 minutes
b. 40 minutes
c. 60 minutes
d. 80 minutes