1. Which of the following elements is not normally common in projects?

A. An objective
B. Uncertainty
C. No defined end point
D. Uniqueness
2. Successful project management does NOT include which of the following factors?
A. Responsiveness to clients
B. Competent team members
C. Interchangable staff
D. Control mechanisms
3. Which is the first stage in the project management model?
A. Project control
B. Project planning
C. Project definition
D. Understanding the project environment
4. A clear hierarchy of objectives in the project definition would not normally contain:
A. Control mechanisms
B. The purpose
C. Success criteria
D. Desired end result
5. A critical path network diagram does not:
A. Calculate earned-value
B. Calculate the duration of the whole project
C. Identify the particularly important activities
D. Help determine the amount of float
6. What is the critical path through the following network?
A. ABDEF
B. ABGHIF & ABDEF
C. ABCF
D. ABCEF
7. What would be the critical path if the duration of activity C increased to 10?
A. ABGHIF
B. ABCF
C. ABDEF
D. ABCEF
8. What is the critical path through the following network?
A. ABGHIF & ABDEF
B. ABCF
C. ABGHIF
D. ABCEF
9. What would be the critical path if the duration of activity C decreased to 6?
A. ABGHIF
B. ABDEF
C. ABCF
D. ABCEF
10. Which of the following are features of Belbins resource investigator role?
A. Unorthodox, discerning, single-minded

B. Sober, unemotional and prudent

C. Extroverted, enthusiastic and communicative
D. Painstaking, orderly and conscientious
Answer of Multiple Choice Questions

1. (C)
7. (B)

2. (C)
8 (B)

3. (D)
9 (B)

4. (A)
10 (C)

5. (A)

6. (A)

1. Which of the following are features of Belbins coordinator role?

A. Calm, self confident and controlled
B. Extroverted, enthusiastic and communicative
C. Sober, unemotional and prudent
D. Mature, confident, delegates
2. Which of the following is not a main element of the project management process?
A. Schedule.
B. Plan.
C. Estimation.
D. Systems design.
3. Which of the following is not a main project objective?
A. Cost.
B. Quality.
C. Time.
D. Structure.
4. Which of the following is a main PRINCE project aim?
A. Stay within budget.
B. Meet specified quantity.
C. Deliver on schedule.
D. All of the above.
5. Which of the following could trigger a mid-stage assessment in a PRINCE project?
A. When it is required to start the next stage before the end-stage assessment.
B. Stage tolerance levels have been exceeded.
C. Stage progress check.
D. The first, second and third answers.
6. Which of the following are claimed as advantages of the AON method over the AOA method of network diagram
notation?
A. Most computer software uses the AON approach.
B. AON do not need dummy activities to maintain the relationship logic.
C. AON diagrams have a clearer notation than AOA.
D. The first, second and third answers.
7. Which of the following is especially useful for monitoring project progress against plan?
A. Network diagrams.
B. Capacity loading graphs.
C. Gantt charts.
D. Flow diagrams.
8. Which of the following is not a reason to reduce project completion time?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Eliminate project critical path.

Release resources for other projects.
Reduce new product development time to market.
Gain incentives for early completion.

9. Which of the following are benefits of the network analysis approach?

A. Allows progress to be monitored against plan.
B. Derive error free forecasts.
C. Avoid need to use structured approach.
D. Eliminate need for management judgement.
Answer of Multiple Choice Questions

1. (D)
7. (C)

2. (D)
8 (A)

3. (D)
9 (A)

4. (D)

5. (D)

6. (D)

1. A Gantt chart indicates:

A. elapsed time of different activities on project.
B. activities occurring in parallel.
C. the sequence of activities.
D. overall elapsed time on project.
2. A project can be considered to have failed if it:
A. does not meet the users' requirements.
B. does not meet the business requirements.
C. overran significantly on estimated delivery date.
D. was significantly over budget.
3. The three phases involved in the management of large projects are
A. scheduling, operating, evaluating.
B. scheduling, designing, operating.
C. planning, scheduling, evaluating.
D. planning, scheduling, controlling.
4. With respect to PERT and CPM, slack
A. is a task or subproject that must be completed.
B. is the latest time an activity can be started without delaying the entire project.
C. is the amount of time a task may be delayed without changing the overall project completion time.
D. marks the start or completion of a task.
5. A dummy activity is required when
A. two or more activities have the same ending events.
B. the network contains two or more activities that have identical starting and ending events.
C. two or more activities have different ending events.
D. two or more activities have the same starting events.
6. Which of the following is a basic assumption of PERT?
A. No activity in the network must be repeated.
B. Activity completion times are known with certainty.
C. There is only one complete route from the start of a project to the end of a project.
D. Only critical path activities in the network must be performed.
7. PERT analysis computes the variance of the total project completion time as

A.
B.
C.
D.

the sum of the variances of all activities in the project.

the sum of the variances of all activities on the critical path.
the sum of the variances of all activities not on the critical path.
the variance of the final activity of the project.

8. The critical path of a network is the

A. path with the fewest activities.
B. longest time path through the network.
C. shortest time path through the network.
D. path with the most activities.
9. Which of the following is a direct responsibility of the project manager?
A. Calculating completion probabilities for all tasks in the project.
B. Drawing the network diagram.
C. Making sure that the people assigned to the project receive the motivation, direction, and information
needed to do their jobs.
D. Performing all of the activities in the project.
10. Dummy activities
A. are found in both AOA and AON networks.
B. have a duration equal to the shortest non-dummy activity in the network.
C. cannot be on the critical path.
D. are used when two activities have identical starting and ending events.
Answer of Multiple Choice Questions

1. (C)
7. (B)

2. (B)
8 (B)

3. (D)
9 (C)

4. (C) 5. (B)
10 (D)

6. (A)

1. Which of the following is a limitation of PERT and CPM?

A. They are applicable to only a narrow variety of projects and industries.
B. They can be used only to monitor schedules.
C. The graphical nature of a network delays comprehension of the activity list's interrelationships.
D. There is inherent danger of too much emphasis being placed on the critical path.
2. An activity has an optimistic time of 15 days, a most likely time of 18 days, and a pessimistic time of 27 days.
What is its expected time?
A. 60 days
B. 20 days
C. 18 days
D. 19 days
3. An activity has an optimistic time of 11 days, a most likely time of 15 days, and a pessimistic time of 23 days.
What is its variance?
A. 16.33
B. 15.6
C. 2
D. 4
4. Activities A and B are both 6 days long and the only immediate predecessors to activity C. Activity A has ES=8
and LS=8 and activity B has ES=7 and LS=10. What is the ES of activity C?
A. 14

B. 15
C. 16
D. 13
5. A project's critical path is composed of activities A, B, and C. Activity A has a standard deviation of 2, activity B
has a standard deviation of 1, and activity C has a standard deviation of 2. What is the standard deviation of the
critical path?
A. 25
B. 9
C. 3
D. 5
6. What is the probability that a project with a mean completion time of 23.9 days and a variance of 6 days will be
finished in 26 days?
A. 0.20
B. 0.37
C. 0.63
D. 0.80
7. The EF of an activity is the
A. LF-Activity time.
B. Max{EF of all immediate predecessors}.
C. Min{LS of all immediate following activities}.
D. ES + Activity time.
8. The ethical issue of divulging confidential information to some bidders to give them an unfair advantage is known
as
A. low balling.
B. bid rigging.
C. bribery.
D. expense account padding.
9. Which of the following is not one of the commonly heard comments of project managers?
A. Where did this project come from?
B. Why are we doing this project?
C. How can all these projects be first priority?
D. Why is this project so strongly linked to the strategic plan?
10. Strategy considered to be under purview of senior management is
A. Old school thinking
B. A new school of management thought
C. Necessary in a company structure
D. Beneficial to the Project Manager
Answer of Multiple Choice Questions

1. (D)
7. (D)

2. (D)
8 (B)

3. (D)
9 (D)

4. (A) 5. (C)
10 (A)

6. (D)

1. The intended outcome of strategy/projects integration is

A)
Clear organization focus
B)
Best use of scarce organization resources
C)
Improved communication across projects and departments

D)

A, B, and C are all correct

2. Project managers who do not understand the role that their project plays in accomplishing the organization's
strategy tend to make all the following mistakes except:
A)
Focusing on low priority problems
B)
Overemphasizing technology as an end in and of itself
C)
Focusing on the immediate customer
D)
All the above are likely mistakes
3. The textbook indicated that ________ is the major dimension of strategic management.
A)
Responding to changes in the external market
B)
Allocating scarce resources of the organization
C)
Beating competition to the market
D)
Both a and b are correct
4. Which of the following questions does the organization's mission statement answer?
A)
What are our long-term strategies?
B)
What are our long-term goals and objectives?
C)
How do we operate in the existing environment?
D)
What do we want to become?
5. Strategy formulation includes which of the following activities?
A)
Determining alternatives
B)
Creating profitability targets
C)
Evaluating alternatives
D)
Both a and c are correct
6. The assessment of the external and internal environments is called _______ analysis.
A)
SWOT analysis
B)
Competitive
C)
Industry
D)
Market
E)
Strategic
7. Which of the following is not one of the requirements for successful implementation of strategies through
projects?
A)
Allocation of resources
B)
Prioritizing of projects
C)
Motivation of project contributors
D)
All of these are requirements
8. Susie's department is implementing many projects. She finds herself starting and stopping work on one task to go
and work on another task, and then return to the work on the original task. Susie is experiencing
A)
Poor scheduling
B)
Excess work burden
C)
Flexible tasking
D)
Multitasking
9. Project selection criteria are typically classified as:
A)
Financial and non-financial
B)
Short-term and long-term
C)
Strategic and tactical
D)
Required and optional
10. Which of the following is not one of the classifications for assessing a project portfolio?
A)
Sacred cow

B)
C)
D)
E)

Bread-and-butter
Pearls
Oysters
White elephants

Answer of Multiple Choice Questions

1. (D)
7. (D)

2. (D)
8 (D)

3. (D)
9 (A)

4. (D) 5. (D)
10 (A)

6. (A)

1. For network analysis, activities in a project must satisfy one of the following:
a) They use time and resources only
b) They use time, resources, and structure
c) They take time but are independent of the resources used
d) They can be done at any time.

2. In activity on arrow networks the only reason for using a dummy activity is to make the logic correct.
a) True
b) False

3. Nodes (events) in a network diagram are numbered to satisfy the following:

a) They must be numbered in a strict sequence
b) They are for identification and can be numbered in whichever way you prefer.
c) The head node of an activity must be a greater number than the tail node of the activity
d) The head node of an activity can be a smaller number than the tail node of the activity

4. The shortest time of a project is the time of the path with the longest duration.
a) True
b) False

5. For an activity duration is 5 days and the node at the start has an early start time of 4 days and a latest start time of
5 days. The node at the end has an early start time of 10 days and a latest start time of 11 days. The Total Float is:
a) 0 days
b) 1 day
c) 2 days
d) 5 days

6. The time of an activity in a network can be approximated by which distribution?

a) Normal
b) Chi2
c) Beta
d) Exponential

7. The standard deviation of a path through a network is equal to the sum of the standard deviations for each of the
activities that make up that path.

a) True
b) False

8. The time of activity in a project can be estimated to have a most likely completion time of 7 days, an optimistic
time of 6 days, and a pessimistic time of 9 days. Which of the following is true of the Expected time and the
variance for this activity
a) 0.25 days, 7.17 days
b) 7.33 days, 0.25 days
c) 7.17 days, 0.25 days
d) 3.67 days, 0.25 days

9. When a network is crashed, every activity is reduced to its shortest possible time
a) True
b) False

10. A resource histogram is a bar chart representing the total resources used per time unit, across all resources that
are used in the activities.
a) True
b) False
Answer of Multiple Choice Questions

1. (B)
7. (B)

2. (B)
8 (C)

3. (C)
9 (B)

4. (A)
10 (B)

5. (C)

6. (C)

1. Effective software project management focuses on four P's which are

A)
people, performance, payoff, product
B)
people, product, performance, process
C)
people, product, process, project
D)
people, process, payoff, product
2. Organizations that achieve high levels of maturity in people management have a higher likelihood of
implementing effective software engineering processes.
A)
True
B)
False
3. The first step in project planning is to
A)
determine the budget.
B)
select a team organizational model.
C)
determine the project constraints.
D)
establish the objectives and scope.
4. Process framework activities are populated with
A)
milestones
B)
work products
C)
QA points
D)
All of the above
5. Project management is less important for modern software development since most projects are successful and

completed on time.
A)
True
B)
False
6. Which of the following is not generally considered a player in the software process?
A)
customers
B)
end-users
C)
project managers
D)
sales people
7. The best person to hire as a project team leader is the most competent software engineering practitioner available.
A)
True
B)
False
8. The best project team organizational model to use when tackling extremely complex problems is the
A)
closed paradigm
B)
open paradigm
C)
random paradigm
D)
synchronous paradigm
9. Which factors should be considered in choosing the organizational structure for a software team? (Select all that
apply)
A)
degree of communication desired
B)
predicted size of the resulting program
C)
rigidity of the delivery date
D)
a, b, and c
10. One of the best ways to avoid frustration during the software development process is to
A)
give team members more control over process and technical decisions.
B)
give team members less control over process and technical decisions.
C)
hide bad news from the project team members until things improve.
D)
reward programmers based on their productivity.
11. Which of the following is a common multicriteria selection model?
A)
Checklist
B)
Net Present Value
C)
Weighted criteria model
D)
Both A and C are correct
12. Small agile teams have no place in modern software development.
A)
True
B)
False
13. Which of these software characteristics is not a factor contributing to project coordination difficulties?
A)
interoperability
B)
performance
C)
scale
D)
uncertainty
14. Which of these software characteristics are used to determine the scope of a software project?
A)
context, lines of code, function
B)
context, function, communication requirements
C)
information objectives, function, performance
D)
communications requirements, performance, information objectives
15. The major areas of problem decomposition during the project scoping activity are the

A)
B)
C)
D)

customer workflow
functionality to be delivered
process used to deliver functionality
both b and c

16. Product and process decomposition often occurs simultaneously as the project plan evolves.
A)
True
B)
False
17. When can selected common process framework activities be omitted during process decomposition?
A)
when the project is extremely small in size
B)
any time the software is mission critical
C)
rapid prototyping does not require their use
D)
neverthe activities should always occur
18. How does a software project manager need to act to minimize the risk of software failure?
A)
double the project team size
B)
request a large budget
C)
start on the right foot
D)
both c and d
19. The W5HH principle contains which of the following questions?
A)
Why is the system being developed?
B)
What will be done by whom?
C)
Where are they organizationally located?
D)
a, c, and d
20. Which of these are critical practices for performance-based project management?
A)
assessing product usability
B)
defect tracking against quality targets
C)
empirical cost estimation
D)
b, c, and d
21. Which of the following is the reason(s) why project managers need to understand their organization's mission
and strategy?
A)
To make appropriate decisions and adjustments
B)
To be effective project advocates
C)
To be able to get their job done
D)
Both A and B are correct
22. Which of the following is not true of multi-weighted scoring models?
A)
Will include quantitative criteria
B)
Will include qualitative criteria
C)
Each criterion is assigned a weight
D)
All of the above are true

Answer of Multiple Choice Questions

1. (C)
7. (B)
13(B)
19(D)

2. (A)
8 (B)
14(C)
20(D)

3. (D)
9 (D)
15(D)
21(D)

4. (B) 5. (B)
10 (A) 11(D)
16(A) 17(D)
22(D)

6. (D)
12(B)
18(D)