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105.

Aviation Fundamentals

Page 1 of 44

105. AVIATION FUNDAMENTALS


References:
[a] NAVAIR 00-80T-80, Aerodynamics for Naval Aviators
[b] NAVEDTRA 14014, Airman
[c] NAVAIR 00-80T-88, Helicopter History and Aerodynamics Manual
[d] NAVEDTRA 12300, Aviation Machinists Mate 3&2
[e] NAVEDTRA 14176, NEETS Module 4--Introduction to Electrical
Conductors, Wiring Techniques, and Schematic Reading
[f] NAVEDTRA 14313, Aviation Ordnanceman
[g] NAVEDTRA 14175, NEETS Module 3--Introduction to Circuit Protection,
Control, and Measurement
[h] NAVEDTRA 14188, NEETS Module 16--Introduction to Test Equipment
[i] NAVEDTRA 14028, Aviation Electronics Technician 3
[j] NAVEDTRA 14192, NEETS Module 20--Master Glossary and Index
[k] http://www.chinfo.navy.mil/navpalib/factfile/ffiletop.html
[l] NAVAIR 00-80T-105, CV NATOPS Manual
[m] NAVAIR 00-80T-96, Common Support Equipment Basic Handling and Safety
Manual
[n] NAVAIR 00-80T-106, LHA/LHD/MCS NATOPS Manual
[o] NAVAIR 00-80T-120, CV Flight/Hangar Deck NATOPS Manual
[p] OPNAVINST 5100.19D, Navy Occupational Safety and Health (NAVOSH)
Program Manual for Forces Afloat
[q] Local Directives and Standard Operating Procedures
[r] NAVAIR 00-80T-113, Aircraft Signals NATOPS Manual
[s] NAVAIR 00-80R-14, NATOPS U.S. Navy Aircraft Firefighting and Rescue
Manual
[t] NAVEDTRA 14353, Aviation Boatswains Mate (H)
[u] NAVAIR 19-25-514, Firefighting Vehicle A/S32P-25
[v] NAVEDTRA 14208, Photography (Advanced)
[w] NAVEDTRA 14127, Intelligence Specialist 3&2, Vol. 1
[x] NAVAIR 01-Fl4AAA-1, F-14 NATOPS
[y] NAVEDTRA 14312, Aerographer's Mate Module 5 - Basic Meteorology
[z] NAVEDTRA 14269, Aerographers Mate Module 1 - Surface Weather
Observations
[aa] NAVEDTRA 14010, Aerographers Mate 1&C
[ab] OPNAVINST 3120.32C, Standard Organization and Regulations Manual of
the U.S. Navy (SORM)

1 Explain the following expressions of motion: [ref. a]


a. Potential energy: (Stored Energy) The energy stored in a body or
system; the energy that a body or system has stored because of its
position in an electric, magnetic, or gravitational field, or because of
its configuration.
b. Kinetic energy: (Energy in Motion) The kinetic energy of an object
is the extra energy which it possesses due to its motion. It is defined
as the work needed to accelerate a body of a given mass from rest to its
current velocity. Having gained this energy during its acceleration, the
body maintains this kinetic energy unless its speed changes.
.2 Describe the following terms pertaining to motion: [ref. b, ch. 3]
a. Inertia: The tendency of a body at rest to remain at rest, and a
body in motion to continue to move at a constant speed along a straight
line, unless the body is acted upon in either case by an unbalanced
force.
b. Acceleration: A change in the velocity of a body, or the rate of
such change with respect to speed or direction.
c. Speed: The rate of movement or motion in a given amount of time.
Speed is the term used when only the rate of movement is meant. If the
rate of movement of a ship is 14 knots, we say its speed is 14 knots per
hour.

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105. Aviation Fundamentals

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d. Velocity: The quickness or speed of an object in a given time and


direction. For example: 200 mph due north.
.3 Define Bernoulli's principle. [ref. b, ch. 3]
* The principle states that when a
fluid flowing through a tube reaches a
constriction or narrowing of the tube,
the speed of the fluid passing through
the constriction is increased and its
pressure decreased. The general lift of
an
airfoil
is
dependent
upon
the
airfoil's
being
able
to
create
circulation in the air stream and
develop the lifting pressure over the
airfoil surface. As the relative wind
strikes the leading edge of the airfoil,
the flow of air is split. Part is
deflected upward and aft, and the rest
is deflected down and aft. Since the
upper surface of the wing has camber or
a curve on it, the flow over its surface
is disrupted, and this causes a wavelike effect to the wing. The lower
surface is relatively flat. Lift is accomplished by the difference in
the airflow across the airfoil.
.4 Define Boyles law. [ref. b, ch. 3]
* States that when the temperature is held constant, the volume of a
gas is inversely proportional to its pressure. Therefore, if the
pressure increases, the volume decreases and visa versa. For example, if
the volume if halved, then the pressure is doubled. If the temperature
is held constant, it becomes an isothermal process. Discovered by Robert
Boyle (1627-1691), an Irish physicist and chemist and co-founder of the
Royal Society
.5 Describe the following properties of the atmosphere as it relates to
aircraft performance: [ref. a]
a. Static pressure: The static pressure of the air at any altitude
results from the mass of air supported above that level. At standard sea
level conditions the static pressure of the air is 2,116 psf (or 14.7
psi, 29.92 in. Hg, etc.) and at 40,000 feet altitude this static
pressure decreases to approximately 19 percent of the sea level value.
b. Absolute temperature: The ordinary temperature measurement by the
Centigrade scale has a/datum at the freezing point of water but absolute
zero temperature is obtained at a temperature of -273 Centigrade. Thus,
the standard sea level temperature of 15 C. is an absolute temperature
of 288. This scale of absolute temperature using the Centigrade
increments is the Kelvin scale, e.g., o K.
c. Density: The density of the air is a property of greatest
importance in the study of aerodynamics. The density of air is simply
the mass of air per cubic foot of volume and is a direct measure of the
quantity of matter in each cubic foot of air. Air at standard sea level
conditions weighs 0.0765 pounds per cubic foot and has a density of
0.002378 slugs per cubic foot. At an altitude of 40,000 feet the air
density is approximately 25 percent of the sea level value.
d. Viscosity: The viscosity of the air is important in scale and
friction effects. The coefficient of absolute viscosity is the
proportion between the shearing stress and velocity gradient for a fluid

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105. Aviation Fundamentals

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flow. The viscosity of gases is unusual in that the viscosity is


generally a function of temperature alone and an increase in temperature
increases the viscosity.
e. Standard atmosphere: The standard atmosphere actually represents
the mean or average properties of the atmosphere. Notice that the lapse
rate is constant in the troposphere and the stratosphere begins with the
isothermal region. Since all aircraft performance is compared and
evaluated in the environment of the standard atmosphere, all of the
aircraft instrumentation is calibrated for the standard atmosphere.
f. Pressure altitude:
Pressure altitude is the altitude in the
standard atmosphere corresponding to a particular pressure. The aircraft
altimeter is essentially a sensitive barometer calibrated to indicate
altitude in the standard atmosphere. If the altimeter is set for 29.92
in. Hg the altitude indicated is the pressure altitude-the altitude in
the standard atmosphere corresponding to the sensed pressure. Of course,
this indicated pressure altitude may not be the actual height above sea
level due to variations in temperature, lapse rate; atmospheric
pressure, and possible errors in the sensed pressure.
g. Density altitude: The more appropriate term for correlating
aerodynamic performance in the nonstandard atmosphere is density
altitude in the standard atmosphere corresponding to a particular value
of air density. The computation of density altitude must certainly
involve consideration of pressure (pressure altitude) and temperature.
.6
Describe
the
following
aerodynamic
terms
and
their
interrelationships: [ref. b, ch. 3]
a. Lift: The force that acts, in an upward direction, to support the
aircraft in the air. It counteracts the effects of weight. Lift must be
greater than or equal to weight if flight is to be sustained.
b. Weight: The force of gravity acting downward on the aircraft and
everything on the aircraft
c. Drag: The force that tends to hold an aircraft back. Drag is
caused by the disruption of the air about the wings, fuselage or body,
and all protruding objects on the aircraft. Drag resists motion.
d. Thrust: The force developed by the aircraft's engine, and it acts
in the forward direction. Thrust must be greater than or equal to the
effects of drag in order for flight to begin or be sustained

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105. Aviation Fundamentals

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e. Longitudinal axis: An imaginary reference line running down the


center of the aircraft between the nose and tail. The axis about which
roll occurs.
f. Vertical axis: An imaginary reference line running parallel to the
wings and about which pitch occurs
g. Lateral axis: An imaginary reference line running from the top to
the bottom of the aircraft. The movement associated with this axis is
yaw.

h. Angle of attack: The angle at which a body, such as an airfoil or


fuselage, meets a flow of air. Defined as the angle between the chord
line of the wing (an imaginary straight line from the leading edge to
the trailing edge of the wing) and the relative wind. The relative wind
is the direction of the air stream in relationship to the wing. For
example, an aircraft in straight and level flight has the relative wind
directly in front of it and has zero angle of attack since the relative
wind is directly striking the leading edge of the wing. An aircraft
flying parallel to the ground which has the nose trimmed significantly
up, now has the leading
edge of the wing (chord
line)
pointed
at
an
upward
angle;
however,
the
relative
wind
is
striking the bottom of
the wing. An analogy is
to hold your hand out of
the car window with your
palm facing the ground
(zero angle of attack),
and then to rotate your
hand slightly in either
direction.
Angle
of
attack is measured in
"units" as opposed to
degrees.

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105. Aviation Fundamentals

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.7 State the three primary


movements of aircraft about
the axis. [ref. b, ch. 3]
a. Pitch - The movement of
the
aircraft
about
its
lateral axis. The up and down
motion of the nose of the
aircraft.
b. Yaw - The movement of
the
aircraft
about
its
vertical axis. The drift, or
right or left movement of the
nose of the aircraft.
c. Roll - The movement of
the
aircraft
about
its
longitudinal
axis.
The
movement of the wing tips one
up and the other down.
.8 State the purpose of the following flight control surfaces: [ref. b,
ch. 4]

a. Flap: Gives the aircraft extra lift. The purpose is to reduce the
landing speed, thereby shortening the length of the landing rollout.
They also facilitate landing in small or obstructed areas by permitting
the gliding angle to be increased without greatly increasing the
approach. The use of flaps during takeoff serves to reduce the length of
the takeoff run. Some flaps are hinged to the lower trailing edges of
the wings inboard of the ailerons. Leading edge flaps are in use on the
Navy F-4, Phantom II.

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105. Aviation Fundamentals

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b. Spoiler: Used to decrease wing lift. However, the specific design,


function, and use vary with different aircraft. On some aircraft, the
spoilers are long narrow surfaces, hinged at their leading edge to the
upper surfaces of the wings. In the retracted position, they are flush
with the wing skin. In the raised position, they greatly reduce wing
lift by destroying the smooth flow of air over the wing surfaces
c. Speed brakes: Hinged or moveable control surfaces used for
reducing the speed of aircraft. On some aircraft, they are hinged to the
sides or bottom of the fuselage; on others they are attached to the
wings. They keep the speed from building too high in dives. They are
also used to slow the speed of the aircraft prior to landing.
d. Slats: Slats are movable control surfaces attached to the leading
edge of the wing. When the slat is retracted, it forms the leading edge
of the wing. When open, or extended forward, a slot is created between
the slat and the wing leading edge. High-energy air is introduced into
the boundary layer over the top of the wing. At low airspeeds, this
improves the lateral control handling characteristics, allowing the
aircraft to be controlled at airspeeds below the normal landing speed.
This is known as boundary layer control. Boundary layer control is
intended primarily for use during operations from carriers; that is, for
catapult takeoffs and arrested landings
e. Horizontal stabilizer: Provides stability of the aircraft about
its lateral axis. This is longitudinal stability. It serves as the base
to which the elevators are attached. On some high-performance aircraft,
the entire vertical and/or horizontal stabilizer is a movable airfoil.
Without the movable airfoil, the flight control surfaces would lose
their effectiveness at extremely high speeds.
f. Vertical stabilizer: Maintains the stability of the aircraft about
its vertical axis. This is known as directional stability. The vertical
stabilizer usually serves as the base to which the rudder is attached.
g. Rudder: The rudder is attached to the vertical stabilizer. It
determines the horizontal flight (turning or yawing motion) of the
aircraft. This action is known as directional control.
h. Main rotor blades: The main rotor of a helicopter consists of two
or more rotor blades. Lift is accomplished by rotating the blades
through the air at a high rate of speed. Lift may be changed by
increasing the angle of attack or pitch of the rotor blades. When the
rotor is turning and the blades are at zero angle (flat pitch), no lift
is developed. This feature provides the pilot with complete control of
the lift developed by the rotor blades. The rotor head is fully
articulating and is rotated by torque from the engines through the drive
train and main gearbox or transmission. The flight controls and
hydraulic servos transmit movements to the rotor blades.
i. Tail rotor blades: Mounted vertically on the outer portion of the
helicopter's tail section. The tail rotor counteracts the torque action
of the main rotor by producing thrust in the opposite direction. The
tail rotor also controls the yawing action of the helicopter.
j. Aileron: The ailerons and elevators are operated from the cockpit
by a control stick on single-engine aircraft. A yoke and wheel assembly
operates the ailerons and elevators on multiengine aircraft, such as
transport and patrol aircraft. The rudder is operated by foot pedals on
all types of aircraft.
k. Elevator: The elevators are attached to the horizontal stabilizer
and control the climb or descent (pitching motion) of the aircraft. This
action is known as lateral control.

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105. Aviation Fundamentals

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.9 Identify and state the purpose of the primary flight controls for:
[ref. b, ch. 4]
a. Fixed wing aircraft: The ailerons provide control about the
longitudinal axis, the elevators provide control about the lateral axis,
and the rudder provides control about the vertical axis.
b. Rotary wing aircraft: The collective stick controls the pitch of
the rotor blades, which translates to "up and down". The cyclic stick
tilts the plane of the rotor blades forward, aft or sideways, giving the
helicopter its directional motion. Lateral control is provided using the
foot pedals to control the blades on the tail rotor.
.10 State the purpose of the following: [ref. b, ch. 7]
a. Pitot-static: The
pitot-static system in an
aircraft includes some of
the
instruments
that
operate on the principle
of
the
barometer.
It
consists of a Pitot-static
tube and 3 indicators, all
connected with tubing that
carries
air.
The
three
indicators
are
the
altimeter,
airspeed
indicator, and the rateof-climb indicator. Each
operates on air taken from
outside
the
aircraft
during flight. The tube or
line from the Pitot tube
to the airspeed indicator
applies the pressure of
the outside air to the
indicator. The indicator
is calibrated so various
air pressures cause different readings. The Pitot tube is mounted on the
outside of the aircraft at a point where air is least likely to be
turbulent. It points in a forward direction parallel to the aircraft's
line of flight. Static means stationary or not changing. The static port
introduces outside air, at its normal outside atmospheric pressure, as
though the aircraft were standing still in the air. The static line
applies this outside air to the airspeed indicator, altimeter, and rateof-climb indicator.
b. Airspeed indicator: The airspeed indicator
displays the speed of the aircraft in relation
to the air in which it is flying. In some
instances, the speed of the aircraft is shown
in Mach numbers. The Mach number gives the
speed compared to the speed of sound in the
surrounding medium (local speed). For example,
if an aircraft is flying at a speed equal to
one-half the local speed of sound, it is flying
at Mach 0.5. If it moves at twice the speed of
sound, its speed is Mach 2.

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105. Aviation Fundamentals

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c. Altimeters: The altimeter shows the height of


the aircraft above sea
level. The face of the
instrument is calibrated
so the counter or pointer
displays
the
correct
altitude of the aircraft.
d. Rate-of-climb: The
rate-of-climb
indicator
shows the rate at which
an aircraft is climbing or descending
e
.
Attitude indicator: A pilot
determines aircraft attitude
by referring to the horizon.
Often, the horizon is not
visible. When it is dark,
overcast, smokey, or dusty,
the earth's horizon may not be
visible. When one or more of
these conditions exists, the
pilot refers to the attitude
indicator. It is also called
the vertical gyro indicator or
VGI. The instrument shows the
pilot the relative position of
the aircraft compared to the
earth's horizon.
f. Turn and bank indicator: Shows the
correct execution of a turn and bank. It
also shows the lateral attitude of the
aircraft in straight flight. It consists
of
a
turn
indicator
and
a
bank
indicator. The turn indicator is a gyro
mounted in a frame that is pivoted to
turn
on
a
longitudinal
axis.
The
direction of the turn is shown on the
dial by a pointer. The gyro consists of
a glass ball that moves in a curved
glass tube filled with a liquid. When
the pilot is executing a properly banked
turn, the ball stays in the center
position. If the ball moves from the
center, it shows the aircraft is slipping to the inside or outside of
the turn.
g. Navigation systems: Navigation systems and instruments direct,
plot, and control the course or position of the aircraft. These may
include the radios, transmitters, TACAN, LORAN, etc.

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105. Aviation Fundamentals

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j. Magnetic (standby) compass:


A direct-reading magnetic compass
is
mounted
on
the
instrument
panel. The face of the compass is
read like the dial of a gauge
k. Communication systems: It is
only
practical
means
of
communicating
with
moving
vehicles,
such
as
ships
or
aircraft.
Also,
radio
communication
can
span
great
distances
in
any
or
all
directions.
It
is
the
most
practical
system
to
use
for
sending information to many points, as in broadcasting to large numbers
of ships or aircraft.
Modern aircraft use radio equipment as navigational aids. Navigation
aids consist of many types and are of varying complexity. They range
from simple radio direction finders to complex navigational systems.
Some systems use computers and other advanced electronic equipment to
solve navigational problems automatically. The Aviation Electronics
Technician
(AT)
rating
normally
maintains
communications
and
navigational equipment.
l. Accelerometers: The aircraft gyros, accelerometers, synchros,
servos, and computers continually monitor aircraft heading, attitude,
and horizontal and vertical velocities.
.11 Describe the following terms pertaining to airspeed measurement:
[ref. a]
a. Indicated airspeed: The indicated airspeed (IAS) is the actual
instrument indication for some given flight condition. Factors such as
an altitude other than standard sea level, errors of the instrument and
errors due to the installation, compressibility, etc. may create great
variance between this instrument indication and the actual flight speed.
b. Calibrated airspeed: The calibrated airspeed (CM) is the result of
correcting IAS for errors of the instrument and errors due to position
or location of the installation. The instrument error must be small by
design of the equipment and is usually negligible in equipment which is
properly maintained and cared for.
c. Equivalent airspeed: The equivalent airspeed (PAS) is the result
of correcting the (CAS) for compressibility effects. At high flight
speeds the stagnation pressure recovered in the pitot tube is not
representative of the air stream dynamic pressure due to a magnification
by compressibility.
.12 Explain the differences between typical supersonic flow patterns:
[ref. a]
a. Oblique shock wave: Consider the case where a supersonic airstream
is turned into the preceding airflow. Such would be the case of a
supersonic flow into a comer. A supersonic airstream passing through
the oblique shock wave will experience these changes:
(1) The airstream is slowed down; the velocity and Mach number
behind the wave are reduced but the flow is still supersonic

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(2) The flow direction is changed to flow along the surface


(3) The static pressure of the airstream behind the wave is
increased
(4) The density of the airstream behind the wave is increased
(5) Some of the available energy of the airstream (indicated by
the sum of dynamic and static pressure) is dissipated and turned into
unavailable heat energy. Hence, the shock wave is wasteful of energy.
A typical case of oblique shock wave formation is that of a wedge
pointed into a supersonic airstream.
b. Normal shock wave: If a bluntnosed object is placed in a
supersonic airstream the shock wave which is formed will be detached
from the leading edge. This detached wave also occurs when a wedge or
cone angle exceeds some critical value. Whenever the shock wave forms
perpendicular to the upstream flow, the shock wave is termed a normal
shock wave and the flow immediately behind the wave is subsonic. Any
relatively blunt object in a supersonic airstream will form a normal
shock wave immediately ahead of the leading edge slowing the airstream
to subsonic so the airstream may feel the presence of the blunt nose and
flow around it. Once past the blunt nose the airstream may remain
subsonic or accelerate back to supersonic depending on the shape of the
nose and the Mach number of the free stream.
c. Expansion wave: If a supersonic airstream were turned away from
the preceding flow an expansion wave would form. The flow around a
corner will not cause sharp, sudden changes in the airflow except at
the corner itself and thus is not actually a shock wave. A supersonic
airstream passing through an expansion wave will experience these
changes:
(1) The airstream is accelerated; the velocity and Mach number
behind the wave are greater.
(2) The flow direction is changed to flow along the surfaceprovided separation does not occur.
(3) The static pressure of the airstream behind the wave is
decreased.
(4) The density of -the airstream behind the wave is decreased.
(5) Since the flow changes in a rather gradual manner there is no
shock and no loss of energy in the airstream. The expansion wave does
not dissipate airstream energy.
The expansion wave in three
dimensions is a slightly different
case and the principal difference is
the tendency for the static pressure
to continue to increase past the
wave.
.13 State the components of a basic
hydraulic system. [ref. b, ch. 4]
a. A reservoir to hold a supply
of hydraulic fluid.
b. A pump to provide a flow of
fluid.
c.
Tubing
to
transmit
the
fluid.
d. A selector valve to direct
the flow of fluid.

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105. Aviation Fundamentals

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Page 11 of 44

e. An actuating unit to convert the fluid pressure into useful

.14 Describe and explain the purpose of the main components of landing
gear.
[ref. b, ch. 4]
a. Shock Strut Assembly - Absorbs the shock that otherwise would
be sustained by the airframe.
b. Tires - Allows the aircraft to roll easily and provides
traction during takeoff and landing.
c. Wheel brake assembly - Used to slow and stop the aircraft. Also
used to prevent the aircraft from rolling while parked.
d. Retracting and extending mechanism - All the necessary hardware
to electrically or hydraulically extend and retract the landing gear.
e. Side struts and supports - Provides lateral strength/support
for the landing gear.
.15 Describe the primary purpose and characteristics of autorotation.
[ref. b, ch. 4]
* A method of allowing a helicopter to land safely from altitude
without using engine power by making use of the reversed airflow up
through the rotor system to reduce the rate of descent. Accomplished by
lowering collective pitch lever to maintain rotor rpm while helicopter
is decreasing in altitude, then increasing collective pitch at a
predetermined altitude to convert inertial energy into lift to reduce
the rate of descent and cushion the landing.
* Describe the retreating blade stall conditionAdvancing vs. retreating blades
A rotor blade that is moving in the same
direction as the aircraft is called the advancing
blade and the blade moving in the opposite
direction is called the retreating blade.
Balancing lift across the rotor disc is important
to a helicopter's stability. The amount of lift
generated by an airfoil is proportionate to its
airspeed. In a zero airspeed hover the rotor
blades, regardless of their position in rotation,
have equal airspeeds and therefore equal lift. In
forward flight the advancing blade has a higher
airspeed than the retreating creating unequal
retreating advancing
lift across the rotor disc.
blade side blade
A fuller treatment is provided in dissymmetry of
side
lift.
Compensation
Most helicopter designs compensate for this by incorporating a certain
degree of "flap" in the blades. Rather than being rigid, the rotor
blades are built to have a certain degree of flex. As such, the blade
flexs or flaps up during its advance, creating a smaller AOA and lower
lift. When the blade retreats, the blade flexes or flaps down,
increasing the AOA and generating more lift.
Failure
These compensations can only do so much, and it is possible for a
rotary-wing aircraft to move so quickly that the retreating blade no
longer moves fast enough relative to the air to provide lift. This
situation is called retreating blade stall. All airfoils have a stall
defined as the minimum speed at which the airfoil must move through the

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105. Aviation Fundamentals

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air to generate lift. Below this speed, slow-moving turbulent air


replaces the fast-moving slip air going over the airfoil, disrupting the
Bernoulli effect that generates lift. When a fixed-wing aircraft drops
below its stall speed, the entire aircraft loses lift and enters a
condition called a stall. The usual results of a fixed-wing stall are a
sharp drop in aircraft attitude and a dive. Stalls in fixed-wing
aircraft are often a recoverable event. In a retreating-blade stall,
however, only a portion of the airfoil experiences a stall. The
advancing blade continues to generate lift, but the retreating blade
enters a stall condition.
Flight performance during a retreating blade stall
As the aircraft approaches the airspeed at which it will encounter
retreating blade stall the aircraft will shutter and the nose will begin
to pitch up. The resultant upward pitching of the aircrafts nose will
begin to correct the situation as it results in slowing the aircraft.
But, if uncorrected and the aircraft continues to accelerate the
aircraft may roll in the direction of the retreating blade.
Recovery involves decreasing the angle of attack and allowing th
retreating blade to recover from its stalled condition. This is done by
lowering the collective.
Causes of retreating blade stall
Retreating blade stall is more likely to occur when the following
conditions exist at high forward airspeed:
High gross weight
Low rotor RPM
High density altitude
Steep or abrupt turns
Turbulent ambient air
.16 Describe the retreating blade stall condition. [ref. a]
* Retreating blade stall results whenever the angle of attack of the
blade exceeds the stall angle of attack of the blade section. This
condition occurs in high speed flight at the tip of the retreating blade
since, in order to develop the same lift as the advancing blade, the
retreating blade must operate at a greater angle of attack.
* Conditions favorable for the occurrence of retreating blade stall
are those conditions that result in high retreating blade angles of
attack. Each of the following conditions results in a higher angle of
attack on the retreating blade and may contribute to retreating blade
stall:
1. High airspeed
2. Low rotor RPM-operation at low rotor RPM necessitates the use
of higher blade pitch to get a given thrust from the rotor, thus a
higher angle of attack
3. High gross weight
4. High density altitude
5. Accelerated flight, high load factor
6. Flight through turbulent air or gusts sharp updrafts result in
temporary increase in blade angle of attack
7. Excessive or abrupt control deflections during maneuvers
.17 Define the term power settling. [ref. a]
* The term power settling has been used to describe a variety of
flight conditions of the helicopter. True power settling occurs only

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105. Aviation Fundamentals

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when the helicopter rotor is operating in a rotary flow condition called


the vortex ring state. The flow through the rotor in the vortex ring
state is upward near the center of the disc and downward in the outer
portion, resulting in a condition of zero net thrust on the rotor. If
the rotor thrust is zero, the helicopter is effectively free-falling and
extremely high rates of descent can result
.18 Discuss icing and its effect on the performance of naval aircraft.
[ref. a]
* Ice on the airframe decreases lift and increases drag, weight, and
stalling speed. The accumulation of ice in exterior movable surfaces
affects the control of the aircraft. If ice begins to form on the blades
of a propeller, the propeller's efficiency is decreased or further power
is demanded of the engine to maintain flight. Most aircraft have
sufficient reserve power to fly with a heavy load of ice, but airframe
icing is a serious problem because it results in increased fuel
consumption and decreased range. The possibility always exists that
engine system icing may result in loss of power. Icing can cause: loss
of engine power, aerodynamic efficiency, loss of proper operation of
control surfaces, brakes and landing gear, loss of outside vision, false
instrument indications, and loss of radio
19 Describe the aerodynamic influence of ground effect:
a. Fixed wing [ref. a]
* GROUND EFFECT: When an airplane in flight nears the ground (or
water) surface, a change occurs in the three dimensional flow pattern
because the local airflow cannot have a vertical component at the ground
plane. Thus, the ground plane will furnish a restriction to the flow and
alter the wing upwash, downwash, and tip vortices. These general effects
due to the presence of the ground plane are referred to as ground
effect.
* AERODYNAMIC INFLUENCE OF GROUND EFFECT: While the aerodynamic
characteristics of the tail and fuselage are altered by ground effects,
the principal effects due to proximity of the ground plane are the
changes in the aerodynamic characteristics of the wing. As the wing
encounters ground effect and is maintained at a constant lift
coefficient, there is a reduction in the upwash, downwash, and the tip
vortices.
b. Rotary wing [ref. c, ch. 2]
* Ground Cushion: As the helicopter rises from the ground in a
hovering attitude to a height of 6 or 8 feet, it may be noticed that a
cushion effect is built up under the helicopter. This is commonly called
ground cushion or ground effect. The ground cushion develops because air
is packed between the main rotor blades and the ground. The downward
flow of air strikes the ground and is partially trapped under the main
rotor system. The air packs because it cannot escape as rapidly as the
downward flow of air which is established by the main rotor blades;
therefore, a cushion of slightly compressed air is built up. Boyles Law
states that the density of any gas varies directly as to its pressure.
The greater the density of air, the greater the efficiency of both the
engine and the rotor system. The ground cushion is established to a
height equal to the rotor diameter, but it is effective only to a height
of approximately one-half the rotor diameter. Correspondingly, there is
more power available for hovering near the ground, that is, within a
height of one-half rotor diameter. The ground cushion effect is lost at
airspeeds in excess of 10 miles per hour.

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105. Aviation Fundamentals

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.20 State the five basic sections of a jet engine. [ref. b, ch. 6]
a. The intake which is
an opening in the front of
the aircraft engine that
allows outside or ambient
air to enter the engine.
b. The compressor,
which is, made of a series
of rotating blades and a
row of stationary stator
vanes.
The
compressor
provides high-pressure air
to the combustion chamber
(or chambers).
c. The combustion chamber where fuel enters and combines with the
compressed air.
d. The turbine section, which drives the compressor and accessories
by extracting some of the energy and pressure from the combustion,
gases.
e. The exhaust cone which is attached to the rear of the engine
assembly and eliminates turbulence in the emerging jet, thereby giving
maximum velocity.
.21 Describe the basic differences in the following engine systems:
[ref. a]
a.
Turboprop:
Propulsion
is
accomplished
by
the
conversion
of
the
majority of the gasenergy into mechanical
power
to
drive
a
propeller. This is done
by the addition of more
turbine stages. Only a
small
amount
of
jet
Thrust is obtained on a
turbo prop engine.
b. Turbojet: Projects a column of air to the rear at an extremely
high velocity. The resulting effect is to propel the aircraft in the
opposite or forward direction.
c. Turbofan: Basically the same as a turbo prop except that the
propeller is replaced by a duct-enclosed axial-flow fan. The fan can be
part of the first stage compressor or mounted as a separate set of fan
blades driven by an independent turbine depending on the fan design, it
will produce somewhere around 50 percent of the engine's total thrust
d. Turboshaft: Delivers power through a shaft to drive something
other than a propeller. The power take off may be coupled directly to
the engine, but in most cases it is driven by it's own free turbine
located in the exhaust stream that operates independently on the engine.
They have a high power-to-weight ratio and are currently used in
helicopters.

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e. APU: These power units furnish electrical power when engine-driven


generators are not operating or when external power is not available.
Most units use a gas turbine to drive the generator. The gas turbine
provides compressed air for air conditioning and pneumatic engine
starting. This makes the aircraft independent of the need for ground
power units to carry out its mission.
.22 State the purpose of an afterburner. [ref. a]
* Used during takeoff and combat maneuvering to boost the normal
thrust rating of a gas turbine engine through additional burning of the
remaining unused air in the exhaust section.
.23 Identify the respective aircraft for each of the following engines:
[ref. b, ch. 4]
a. F-110
b. TF-30
F-14
c. F-404-400/402
F-18, AV-8
d. F-414
F-18 E/F
e. TF-34
f. T-56-425/427/14/16 E-2
g. T-58
H-46
h. T-700
H-60
i. J-52
EA-6B
j T-64
H-53
.24 Describe the effects of overstress on aircraft service life. [ref.
a]
* Accumulated periods of overstress can create a very detrimental
effect on the useful service life of any structural component. This fact
is certain and irreversible. Thus, the operation of the airplane,
powerplant, and various systems must be limited to design values to
prevent failure or excessive maintenance costs early in the anticipated
service life.
* An airplane can be overstressed with the possibility that no
immediate damage is apparent. A powerplant may be operated past the
specified time, speed, or temperature limits without immediate apparent
damage. In each case, the cumulative effect will tell at some later time
when in service failures occur and maintenance costs increase.
.25 For the following fuels, state the NATO symbol, the flashpoint, and
briefly explain the characteristics and reasons for the use of each:
[ref. d, ch. 4]
a. JP4: NATO Code F-40, Has a flame spread rate of 700-800 feet per
minute and a low flash point of -10 degrees F or -23 degrees C. Never
used on ships. Use of JP4 will normally cause an engine to operate with
a lower exhaust gas temperature (EGT), slower acceleration, and lower
engine RPM.
b. JP5: NATO Code F-44, Has a flame spread rate of 100 feet per
minute, and a flash point of 140 degrees F or 60 degrees C. JP-5 is the
only approved fuel for use aboard naval vessels. The lowest flash point
considered safe for use aboard naval vessels is 140 degrees F. This is
the Navy's primary jet fuel.
c. JP8: NATO Code F-34, Has a flame spread rate of 100 feet per
minute and a flash point of 100 degrees F or 40 degrees C.

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.26 State the primary mission of the following aviation communities:


[ref. b, ch. 2]
a. HC: H-1, H-3, C-HH-46D, CH-53E
Helicopter Combat Support - Rotary Wing
They perform duties such as plane guard, sea-air rescue, mail
delivery, and personnel transfer.
b. HCS: HH-60H
Helicopter Combat Support Special Squadron
Provides dedicated deployable combat rescue detachments in support
of aircraft carrier and amphibious operations for quick reaction
contingencies.
c. HM: CH/RH-53, MH-53
Helicopter Mine Countermeasures - Rotary Wing
Provides aerial mine hunting and minesweeping by deploying into
and towing through the water, sleds designed to detect or clear
minefields.
d. HMLA
e. HS: SH-3, SH-60F
Helicopter Antisubmarine - Rotary Wing
Used for carrier based anti-submarine warfare, plane guard, search
and rescue and logistics.
RegNav flies the SH-60F Oceanhawk and
reserves fly the SH-3H Sea King
f. HSL: SH-2G, SH-60B
Helicopter Antisubmarine Light
Fly smaller helicopters from ships such as DDG's or FFG's. They
also perform search and rescue and logistics.
RegNav flies SH-60B
Seahawk and reserves flies SH-2G Sea Sprite
g. HT: TH-57
Helicopter Training
Provides basic and advanced training of student Naval Aviators in
rotary wing aircraft.
h. VAQ: VAQ-Aircraft: EA-6B, EA-7, EP-3A
Tactical Electronic Warfare - Fixed Wing
Tactically exploits, suppresses, degrades and deceives enemy
Electromagnetic defensive and offensive systems including communication,
in support of air strikes and fleet operations. The EA-6B Prowler is
used from carriers and EP-3A is land based
i. VAW: E-2C
Carrier Airborne Early Warning - Fixed Wing
Carrier based and provides early warning against weather,
missiles, shipping and aircraft.
j. VC: TA-4J, S/UH-3A, CH-53E, VP-3A
Fleet Composite - Fixed Wing
Perform duties such as utility and air services for the fleet such
as simulations and target towing
k. VF: TA-4J, S/UH-3A, CH-53E, VP-3A
Fighter - Fixed Wing
Fighter
squadrons
are
used
against
aircraft
and
ground
installations to defend surface units. They escort attack aircraft and
give close air support to landing forces.
They use maximum firepower
with speed.
l. VFA: F/A-18
Strike Fighter - Fixed Wing
Employed for both fighter and attack missions.
m. VMA

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n. VMFA: F/A-18, AV-8B


Marine Fighter Attack - Fixed Wing
Marine Corps Strike Fighter squadrons employed for both fighter
and attack missions.
o. VP: P-3
Patrol - Fixed Wing
Land based squadrons that perform anti-submarine warfare, antisubmarine warfare, anti-surface warfare, reconnaissance and mining.
p. VQ: VQ-ES-3, EP-3, E-6, EC-130
Fleet Air Reconnaissance - Fixed Wing
Electronic warfare support including search for, interception,
recording, and analysis of radiated electromagnetic energy.
Selected
squadrons serve as elements of the worldwide Airborne Command Post
System and provide communications relay services.
q. VR: C-9, C-12, C-20, CT-39, C-130, C-131
Aircraft Logistics Support - Fixed Wing
Transport of personnel and supplies
r. VRC: C-2, US-3
Carrier Logistics Support - Fixed Wing
Transports personnel and supplies including carrier onboard
delivery aircraft such as the C-2 Greyhound or US-3
s. VS: S-3
Carrier Antisubmarine Warfare - Fixed Wing
Perform surface search and sea control.
Referred to as "Sea
Control" squadrons even though their letter designation is VS. Note: As
of 1998 VS no longer is employed in the ASW role
t. VT: T-2, TA-4, T-34, T-44, T-47, T-45
Training - Fixed Wing
Provide basic and advanced training for student naval aviators and
flight officers.
u. VX/VXE: A4M/T, TA-4J, A-6, AV-8, F/A-18A/B, S-3A/B, P-3A/C, UH-1N,
AH-1J/T/W,SH-2F, SH-3H, SH-60B/F, OV-10A/D
VX - Air Test and Evaluation - Fixed Wing
Tests and evaluates the operational capabilities of new aircraft
and equipment in an operational environment.
They develop tactic and
doctrines for their most effective use.
VXE Antarctic Development - Fixed Wing
Supports operation Deep Freeze. Aircraft: LC-130, UH-1H
v. UAV
w. VFC
.27 Identify the mission of the following Navy and Marine Corps
aircraft: [ref. k]
a. AV-8 Harrier: The Harrier is
one of today's truly unique and
most
widely
known
military
aircraft.
The
only
fixed-wing,
vertical short takeoff and landing
(V/STOL)
aircraft
in
the
free
world. The original design was based on a French engine concept, adopted
and improved upon by the British. The U.S. Navy and Marine Corps showed
a major interest in the Harrier for day or night attack and close troop
ground support missions.

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b. C-130 Hercules: The C-130


Hercules is a four-engine turboprop
aircraft. Its the workhorse of the
military services, capable of landing
and taking off from short, rough dirt
runways. Its a people and cargo
hauler thats used in a wide variety
of other roles, such as gunships,
weather watchers, tankers, firefighters and aerial ambulances. There are
more than 40 versions of the Hercules, and it is widely used by more
than 50 nations.
c. C-2A Greyhound: The C-2A
Greyhound is a twin-engine cargo
aircraft, designed to land on
aircraft
carriers.
The
C-2A
Greyhound
provides
logistics
support to aircraft carriers. Its
powered by two PT-6 turboprop
engines and can deliver a payload of up to 10,000 pounds. The cabin can
carry cargo, passengers, or both. Its also equipped to accept litter
patients in medical evacuation missions. Cargo such as jet engines can
be transported from shore to ship in a matter of hours. A cage system or
transport stand provides cargo restraint for loads during carrier launch
or landing. The large aft cargo ramp and door and a powered winch allow
straight-in rear cargo loading and downloading for fast turnaround. The
C-2As open-ramp flight capability allows airdrop
of supplies and personnel from a carrier-launched
aircraft. This, plus its folding wings and an onboard auxiliary power unit for engine starting and
ground power self-sufficiency in remote areas,
provide an operational versatility found in no
other cargo aircraft.
d. C-20 Gulfstream: The C-20D is an FAA
certified Gulfstream III aircraft that provides
world-wide airlift for senior leadership and dignitaries. The C-20G is
an FAA certified Gulfstream IV aircraft that provides long range, medium
airlift logistics support for Fleet Battle Groups.
e. C-40 Clipper: (Boeing 737) Same mission as C-9. Will eventually
replace all C-9s.
f. C-9: Sky Train The C-9
Skytrain
fleet
is
located
throughout the continental United
States, Europe, and Asia. The Navy
and Marine Corps C-9 aircraft provide cargo and passenger transportation
as well as forward deployment logistics support. The Air Force C-9s are
used for medical evacuation, passenger transportation, and special
missions. The C-9 Skytrain is the military version of the McDonnell
Douglas DC-9 used for many years by commercial airlines.
g. EA-6B Prowler:
The EA-6B Prowler was designed to compliment
the Navy's defenses in today's electronic
warfare environment for carrier and advanced
base operations. With a crew of four, a pilot
and three electronic countermeasures officers
(ECMOs), this long-range, all-weather-capable
aircraft
has
the
ability
to
intercept,
analyze, and effectively jam and neutralize hostile radar

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h. E-2C Hawkeye: Carrier-based airborne


early
warning
(AEW)
aircraft
maintain
station at some distance from a task force
to provide early warning of approaching
enemy aircraft and direct interceptors into
attack position.
i. C-12 Huron: The C-12 Huron is a twin-engine logistics aircraft
that carries passengers and cargo between
military installations. The C-12F provides
logistics support between Navy air stations.
Its powered by two PT-6A-42 turboprop engines
and can deliver a total payload of up to 4,215
pounds. The cabin can carry cargo, passengers,
or both. It is also equipped to accept litter
patients in medical evacuation missions.
j. E-6 Mercury: Communications relay and
strategic airborne command post aircraft.
Provides survivable, reliable, and endurable
airborne command, control, and communications
between the National Command Authority (NCA)
and U.S. strategic and non-strategic forces.
Two squadrons, the "Ironmen" of VQ-3 and the
"Shadows" of VQ-4 deploy more than 20 aircrews
from Tinker Air Force Base, Oklahoma to meet
these requirements.
k. F/A-18 Hornet: The Hornet is a sonic,
single-seat, twin-engine jet. The fighter and
attack versions are identical, except for
selected interchangeable external equipment.
Conversion from the fighter to attack mode
(and vice versa) takes less than 1 hour. The
aircraft is designed for aerodynamic agility,
high reliability, high survivability, and
reduced manpower maintenance requirements.
l. F-14 Tomcat: The F-14 Tomcat is an
aircraft-carrier-based, jet-powered fighter
aircraft. The aircraft is mainly missile
oriented,
carrying
the
new
air-to-air
missile, Phoenix, and capable of carrying
the older Sidewinder and Sparrow. The Tomcat can be configured for
bombing and rocketry.
m. H-3 Sea King: The SH-3 is a twin-engine
helicopter.
It's
used
primarily
for
antisubmarine warfare, but it is used also for
sea/air rescue and transportation. The crew
consists of a pilot, copilot, sonar operator,
and a relief sonar operator. Designed for land
and carrier ASW operations, the A-model
incorporates an automatic folding pylon. In addition to the sonar
detection equipment, it is equipped with an automatic hovering device.
It is capable of water landing and takeoff. Distinguishing features
include a hull-shaped fuselage and outrigger sponson's, into which the
main landing gear retracts. A fixed horizontal stabilizer is installed
on the upper right side of the pylon, and two General Electric gas
turboshaft engines are mounted side by side above the fuselage and
forward of the rotor head

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n. CH-46 Sea Knight: (USMC ONLY) The Sea


Knight
is
a
twin-turbine
transport
helicopter that provides the fleet with a
day/night underway replenishment capability.
It is used primarily for supply missions at
sea
and
for
casualty
evacuation.
Its
carrying capacity is 25 troops, 15 litters
and attendants, or 4,000 pounds of cargo.
Rotor blades fold for shipboard use. The CH46 is a small version of the Armys Chinook.
o. CH-53 Sea Stallion: The Sea Stallion tows and
operates various mine countermeasure devices designed
to detect and neutralize submerged naval mines. CH53D
squadrons
are
capable
of
rapid
worldwide
deployment.
p. SH-60B/SH-60F/HH-60H/MH-60S Sea Hawk: The
Seahawk
SH-60B
is
placed
aboard
frigates
and
destroyers. The Seahawk is the airborne platform segment of the LAMPS Mk
III weapons system. It can carry personnel as well as weapons to detect,
localize, and destroy submarines at long range.
It is designed to be in constant voice and data
link contact with the ships CIC. In addition to
its primary mission of seeking and engaging
submarines many miles from the ship, the Seahawk
helicopter
is
able
to
provide
targeting
information for over-the-horizon, surface-tosurface missiles. The secondary mission of the
Seahawk helicopter is search and rescue, medical evacuation, vertical
replenishment, and communications relay.
q. P-3 Orion/EP-3 Aries: The P-3
Orion is equipped with magnetic
anomaly
detection
(MAD)
gear,
sonobuoys,
radar,
and
other
submarine detection systems. It is
armed
with
torpedoes,
bombs,
missiles, and depth charges for kills. It has the primary mission of
detecting, locating, and destroying enemy submarines. The P-3 Orion can
respond quickly to hunt down submarine contacts long before surface
units can arrive. Other duties include convoy escort, photographic
missions, and aerial mining
r. S-3B Viking: The S-3 Viking is an example of
such an aircraft. The Viking is a high-wing, jetpowered, twin-engine, carrier-based ASW aircraft.
It carries surface and subsurface search equipment
with integrated target-acquisition and sensorcoordinating systems that collect, interpret, and
store ASW sensor data. It has direct attack
capability with a variety of armaments.
s. T-44 Pegasus : Training
t. T-45 Goshawk: The T-45A Goshawk is a
tandem-seat, carrier capable, jet trainer. The T45A aircraft is used for intermediate and
advanced portions of the Navy/Marine Corps pilot
training program for jet carrier aviation and
tactical strike missions. There are two versions
of T-45 aircraft currently in operational use at
this time.

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u. T-34 Turbomentor: The T-34C Turbomentor is an


unpressurized two-seat, tandem cockpit low-wing turboprop
trainer. The T-34C is used to provide primary flight
training for student pilots attached to the Chief of
Naval Air Training. As a secondary mission, approximately
10 percent of the aircraft provide pilot proficiency and
other aircraft support services.
v. T-39 Sabreliner
w. V-22 Osprey
x. AH-1W Super Cobra
y. UH-1N: Huey Utility helicopter, primarily used for
search and rescue, command and control and maritime
special operations missions.
z. T-6 Texan
.28 Discuss the operating principles and uses of radar. [ref. b, ch. 7]
* Radio Detection and Ranging (RADAR)
A radio device used to detect objects at distances much greater
than is visually possible. Detectable objects include aircraft, ships,
land, clouds, and storms. Radar also shows their range and relative
position. Radar
works on an echo
principle. Sound
waves travel out
and by knowing
the speeds and
the
time
it
takes for them
to return as an
echo,
the
distance can be
measures.
One
radar range mile
is
12.36
microseconds.
That is the time
it takes for a
radio
wave
to
travel out and
return back for
one mile.
.29 Explain the use and modes of IFF. [ref. b, ch. 7]
* Identification Friend or Foe (IFF)
IFF is an electronic system that allows a friendly craft to
identify itself automatically before approaching near enough to threaten
the security of other naval units. A transponder in the friendly
aircraft receives a radio-wave challenge. The transponder transmits a
response to a proper challenge. All operational aircraft and ships of
the armed forces carry transponders to give their identity when
challenged.

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.30 Describe the information provided by the inertial navigation system.


[ref. b, ch. 7]
* An inertial navigation system (INS) is an automatic aid to
navigation that is independent of outside references. An INS is a
portion of the overall tactical system that provides accurate velocity,
attitude, and heading data to a digital data processing system. This
overall system permits accurate weapons delivery. To function properly,
the system must be aligned with reference to initial conditions of
altitude, latitude, and longitude.
* This system can make the following computations during flight:
1. The latitude and longitude of the present position of the
aircraft. This information is continually displayed on the pilot's
console.
2. The aircraft ground track angle, relative to true heading.
3. The distance from the present position of the aircraft to a
preset target or base, as selected on the control panel
4. The bearing of the preset target or base, as selected, relative
to true heading.
.31 State the aviation mission of each of the following ships: [ref. k]
a. AE - Ammunition Ship
They operate with replenishment groups to deliver ammunition and
missiles to ships at sea. These ships handle all types of missiles. They
carry two H-46 helicopters for vertical replenishment and support.
b. AFS c. AO/AOE - Oiler/Oiler and
Ammunition Support Ships
AO:
These
ships
carry
fuel,
jet
fuel,
and
other
petroleum products. They operate
with replenishment groups and
deliver their cargo to ships at
sea. They can service from both
sides
of
the
ship
simultaneously.
AOE: The largest and most powerful auxiliary ship in the Navy. AOE
ships carry missiles, fuel, ammunition and general cargo. They can also
carry refrigerated cargo and supplies. They carry two H-46 helicopters
for vertical replenishment and support.
d. CG - Guided Missile Cruiser
These ships serve provide protection
against surface and air attacks and
gunfire support for land operations.
They have a large cruising range and
are capable of speeds over 30 knots.
Some
cruisers are capable of conducting
anti
air
warfare,
antisubmarine
warfare, and anti-surface ship warfare
at the same time. They carry one or
two LAMPS Mk III SH-60B helicopters.

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e. CV/CVN - Carrier/Nuclear Powered Carrier


Carriers are designed to carry, launch, retrieve and handle combat
aircraft quickly and efficiently. It can approach the enemy at high
speed, launch planes, recover them, and retire before its position can
be determined. Attack carriers are excellent long-range offensive
weapons and are the center of the modern naval task force or task group.
f. DD/DDG - Destroyer/Guided Missile Destroyer
Multipurpose ships used in
any kind of naval operation.
Fast ships with a large variety
of armament and little or no
armor. They depend on their
speed
and
mobility
for
protection.
They
operate
offensively and defensively against subs and surface ships. They can
take defensive action against air assaults. They provide gunfire support
for amphibious assaults. They can perform patrol, search and rescue
missions, if needed. They can accommodate two SH-60B or 2 SH2G
helicopters.
g. FFG - Guided Missile Frigates
Frigates are used for open-ocean escort and
patrol. They resemble destroyers in appearance,
but are slower, have only a single screw, and
carry less armament. They can carry two SH-60B
helicopters.
h. LCC - Amphibious Command Ship
Provides accommodations and command and
communication facilities for various commanders
and their staffs. They can serve as a command
ship for an amphibious task force, landing
force,
and
air
support
commanders
during
amphibious operations. They are the most modern
and capable command facilities afloat.
i. LHA - Amphibious Assault Ship,
These ships are able to embark, deploy, and
land a Marine battalion landing team by helicopters,
landing craft, amphibious vehicles, and combinations
of these methods. They are versatile and combine the
same features of the Amphibious Assault ship (LPH),
Amphibious Transport Dock (LPD), Amphibious Cargo
Ship (LKA), and Dock Landing Ship (LSD) in a single
ship.
LHD - Amphibious Warfare Ship
They
are
designed
based
on
that
of
an
Amphibious Assault Ship, but are intended to be
convertible from an Assault Ship to an Anti-submarine Warfare ship with
Harrier fighters for ground assault.
j. LPD - Amphibious Transport Dock
Combines the features of a Dock Landing Ship
(LSD), with the features of an Amphibious Assault
Ship (LPH). They can transport troops and equipment
in the same ship. It has facilities for 8
helicopters.
k.MCS - Mine Countermeasures Support Ship
There is only one of these in the naval inventory - the USS Inchon.

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.32 Identify and explain the purpose of the


following aviation ratings: [ref. b, ch. 1]
a. AB: Aviation Boatswain Mate
b. AC: Air Traffic Controller
c. AD: Aviation Machinist's Mate
d. AE: Aviation Electrician's Mate
e. AG: Aerographer's Mate
f. AM: Aviation Structural Mechanic
g. AO: Aviation Ordnanceman
h. AS: Aviation Support Equipment
Technician
i. AT:

Aviation Electronics Technician

j. AW: Airwarfare Systems Operators


k. AZ: Aviation Maintenance
Administrator
l. PH: Photographers mate
m. PR: Aviation survival equipmentman
.33 Explain the use of basic electrical
schematics and block diagrams. [ref. e, ch.
3]
* SCHEMATIC DIAGRAM: The schematic
diagram shows, by means of graphic symbols,
the electrical connections and functions of
a
specific
circuit
arrangement.
The
schematic diagram is used to trace the
circuit and its functions without regard to the actual physical size,
shape, or location of the component devices or parts.
The schematic diagram is the most useful of all the diagrams in learning
overall system operation.
Figure 3-10 is a schematic diagram of an automobile electrical
system. The automobile electrical system uses the frame of the
automobile as a conductor. The frame is called the ground side. Figure
3-10 shows all the electrical components grounded on one side. The
negative side of the battery is also grounded. Therefore, the frame is
the negative conductor of the system. The opposite side of each of the
components is connected through switches to the positive side of the
battery. For the purpose of teaching schematic reading, we will discuss
only the lighting system and engine instruments.
* BLOCK DIAGRAM : A block diagram is used primarily to present a
general description of a system and its functions. This type of diagram
is generally used in conjunction with text material. A block diagram
shows the major components of a system and the interconnections of these
components. All components are shown in block form, and each block is

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105. Aviation Fundamentals

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labeled for identification purposes. The block diagram shown in figure


3-8 is an illustration of an automobile's electrical power, starting,
and ignition systems. It must be emphasized that the following
explanation is primarily for the purpose of assisting you in learning to
"read" or interpret a block diagram. The explanation of the functions of
the automobile power, starting, and ignition systems is of secondary
importance. By tracing from component to component in the block diagram
and following the explanation, you are given a general description of
the system functions. In addition, you should be able to understand the
arrangement of the components in a block diagram.

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.34 State the purpose of wiring and cable identification codes. [ref. e,
ch. 3]
* THE PURPOSE OF IDENTIFICATION CODES: Cables and wires are marked to
give the technician a means of tracing them when troubleshooting and
repairing electrical and electronic systems. Numerous cable- and wiremarking systems are used in ships, aircraft, and equipment throughout
the Navy. A few of these systems are briefly discussed here to acquaint
you with how marking systems are used. For a specific system or
equipment, you should refer to tile applicable technical manual.
* CABLE-MARKING SYSTEMS: Two typical cable-marking systems you are
likely to see are the (1) shipboard and (2) test equipment cable-marking
system
* WIRE-MARKING SYSTEMS: Wire-marking systems are used to identify
wires in aircraft, shipboard electronic equipment, and power tool and
appliance cables.
* Example of Aircraft Wire-Marking Systems
All aircraft wiring is identified on wiring diagrams exactly as
the wire is marked in the aircraft. Each wire is coded by a combination
of letters and numbers (figure 3-3) imprinted on the wire at prescribed
intervals along the wire run.

.35 Explain the purpose of the following:


a. Circuit breaker [ref. g, ch. 2]: A protective device that opens a
circuit when the current exceeds a predetermined value. Circuit breakers
can be reset.
b. Fuse [ref. g, ch. 2]: A protective device inserted in-line with a
circuit. It contains a metal that will melt or break when current is
increased beyond a specified value, thus disconnecting the circuit from
its power source to prevent damage.
c. Multimeter [ref. h, ch. 4]: During troubleshooting, you will often
be required to measure voltage, current, and resistance. Rather than
using three or more separate meters for these measurements, you can use
the MULTIMETER. The multimeter contains circuitry that allows it to be
used as a voltmeter, an ammeter, or an ohmmeter. A multimeter is often
called a VOLT-OHM-MILLIAMMETER (VOM). One of the greatest advantages of
a VOM is that no external power source is required for its operation;
therefore, no warm-up is necessary. Other advantages are its

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105. Aviation Fundamentals

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portability, versatility, and freedom from calibration errors caused by


aging tubes, line voltage variations, and so forth.
d. TDR [ref. h, ch. 4]:
A time-domain reflectometer (TDR) is an
electronic instrument used to characterize and locate faults in metallic
cables (for example, twisted wire pairs, coaxial cables) and, in the
OTDR domain: optical fibers.
Time Domain Reflectometers are commonly used for in-place testing
of very long cable runs, where it is impractical to dig up or remove
what may be a kilometers-long cable. They are indispensable for
preventive maintenance of telecommunication lines, as they can reveal
growing resistance levels on joints and connectors as they corrode, and
increasing insulation leakage as it degrades and absorbs moisture long
before either leads to catastrophic failures. Using a TDR, it is
possible to pinpoint a fault to within feet or inches.
TDRs are also very useful tools for surveillance countermeasures,
where they help determine the existence and location of wire taps. The
slight change in line impedance caused by the introduction of a tap or
splice will show up on the screen of a TDR when connected to a phone
line.
TDR equipment is also an essential tool in the failure analysis of
today's high-speed printed circuit boards. The signal traces on these
boards are carefully crafted to emulate a transmission line. By
observing reflections, any unsoldered pins of a ball grid array device
can be detected. Additionally, short circuited pins can also be detected
in a similar fashion.
The TDR principle is used in industrial settings, in situations as
diverse as the testing of integrated circuit packages to measuring
liquid levels. In the former, the time domain reflectometer is used to
isolate failing sites in the same. The latter is primarily limited to
the process industry.
e. Megohmmeter [ref. i, ch. 8]: MEGOHMMETER (MEGGER), The
megohmmeter, commonly called the megger, is an instrument that applies a
high voltage to the component under test and measures the current
leakage of the insulation. This lets you check a capacitor or an
insulated cable for leakage under much higher voltages than an ohmmeter
can supply. The megger consists of a hand-driven dc generator and an
indicating meter. It measures resistances of many megohms.
Meggers are used for testing capacitors whose peak voltages are
not below the output of the megger. They are also used for testing for
high-resistance grounds or leakage on devices such as antennas and
insulators.
.36 Explain the following avionics terms: [ref. j]
a. Voltage: The "driving force" behind current. Voltage, as applied
to Ohm's Law, can be stated to be the base value in determining unknown
circuit values. Designated by the letter (E).
b. Current: The flow of electrons. Ohm's Law states that current is
directly proportional to the applied voltage and inversely proportional
to the circuit resistance. Designated by the letter (I).
c. Resistance: The opposing force to the flow of electrons. As stated
in Ohm's Law, current is inversely proportional to resistance. This
means, as the resistance in a circuit increases, the current decreases
proportionally. Designated by the letter (R).
Note: Ohm's Law states E=IR

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105. Aviation Fundamentals

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.37 Explain HERO. [ref. f, ch. 11]


* HAZARDS OF ELECTROMAGNETIC RADIATION TO ORDNANCE (HERO)
The functional characteristics of electrically initiated ordnance
cause hazards of electromagnetic radiation to ordnance (HERO). Ordnance
that presents a HERO problem includes cartridges, cartridge-actuated
devices, and 20-mm ammunition. The ordnance electro-explosive devices
(EEDs) may be accidentally initiated or their performance degraded by
exposure to radio frequency (RF) environments. Ordnance is more
susceptible to RF environments during assembly, disassembly, handling,
loading, and unloading operations.
The term RADHAZ (radiation hazards) applies to radio frequency
(RF) electromagnetic fields of sufficient intensity to
* produce harmful biological effects in humans, and/or
* cause spark ignition of volatile combustibles or actuate
electroexplosive devices. Although the effects of RADHAZ are important,
this chapter limits discussion to HERO hazards.
* HERO ORDNANCE CLASSIFICATIONS
A testing program sponsored by the Naval Sea Systems Command
(NAVSEASYSCOM) determines the susceptibility of ordnance to RF
environments. Tests are conducted in the maximum RF environment the
ammunition or ordnance systems may be subjected to in its stockpile-tolaunch sequence. This data is the basis for the three HERO
classifications
assigned
to
ordnanceHERO-safe
ordnance,
HEROsusceptible ordnance, and HERO-unsafe ordnance.
.38 Discuss the improper use of white lights during night operations.
[ref. l, ch. 2]
* Self explanatory
.39 Discuss the dangers of working near aircraft intakes/exhaust and
propeller/rotor arc. [ref. m, WP 004]
* Self explanatory
.40 Discuss the effects of hot exhaust gases on ordnance, external
stores, aircraft, and equipment. [ref. n, ch. 6; ref. o, ch. 7]
* Hot exhaust from aircraft starting units is a serious hazard when
operating in close proximity to other aircraft, aircraft components,
fuels, weapons, equipment, and personnel.
.41 Explain the dangers of standing behind
power settings. [ref. o, ch. 4]
* The controlling plane director shall
wings folded or canopy open are not spotted,
behind a jet blast deflector when another
setting on the catapult.

JBD with aircraft at high


ensure that aircraft with
towed or taxied immediately
aircraft is at high power

.42 Discuss the potential personnel and equipment hazards when engaging
and disengaging rotors. [ref. p, ch. C7]
* Self explanatory
.43 Discuss the hazards of stepping across the catapult track during
launch and retract. [ref. o, ch. 4]
* Self explanatory

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105. Aviation Fundamentals

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.44 Discuss how aircraft are tied down to prevent movement. [ref. o, ch.
2]
* Tie down requirements are divided into four categories as defined
by the following:
a. Initial Tie down. This condition of aircraft security exists
immediately prior to aircraft movement from spot and immediately after
aircraft is parked. With the ACHOs approval, aircraft scheduled for
launch on any given cyclic or CARQUALS events, with the exception of
spare aircraft, shall be on initial tie downs. Initial tie downs
installation after recovery or re-spot is the responsibility of the
plane handling crew. As a minimum, initial tie downs are required for
all refueling operations.
b. Intermediate Tie down. This condition of aircraft security
shall exist during flight quarters. Aircraft that are not scheduled for
launch on any given cyclic or CARQUALS events shall be on intermediate
tie downs. Intermediate tie down installation is the responsibility of
the plane captain.
c. Permanent Tie down. This condition of aircraft security is
required when not at flight quarters or when the aircraft is not
expected to fly or be re-spotted. Aircraft parked on the hangar bay
shall be on permanent tie downs.
d. Heavy Weather Tie down. This condition of aircraft security is
required upon the determination of the Aircraft Handling Officer.
The following tie down conditions are provided as a minimum guide
for safe handling operations of shipboard aircraft and may be increased
as conditions necessitate.
Security Conditions
Aircraft Type
E-2*, C-2*, F-14*, EA-6, F/A-18, S-3
AV-8, T-45, H-3, H-46, H-53, H-60

Initial Intermediate Permanent Heavy Weather

6
4

9
6

12/14*
12

18/20*
16

.45 Discuss the effects of turbojet/turbofan/turboprop aircraft engines


ingesting hot exhaust. [ref. o, ch. 7]
* Self explanatory
.46 Discuss the dangers of the landing area during recovery. [ref. o,
ch. 5]
* In addition to the basic safety precautions used during operational
procedures, the following special safety precautions shall be observed:
1. All topside personnel shall be in the proper flight deck
uniform.
2. Personnel shall not stand in or otherwise block entrances to
the island structure, or exits leading from the catwalks.
3. Avoid crowding of personnel or material in the catwalk areas
near the deck edge control station.
4. During recovery operations, with the exception of the LSO and
his assistants, no personnel shall be permitted in the port catwalk
without authorization from the Air Officer.
5. Personnel shall not turn their backs on aircraft landing or
taxiing out of gear; they shall stay alert and in a position that allows
quick and agile movement.
6. Personnel required to be in the catwalks shall duck below the
flight deck or behind cable shields during the aircrafts touch down and
rollout.

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7. Personnel in the rollout area shall position themselves behind


tractors or other mobile equipment as feasible.
8. Hook Runners, Gear Puller, and other personnel in the rollout
area shall not enter the landing area until the aircraft has completely
stopped.
9. No one shall enter the landing area to effect equipment
repairs, or for any other reason, until the deck is fouled and until
positive clearance has been obtained from the Arresting Gear Officer. If
crossing the landing area is absolutely necessary during flight
operations, the following procedures shall be followed:
a. Personnel shall stay clear of the foul line; and shall check
the aircraft in the pattern.
b. If the pattern is clear, the individual shall get the Arresting
Gear Officers attention and indicate desire to cross by pointing across
the deck.
c. The Arresting Gear Officer shall check the pattern. If the
pattern is not clear, no response will be seen from him. The Arresting
Gear Officer is busy and will continue with his duties.
d. If pattern is clear, the arresting gear officer will point at
the individual and then swing arm in a horizontal motion to point to the
other side of the landing area. A red wand will be used to point with at
night.
e. After receiving clearance, the individual shall run straight
across the deck, staying at least 10 feet aft of the No. 1 wire. This
will prevent tripping over the wire supports or being struck by the No.
1 wire during the wire retraction.
Warning: If the arresting gear crew is required to enter the
landing area during aircraft recovery, a safety man shall be stationed
forward of the crew, facing aft with arms crossed over head; at night
the safety man shall have a red wand held vertical, to ensure crew
safety and observe approaching aircraft.
10. The Deck Edge Operator shall stand well clear of the retract
lever while personnel are on deck and all purchase cables are not fully
retracted.
11. Purchase cables shall never be fed back through the flight
deck sheave by hand. The arresting engine shall retract purchase cables.
To minimize the possibility of an aircraft landing on a fouled deck, the
following procedures are mandatory:
1. The lens, and at night the landing area lights, shall never be
turned on without the expressed permission of the Air Officer.
2. Except for the purpose of conducting tests, neither the lens
nor the landing area lights will be turned on until the LSO has manned
the platform.
3. The wave-off lights shall be continuously activated any time
the lens or landing area lights is turned on and the LSO is not on the
platform.
4. Practice CCA approaches, using visual landing aids, shall be
permitted only when the LSO is on the platform. He shall wave off each
aircraft at mile or greater.
5. To avoid unnecessary delay in recovering the first aircraft,
the lens and/or landing area lights may be turned on a short time before
the ship is completely ready to commence recoveries, but wave-off lights
shall be continuously activated until an LSO is on station. The LSO
shall wave off approaching aircraft at a distance of mile or greater
if he has not received the clear deck signal.
6. During instrument recoveries, PriFly will keep CATCC advised as
to the status of the deck and provide the estimated time the deck will

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be clear. CATCC will keep PriFly advised as to the position of the


nearest aircraft.
7. Combat and CATCC shall keep PriFly informed of any aircraft
known or suspected to have radio failure.
8. PriFly will notify the Arresting Gear Officer and Flight Deck
Officer of any aircraft with problems that will affect recovery (lights,
electrical problems, fuel, hydraulic, control, flaps, etc.).
.47 Discuss the dangers of walking
propeller/rotor arc.[ref. m, WP 004]
* Self explanatory
.48 Discuss personnel
operations.
* Self explanatory

movement

on

through

the

the

flight

arc

deck

of

static

during

flight

.49 Explain the protective functions of the following: [ref. q]


a. Engine duct covers
b. Engine intake inspection
c. Engine turn up screens
d. Other aircraft protective covers
e. Authorized FOD containers
f. Drip pans
* Self explanatory
.50 Locate on a diagram the following areas of a flight deck: [ref. q]
a. Aircraft elevators
c. Weapons elevators
e. Junkyard
g. Arresting cables
i. Catapults
k. Finger
m. Corral
o. Six-pack

b. Flight deck control


d. Patio/shelf
f. Helo landing spots
h. Barricade
j. LSO platform
l. Crotch
n. Point
p. Street

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.51 Locate on a diagram the following areas of an aircraft carrier


hangar deck: [ref. q]
a. Hangar deck control
b. Conflagration stations
c. Bay one
d. Bay two
e. Bay three
f. Divisional doors
g. Elevator doors
h. Aircraft elevators
i. Weapons elevators
j. Sprinkler group activation
k. AFFF stations
l. CO2 bottles
m. PKP bottles
n. Fire lane
o. Fuel stations
p. OBA/SCBA locker
q. Medical/first aid box
r. BDS
s. O2/N2 plant
t. Engine container storage area
u. Repair lockers
* AFFF Station Markings
An 18-inch-wide green strip is painted up and over the deck-edge
wheel-stop coaming. A white, 3-inch-high AFFF is painted in the center
of the stripe. At locations where coaming is not installed, the stowage
location is marked by a green, 18-inch square painted on the flight deck
with white AFFF letters painted in the center of the square.
AFFF is the primary extinguishing agent for aircraft fires on all
Navy air-capable ships. Operating a typical flight-deck AFFF station is
simple.
l. First Locate the activation
button and the telephone (they are
painted green).
2.
Second

Make
sure
the
firefighting crew has pulled out all
the fire hose from the storage box.

.52 Identify the personnel wearing the


following color jersey and discuss
their duties:
[ref. o, ch. 2]
a. Green

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1. Catapult Safety ObserverIs a direct representative of the


launching officer makes sure people follow launch procedures and
precautions.
2. Topside Safety Petty Officer (TSPO) Ensures that holdbacks
and repeatable-release assemblies are installed, and that the aircrafts
launch bar is seated in the shuttle spreader. For bridle aircraft, the
TSPO makes sure the bridle is engaged with the spreader and the
aircrafts tow fittings. They are the last people to exit from
under the aircraft.
3.
Holdback Personnel (Non-Bridle)
Install holdbacks and
repeatable-release assemblies. For bridle aircraft, they install tension
rings and bars and holdback assemblies. They also verify
position.
4. Hook-up Crew (Bridle) Engage the bridle to aircraft hookup
points.
5. Center deck OperatorCommunicates with catapult control,
relaying aircraft type, gross weight, side number, and capacity
selection valve settings for the launching officer.
6. Jet-Blast Deflector (JBD) OperatorRaises and lowers the jet
blast deflectors for each aircraft. The JBD prevents jet blast from
hitting personnel and aircraft aft of the catapult launching area.
7. Weight-Board OperatorVerifies the aircraft gross weight with
the aircrew as a final check before launch. Each plane requires a
different catapult CSV setting based on aircraft weight.
8.Topside Petty Officer (TPO) Supervises the arresting-gear
topside crew. Responsible to the AGO for ensuring topside arresting-gear
equipment is in good working order.
9. Deck-Edge OperatorRetracts the arresting gear after recovery
of each aircraft. Is stationed in the catwalk.
10. Hook RunnersEnsure cross-deck pendant and purchase cable have
been disengaged from the aircraft tail hook, and, when the landing
area is clear, they give retract signal to the deck edge operator.
11. Aircraft Maintenance Crew Maintain the aircraft. Their
jerseys are marked with a squadron designator and black stripe on the
front and back.
12. Helicopter LSE (Landing Signalman Enlisted) Directs the
takeoff and landing of all helicopters with visual hand signals. The LSE
wears a red helmet.
13. Photographers Capture images and videotape flight operations
for documentation and media requests.
14. Deck Checkers Ensure the landing area is FOD free, the wire
is in position for aircraft recovery, and all personnel are clear of
landing area.
b. Yellow
1. Aircraft handling officer
2. Catapult and arresting gear officer
c. Red
1. Crash and salvage crews
2. Explosive ordnance disposal
3. Ordnance
4. CAG Arm/ De-arm
d. Brown
* Plane Captains - Make sure aircraft are inspected and serviced
before and after each flight. They are responsible for the cleanliness
and general condition of the aircraft. They also supervise ground-

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105. Aviation Fundamentals


starting procedures. Their jerseys
designator on the front and back.

Page 35 of 44
are

marked

with

their

squadron

e. Blue
1. Tractor driver
2. Aircraft handling crew and chock men
f. Purple
1. Aviation fuel crew
g. White
1. Transfer officer
2. Safety
3. QA
4. LOX crew
5. Landing signal officer
6. Trouble shooter
.53 Recognize and describe the following visual hand signals needed for
day and night flight operations: [ref. r, ch. 2]
a. Affirmative (all clear)
b. Negative (not clear)
c. Turn to left
d. Turn to right
e. Move ahead
f. Stop
g. Personnel approaching aircraft
h. Insert chocks
i. Remove chocks
j. Connect ground electrical power
k. Disconnect ground electrical power
l. Start engine(s)
m. Cut engine(s)
n. Fold wings/helicopter blades
o. Spread wings/helicopter blades
p. Fire
q. Remove chocks and/or tie down
r. Insert chocks and/or install tie do
s. Hot brakes
t. Raise hook
u. Lower hook
v. Move upward
w. Hover
x. Move downward
y. Move to left
z. Move to right
aa. Droop stops out
ab. Droop stops in
ac. Engage rotor(s)
ad. Set rotor brake
ae. Install tie downs (LSE)
af. Hold position
* Self Explanatory
.54 Explain the four classifications of fire and the appropriate
extinguishing agent.[ref. s, ch. 2]
1. Class A Fires: burning wood and wood products, cloth, textiles and
fibrous materials, paper and paper products) are extinguished with water
in straight or fog pattern. If fire is deep seated, AFFF can be used as
wetting agent.
2. Class B Fires: (gasoline, jet fuels, oil, and other flammable/
combustible liquids) are extinguished with AFFF, Halon 1211, PKP, and CO2.
3. Class C Fires: involves energized electrical equipment.
Extinguishment tactics are: de-energize and treat as a Class A, B, or D
fire; attack with application of non-conductive agents (CO2, Halon,
PKP); or attack with application of fresh or salt water in fog patterns
maintaining nozzle at least 4 feet from the energized object.
4 Class D Fires: (combustible metals such as magnesium and titanium)
are extinguished with water in large quantities such as high velocity
fog. When water is applied to burning Class D material, there may be
small explosions. The firefighter should apply water from a safe
distance or from behind shelter.

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.55 Identify and explain the use of the following:


a. AFFF stations [ref. s, ch. 3]
b. Portable fire bottles [ref. s, ch. 3]
c. Countermeasure wash down system [ref. t, ch. 5]
d. Mobile firefighting unit (P-25/A) [ref. u, ch. 3]
e. Shipboard TAU [ref. s, ch. 4]
* See section 51

.56 Discuss the responsibilities of the crash and salvage crew: [ref. s,
ch. 7]
* The crash, salvage, and rescue team is the flight deck repair team.
From its station in the island structure it serves to effect rescue of
personnel from damaged aircraft on the flight deck, clear away wreckage,
fight fires on, and make minor emergency repairs to the flight deck and
associated equipment.
.57 Identify the equipment designation(s) and explain the use of the
following support equipment and their associated hazards: [ref. m]
a. Tow tractor [WP 005]
b. Tow bar [WP 005]
c. Aircraft starting unit (mobile/installed) [WP 012]
d. Mobile electric power plant [WP 010]
e. Nitrogen servicing [WP 007]
f. Oxygen servicing (gaseous/liquid) [WP 007]
g. Carrier crash crane [WP 006]
h. Hydraulic servicing unit [WP 008]
i. Hydraulic power supply [WP 008]
j. Hangar deck crane [WP 006]
k. Oil servicing unit [WP 008]
l. Mobile air-conditioner [WP 011]
m. Corrosion control cart [WP 015]
* Self explanatory
.58 Discuss the responsibilities of the following personnel: [ref. o,
ch. 1]
a. Air Officer (air boss): The Air Officer is directly responsible
for all operational, training, administrative, watch, and equipment
repair functions within the Air Department. He is further responsible
for determining the case launch and/or recovery, the visual control of
all aircraft operating in the carrier control zone, carrier control zone
clearing authority and all other duties specified in NAVAIR 00-80T-105
(CV NATOPS) related to air operations.
b. Assistant Air Officer (mini boss): The Assistant Air Officer aids
the Air Officer in ensuring that the plans, orders, and instructions of
the Air Officer are carried out. He acts as Assistant Department Head.
He also functions as the Air Department Training Coordinator
c. ACHO: The Aircraft Handling Officer, under the Air Officer ensures
the ship is capable of meeting all mission requirements related to
flight and hangar deck air operations, and in many instances, other
departmental requirements as well. He regulates the number of aircraft

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105. Aviation Fundamentals

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on the flight and hangar deck to execute all evolutions including cyclic
operations,
carrier
qualifications,
vertical
and
conventional
replenishment, and alert postures. He serves as the Team Leader of the
Air Department Training Team and assists the Air Wing Watch Coordinator
in training personnel for the Aircraft Integrity Watch.
d. Crash and Salvage Officer/air boatswain: The Aircraft Crash and
Salvage Officer is responsible for supervising crash crews and fire
parties in handling aircraft emergencies during flight and general
quarters, and for ensuring the readiness of assigned personnel,
firefighting, and salvage equipment. He is also responsible for the
overall training of Air Department and Air Wing personnel in aircraft
firefighting and crash and salvage operations.
e. Flight Deck Officer (V-1 Division): The Flight Deck Officer is
responsible for the safe and efficient movement of aircraft on the
flight deck, aircraft security and flight deck cleanliness. The Flight
Deck Officer is responsible for the training and administration of V-1
Division as well as the overall material condition of all divisional
spaces both internal and external. He assists the ACHO in the execution
of the flight plan.
f. Catapult and Arresting Gear Officer (V-2 Division): The Catapult
and Arresting Gear Officer is responsible for the safe and efficient
operation of the ships Aircraft Launch and Recovery Equipment (ALRE).
The Catapult and Arresting Gear Officer is responsible to the Air
Officer for the operation, maintenance, and readiness of the launching
and recovery systems. He is overall responsible for the operation and
upkeep of the catapults, arresting gear, and visual landing aids.
The Catapult and Arresting Gear Officer is responsible for the
overall training of V-2 Division and the training of prospective
Catapult and Arresting Gear Officers. He shall ensure that a complete,
comprehensive, and vigorous training program is implemented.
g. Hangar Deck Officer (V-3 Division): The Hangar Deck Officer is
responsible for the safe, efficient movement of aircraft and overall
maintenance of the hangar deck, training of personnel, readiness of
damage control and aircraft handling support equipment.
h. Aviation Fuels Officer (V-4 Division): The Aviation Fuels Officer
is responsible for the training of all aviation fuels personnel, safe
and efficient operation of the aviation fuel system, and the management
of the aviation fuel quality control program. He also is responsible for
ensuring strict compliance with all applicable directives concerning the
inspection, maintenance, and operation of aviation fuel systems.
.59 Discuss the function of reconnaissance photography. [ref. v]
* The Navy performs aerial reconnaissance photography of enemy
territory to observe enemy defenses, troop concentrations, troop
movements, enemy strength, and so on. Aerial reconnaissance photography
may also include taking images over friendly territory, both ours and
our Allies. Refer to TARPS.
.60 Discuss the altitude range for the following types of aerial
photography: [ref. v]
a. Low altitude:
0 to 1,500 feet
b. Medium altitude: 1,500 to 10,000 feet
c. High altitude:
10,000 feet and above
* As a Photographers Mate, your aerial photographic assignments
are normally accomplished from low to medium altitudes.

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.61 Define the following terms and explain their use: [ref. w]
a. SLAR photography: SIDE-LOOKING AIRBORNE RADAR (SLAR OR SLR) An
airborne radar that produces an image of a portion of the surface of the
Earth by means of one or more antennas viewing at approximately right
angles to the longitudinal axis of the aircraft
Radarscope photography is a film record of the activity on the
radar screen (scope). Radar normally is a phenomenon involving aimed
radiation through space and its consequent reflection. Therefore,
effective radarscope reconnaissance is possible with radar equipment
operating from aircraft, from ships, from submarines, and on the ground
as long as the objective area is not masked by a mass that cannot be
penetrated by the radar signal. The radarscope image makes possible
effective all-weather operations. Radarscope photographic reconnaissance
provides the following information:
1. Information on prestrike, strike, and post-strike intelligence;
2. Information to assist all-weather offensive operations; and
3. Information used in constructing new maps or correcting
existing ones.
b. FLIR photography: Forward-Looking Infrared (FLIR). In a combat
situation, the imagery obtained from line scan recording systems is
often too late for tactical reaction. In response to this situation,
specifications were set up to provide a real-time readout capability for
aircrews. Many real-time readout line scan systems were tried. However,
the imagery presented on the cathode-ray tube (CRT) was still only that
which the aircraft had just flown over, and no immediate reaction was
possible. This brought about the integration of a forward-looking
infrared, or FLIR, system with an active weapons system, thus providing
immediate reaction to the information obtained.
The FLIR is a passive detection system used primarily for
recognition and identification of surface ships, submarines, and
submarine wakes. Secondary functions include target verification, weapon
delivery observation, and navigation landmark identification.
c. IR system: Infrared (IR) Reconnaissance Systems. Many details of
operational
IR
sensors
are
classified.
This
section
provides
unclassified
information
pertinent
to
current
infrared-sensing
techniques. The most significant difference between a conventional
camera system and an IR system is the source of the electromagnetic
radiation they record. Visible light waves imaged by cameras are the
result of reflections from the target of a light source independent of
the target, such as the sun or a flash cartridge. On the other hand, IR
waves result either from energy within the target itself or from energy
that the target absorbs and subsequently releases or emits. Thus, IR
radiation can be recorded at night when the target releases, as heat,
the energy absorbed from the sun during the day. Daytime IR images,
however, can be both reflected and emitted radiant energy.
.62 Discuss the operational interface between the TARPS and the F-14
aircraft. [refs. v, x]
* TARPS: Tactical Air Reconnaissance Pod System.
* With the development of the F-14 Tomcat equipped with the TARPS,
the Navy continues to improve its photographic reconnaissance
capabilities. The TARPS pod, containing two optical cameras and an
infrared detection system, is attached to a specially configured F-14
called the Peeping Tom.

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105. Aviation Fundamentals

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* Although retaining all the air superiority characteristics of the


non-TARPS F-14, the Peeping Tom gives tactical commanders a wide range
of sensor capabilities, including day/night, high/low altitude coverage
as
well
as
high-speed
penetration
and
medium-range
standoff
reconnaissance.
* The camera systems are comparatively simple to operate, and the pod
itself is equally easy to service and maintain. Current CV assets can
provide complete support for the system, from film processing to final
intelligence analysis and dissemination. Finally, because the Peeping
Tom is still fully fighter capable, those aircrews that are identified
with the program have the distinction of being both fighter and
reconnaissance qualified, thus assuring themselves an even greater role
in the fleet.
* The pod is designed to be aerodynamically and structurally suitable
for supersonic flight. It is non-jettisonable and is attached directly
to the starboard-underside of the fuselage at weapons station number 5.
Operation of the reconnaissance system in the pod is controlled by the
Naval Flight Officer/Radar Intercept Officer (NFO/RIO) (back-seater)
using the Computer Processor Signal/Sensor (CPS). In addition, the pilot
is provided with a camera on/off capability via the bomb button on the
control stick.
* Target location and camera control information is given to the crew
by the Tactical Information Display (TID) and the Heads Up Display
(HUD). The TARPS-equipped Tomcats retain a significant offensive
capability, even when they are carrying out a photographic role. The
aircraft can be returned to full combat configuration in a few minutes
by removing the external TARPS.
* Each squadron having TARPS aircraft is assigned enlisted
Intelligence Specialists who work in a ground support role at the
squadron level along with the Intelligence Specialists operating in the
Aircraft Carrier Intelligence Center (CVIC). TARPS contains the
following reconnaissance sensor and auxiliary equipment:
1. Pod;
2. Environmental Control System (ECS);
3. KS-87B Camera;
4. KA-99A Camera;
NOTE: When the KA-99A low-altitude panoramic camera is mounted in bay 2
of the TARPS pod, about 4 inches port and 3 inches starboard in the
field of view (FOV) are lost due to the imaging of the external fuel
pods mounted under the wing of the F-14 Tomcat. This results in a loss
of about 7 inches in film format from a total of 28.3 inches of the
format size.
5 KS-153 Camera;
NOTE: This camera is fitted in station 2 in place of the KA-99 when
mission requirements dictate. The KS-153 camera is a 24-inch sensor that
uses three vertical/oblique 9 x 9-inch shots to simulate pan.
6. AN/AAD-5 Infrared Line Scan (IRLS);
7. Maintenance Control Panel;
8. Sensor Control/Data Display Set (SC/DDS); and
9. Reconnaissance Control Processor Unit (RCPU).
* Miscellaneous hardware includes the following equipment:
1. KS-87B camera-mount;
2. Vacuum pump; and
3. Winch (2).

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105. Aviation Fundamentals

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.63 Describe the reconnaissance capabilities of the following platforms:


[ref. w]
a. F-14 Tomcat : Read .62
b. S-3 Viking
The S-3A is a twin-engine turbofan aircraft designed specifically
for carrier and antisubmarine warfare (ASW) missions. Its prime missions
are task force and convoy screening, antisubmarine barrier surveillance,
contact investigation, and surface surveillance with attack capability
for all missions. The primary reconnaissance system on the S-3A that you
will be interested in is the FLIR system.
c. P-3 Orion
The P-3C is a computerized, long-range, turboprop, maritime patrol
aircraft whose primary mission is ASW. Its secondary mission is surface
surveillance and reconnaissance of combatant and merchant ships.
The P-3C uses several acoustic and nonacoustic electronic sensors in
ASW. These include MAD, ES, Inverse Synthetic Aperture Radar (ISAR),
Infrared Detection System (IRDS), and visual sightings.
ISAR is a processing system that generates true, recognizable,
two-dimensional images of any selected ship target. It relies on the
motion of the target ship to generate a two-dimensional image.
Processing short-aperture times, ISAR generates continuous images that
correspond in real time to target motion.
IRDS is a passive search and localization sensor that operates on
the same principles as FLIR. IRDS photography has gained importance in
the aviation intelligence community as a viable intelligence gathering
source.
Photo reconnaissance equipment includes the 35mm hand-held, the
Agiflite 70mm, and Sony still video cameras. The still video equipment
is especially useful in that you have the capability to transfer images
to floppy discs and immediately review the image.
Images can then be digitally transferred to other still video
capable units in a matter of minutes vice the hours required for hardcopy film.
d. F/A-18 Hornet : N/A
.64 Define the following terms: [ref. y]
a. Weather: The state of the atmosphere, mainly with respect to its
effect upon life and human activities.
b. Climate: Climate is the average or collective state of Earths
atmosphere at any given location or area over a long period of time.
While weather is the sum total of the atmospheres variables for a
relatively short period of time, the climate of an area is determined
over periods of many years and represents the general weather
characteristics of an area or locality. The term climate applies to
specific regions and is therefore highly geographical.
c. Tropical cyclone: A cyclone (low) is a circular or nearly circular
area of low pressure with a counterclockwise flow. The flow is slightly
across the isobars toward the center in the Northern Hemisphere and
clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere. It is commonly called a low or a
depression. This use of the word cyclone should be distinguished from
the colloquial use of the word as applied to the tornado or tropical
cyclone (hurricane).

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105. Aviation Fundamentals

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The formation of a new cyclone or the intensification of the


cyclonic flow in an existing one is called cyclogenesis. When the
pressure in the low is falling, we say the low is deepening.
Cyclogenesis and deepening can also occur separately, but usually occur
at the same time. The decrease or eventual dissipation of a cyclonic
flow is called cyclolysis. When the pressure in a low is rising, we say
the low is filling. Cyclolysis and filling usually occur simultaneously.
Cyclones in middle and high latitudes are referred to as extratropical
cyclones. The term tropical cyclone refers to hurricanes and typhoons.
.65 Discuss the purpose of the following shipboard weather instruments:
[ref. z]
a. Anemometer: A device used to measure wind speed and/or wind
direction. From the Greek word anemo, meaning wind, and modem word
meter, meaning measurement device.
Three types of certified wind-measuring systems or anemometers are
widely used throughout the Navy and Marine Corps. These are the AN/UMQ-5
wind-measuring set, used at shore locations; the Type B-3 wind-measuring
system, used aboard ships; and the backup, hand-held AN/UMQ-3
anemometer. All of these systems are used to accurately measure wind
speed, in knots, and to indicate the direction from which the wind is
blowing
b. Aneroid barometer: The precision aneroid barometer is designed to
accurately indicate atmospheric pressure in inches and hectopascals
(hPa). The pressure element is a Sylphon cell, which consists of a
sealed, bellows-shaped canister that expands and contracts with changes
in air pressure.
* Precision aneroid barometers must be calibrated twice a year
when used aboard ship, and once a year when used at shore stations.
* Aneroid: Without fluid or without water.
* An aneroid barometer uses no fluid (mercury).
c. Thermometer: Liquid-in-glass thermometers, such as alcohol or
mercury thermometers, are found throughout the Navy and Marine Corps in
various configurations. Some are simply closed glass tubes mounted on a
graduated cardboard, plastic, or metal backing, and others have the
graduations etched into the glass. For meteorological and oceanographic
readings, calibrated thermometers with the graduations permanently
etched into the glass are recommended, since they are considered the
most accurate.
* In meteorology and oceanography, liquid-in-glass thermometers
are used in the rotor psychrometer, the sling psychrometer, electric
psychrometers, and as simple thermometers for measuring seawater
temperature by the bucket method. The maximum and minimum thermometers
found in the instrument shelter are special types of liquid-in-glass
thermometers. Both NAVMETOCCOMINST 3141.2 and NAVMETOCCOMINST 3144.1
provide detailed instructions for use and care of the different types of
thermometers.
* Alcohol thermometers may be used to measure temperatures from
-115C (freezing point of alcohol) to 785C (boiling point of alcohol).
The standard thermometer for environmental measurements need only cover
the range -20F to 120F, or about -30C to 50C.
d. Psychrometer: is any device that contains both a dry-bulb and a
wet-bulb thermometer used to measure ambient air temperature and wetbulb air temperature. Currently there are three different types of
psychrometers used by the Navy and Marine Corps: the electric
psychrometer, the sling psychrometer, and the rotor psychrometer

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105. Aviation Fundamentals

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* Electric psychrometers are used aboard some ships as the primary


air temperature/wet-bulb temperature measuring device. They are kept on
hand at all shore observation sites as a backup for automatic air
temperature and dew-point sensors. There are several slightly different
models of electric psychrometers in use: the ML-45O/UM and the ML450(A)/UM through the ML-45O(D)/UM models, and the "Type III" electric
psychrometer. All models contain a dry- and a wet-bulb thermometer, a
small, battery-operated electric fan, several batteries, thermometer
illumination lights, and a small distilled-water bottle.
.66 Discuss the information available on the following weather messages:
a. OPAREA [ref. y, ch. 6]: One of the major tasks of the
Aerographers Mate and the Naval Meteorology and Oceanography Command is
providing long-range weather information and predictions based on
recognized meteorological occurrences in a particular area or region of
the world. Naval exercises both at sea and ashore is planned months and
sometimes years in advance. To carry out these exercises successfully,
we must have an idea of the normal weather conditions for the
operational area (OPAREA) at that time of year. It is both dangerous and
unwise to conduct costly training exercises if the weather conditions
for the OPAREA are known to be adverse at that time of year.
b. Tropical warnings [ref. aa]
TYPE OF WARNING
WIND SPEED
Tropical cyclone Formation Alert (TCFA)
Tropical Depression
Tropical Storm
Hurricane/Typhoon/Tropical Cyclones

N/A
Up to 33 Knots
34 to 63 Knots
64 Knots or more

c. Wind warnings [ref. aa]: Wind warnings are characterized by the


origin of the disturbance and the wind speed.
* Wind warnings for the Northern Hemisphere are automatically
disseminated via the Fleet Multichannel Broadcast or Automatic Digital
Network (AUTODIN). Automatic dissemination of warnings in the Southern
Hemisphere are limited to specifically defined areas designated by fleet
commanders due to limited naval operations and sparsity of observations.
Wind warnings are normally issued every 12 hours.
d. High seas warning [ref. aa]: These warnings are issued every 12
hours whenever actual or forecast significant wave heights in an ocean
area of the Northern Hemisphere equal or exceed 12 feet.
* To provide the optimum product it is very important that all
forecasts and warnings be verified after the fact. All NAVMETOC and USMC
commands have procedures in place to verify the accuracy of all
products, whether they be Small Croft, Gale/Storm, or High Seas
Warnings.
* By monitoring observations from underway units and closely
monitoring weather features, enroute weather forecasts can be fine
tuned. The following are products that are routinely verified for
accuracy:
1. High Seas Warnings
2. Gale/Storm Warnings
3. Small Craft Warnings
4. Optimum Track Ship Routing (OTSR) Requests
5. Enroute weather forecasts

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105. Aviation Fundamentals

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.67 State the four weather conditions of readiness. [ref. ab, ch. 6]
* WEATHER CONDITIONS OF READINESS AND ACTION TO BE TAKEN
(1) CONDITION FOUR - Trend indicates heavy weather and/or high seas
within 72 hours.
(a) The CDO shall notify the Commanding and Executive Officers of
condition changes whether aboard or ashore.
(b) The CDO shall make plans to place a higher condition of
readiness in effect.
(2) CONDITION THREE - Heavy weather is possible within 48 hours.
(a) In Port (Command Duty Officer)
1. Notify the Commanding and Executive Officers of condition
changes.
2. If capable, take on fuel and make preliminary preparations to
get underway for sea or a protected anchorage.
(b) At Sea (Officer of the Deck)
1. Rig ship for heavy weather.
2. Take action to minimize damage effects of the weather.
(3) CONDITION TWO - Heavy weather and or high seas are anticipated
within 24 hours.
(a) In Port (Command Duty Officer)
1. Notify the Commanding and Executive Officers of condition
changes.
2. Terminate liberty or grant only on basis of return within four
hours.
3. Prepare to get underway on four hours' notice.
4. Secure ship for heavy weather.
(b) At Sea (Officer of the Deck): Continue action to prevent
damage.
(4) CONDITION ONE - Heavy weather is anticipated within 12 hours.
(a) In Port (Command Duty Officer)
1. Notify the Commanding and Executive Officers of condition
changes.
2. Recall liberty party.
3. If capable of getting underway, sortie (when directed by SOPA).
4. If remaining in port, run extra lines; ready ground tackle;
ballast; set bridge, steaming, and anchor watches as appropriate.
(b) At Sea (Officer of the Deck): Continue action to prevent
damage to ship.
.68 Discuss your ship's/stations forecasting capabilities. [ref. q]

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Reviewed by LT Richard G. William