7.aiims Dental 2004 May

AIIMS (DENTAL) PREVIOUS YEARS SOLVED PAPERS 2004 (May)
1.
HUMAN ANATOMY
of the mandible and closely related to the
The mandibular nerve supplies all EXCEPT
parotid gland and supplies it. It also supplies
A. Masseter
temporomandibular joint and the scalp. The
B.
Lateral pterygoid
auriculotemporal
C.
Buccinator
communications from the otic ganglion,
D. Anterior Digastric
conveying
nerve
secretory
receives
fibers
from
the
glossopharyngeal nerve to the parotid

Answer: C. Buccinator
gland.
ii.
Reference: Grays Anatomy, 40/E, pp. 541-542
Lingual nerve: descends medial to the

lateral pterygoid muscle and is joined by
the chorda tympani (branch of the facial
Explanation:
nerve containing taste fibers). The lingual
Mandibular nerve (third division of the
nerve lies anterior to the inferior alveolar
trigeminal nerve, V3) arises from the trigeminal
nerve
ganglion and, together with the motor root of
pterygoid muscle and the ramus of the
the trigeminal nerve, traverses the foramen
mandible. It then lies under cover of the
ovale and enters the infratemporal fossa (here
oral mucosa, where it is directly related to
it can be "blocked" by passing a needle through
the third molar. It crosses the lateral
the mandibular notch and injecting a local
surface of the hyoglossus, passes deep to
anesthetic). At the base of the skull, the
the
mandibular nerve is unites with motor root
submandibular duct, and curves upward
and then divides into anterior and posterior
on the genioglossus. It gives several small
divisions.
branches (e.g., to the submandibular
between
mylohyoid
muscle,
the
medial
crosses
the
gland) and supplies sensory fibers to the
Branches
1.
passes
anterior tongue, gums, and first molar and

premolar.
Trunk of the mandibular nerve
iii. Inferior alveolar nerve: descends deep to the

i.
ii.
A meningeal branch (nervus spinosus): this
lateral pterygoid muscle and then enters
accompanies the middle meningeal artery,
the
passes through foramen spinosum to
canal. Superior to the mandibular foramen, the
supply duramater of middle cranial fossa
inferior alveolar nerve can be "blocked" intra-
Nerve to the medial pterygoid: This also
orally with a local anesthetic. Its branches
supplies the tensor tympani and tensor
are,
veli palatini by way of the otic ganglion
mandibular
foramen
and
Mylohyoid nerve: descends in a groove

on the ramus of the mandible and
2.
Anterior division of the mandibular nerve: (1
supplies the mylohyoid muscle and
sensory and 3 motor branches)
the anterior belly of the digastric
i.
muscle
Buccal nerve: it emerges between the heads
of the lateral pterygoid muscle and
lower teeth
descends to supply sensory fibers to the

skin and mucosa of the cheek, the gums,
and the first two molars and premolars
ii.
Masseteric
nerve:
which
traverses
temporal
nerves:
supplies
Gingival branches: supply the gums
Mental nerve: emerges through the

mental foramen to supply skin over
the chin.
the
iv. Nerve to the lateral pterygoid muscle
Incisive branch: the terminal branch,

supplies the canines and incisors
temporalis),
3.
the
mandibular notch to supply the masseter),

iii. Deep
Inferior dental branches: supply the
2.
All are branches of the posterior division of the
Posterior division of the mandibular nerve (chiefly
mandibular nerve EXCEPT
sensory
A. Lingual nerve
i.
B.
Inferior alveolar nerve
Auriculotemporal nerve: arises by two roots
C.
Deep temporal nerve
that encircle the middle meningeal artery,
D. Mylohyoid nerve
proceeds posterior ward deep to the neck
Answer: C. Deep temporal nerve

6.
All the following nerves are related to the

mandible EXCEPT
Explanation:
3.
A. Lingual nerve
Refer Explanation to Q. No. 1, May 2004
B.
Posterior superior alveolar
C.
Sphenoidal
Auriculotemporal nerve
C.
Chorda tympani
D. Mental nerve
Sphenoidal air sinus is supplied by which nerve

A. Posterior ethmoidal
B.
Answer: C. Chorda tympani

D. Infratemporal
Explanation:
Answer: A. Posterior ethmoidal
Nerves related to mandible are,
1.
Lingual nerve: related to the mandible

postero medial to 3rd molar
Explanation:
2.
Auriculotemporal nerve: related posterior to

the neck of the mandible
3.
Inferior alveolar nerve: related laterally to

ramus of mandible and passes through
inferior alveolar canal
4.
The following features of the skull of a new born
4.
are true EXCEPT
mandible,
A. Dipole are not formed

B.
passes
through
mylohyoid
groove
Styloid process has not fused with the rest of
5.
the temporal bone

C.
Mylohyoid nerve: related to ramus of
Masseteric nerve: related to the masseteric

notch
Anterior fontanelle open
6.
D. Mastoid process is of adult size
Mental
nerve:
emerges
from
mental
foramen to supply skin covering chin

7.
All are structures lying deep to the hyoglossus

muscle EXCEPT
Answer: D. Mastoid process is of adult size
A. Hypoglossal nerve
Reference: Grays Anatomy, 40/E, p. 416
Explanation:
5.

Tongue develops from all of the following
B.
Lingual artery
C.
Stylohyoid muscle
D. Geniohyoid muscle
Answer: A. Hypoglossal nerve
EXCEPT
A. Tuberculum impar
B.
Hypobranchial eminence
C.
Lingual swellings
Explanation:
tongue and key muscle of the submandibular
D. Arytenoids swellings
Answer: D. Mastoid process is of adult size
Hyoglossus is one of the extrinsic muscle of the

region because it presents important relations.
Hyoglossus is thin and quadrilateral muscle

arising from the whole length of the greater
cornu and the front of the body of the hyoid
bone. It passes vertically up to insert into the

Explanation:
side of the tongue between styloglossus laterally

and the inferior longitudinal muscle medially.
Nerve supply: Hypoglossal nerve
Action: Depression of tongue
Relations
Answer: C. Circumvallate papillae
Superficial:
digastric tendon, stylohyoid,
styloglossus and mylohyoid, the lingual

nerve and submandibular ganglion, the
sublingual gland, the deep part of the
submandibular
gland
and
duct,
the

Explanation:
hypoglossal nerve and the deep lingual

vein.
Deep: stylohyoid ligament, genioglossus,

middle
constrictor
longitudinal
muscle
and
the
inferior
of
the
tongue,
10. The
main
arterial
trunk
supplying
the
infratemporal fossa is
A. Infratemporal artery
glossopharyngeal nerve and the 2nd part of

lingual artery
B.
Deep temporal artery
C.
Maxillary artery
D. Posterior superior alveolar artery

8.
Which of the following is supplied by the

Glossopharyngeal nerve
A. Stylopharyngeus
B.
Palatopharyngeus
C.
Geniohyoid
D. Genioglossus
Answer: C. Maxillary artery

Reference: Grays Anatomy, 40/E, pp. 540, 541
Explanation:
The maxillary artery, the larger terminal

branch of the external carotid artery, arises in
Answer: A. Stylopharyngeus
the parotid gland, posterior to the neck of the

mandible. The artery is widely distributed to
the mandible, maxilla, teeth, and muscles of

mastication, palate, nose and cranial dura
Explanation:
mater. It will be described in three parts,
Stylopharyngeus is a long slender muscle of
mandibular, pterygoid and pterygopalatine.
the pharynx which arises from the medial side
1.
of the base of the styloid process, descends
1st
part/
mandibular
part
runs
anteriorward medial to the neck of the
along the side of the pharynx, and passes
mandible.
between the superior and middle constrictors.
2.
The
2nd
part/pterygoid
part
runs
Some fibres merge into the constrictors and the
anterosuperiorward under cover of the
lateral glossoepiglottic fold, while others join
temporalis and either superficial or deep
fibres of palatopharyngeus and are attached to
to the inferior head of the lateral pterygoid
the posterior border of the thyroid cartilage.
muscle. Most branches of the first and
The glossopharyngeal nerve curves round the
second parts accompany branches of the
posterior border and the muscle. Its derived
mandibular nerve.
from the mesoderm of the 3rd pharyngeal arch.
3.
The
3rd/pterygopalatine
part
passes
Nerve supply: Glossopharyngeal nerve
between the heads of the lateral pterygoid
Action: Elevation of pharynx and larynx
muscle
Palatopharyngeus is also muscle of pharynx
pterygomaxillary
and is supplied by cranial accessory nerve
pterygopalatine fossa. The branches of the
Geniohyoid is a suprahyoid muscle supplied
third part accompany branches of the
by fibres of c1 through hypoglossal nerve
maxillary
Genioglossus is a tongue muscle supplied by

hypoglossal nerve
9.
The
The maximum number of taste buds are found in
and
nerve
then
through
fissure
and
into
the
the
pterygopalatine
ganglion.
Branches
1.
Mandibular part: Gives 5 branches which
A. Fungiform papillae
all enter bone. Deep auricular, anterior
B.
Filiform papilla
tympanic,
C.
Circumvallate papillae
meningeal and inferior alveolar arteries. The
D. Uvula
middle
meningeal,
accessory
middle meningeal artery is clinically the

most important branch of the maxillary

artery.
It
ascends
posterior
to
the
mandibular nerve and enters the cranial

cavity through the foramen spinosum. The
inferior alveolar artery accompanies the
corresponding
mandibular
nerve,
foramen
enters
and
canal,
the
PHYSIOLOGY
and
13. The contractile element in a skeletal muscle is

present in
supplies mucosa and lower teeth.
A. Sarcolemma
2.
The pterygoid part of the maxillary artery
B.
Sarcoplasma
supplies the muscles of mastication by deep
C.
Myofibril
temporal, pterygoid, masseteric, and buccal
D. Endomysium
arteries.
Answer: C. Myofibril
3.
The pterygopalatine part of the maxillary

Reference: Guytons, 11/E, pp. 72-73
artery supplies the upper teeth, face, orbit,

palate,
branches
and
are
nasal
cavity.
several
The
chief
superior alveolar
arteries, the infra-orbital and descending

palatine arteries, the artery of the pterygoid
14. Enzymes which play an important role in

calcification are
canal, and the sphenopalatine artery. The
A. Enolase and Calcitonin
sphenopalatine artery is the termination of the

maxillary artery. It enters the nasal cavity
through
the
supplies
the
sphenopalatine
nose
and
foramen,
Alkaline phosphates and Catalase
C.
Alkaline phosphatase and Pyrophosphatase
D. Pyrophosphatase and carbonic Anhydrase
paranasal
sinuses. This artery is the cause of the most
B.
Answer: Alkaline phosphatase and Pyrophosphatase
serious, posterior nosebleeds (epistaxis).

Reference: Shalu Bathla, Periodontics Revisited, 1/E, p.
74
11. Unilateral upper cleft lip occurs due to the
failure of fusion of
15. The blood pressure is lowest in
A. Medial nasal and maxillary process
A. Arterioles
B.
Medial and lateral nasal
B.
Capillaries
C.
Maxillary process
C.
Venules
D. Maxillary process with palatal process
D. Arteries
Answer: B. Medial and lateral nasal

Explanation:
Reference: Khuranas Text Book of Human Physiology,

1/E, p. 334
12. The maxillary sinus drains into the

A. Middle meatus
B.
Inferior meatus
C.
Superior meatus
D. Spheno ethmoidal recess

Answer: A. Middle meatus
Reference: Grays Anatomy, 40/E, p. 556-559
Explanation:
Answer: B. Capillaries
16. The role of Vitamin K

A. Formation of Stuart-Power factor
B.
Formation of fibrinogen
C.
Formation of prothrombin
D. Formation of Factor VIII

Answer: A. Formation of Stuart-Power factor
Reference: Indu Khuranas Text Book of Human
Physiology, 1/E, p. 221
Explanation:
In the liver, synthesis of following factors is
Replication is the process in which DNA copies
dependent upon vitamin K
itself to produce identical daughter molecules
Coagulant like Prothrombin
of DNA.
Factor VIII, IX and X
Circulatory anticoagulant protein
Transcription is the process in which RNA is

synthesized from DNA.
Biosynthesis of a protein or a polypeptide in a

living cell is known as translation.
Clotting Factors
1.
Factor I (Fibrinogen)
2.
Factor II (Prothrombin)
3.
Factor III (Thromboplastin)
4.
Factor IV (Calcium)
5.
Factor V (labile factor/proaccelerin)
6.
Factor VI Non existing
7.
Factor VII Stable factor/Proconvertin
8.
Factor VIII Antihaemophilic factor A (AHF

A) or Antihaemophilic globulin (AHG)
9.
GENERAL PATHOLOGY
No Questions Asked
MICROBIOLOGY
18. A veterinary doctor had pyrexia of unknown
Factor IX Christmas factor or Plasma
origin. His blood culture was positive for gram-
thromboplastic component
negative bacilli which was oxidase positive. The
10. Factor X (Stuart Prower factor)
organism is
11. Factor XI (Plasma Thromboplastin antecedent)
A. Pasteurella
12. Factor XII (Hageman factor)
B.
Francisella
13. Factor XIII (Fibrin stabilizing factor or Laki
C.
Bartonella
Lorand factor), HMW K (High Molecular
D. Brucella
Weight Kininogen, Fitzgerald factor), Pre

Ka (Prikallikrein or Fletcher factor)
Ans: D. Brucella
Ref: Ananthanarayan, 8/E, p. 342
BIOCHEMISTRY
17. The process of transfer of information from the
mRNA to the proteins is called
A. Mutation
B.
Translation
C.
Transcription
PHARMACOLOGY
19. The drug which is used to treat laryngospasm is
A. Atropine
D. Conjugation
B.
Diazepam
C.
Neostigmine
D. Succinyl choline
Answer: B. Translation
Reference: Satyanarayana, 3/E, p. 421
Answer: D. Succinyl choline
Explanation:
Reference: Tripathi, 6/E, pp. 346, 347

Explanation:
Succinyl choline is quick and short acting

depolarizing blocker
It is more specific for neck muscles in low

doses
20. Clavulanic acid added to Amoxicillin causes

A. Increase effectively against gram negative
organisms
B.
Inhibition of -lactamase
C.
Increases
the
effectiveness
lactamase producing organism
against
delta

D. Increase effectively against gram positive
Nitrites
Methylene blue
Opioids (morphine)
Naloxone
organisms
Organophosphorous
Answer: B. inhibition of -lactamase
compounds
Atropine, Pralidoxime
Reference: Tripathi, 6/E, pp. 702, 703
Carbamates (Propoxur)
Atropine
Explanation:
Paracetamol
N-acetyl Cysteine
Heparin
Protamine sulphate
Clavulanic acid is a -lactamase inhibitor.

When
added
to
Amoxicillin,
activity
is
reestablished against -lactamase producing
Phytonadione (Vitamin
Warfarin
K1)
organisms like Staphylococcus aureus, H.
Curare (d-
influenzae, N. gonorrhea, E. coli etc. i.e. activity
Tubocurarine)
against both gram positive and gram negative

organisms is increased
Neostigmine
B-blocker
Isoprenaline
Sodium bicarbonate (oral
Aspirin
21. The antidote for heparin is
+IV
Digoxin antibodies (Fab
Digoxin
fragments)
A. Penicillinase
B.
Protamine sulphate
C.
Pyrosulphate
D. Potassium sulphate
Iron
Desferrioxamine
Streptokinase
Epsilon amino caproic
(fibrinolytics)
acid
Answer: B. Protamine sulphate
GENERAL MEDICINE
22. The
Reference: Tripathi, 6/E, p. 600
difference between infectious and serum
hepatitis is that in serum hepatitis

Explanation:
A. Short incubation period

B.
Transmitted solely by oral-fecal route
Protamine sulphate strongly basic obtained
C.
Highly contagious
from sperm of certain fishes
D. Shows presence of Australia antigen
1 mg every 100 units of Heparin
In absence of Heparin, it may act as a weak
Ans: D. Shows presence of Australia antigen
anticoagulant
Ref:
Poison
Atropine,
Anticholinergics
Benzodiazepine
(diazepam)
Bismuth, arsenic
Antidote
Harsh
Mohans
Pathology
for
Dental
Students, 3/E, p. 364
Physostigmine
Flumazenil
Dimercaprol (BAL)
GENERAL SURGERY
No Questions Asked
Amyl nitrate, Dicobalt

Cyanide
Edentate, Sodium
DENTAL MATERIALS
thiosulphate
23. The difference in the melting point of the solder
Carbon monoxide
Oxygen
Copper
BAL / d-Penicillamine
A. 500C
Ethyl alcohol,
B.
1000C
4 methylpyrazole
C.
2000C
((Fomepizole)
D. Variable
Methyl alcohol,
ethylene glycol
Lead
and the parts to be soldered is
Calcium disodium
edentate
Ans: A. 50C
Ref: Phillips, 11/E, p. 610

Explanation:
most commonly used in orthodontic stainless

steel wires and bands.
The flow temperature of the filler metal should

be lower than the solidus temperature of the
metals being joined. A general rule is that the
26. Green discoloration of porcelain during firing is

due to
flow temperature of the filler metal should be
A. Formation of oxides
at least 55.6 C (100" F) lower than the solidus
B.
Discoloration of opacifier
temperature of the substrate metal.
C.
Discoloration of aluminium foil
Exact value is not given in the answer. The
D. Over firing
nearby option is A.
Ans: A. Formation of oxide
24. The strength of the dental investment depends
on
A. Gypsum
B.
Silica
C.
Carbon
27. Condensation shrinkage of porcelain during

firing depends on
D. Copper
A. Rate of arriving at firing temperature

B.
Uniformity of particle size
Ans: A. Gypsum
C.
Shape and size of particles
D. Type of investment used
Explanation:
The essential ingredients of the dental inlay
Ans: C. Shape and size of particles
investment employed with the conventional
gold casting alloys are a-hemihydrate of

gypsum, quartz, or cristobalite, which are
allotropic forms of silica.
Most
investments
hemihydrate
of
now
gypsum
A. Tin oxide
contain
the
because
B.
Iron oxide
greater
C.
Indium oxide
strength is obtained.
28. Polishing of gold alloy can be achieved by
D. Zoe and pumice
This gypsum product serves as a binder to hold

the other ingredients together- and to provide
rigidity. The strength of the investment is
dependent on the amount of binder present.
25. 18/8 stainless steel has

A. 18% Cr & 8% Ni
B.
18% Ni & 8% Cr
C.
18% Cu & 8% Ni
D. 18% Fe & 8% Ni
Ans: B. iron oxide

29. Impression compound has
A. Low thermal conductivity
B.
Crystalline structure
C.
Formation of cross-linkages with heating
D. High fusion temperature
Ans: A. 18% Cr & 8% Ni

Answer: A. Low thermal conductivity
Explanation:
Type 302 stainless steel is a basic alloy,

containing 17% to 19% chromium, 8% to 10%
nickel, and a maximum of 0.15% carbon.
Type 304 stainless steel has a similar composition

of 18% to 20% chromium and 8% to 12% nickel,
along with a maximum carbon content of
0.08%.
Both 302 and 304 stainless steel are often given

the general designation of 18-8 stainless steel,
based on the percentages of chromium and
nickel in their composition, and are the types
Reference: Philips, 11 /E, p. 251

30. The melting point of gold alloy can be decreased
by
A. Silver
B.
Copper
C.
Platinum
D. Palladium
Ans: A. Silver

sheets of condensed primitive mesenchyme.
This process occurs in flat bones of skull and
clavicles. Unlike endochondral bone it does not
include any formation of intermediate cartilage
DADH
tissue.
31. The tooth most commonly having bifurcated

roots is the
A. Maxillary central incisor
B.
Mandibular lateral incisor
C.
Mandibular central incisor
ORAL PATHOLOGY & ORAL MEDICINE

34. Cotton-wool appearance is seen in
D. Mandibular canine
A. Osteogenesis imperfecta
Answer: D. Mandibular canine

Reference: Wheelers, 8/E, p. 209
Explanation:
Mandibular canine shows the cusp tip in line
B.
Ossifying fibroma
C.
Fibrous dysplasia
D. Osteitis deformans
Answer: D. Osteitis deformans
Reference: Shafers Oral Pathology, 6/E, p. 729
with the center of the root, from mesial or

distal aspect, sometimes may become lingual.
A variation in the form of mandibular canine
Explanation:
Osteitis deformans is also known as Pagets
which is not uncommon is bifurcated root.
disease which is characterized by abnormal

and
32. The parotid duct opens at
excessive
remodeling
of
bone.
Radiographically it shows patchy distribution
A. The level of the lower first molar
of osteoblastic radio opaque areas giving rise
B.
The level of the upper first molar
to cotton wool appearance and is especially
C.
The level of the upper second molar
well demonstrated in the skull and jaws.
D. The level of the lower incisor

35. The lesion present in a single bone is
A. Histiocytosis X
Answer: C. The level of the upper second molar
Reference: Orbans Oral Histology, 12/E, p. 269
Ossifying fibroma
C.
Albrights syndrome
D. Pagets disease
Explanation:
B.
Parotid gland duct is Stensens duct crosses the

masseter muscle and turns medially at anterior
Answer: B. Ossifying fibroma
edge penetrating the buccinator muscle to open

at a papilla at the buccal mucosa opposite the
Reference: Neville, 3/E, p. 647
maxillary 2nd molar. The duct measures 4-6 cm
Explanation:
in length and 5 mm in diameter.
Ossifying fibroma is a neoplastic lesions most

commonly seen in mandible i.e., premolar and
33. The name of the bone which is formed directly
molar region.
from the mesenchymal connective tissue without

intermediate cartilage formation is
36. In hyperparathyroidism which of the following
A. Membranous
is seen
B.
Endochondral
A. Chronic tetany
C.
Skeletal
B.
Decreased calcium absorption
C.
Increased phosphate level
D. Cartilage
D. Increased blood calcium

Answer: A. Membranous
Answer: D. Increased blood calcium
Reference: Orbans Oral Histology, 12/E, p. 193
Explanation:
Intramembranous ossification is the direct

formation of bone within highly vascular
Explanation:
Parathyroid hormone is necessary for the

maintenance of plasma ionized calcium level
Explanation:
Condensing osteitis is an unusual reaction of
for various functions. Hyperparathyroidism
bone to infection, seen in people with high
causes
tissue resistance and tissue reactivity. The most
hypercalcemia,
hypercalcuria,
hypophosphatemia and hyperphosphaturia.
common cause of this is caries. It is most

commonly observed in younger adults and
37. The
decreased
phosphate
levels
seen
in
children with deep carious tooth.
hyperparathyroidism is due to
A. Decreased intestinal phosphate absorption
40. Multiple supernumerary teeth and absence of
B.
Increased calcium excretion
clavicles are seen in
C.
Decreased renal phosphate absorption
A. Downs syndrome
D. Increased loss of phosphate in urine
B.
Cleidocranial dysostosis
C.
Treacher Collins syndrome
D. Hypothyroidism
Answer: D. Increased loss of phosphate in urine
Answer: B. Cleidocranial dysostosis
Explanation:
Hyperparathyroidism causes hypercalcemia,

hypercalcuria,
hypophosphatemia
and
hyperphosphaturia.
Explanation:
Cleidocranial dysplasia is a congenital disorder

manifested with
clavicular hypoplasia
or
38. The most common odontogenic tumor which
agenesis with a narrow thorax, which allows
occurs in relation to an unerupted tooth in the
approximation of shoulders. Patient exhibit
anterior maxilla
high, narrow, arched palate, delayed eruption
A. Odontogenic adenomatoid tumor
of teeth and multiple impacted supernumerary
B.
Odontoma
teeth.
C.
Myxoma
D. Cementifying fibroma
41. A child with Downs syndrome has Moon facies,

retarded mentally and which of the facial
characteristics
Answer: A. Odontogenic adenomatoid tumor
A. Maxillary Prognathism
Mandibular retrognathia
C.
Mandibular Prognathism
D. Maxillary hypoplasia
Explanation:
B.
AOT occurs mostly in association with an

unerupted maxillary cuspid. It is also called as
2/3rd tumor as 2/3rd of all AOT occur in maxilla,
in females and associated with impacted
Answer: D. Maxillary hypoplasia

canines.
Explanation:
39. An asymptomatic radiopaque lesion at the apex
Down syndrome also called as Trisomy 21
of a tooth with a deep carious lesion is most
syndrome. The major features are mental
probably
retardation,
A. Cementoma
hypertelorism (mongoloid facies), small mouth,
B.
Condensing Osteitis
macroglossia, hypoplasia of maxilla, delayed
C.
Periapical granuloma
tooth eruption, partial anodontia and enamel
D. Periapical cyst
short
stature,
slanting
eyes,
hypoplasia.
42. A pedunculated lesion 1.11.4 cm present on the
Answer: B. Condensing Osteitis

plate, having a warty surface with color similar

to the adjacent mucosa is best treated by
A. Incisional biopsy

B.
Excisional biopsy
C.
Ectodermal dysplasia
C.
Exfoliative cytology
D. Hypothyroidism
D. Observe for 4 days, then biopsy

Answer: C. Ectodermal dysplasia
Answer: B. Excisional biopsy
Explanation:
Explanation:
Ectodermal dysplasia is a heterogenous group
The description of the lesion given in the above
of
disorders
in
which
the
ectodermal
question goes for a benign type. So the best
derivatives like skin, hair, eccrine glands, nails
treatment option for such lesions would be
and teeth are affected. Partial or complete
excisional biopsy.
anodontia is one of the characteristic feature of

ectodermal dysplasia.
43. Painless ulcer is most commonly associated with

A. Tuberculosis
46. A mal-nourished child shows ulceration of the
B.
Primary Syphilis
gingiva, punched-out lesions, necrotic gingival
C.
Herpetic stomatitis
margins
D. Traumatic ulcer
A. Herpetic stomatitis
Answer: B. primary Syphilis
B.
Noma
C.
ANUG
D. Aphthous ulcers
Reference: Neville, 3/E, p. 188

Explanation:
Answer: B. Noma
Primary syphilis is characterized by chancre

that develops at the site of inoculation. External
genitalia, lips, tongue, palate and gingival are

the common sites. Chancre is painless, clean
based ulcerative lesion which can turn painful
Explanation:
Noma is a rapidly spreading gangrenous

stomatitis seen most commonly in debilitated,
on secondary infection. It heals by 3 to 8 weeks.
malnourished
individuals
especially
children. It begins as a small ulcer in the
44. Generalized growth failure in the first year of

life results in
gingival
A. Maxillary hypoplasia
necrotic, gangrenous and gets sloughed out.
B.
Mandibular hypoplasia
C.
Enamel hypoplasia
in
and
later
becomes
edematous,
47. Intra-epithelial bulla are found in

A. Pemphigus
D. Dentinogenesis imperfect
Answer: C. enamel hypoplasia
B.
Bullous Pemphigus
C.
Bullous lichen planus
D. Pemphigoid

Answer: A. Pemphigus
Explanation:
Growth failure or any disturbance in the growth
in the first year of age affects the enamel, as the

enamel formation of most of the teeth is
happening in that particular time period and
thus leads to enamel hypoplasia.
Explanation:
Pemphigus
is
an
autoimmune
disease
characterized by intraepithelial blister due to

the destruction of desmosomal junctions.
45. Oligodontia is the most dependable sign in the

diagnosis of which one of the following disease
Antibodies are produced against desmoglein 1

and 3.
A. Downs syndrome
B.
Cleidocranial dysostosis
48. Addisons disease is related to

A. Adrenal medulla
51. In a caries-free individual the saliva has
B.
Adrenal cortex
A. Low buffering capacity for acids
C.
Posterior pituitary
B.
Medium buffering capacity for acids
D. Parathyroid gland
C.
High buffering capacity for acids
D. Independent of buffering capacity for acids

Answer: B. Adrenal cortex
Answer: C. High buffering capacity for acids
Explanation:
Addisons
disease
is
due
to
chronic
insufficiency of adrenal cortex leading to

hypoglycemia,
dehydration,
Explanation:
The buffering capacity of the saliva is a very
hypertension,
significant property that affects the dental
elevated serum potassium and ACTH levels.
caries process. The higher the flow rate, the

greater will be its buffering capacity.
49. The
most
common
complication
following
rheumatoid arthritis of the TMJ is
52. A patient notices a well demarcated area of
A. Ankylosis
depapillation on his tongue which has been
B.
Synovial chondromatosis
there for as long as he can remember the most
C.
Subluxation
probable diagnosis
D. Osteoarthritis
A. Median rhomboid glossitis
Answer: A. Ankylosis
B.
Geographic tongue
C.
Black hairy tongue
D. Moellers glossitis

Answer: A. Median Rhomboid Glossitis
Explanation:
Rheumatoid arthritis is a disease of unknown
etiology begins in early adult life of usually

females. Swollen joints, pain and stiffness are
the initial symptoms. RA of TMJ causes pain
53. The union of two teeth by the cementum is
during any movement of the jaws. Ankylosis of
called
the joint is the most common complication over
A. Fusion
a period of years.
B.
Germination
C.
Concrescence
50. Which one of the following is a connective tissue
D. Dilacerations
tumor
A. Lipoma
B.
Melanoma
C.
Carcinoma
Answer: C. Concrescence
D. Papilloma
Explanation:
Answer: A. Lipoma
Concrescence of teeth is actually a form of

fusion of cementum which occurs after root
formation has been completed. It is due to
traumatic injury or crowding of teeth with

Explanation:
resorption of the interdental bone so that the
Lipoma is a common benign tumor of

adipocytic
origin
which
is
one
of
two roots are in approximate and gets fused.
the
components of connective tissue. Its a slow
54. The aspirate from a Keratocyst will have
growing neoplasm composed of mature fat
A. A low soluble protein content
cells.
B.
A high soluble protein content
C.
Cholesterol crystal

D. Inflammatory cells
the film. Consequently, to reduce patient dose,

the
less-penetrating
photons
should
be
removed. This can be accomplished, in part, by

Answer: A. A low soluble protein content
placing an aluminum filter in the path of the

beam.
57. The best radiograph for viewing the maxillary
Explanation:
The lumen of keratocyst is filled with a thin
sinus is
straw colored fluid containing very low content
A. Jug-handle
of soluble protein (<4 mg%). Sometimes keratin
B.
Waters
and cholesterol in inflamed cysts can be found.
C.
Townes
D. Loss of clot
Answer: B. Waters
ORAL RADIOLOGY
55. The cyst with no radiographic appearance is
A. Latent hemorrhagic cyst
B.
Periapical cyst
C.
Nasoalveolar cyst
Reference: W & P, 6/E, p. 509

Explanation:
The
D. Nasopalatine cyst
Waters
visualization
projection
of
the
is
optimal
maxillary
for
sinuses,
especially to compare internal radiopacity, as

well as the frontal sinuses and ethmoidal cells.
Answer: C. Nasoalveolar cyst
If the Waters view is made with the mouth

open, the sphenoid sinuses may also be
visualized.
Explanation:
Nasolabial cysts are primarily soft tissue

lesions located adjacent to the alveolar process
ORTHODONTICS
above the apices of the incisors. Because this is
58. Difference between the size of the cranium and
a soft tissue lesion, plain radiographs may not
the cephalogram is
show any detectable changes.
A. No difference
56. The X-ray beam is filtered

To increase patient exposure
C.
To remove long-wave photons
D. To remove short-wave photons
Answer: C. To remove long-wave photons

Explanation:
5 reduction
C.
5 enlargement
D. 10 enlargement
A. To soften the beam

B.
B.
Answer: C. 5 enlargement
Reference: W&P, 5/E, p. 680
Explanation:
Image magnification is the enlargement of the

actual size of the object. Factors influencing
image magnification are the same factors as
those that influence geometric unsharpness (i.e.
Although an x-ray beam consists of a spectrum
the grain size of the silver halide crystals in the
of x-ray photons of different energies, only
emulsion,
photons with sufficient energy to penetrate
intensifying screens). The percentage
through anatomic structures and reach the
magnification
image receptor are useful for diagnostic
equation:
radiology. Those that are of low energy (long

wavelength) contribute to patient exposure and
risk) but do not have enough energy to reach
and
various
can
be
features
calculated
of
by
the
of
the
ANB of -10 shows class III skeletal base but it
Most of the cephalometric machines accept 5%
does not show whether it is retrognathic
enlargement as an acceptable limit.
maxilla or prognathic mandible.
59. The main growth of the mandible is
61. High angle case is
A. Gonial angle
A. FMIA > 65
B.
Condyle
B.
IMP > 100
C.
Inferior border and lateral aspect of the ramus
C.
FMP > 350
D. Symphysis
D. SNA > 40
Answer: C. FMP > 35
Answer: B. Condyle
Reference: Jacobsons Radiographic Cephalometry, /E,
Reference: Enlows Essentials of Facial Growth, 1/E, p.
pp. 68, 69, 92
66
Explanation:
Explanation:
The growth of the mandible occurs as a

combination of surface remodeling of the
mandible
accompanied
downward
by
displacement
forward
and
from
the
temporomandibular interface due to condylar

growth.
The mandibular condyle is considered as a

major site of growth. The condylar cartilage is a
secondary cartilage of hyaline type covered
with fibrous connective tissue. The rate and
directions of condylar growth are influenced
by both intrinsic and extrinsic factors.
The
mandible
grows
at
four
Frankfort mandibular incisor angle, suggest

relation of FH plane to lower incisor, average
processes:
condylar, coronoid, alveolar and body. Growth

at alveolar process is facilitated with the
value FMIA-65.
Lower incisor mandibular plane angle, suggest

relation of lower incisor to mandibular plane,
eruption of teeth. The growth at the condyle is

backward which results in forward and
downward shift. As the mandible translates
downward
and
forward
or
average value IMPA -90
Frankfort mandibular incisor angle, suggest

relation of FH plane to mandibular plane,
relocates,
average value FMA-25. Thus value greater
resorption occurs at the front sites (-) and

deposition at the posterior borders (+). This is
required to maintain the distinct shape and
than 35 indicates high angle case.
SNA, suggests relation of maxilla to cranial

base, average value of SNA-82.
anatomy of the structure
60. In a skeletal Class III, the value of ANB will be

A. -10
B.
+2
C.
+4
D. +6
Answer: A. -10
Reference: Proffits Contemporary Orthodontics, 4/E, p.
210, Fig. 6.53

Explanation:
62. Ashley Howe model analysis is used in

A. Tooth material excess
B.
Maxilla-mandibular relationship
C.
Basal bone transverse relationship
D. Growth prediction
Answer: C. Basal bone transverse relationship

Reference: Howe. A. E. AJODO 1954, 40 (811)

Long
term
exposure-
tetracycline therapy
PEDODONTICS
Tobacco products
63. Green stains on a childs teeth not removed by
Chromogenic bacteria
brushing is caused by
Tea coffee stains
A. Chromogenic bacteria
Chlorhexidine rinse
B.
Neonatal line
Stannous fluoride
C.
Calculus
D. Material alba
64. 8 year-old child had fractured his maxillary
central incisor 10 months age. The pulp shows no
Answer: A. Chromogenic bacteria
response. There is no periapical lesion in the

radiograph. The treatment of choice is
Reference: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 877
A. Ca(OH)2 pulp capping
Explanation:
B.
Formocresol pulpotomy
Type of Discoloration
Cause
C.
Conventional root canal treatment
White
Mild trauma during enamel
D. Complete debridement and apexification
formation
Enamel caries
Answer: D. Complete debridement and apexification
Mild fluorosis
Reference: McDonald, 8/E, pp. 468-469
Nutritional deficiency
Yellow
Calcific Metamorphosis
Explanation:
Dentin Hyercalcification
Fluorosis
Trauma
Central incisor root is incomplete at 9 years.
without
Non vital immature teeth - apexification is the
haemorrhage
treatment of choice. Roots of the permanent
Active caries
Periapical
teeth complete 3 years after the eruption into

infection
of
the oral cavity. No response to vitality tests
primary teeth
shows that the tooth is non-vital.
Turners tooth
Amelogenesis imperfecta
Dentinogenesis imperfecta
Hemolytic diseases
65. The initial pulpal response to any insult is

A. Necrosis
Ageing
Red
Porphyria
Blue
B.
Ulceration
C.
Calcification
D. Inflammation
Tetracycline
Thalassemia
Sickle cell anemia
Answer: D. Inflammation
Reference: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 391
Green
Tea
Explanation:
Hyperbilirubinemia
Black
Tobacco
Betel nut
responds
to
any
insult
insult is beyond repair, it goes into necrotic
changes.
Minocycline therapy
Severe trauma
Periapical infection
Pulpal
by
immune/inflammatory reactions. When the
Plaque
Brown
Pulp
trauma
haemorrhage
Severe fluorosis
Congenital Porphyria
with
COMMUNITY DENTISTRY
66. False about randomized control trial is
A. Baseline characteristics of intervention and
control groups should be similar

B.
Investigators bias is decreased by double
Answer: A. F and V sounds
blinding
C.
Reference: Bouchers, 12/E, p. 383
The sample size required depends on the

hypothesis
D. None
69. Resin teeth

A. Show a high compressive strength
B.
Answer: D. None
Contraindicated in patients with decreased

intra-occlusal distance
Reference: Park, 21/E, p. 66
C.
Show crazing
D. Show a high fracture strength

Explanation:
The answer can be arrived by elimination
Answer: C. Show crazing
method
Option
A:
establishing
baseline
Reference: Manappallil, 3/E, p. 409
comparability is an essential step in

Randomized Control Trials RCTs. This is
accomplished by randomization as well as
Explanation:
Crazing is a mechanical separation of the
by matching
polymer chains which might develop due to
Option B: observer/investigator bias is
mechanical stress.
reduced by double blinding, wherein the

study
participants
as
well
as
the
70. Bar-clasp assembly mostly used is
investigator will be blinded.
A. Mesio-occlusal rest
Option C: the sample size for a study
B.
Buccal approach
depends on the hypothesis. For a trial
C.
Disto-occlusal rest
testing
D. None of the above
directional
hypothesis,
the
sample size required will be lesser than a

trial testing a non-directional hypothesis.
Answer: B. Buccal approach

Reference: Stewarts, 4/E, pp. 42-43
PROSTHODONTICS
PERIODONTICS
67. In a patient, the upper denture falls when he
71. The cells which predominantly infiltrate the
opens his mouth wide due to
gingival sulcus in response to dental plaque are
A. Thick labial flange
A. Mast cells
B.
Over-extended borders
B.
Neutrophilic leukocytes
C.
Thick distobuccal flange
C.
Lymphocytes
D. Poor peripheral seal
D. Macrophages
Answer: B. Neutrophilic leukocytes
Answer: D. Between rest and occluding position
Reference: Carranza, 10/E, p. 116

Explanation:
Reference: Bouchers, 12/E, p. 217
Cellular elements found in GCF include

bacteria, desquamated epithelial cells, and
68. The maxillary teeth if placed too far anteriorly in

a
complete
denture
pronunciation of
results
in
the
faulty
leukocytes
(PMNs,
monocytes/macrophages),
lymphocytes,
which
and
migrate
through the sulcular epithelium.
A. Fand V sounds
B.
S and T sounds
C.
Vowels
D. Consonants
72. The fibers of the periodontal ligament which

provides the maximum resistance to Masticatory
forces is
A. Horizontal

B.
Oblique
B.
0.75 mm
C.
Transseptal
C.
0.5 mm
D. Apical
D. 1 mm
Answer: B. Oblique
Answer: C. 0.5 mm
Explanation:
Explanation:
Oblique fibers, the largest group in the

periodontal
ligament,
extend
The Periodontal Screening & Recording. TM
the
(PSR) system is designed for easier and faster
cementum in a coronal direction obliquely to
screening and recording of the periodontal
the bone.
status of a patient by a general practitioner or a
They bear the brunt of vertical masticatory
dental hygienist. It uses a specially designed
stresses and transform them into tension on the
probe that has a 0.5-mm ball tip and is color
alveolar bone.
coded from 3.5 to 5.5 mm
73. The cells which are decreased in
from
chronic
periodontal disease are
76. The microorganisms which are present in the
A. B-lymphocytes
juvenile periodontitis are predominantly
B.
T-lymphocytes
A. Gram +ve aerobic cocci
C.
Mast cells
B.
Gram ve aerobic cocci
C.
Gram +ve anaerobic rods
D. Plasma cells
D. Gram ve anaerobic rods

Answer: B. T-lymphocytes
Reference: Carranza, 9/e, p 266
Answer: D. Gram negative anaerobic rods
Explanation:
A key feature that differentiates the established

lesion is the increase in the number of plasma
Explanation:
Localized aggressive periodontitis (previously
cells (B cells), which become the preponderant
referred to as localized juvenile periodontitis
inflammatory cell type.
[LIP]) develops around the time of puberty, is

observed in females more often than in males,
and typically affects the permanent molars and
74. The failure of periodontal therapy is due to
incisors. This condition is almost uniformly
A. Lack of motivation
seen in individuals who demonstrate some
B.
Lack of skill
systemic defect in immune regulation, and
C.
Lack of co-operation
most
D. Lack of follow up
affected
associated
individuals
demonstrate
defective neutrophil function. The microbiota

with
localized
aggressive
Answer: A. Lack of motivation
periodontitis is predominantly composed of
Reference: Carranza, 9/e, p. 968
gram-negative, capnophilic, and anaerobic
Explanation:
rods.
There is reason to believe that both the

mechanical debridement performed by the
77. Acetone breath is a feature of
therapist and the motivational environment
A. Liver disease
provided by the appointment are necessary for
B.
Sinusitis
good maintenance results. Patients tend to
C.
Renal disease
reduce their oral hygiene efforts between
D. Diabetes mellitus
appointments. Knowing that their hygiene will

be evaluated causes them to perform better
Ans: D. Diabetes mellitus
oral
Ref: Carranza, 9/E, p. 437
hygiene
in
anticipation
of
the
appointment.
Explanation:
Odor
75. The diameter of the tip of a periodontal probe is

A. 0.25 mm
Rotten eggs
Disease/Condition
Volatile sulphur compounds

Liver
insufficiency,
volatile
Sweet odor
sulphur compounds, aliphatic
(dead mice)
acids
(butyric,
isobutyric,
periodontal involvement having furcation caries
propionic)
Unbalanced insulin dependent
Rotten apples
78. An endodontically treated mandibular molar with

is best treated by
A. Hemi section
DM (accumulation of ketones)
Kidney
insufficiency,
characterized by uremia and

Fish odor
trimethylamine
C.
Fenestration
Ans: A. Hemi section
(Trimethylaminuria)
Ammonium-like
Radisection
D. Root amputation
accumulation of dimethylamine
and
B.
Ref: Carranza, 9/E, p. 831
Chronic glomerulonephritis
breath
Eucalyptus
Melon like odor
containing
medications
79. -------------- shows chemical bonding to the tooth
Rotten onions
Arsenic medications
Acid, sweet
Acute rheumatic fever

Lung
Foul, putrefactive
CONS & ENDO
abscess,
A. Composite resins
Tuberculosis,
B.
GIC
C.
Unfilled resins
D. Zinc phosphate
Bronchiectasis
Resembling
Ans: B. GIC
decomposed blood
Ref: Sturtevant, 5/E, p. 217
of
healing
Blood dyscrasias
surgical extraction
80. The function of cavity varnish beneath a silver
wound
amalgam filling is
Acetone, fruity
Sweetish
Diabetes mellitus or impending
A. To provide insulation
diabetic coma (not detected in
B.
To improve the marginal seal
well controlled patients)
C.
To form a calcified bridge
D. None of the above
musty,
feculent
amine
odor resembling a
Liver failure
Ans: B. To improve the marginal seal
fresh
(terminal stage)
Ref: Sturdevant, 5/E, p. 312
cadaver
known
as
Explanation:
fetor
hepaticus
Same
as
hepaticus
intermittent
for
in
placed on all tooth preparation walls for

Portocaval venous anastomoses
preparations for cast gold, but was not used for

composites.
period of time
Syphilis, exanthematous disease,
bad taste
the
dentin
and
helped
prevent
microleakage. Varnishes also helped reduce
Eosinophilic granuloma
Letterer Siwe disease
Hand Schuller Christian disease
postoperative sensitivity
by
reducing
the
infiltration of fluids and salivary components

at the margins of newly placed restorations.
Necrotic,
putrefactive
Extremely
The varnish prevented penetration of materials

into
granuloma venereum
Fetid breath and
odor
amalgam and on dentinal walls of tooth
long
Fetid
Tooth varnish is a solution liner that was used

in the past to seal dentinal tubules and was
but
characteristically
nature
fetor
foul
resembling
Wageners granulomatosis
Two coats of tooth varnish were applied to
Noma developed from patients
dentin surfaces (not on enamel walls) of tooth
who
preparations for cast gold restorations.
are
debilitate
or
Although varnishes were valuable in reducing
undernourished
gingivostomatitis,
diphtheria, dysentery, measles,
postoperative
but
pneumonia,
thickness was insufficient to provide thermal
much
more
fetid and intense.
from:
necrotizing
scarlet
tuberculosis, syphilis
fever,
sensitivity,
the
thin
insulation even when applied in two coats
film
Tooth
varnishes
were
not
used
under
Decrease vasoconstrictor increases systemic
composites because the solvent in the varnish
absorption hence increasing toxicity.
could react with or soften the resin component

in
affecting
83. Compression
polymerization. The free monomer of the resin
the
composite,
adversely
mandible by
osteosynthesis
heals
fracture
could dissolve the varnish film, rendering it
A. Primary union without callus formation
ineffective
B.
Secondary union with callus formation
C.
Compression union
D. All the above

ORAL SURGERY
81. In a patient of liver disease the possible
complication during extraction is
A. Dry socket
B.
Facial space infection
C.
Bleeding
Answer: A. Primary union without callus formation

Reference: Rowe and Williams Maxillofacial Injuries,
2/E, Vol. 1, p. 361
Explanation:
D. Loss of clot
With compression osteosynthesis primary bone
Ans: C. Bleeding
healing occurs by direct osteoblastic activity

within the fracture, in distinction to the slower
Ref: Liver disease: Current perspectives on medical and
process of callus formation
dental management- Oral Surgery, Oral Medicine, Oral

Pathology, Oral Radiology, and Endodontology ,
Volume 98, Issue 5, November 2004, Pages 516521.
84. Skin incision of the face is sutured with the edges

A. Inverted
Explanation:
Dental care providers should be aware of the
B.
Everted
C.
Same level
D. Dipping
potential for increased bleeding as well as drug

toxicity. Quite often, liver disease will result in
depressed plasma levels of coagulation factors
that need a careful evaluation of hemostasis
prior to treatment. Patient testing should
include CBC, PT, PTT, INR, bleeding time, and
Answer: B. Everted
Reference: Rowe and Williams Maxillofacial Injuries,
2/E, Vol. 1, p. 212
Explanation:
liver function tests. If any abnormal levels are

discovered, consultation with a hematologist or
During skin suturing it is important to try to
hepatologist is suggested before beginning
create a slight eversion of skin edges with
dental treatment. If oral surgical procedures
obliteration of dead space below the wound.
are required, special attention should be paid

to the minimization of trauma to the patient.
As the risk of bleeding increases, an infusion of
85. The suture material most commonly used for

intra-oral wounds is
A. Vicryl
fresh frozen plasma may be indicated

82. The toxic reaction to a local anesthetic is least by
Decreased volume
C.
Decreased vasoconstrictor
D. Intravenous infusion
Ans: B. Decreased volume
Explanation:
Rule out other options. Increase in volume will

increase toxicity level. Intravenous infusion of
LA with adrenaline has direct effect on heart.
Silk
C.
Nylon
D. Cat gut
A. Increased volume
B.
B.
Answer: B. Silk
Reference: Laskin, 1E, p. 267
Explanation:
Silk is the most popular suture material for use

intraorally. It is braided, which gives it
excellent handling characteristics; it provides a
moderate tissue response and does not irritate

adjacent
mucous
membrane
and
is
inexpensive.
86. The
first
sensation
to
be
lost
following
administration of local anesthetic

A. Proprioception
B.
Pain
C.
Touch
D. Temperature
Answer: B. Pain
Reference: Malamed Local Anesthesia, 5/E, p. 4
Explanation:
The concept behind the action of local

anesthetics is to prevent both the generation
and conductance of nerve impulse. In effect,
local anesthetics set up a chemical roadblock
between the source of the impulse and the
brain;
therefore
the
aborted
impulse
is
prevented from reaching the brain and is not

interpreted as pain by the patient.

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AIIMS (DENTAL) PREVIOUS YEARS SOLVED PAPERS 2004 (May)

of the mandible and closely related to the

The mandibular nerve supplies all EXCEPT

parotid gland and supplies it. It also supplies

temporomandibular joint and the scalp. The

communications from the otic ganglion,

glossopharyngeal nerve to the parotid

Reference: Grays Anatomy, 40/E, pp. 541-542

Lingual nerve: descends medial to the

nerve containing taste fibers). The lingual

Mandibular nerve (third division of the

nerve lies anterior to the inferior alveolar

trigeminal nerve, V3) arises from the trigeminal

ganglion and, together with the motor root of

pterygoid muscle and the ramus of the

the trigeminal nerve, traverses the foramen

mandible. It then lies under cover of the

ovale and enters the infratemporal fossa (here

oral mucosa, where it is directly related to

it can be "blocked" by passing a needle through

the third molar. It crosses the lateral

the mandibular notch and injecting a local

surface of the hyoglossus, passes deep to

anesthetic). At the base of the skull, the

mandibular nerve is unites with motor root

submandibular duct, and curves upward

and then divides into anterior and posterior

on the genioglossus. It gives several small

branches (e.g., to the submandibular

gland) and supplies sensory fibers to the

anterior tongue, gums, and first molar and

Trunk of the mandibular nerve

iii. Inferior alveolar nerve: descends deep to the

A meningeal branch (nervus spinosus): this

lateral pterygoid muscle and then enters

accompanies the middle meningeal artery,

passes through foramen spinosum to

canal. Superior to the mandibular foramen, the

supply duramater of middle cranial fossa

inferior alveolar nerve can be "blocked" intra-

Nerve to the medial pterygoid: This also

orally with a local anesthetic. Its branches

supplies the tensor tympani and tensor

veli palatini by way of the otic ganglion

Mylohyoid nerve: descends in a groove

Anterior division of the mandibular nerve: (1

supplies the mylohyoid muscle and

sensory and 3 motor branches)

the anterior belly of the digastric

Buccal nerve: it emerges between the heads

of the lateral pterygoid muscle and

descends to supply sensory fibers to the

Gingival branches: supply the gums

Mental nerve: emerges through the

iv. Nerve to the lateral pterygoid muscle

Incisive branch: the terminal branch,

mandibular notch to supply the masseter),

Inferior dental branches: supply the

All are branches of the posterior division of the

Posterior division of the mandibular nerve (chiefly

mandibular nerve EXCEPT

Inferior alveolar nerve

Auriculotemporal nerve: arises by two roots