BASIC DIAGNOSTIC THERAPY (BDT) 2010

Question 1 to 3
A child 7 years old have symptoms for 6 days, feel
weak, dizzy, coughing is not slimy, whole body feel
pain, nausea but no vomiting, never defecate In 3
days. The result of his DDR test examination has
negative, platelets and haematocrite within the
confined of normal units.
1) From the above case, the most likely diagnosis
that may be made based on anamnesis and physical
examination and lab is:
a. Malaria
b. TB
c. Dengue fever
d. Typhoid
e. Leptospira
2) Specimen which is more representative for
diagnosing this patient is:
a. Sputum
b. Blood
c. LCS
d. Bone Marrow
f. Feces
3) Based on the above case, if gram staining is
carried out, what is the morphology of bacteria that
will be seen, if the widal test of child is positive?
a. Bacillus
b. Coccus
c. Coccobacil
d. Spiral
e. Diplococcus
Question 4 to 6
Woman, 32 yrs old has cough, fever, night sweats
and little tiredness. Has previously taken
antibiotic. Chest x- ray shows white patch at left
upper lung.
4)What is the best method to determine the
diagnosis?
a. Smear preparation
b. Culture

c. ELISA
d. Rapid test `
e. Sequencing
5. In this case, the specimen that are most likely to
be used to indicate the primary diagnosis is:
a) Saliva
b) Blood
c) feces
d) urine
e) sputum
6) In this case if the bacteria is Acid Fast, it is
resulted :
a. existence of excessive fat in cytoplasm.
b. existence of thinner layer of peptidoglycan in
membrane cell.
c. existence of khitin layer in cell wall.
d. existence of thicker layer of peptidoglycan in cell
wall.
e. existence of thicker layer of peptidoglycan in
membrane cell.
Question 7 to 11
A woman who was admitted to hospital with a
chief complains of itchy and hot on the genitals
site. Sometimes fell pain urinating. On routine
blood tests no found signs of dangerous pliers
except the LED increase. On examination of urine,
did not found any stones in the urinary tract, only
a sign of infection found.
7) In this cases, the support examination for the
accurate diagnosis is
a. PCR
b. Smear
c. ELISA
d. sensitivity test
8) The most representative specimens that can be
taken is:
a. Blood
b. Urine
c. Vaginal swab
d. LCS
e. Sputum

9) If you suspect the cause, the most likely and

fastest examination to see the morphology of
bacteria is:
a. Simple staining
b. KOH staining
c. Acid-fast staining
d. Gram staining
e. Spore staining
10) If the case above is tested, what kind of germ
will be determined?
a) Only the species
b) Only the genus
c) Subspecies
d)
e)
11) Most likely technique to detect only one germ
is:
a. Fluorescent microscope
b. Acid fast staining
c. Sputum culture
d. Sputum PCR
e. Gram staining
12) Something which can give true positive in
laboratory test:
a. Hormone
b. Age
c. Sex
d. Drugs
e. Disease
13) A test is good in specificity if:
a. Only to determine no have disease group
b. Only to determine have disease group
c. Undetermined have and no have disease in the
human group
d. Can give to right information about a disease
e. Result of test can not to apply
14) A kind of urinalysis test:
a. Albumin
b. Cretin kinase
c. Gamma GT
d. Alkali phosphatase
e. Bilirubin

15. A kind of hematology test

a) trombosit count
b) Alkalis fosfatase
c) Albumin
d) alfa feto protein
e) transaminase
16. A kind of liver function test:
a. Serum Glutamic Pyruvic Transaminase (SGPT)
b. Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV)
c. Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin (MCH)
d. Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration
(MCHC)
e. Blood Sedimentation Rate (BSR)
17. Radiologic modalities which produce x-ray are:
a) ultrasonography
b) nuclear medicine
c) MRI
d) CT scan
e) ultrasound
18) The important component in ultrasound is:
a. Computer
b. Keyboard
c. Monitor
d. X-ray tube
e. Transducer
19. In conventional radiography, PA position means:
a. film placed just in front of the chest
b. film placed just behind of the chest
c. x-ray tube placed in front of the chest
d. x-ray tube placed behind of the chest
20) Following object is seen as hyperdensity in CTscan
a) Acute hematoma
b) Edema (hypodensity)
c) Fat tissue (hypodensity)
d) Water (hypodensity)
e) free-air
21) Hypoechoic lesion in ultrasound examination
represents:
a) Edema
b) Compact bone
c) Free fluid

d) Renal stone
e) Gas
22)The characteristics of a disease manifestations
that called symptoms is
a. Those directly available from clinical history
b. Those are directly available physical eamination
c. Those are directly available from radiological
examination
d. Those are directly available from laboratory study
e. Those are directly available from research study
23) The glasgow coma scale of a COMA patient is
a) GCS: E4 M6 V5
b) GCS: E4 M5 V6
c) GCS: E3 M5 V1
d) GCS: E3 M2 V3
e) GCS: E2 M3 V2
24) Statement below is incorrect
a. Double vision means there is a disorder of
N.opticus(NII)
b. Double vision means there is a disorder of
N.Oculomotorius (NIII)
c. Double vision means there is a disorder of N.
Tochlearis (NIV)
d. Difficulties in swallowing is a symptoms of
disorder of NIX and or NX
e.Hemianopia homonymous is an example of visual
field disorder
25. Hallpike maneuver is a test to differentiate
a. Vertigo between central & peripheral type
b. Facial paresis between central & peripheral type
c. Hypoglossal paresis between central & peripheral
type
d. Sensation between exteroceptive &
proprioceptive
e. the high of motoric pathway in the spinal cord
26) Decortication position means that:
a) motoric response score is 2
b) motoric response score is 3
c) Both arm is in extension position
d) Both lower limbs are in flexion position
e) No response at all

27) Decreased of sensation on face:

a. Test f(x) of N.Facialis (N VII)
b. Test f(x) of N.Tuseminus (N V)
c. Test f(x) of N.Opticus (N II)
d. Test f(x) of N.Olfactorius (N I)
e. Test f(x) of N.Olfactorius (N VII)
28. Hyperkeratotis on stratum corneum of
epidermis wll give clinical manisfestation as
a.liehunification
b.plaques
c.moduk
d.scars
e.palpules
29.decreased number of function of melanocytes
will give clinical manifestation as
a.red spots
b.black spot
c.blue spot
d.white spot
e.brown spot.
30.a circumscribed area of change in skin colour
without elevation and depression and not papable
will give appearance as:
a.papule
b.pustule
c.mascule
d.wheal
e.crust
31.skin elevation which caused by metabolic or
locally produced deposits will gave appearance as
a.mapule
b.crust
c.erosion
d.papule
e.scales
32.Serum, blood ar pyruvent exudates dries on the
skin surface will develop as:
a.scales
b.ulcer
c.erosion
d.scar
e.crust

33.skin lesion found in acute vesicular

a.macule
b.apule
c.vesicular
34.Frequent opthalgia causes of otolgia in children
is?
_______________________________________
35. The common sites reffered otalgia in adults are:
(1) temporomandibular joint
(2) lung
(3) cervical spine
(4) larynx
36. Mucopuralent discharge from ear occurs in
(1)acute otitis externa
(2)exema of ear canal
(3)furunculosis
(4)chronic suppurative otitis media
37. Primary factor for drug
a. route of ingestion
b. metabolism
c. effective dose
d. recceptor
e. patologic condition
38. The type of hearing loss from external ear
disease is
a.sensironeural
b.conductive
c.mixed
d.complex
e.age-related
39. Mucoid nasal discharge origin from
(1)allergic
(2)bacterial infective
(3)vasomotor rhinitis
(4)neoplasm
40. The ophthalmic examination use to evaluate
visual acuity is
a. Snellen chart
b. slit lamb biomicroscope
c. ophthalmoscope
d. perimeter

e. ampimeter
41) If you work in a place without any eye
examination equipment you still can evaluate field
of vision with:
a) perimetry test
b) campimetry test
c) confrontation test
d) gonioscopy test
e) funduscopy test
42. the most important factor in determining drug
of choice for
a.disease
b.physical form
c.kind of abnormalities
d.severity of disease
e.drug pieces
43. We have to place distant visual activity test
_____meter from patient
a.3m
b.4m
c.5m
d.6m
e.7m
44. The widest outer border of field of vision is
located in:
a. Medial side
b. Inferior side
c. Superior side
d. Superonasal side
e. Lateral side
45.A man 56 year come to eye clinic with protusion
at his right eye. To measure large of protusion we
can use
a.Hetel exopthahometer
b.slit lamp biomicroscope
c.smear chat test
d.Humphey perimeter
e.camperimeter
46.patients who are need nutrition intervention
a. have fever
b. have a naviea
c. lost weight 5%in 10 months

d. lost weight 10%in 6 months

e. patients have vomiting

d. To apply ultraviolet radiation.

e. To apply antacid liquid on it.

47.to identify if the patient have high risk of

malnutrition in clinical assessment we can use
a. biochemical data
b. subjective global assessment (SGA)
c. anthropometry assess
d. BW measurement
e.serum of albumin

53) Daily activity which needs the highest energy is:

a. Car driving
b. Bicycle riding
c. Sexual intercourse
d. Walking
e. Reading

48.patients in risk malfunction if biochemical data in

she risk level such as:
a.albumin<4.5mg/dl
b.transferin<140mg/dl
c.iron binding >250mg/dl
d.pre-albumin<17mg/dl
e.lymphocyte<200mg/dl
49.result of nutritional perimeters in chronis
malnutrition can be shown as
a.serum albumin is in a steady state
b.serum albumin is decrease
c.serum lymphocytes count decrease
d.body weight is in steady state
e.mid-armcircumference is in steady state
50) In subjective global assessment (SGA), the
patient needs to assess the following:
a) Weight changes over the past 2 weeks
b) Gastrointestinal symptoms over the last 2 weeks
c) Weight changes over the past 3 weeks
d) Dietary intake over the past 3 weeks
e) Surgery procedure over the past 6 months
51) What kind of hospitalized medical patient is the
most risk nutritional status?
a) Respiratory illness
b) Cancer
c) Metabolic illness
d) Disease of digestive system
e) Mental illness
52) The most important management of bedsore is:
a. To change position every two hours.
b. To apply local antibiotic on it.
c. To apply glucose liquid on it.

54) Speech therapy is given to:

_______________________________________
_______________________________________
55. Occupational therapy includes:
a) ADL training
b) educational and vocational training
c) recreation and playing
d) B and C only
e) A,B and C only
56) Which of following has greatest depth of
penetration that almost people used?
a. hot packs
b. infra red
c. ultrasound
d. Microwave
e. Shortwave
57. A man 60 years old, come to the clinic with
respiration complaint. Asking him about onset and
perspirating factor of his complaint is type of:
a. autoanamnesis
b. heteroanamnesis
c. guide anamnesis
d. basic anamnesis
e. general anamnesis
58) Doctor found a heart enlargement. To report
this abnormality, the things that doctor have to
know first is:
a. Thrill in palpation
b. Location of ictus cordis
c. The border of heart and liver
d. Punctum maximum of the murmur
e. The position of linear parasternalis, media
clavicularis and axiallaris.

59) Patient came to doctor because weak half of his

body. On palpation, his body considered cool. The
doctor thinks that he experienced low blood
pressure. To confirm this assumption briefly the
doctor should perform:
a. Guided anamnesis
b. Eye pupil reflex inspection
c. Heart rate palpation
d. Ictus cordis inspection
e. Heart sound auscultation
60) A 45 years old man has a history of coughing,
short breath and bronchial asthma. He comes to the
ward and complaint shortness of breath. The
following is the finding of the examination:
a) Wheezing sound on auscultation
b) Decrease heart rate
c) Dullness of breathing
61) When performing heart auscultation, doctor
found sound result from direct mitral sound is
higher than spreading sound. He would write on
clinical report:
a. M1 > M2
b. P1 > P2
c. A1 > A2
d. M1 > A1
e. P1 > A2
62) Performing anamnesis, doctor found, patient he
suffered from valve stenosis. To confirm:
a. Inspect location venoussus cardiac
b. Inspect and palpate ictus cordis
c. Auscultate left heart
d. Auscultate sound kind of murmur and punctum
maximum
e. Percusse absolute and relative heart border
63) Symptom and signs of GI tract originally come
from:
a. Disturbance of major function of GI tract
b. Processing the fluid and nutrition consume with
efficiency
c. A function to elimination of wasting products
d. Intrinsic properly from gastrointestinal tract
e. Manifestation of systemic disease

64) The cardinal symptoms of patients with

gastroesophagal reflux disease (GERD):
a. Heartburn and regurgitation
b. Heartburn and non cardiac chest pain (NCCP)
c. NCCP
d. Burning mouth syndrome
e. Dyspepsia
65. The term of Lys= bad, pepsis = digestion,
from Greek, associated with:
a) definition is according to Rome III criteria
b) the term can be used if the symptom occur
outside of UGI disorder
c) the absence lesion in upper endoscopy that could
explain the symptom in organic classification
d) peptic ulcer, GERD, gastroduodenitis, VGI cancer
include in organic disease
e) 2 subtype functional based on Rome II criteria
66. Dyspepsia present with:
a. Epigastric pain for at least 12 week in the last 12
months
b. Discomfort in abdominal region
c. The absence of any organic, systemic, or
metabolic disease not included upper endoscopy
that could explain the symptoms in organic
classification
d. Symptoms centered in upper abdomen with pain
or discomfort major complain
e. Subjective negative feeling, non-painful, not
incooperate a variety symptom
67. The differentiated mechanism between
vomiting and regurgitation?
___________________________________
___________________________________
68) Jaundice is:
a. yellowish discoloration in tissue due to serum
bilirubin in epithal
b. indicates that amount of serum bilirubin is less
than 2mg/dl
c. rarely cause by acute or chronic liver disease
d. most commonly due to hemolytic disease
e. can be seen on face,trunk and schlerae (due to
deposition of serum bilirubin)

69. A man 30 years old, admitted to emergency

disorders that is not suitable for the cause of chest
pain.
a. Hemoptysis
b. pleural effusion
_______________________________________
_______________________________________
70) Aman 18 tahun, bronchial asthma, complaint
shortness breath. Following condition may be
finding on examination
a) lung inspection
b) decrease heart rate
c) vesicular sound diminished on lung
d) dullness on lung percussion
e) wheezing sound on auscultation
71) Pulmonary examination that may assist in
differential diagnosis between fluid & air in pleural
disease:
a) percussion
b) history taking
c) inspection
d) palpation
e) auscultation

d. Severity of complain
e. Time since onset and treatment attempted
75. Anamnesis
a. must be done before asking the patient identity
b. communication between doctor and patient
c. performed after vital sign examination
d. not important in non-cooperative patient
e. produce sound by tapping any part of the body
76) Before physical examination:
a) making anamnesis summary
b) identifying the patient
c) wash hand
d) blood test
e) radiology assessment
Question 77 to 79
A. Inspection
B. Palpation
C. Percussion
D. Auscultation
77. Need equipment : D
78. Using both of our hand : C

72)The accurate objective indicator of respiratory

distress include the following condition,except
a. retraction
b. cyanosis
c. tachycardia >130
d. altered mental status
e. Bronchovesicular breath sound

79. Can be done by near or far: A

80. Abnormality in the eye
(1)ptosis
(2)edema
(3)nystaginus
(4)perdarahan

73) The following component play role in the air

movement from the external environment to
alveoli, EXCEPT:
a) lung capillaries
b) chest wall
c) innervations
d) brain
e) diffusion process

81. Important thing in abnormal physical

examination
(1)peristaltic
(2)fluid maxama
(3)vascular murmur
(4)tumor Sgu

74) Evaluation of pulmonary complaint include all of

the following except
a. Onset and provoking factors
b. Quantity of complain
c. Region

82. The most frequent cause of hemoptisis

(coughing with blood) is
a.coagulation abnormally
b.tuberculosis infection
c.lung embolism
d.broken of lung vessel

e.swollen of the pulmanory intestine

83.animal used for pre-clinical test:
RATS
84.Determine the effectiveness of drug?
_______________________________________
86.an extraordinary resistance with a particular
drug is called
a.idiosyncracy
b.habituation
c,tolerance
d.tachyphylactic
e.dependence
87.which statement is true.?
(1)the most common form of subjective tinnitus
origin from normal pulsatile noise of carotid artery
(2)inner ear disease can cause high pitched tinnitus
(3) subjective tinnitus could be heard by the patient
and observer.
(4) the last majority of subjective tinnitus are
untreateable
88.this location below is not the location of storage
of drugs
a.bone
b.plasma protein
c.connective tissues
d.blood
e.fat tissues
89.drug safety determine by
a.maximal doses
b.minimal doses
c.lethal doses 50
d.effective doses 50
e.ingestion period
90.the most rapid effect of a drug is if taken by
a.intramuscular
b.supersitoria
c.topical
d.sublingual
e.intraperitoneum

91) The most influencing factor for drug absorption:

a) solubility
b) pH
c) route of consumption
d) blood circulation
e) drug form
92.the best way to test visual activity in illiterate
person is by giving
a.Snellen chart
b.E chart
c.Slit lamp
d.counting finger
e.lateral side
93.The last biochemical process in the liver?
a.asetillation
b.oxidation
c.hidrolization
d.conjugation
e.reduction
94. Biological varieties of a disease is differentiation
in:
a. Gender/sex
b. Age
c. pathologic condition
d. Genetic
e. Drug effect
95. Drug that enters the brain easily must be:
a. small mol.
b. low concentration
c. water sol.
d. lipophylic charac.
e. rapid ionization
96.the most important factor in rational therapy
a.no.of drug
b.rate of consumption
c.ingestion period
d.kind of disease
e.drug price

97.the most important thing in giving therapy

a.drug selection
b.dose determination
c.route ofconsumption
d.recipe writing
e.establishing the diagnosis
98.dose given in a recipe
a.maximal
b.minimal
c.common
d.lethal
e.submariginal
99.if the recipe cannot be use repeatedly, in the
recipe will be written
a.Iter IX
b.S.O.S. IX
c.S.U.C. IX
d.S.P.R. IX
e.ne Pulv. IX
100) In rational therapy drug selection occur in step:
(BONUS)
a) I
b) II
c) III
d) IV
e) V