3rd DENTAL PHARMACOLOGY REVISION(Final 2012)

Endocrine MCQs
1- Which of the following drugs is used for prophylaxis of peptic ulcer associated
with the use of NSAIDs?
A-Misoprostol
B-Dinoprostone
C-Carboprost
D-Alprostadil

2-A 70-year-old man has a history of peptic ulcer disease. He has recently
experienced swelling and inflammation in jaw .His dentist wants to begin therapy
with NSAIDs. Which one of the following drugs might also be prescribed along with the
NSAIDs to reduce the risk of activation this patient's ulcer disease?
A. Misprostol
B. Allopurinol
C . Probencid
D. Sulindac
3-Your patient calls the office complaining that your last prescription has caused
severe diarrhea, which of the following is frequently associated with increased GIT
motility and diarrhea?
A. Corticosteroids
B.Leukotriene LTB4
C.Misoprostol
D.Timolol
4-Which of the following antihistamine is most effective agent in preventing motion
sickness and nausea?
A-Cyclizine
B-Loratadine
C-Terfenadine
D-Desloratidine
5- All the following drugs are used in prophylaxis of migraine headache EXCEPT:A-Aspirin
B--blocker propranolol
C-Tricyclic antidepressant amtriptyline
D-Anticonvulsant divalproex
6-A 43-year-old ship's captain complained of seasonal allergies. Which one of the
following would be indicated?
A-Cyclizine
B-Doxepin
C-Doxylamine
D-Fexofenadine

7- The pharmacological category of loratidine is:

A. Antiarrhythmic.
B. Histamine and serotonin antagonist.
0. H2 antagonist (H2 blocker).
C. Non-sedating antihistamine (H1 Blocker).
8- Sumatriptan succinate is effective for the treatment of acute migraine headaches by acting
as:A. An antagonist at 1 and 2 adrenergic receptors.
B. A selective antagonist at histamine (H1) receptors.
C. A selective agonist at 5-hydroxytryptamine 1D (5HT1D) receptors.
D. An inhibitor of prostacyclin synthase.
9- All of the following statements about glucocorticoids are correct EXCEPT:
A. They may produce peptic ulcers.
B. They are useful in the treatment of refractory asthma.
C. They are contraindicated in glaucoma.
D. They exert their effect by binding to receptors in the cell membrane.
10- Side effects of systemic glucocorticoid use can include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Loss of bone and muscle tissue.
B. Renal failure.
C. Hyperglycemia and sometimes diabetes.
D. Increased susceptibility to infections.
11- Chronic treatment with large doses of prednisolone may result of the following
EXCEPT:A-Reduction of endogenous secretion of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH).
B-Increase the susceptibility to infections.
C-Hyperglycemia.
D-Increased bone density.

12- Corticosteroid therapy is practically mandatory in the following condition:A-Septic shock.

B-Renal transplant.
C-Rheumatoid arthritis.
D- Exfoliative dermatitis.
13- Corticosteroids exert anti-inflammatory action by inhibiting the following enzyme:
A-Cyclooxygenase.
B-Lipoxygenase.
C-Phosopholipase A2.
D-Phosphodiasterase.
14- All the followings are inhibitors of adrenocorticoid biosynthesis or function
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EXCEPT?
A. Ketoconazole
B.Eplerenone
C.Spironolactone
D.Methimazole
15- Long acting insulin preparation has fatty acid side chain which enhances
association to albumin is:
A.
Glargine.
B.
Detemir.
C.
Lispro.
D.
Neutral protamine Hagedorn.
16- Which of the following hypoglycemic drug is DPP-IV inhibitor?
A. Acarbose.
B. Miglitol.
C. Sitagliptin.
D. Pioglitazone.
17- The main side effect of sitagliptin is:
A. Diarrhea.
B. GET disturbances.
C. Abdominal cramping.
D. Nasopharyngitis and headache
18- Which of the following is true concerning the oral hypoglycemic agent acarbose?
A. It inhibits -glucosidase in the intestinal brush border.
B. It stimulates insulin release from pancreatic f3- cells.
C. It increases insulin actions in peripheral tissues.
D. It can cause hypoglycemia.
19- 64-year-old woman with a history of type 2 diabetes is diagnosed with
heart failure. Which of the following drugs would be a poor choice in
controlling her diabetes?
A. Pioglitazone.
B. Glipizide.
C. Glyburide.
D. Exenatide.
20- 60-year-old diabetic male is treated with pioglitazone. What is the mechanism of
action of pioglitazone?
A. increases release of endogenous insulin.
B. Increases target tissue sensitivity to insulin.
C. Decreases intestinal absorption of glucose.
D. Inhibition of the peroxisome proliferative-activated receptor-gamma nuclear
receptor ( PPAR-v ).
21- Which of the following statements is true for therapy with insulin glargine?
A-It is primarily used to control post-prandial hyperglycemia.
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B-it should not be combined with any other insulin.

C-Pharmcokinetically, there is no peak activity and the activity lasts about 24 hours.
D-It is effective by inhalation.
22- Diabetic ketoacidosis coma should be treated initially by intravenous or
intramuscular injection of:
A-Isophane insulin suspension
B-Regular Insulin
C-Ultralente insulin
D-Insulin zinc suspension
23- Hyperthyroidism can be treated by all of the following EXCEPT?
A. Surgical removal of the thyroid gland.
B. Iodide.
C. Triiodothyronine.
D. Propylthiouracil.
24- Which of the following best describes the effect of propylthiouracil on thyroid
hormone production?
A. It blocks release of thyrotropin-releasing hormone.
B. It blocks the release of hormones from thyroid glands.
C. It blocks iodination and coupling of tyrosines in thyroglobulin to form thyroid hormones.
D. It prevents the release of thyroid hormone from thyroglobulin.
25- Propylthiouracil has the same therapeutic indication as:
A. Methoxamine.
B. Methimazole.
C. Omeprazole.
D. Azathoprine.
26-Though rare, a serious toxicity associated with the thioamides is:A.Agranulocytosis
B.Myopathy
C.Thrombotic thrombocytic purpura
D.Lupus erythematous-like syndrome
27- All of the following drugs used in thyroid storm EXCEPT:
A-Propranolol.
B-Propylthiouracil.
C-Iodide.
D-Tacrine.
28- Some patients who are taking high doses of a bisphosphonate for paget's
disease of the bone develop an endocrine-metabolic disorder. Which of the
following is the most likely disorder?
A-Hyperparathyrodism
B-Hyperthyrodism
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C-Diabetes mellitus
D-Cushing's disease
29-A 58-year-old male has been effectively treated for Paget disease for
approximately 6 months. He is now beginning to experience renewed bone pain and
radiologic evidence of advancing disease. Which of the following drugs is most likely
resulted in this failure?
A.Alendronate
B.Calcitonin
C.Dihydrotachysterol
D.Raloxifene
30- A 67 year old man with chronic kidney disease was found to have an elevated serum
PTH and a low conc. of 25- hydroxy-vitamin D. The most likely drug used in treatment is:
A.
Calcitriol.
B.
Cholecalciferol.
C.
Furosemide.
D.
Gallium nitrate.
31- X-ray of a 58 year postmenopausal woman revealed low bone mineral density.
Which one of the following is a peptide hormone that prevents bone resorption and is
available as a nasal spray?
A. Calcitonin.
B. Calcitriol.
C. Cinacalcer.
D. Cortisol.
Choose from the following for questions 32,33,34
A- Heparin.
B-Mifepristone
C-Propylthiouracil.
D-Ketoconazole.
E. Warfarin.
32-Has the same therapeutic potential as Methimazole. (C)
33-An adrenocorticoid biosynthesis inhibitors. (D)
34- Competitive antagonist at corticosteroids receptors (B)

Anticancer Drugs
1- Which of the following anticancer drugs can be used for the treatment of brain
tumors?
A-Lomustine
B-Busulfan
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C-5-FU D-Adriamycin
2- Gembertizian equation is the relation between :
A-Number of cells and the time.
B-Tumor mass and sensitivity to anticancer drugs.
C-Slowly proliferating and rapidely proliferating cells.
D-Cell cycle specific and cell cycle non specific drugs.
3- Paclitaxel is an anticancer drug which is active at:
A-G1 phase.
B-S-Phase.
C-GO phase.
D-G2/M phase.
4- Which of the following classes of anticancer drugs is cell cycle non-specific?
A. Antimetabolites.
B. Alkylating agents.
C. Bleomycin peptide antibiotics.
D. Plant alkaloids.
5- 6-MP acts by inhibition of:
A-Dihydrofolate reductase.
B-Topoisomerase I.
C-Adenyl succinase and inosine monophosphate dehgydrogenase.
D-Topoisomerase II.
6- Which of the following anticancer drugs is tyrosine kinase inhibitor?
A-Imatinib
B-Methotrexate
C-Cyclophosphamide
D- Gemcitabine

7-A patient undergoing cancer chemotherapy is vomiting frequently. A drug that might
help in this situation is
A.Bromocriptine
B.Cimetidine
C.Loratidine
D.Ondansertron

CNS MCQs
1- With increasing concentrations of local anesthetic, the order of blocking effect is:
A-Pain fibers------sensory fibers----motor fibers
B-Sensory fibers ----pain fibers----motor fibers
C-Pain fibers --- motor fibers--sensory fibers
D-Sensory fibers----motor fibers ----pain fibers

2- Which of the following local anesthetics is useful for topical ( surface )

administration only?
A-Procaine
B-Bupivacaine
C-Benzocaine
D-Lidocaine
3- A child requires multiple minor procedures in the nasopharynx.Which of the
following drugs has high surface activity and vasoconstrictor action that reduce
bleeding in mucous membranes?
A-Lodocaine
B-Procaine
C-Cocaine
D-Bupivacaine
4- Which of the following drugs can cause methemoglobinemia when used in larger
doses for regional anesthesia?
A.
Cocaine.
B.
Lidocaine
C.
Bupivacaine
D.
Prilocaine.

Choose from the following for questions 5,6,7

A. Cocaine.
B. Bupivacaine.
C. Procaine.
D. Prilocaine.

5- Local anesthetic having high cardiotoxic and arrhythmogenic potential. (B)

6- Local anesthetic has high surface activity and vasoconstrictor actions that reduce bleeding in mucous
membrane. (A)
7- Local anesthetic that cannot be used topically. (C)
8-Halogenated anesthetics may produce malignant hyperthermia in:
A-Patients with poor renal function
B-Patients allergic to the anesthetics
C-Pregnant women
D-Patients with a genetic defect and receiving succinlycholine
9-Which of the following is a potent analgesic but a weak anesthetic?
A-Methoxuflurane
B-Succinylcholine
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C-Diazepam
D-Nitrous oxide
10-Barbiturates exert the following actions EXCEPT:
A-Anticonvulsant
B-Analgesic
C-Antianxiety
D-Respiratory depressant

11- Which of the following statements concerning nitrous oxide is accurate?

A. It is a useful component of anesthesia protocols because of its lack of cardiovascular
depression.
B. Megaloplastic anemia is a common adverse effect in patients exposed to nitrous oxide
for periods longer than 2 hours.
C. It is the most potent of inhaled anesthetics.
D. There is a direct association between the use of nitrous oxide and malignant
hyperthermia.
12- An intravenous bolus dose of thiopental usually leads to loss of consciousness within
10-15 s. If no further drugs are administered, the patients will regain consciousness in just a
few minutes. This is because thiopental is:
A. A good substrate for renal tubular secretion.
B. Exhaled rapidly.
C. Rapidly metabolized by hepatic enzymes.
D. Redistributed from brain to other body tissues.

13- Which statement concerning anesthetic MAC value is accurate?

A. MAC values decrease in elderly patients
B. Simultaneous use of opioid analgesics increases the MAC for inhaled anesthetics
C. Nitrous oxide has an extremely low MAC value
D. MAC give information about the slope of dose response curve

14- Propofol in comparison to thiopental sodium:

A.
Cannot be used for induction of anesthesia
B.
Has a longer elimination half-life
C.
Is not accompanied by postoperative vomiting
D.
Can cause muscle rigidity

15- Benzodiazepines differ from barbiturates in those benzodiazepines

A. Facilitate the action of gama-aminobutyric acid (GABA) on neuronal chloride
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channels.
B, Have anticonvulsant activity
A. May induce physical dependence
B. Have a higher margin of safety than barbiturates.
16- Benzodiazepines anxiolytic and hypnotic effects are mediated through:
A.
GABA A receptor block
B.
GABA A receptor stimulation
C.
Potentiate GABA action on GABA A receptors
D.
Benzodiazepine receptor block
17-Tolerance does not develop to which of the following action of morphine?
A. Constipation. (OR Miosis)
B. Euphoria.
C. Nausea and vomiting.
D. Sedation.

18- Opioid analgesics are contraindicated in all the following clinical conditions Except:
C. Adrenal insufficiency.
D. Biliary tract surgery.
C, Hypothyroidism.
D. Pulmonary edema.

19- A patient known to be a heroin addict comes to the ER with a painful stab wound.
The ER resident administers pentazocine for the pain. Why is this not a good idea?
A.
The patient is probably tolerant to pentazocine
B.
The drug may precipitate a withdrawal state
C.
Pentazocine is a weaker analgesic than codeine
D.
Pentazocine is a strong u receptor agonist

20-You are on your way to take an examination in pharmacology course and you
suddenly get an attack of diarrehea.If you stop at a nearly drugstore for an over-the
counter opioid with antidiarheal action, you will be asking for
A. Dextromethorphan
B.Codeine
C.Fentanyl
D.Loperamide

21-Which drug does not activate opioid receptors, has been proposed as a
maintenance drug treatment in treatment programs for opioid addicts, And, with a
single oral dose will block the effects of injected heroin for up to 48 hours?
A.Amphetamine
B.Buprenorphine
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C.Naltrexone
D.Propoxyphene
22- Manifestations of acute salicylate intoxication include all of the following EXCEPT:
A.
Hyperthermia
B.
Hyperventilation
C.
Hypertension
D.
Convulsions
23-Which of the following statements concerning COX-2 inhibitors is correct?
A.
The COX-2 inhibitors showed greater analgesics activity than traditional NSAIDs
B.
The COX-2 inhibitors decrease platelet function
C.
The COX-2 inhibitors do not affect kidney
D. The COX-2 inhibitors show anti-inflammatory activity similar to that of the traditional
NSAIDs.

Chemotherapy
1- A 70-year-old alcoholic male with poor dental hygiene is to have his remaining
teeth extracted for subsequent dentures. He has mitral valve stenosis with mild cardiac
insufficiency. The dentist decides that his medical history warrants prophylactic
antibiotic therapy prior to the procedure and prescribes:
A. Amoxicillin.
B. Penicillin V.
C. Tetracycline.
D. Co-trimoxazole.
2- In a patient who has an established hypersensitivity to metronidazole, the most
appropriate drug to use for the management of pseudomembranous colitis is
A. Ampicillin.
B. Clindamycin.
C. Doxycycline.
D. Vancomycin.
3- An HIV positive woman is diagnosed with CMV retinitis. She has been on
HAART regimen containing zidovudine . Which of the following anti CMV drugs is
likely to cause additive myelosuppression with zidovudine ?
A. Acyclovir.
B. Ganciclovir.
C. Amantadine
D. Foscarnet.
Choose from the following for questions 4,5,6
A.Methicillin
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Enfuveritide
D.Penicillin

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4- Its most important adverse effect of the drug is bone marrow toxicity. (B)
5-Effective in treatment of infections caused by penicillinase-producing staphylococci. (A)
6- An antiretroviral drugs used in the treatment of HIV infection by blocking the fusion of host
and HIV membrane. (C)
Choose from the following for questions 7,8,9
A. Vancomycin
B.Cefotetan
C. Imipenem
D.Bacitracin
7-It is combined with cilastatin, an inhibitor of the enzyme dehydropeptidase. (C)
8-A drug, its administration is associated with a higher incidence of bleeding. (B)
9-Used prophylactically in dental patient with prosthetic heart valves. (A)
Choose from the following for questions 10,11,12
A.Chloramphenicol
B.Bacitracin
C.Amantadine
D.Clavulanic acid
10-Used prophylactically against influenza A is thought to act by Preventing uncoating of viral
DNA . (C)
11-A -lactamase inhibitor used in combination with amoxicillin to treat infections caused by
- lactamase producing bacteria. (D)
12-May cause grey syndrome in neonates. (A)
13-Oseltamivir and zanamivir are available for treatment of infections due to influenza A
and B. The mechanism of their antiviral action is inhibition of
A. RNA polymerase.
B. Reverse transcriptase.
C. Thymidine kinase.
D. Neuraminidase
14-An AIDS patient who is being treated with multiple drugs, including AZT,
lamivudine, indinavir, TMP-SMX, develops breast hypertyrophy, central adiposity,
hypaerlipidemia, insulin resistance, and nephrolithiasis. If these changes are related
to his drug treatment, the most likely cause is
A. Azidothymidine.
B. Indinavir.
C. lamivudine,
D. Sulfamethoxazole.
15- A patient is to undergo insertion of a hip prosthesis. To avoid postoperative
infection with methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus which is the following
antibiotic the surgeon should select?
A. Ampicillin.
B. Imipenim / cilastatin.
C. Gentamycin / piperacillin.
D. Vancomycin.
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16- Tetracyclines can cause all the following Except :

A. Hepatitis..
B. Peripheral neuritis.
C. Photosensetization.
D. Superinfection with yeast and moulds.
E. Dental and bone hypoplasia in children.
17- A 22- year old male developed an athlete's foot. Upon examination, the nail beds
of both great toes were infected. Which one of the following antifungal agents
would be most appropriate for this patient ?
A. Caspofungin.
B. Fluconazole.
C. Amphotericin B..
D. Terbinafine.

Cardiovascular
1-A 64-year-old woman has had episodes if transient ischemic attacks. Aspirin would be
a preferred treatment, but she has a history of severe aspirin sensitivity manifest as
intense bronchoconstriction. What would be a suitable alternative to the aspirin?
A-Streptokinase
B-Dipyridamole
C-Clopidogrel
D-Aminocaproic acid
2-All of the following statements regarding the use of warfarin are correct EXCEPT:
A-The main adverse effect of Warfarin is bleeding
B-Warfarin action involves inhibition of the synthesis of prothrombin and factors VII,IX, and
X
C-Warfarin does not across the placental barrier
D-Warfarin anticoagulant action can be antagonized by Phenobarbital

3-Excessive bleeding from heparin overdose can be treated with

A-Streptokinase
B-Protamine sulfate
C-Aspirin
D-Aminocaproic acid
4- The most appropriate drug for parenteral administration to treat deep venous thrombosis is:
A.
Clopidogrel.
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B.
C.
D.

Heparin.
Lepirudin.
Ticlopidine.

5- The mechanism of action of alteplase is:

AActivation of plaminogen to plasmin.
BInhibition of the synthesis of vitamin K-dependant coagulation factors.
CGlycoprotein lib/Illa receptors antagonist.
DAntagonism of ADP receptor.
6- Tranexamic acid is a specific antidote of:
A-Fibrinolyic drugs.
B-Organophosphates.
C-Barbiturates.
D-Enalapril.
A 65-year-old man is brought to the emergency department 30 min after the onset of
right-sided weakness and aphasia (difficulty of speaking),Imaging studies ruled out
cerebral embolism as the cause of his acute symptoms of stroke.
7-Prompt administration of which of the following drugs is most likely to improve
this patient's clinical outcome?
A.Abciximab
B.Alteplase
C.Factor VIII
D. Streptokinase
8-Over the next days, the patient's symptoms resolved completely. To prevent a
recurrence of this disease, the patient is most likely to be treated indefinitely with
A. Aminocaproic acid
B. Aspirin
C. Warfarin
D. Lepirudin
9-If the patient is unable to tolerate the drug identified in question 88, he may be
treated with clopidogrel. Relative to ticlopidine , clopidogril
A. Has a shorter duration of action
B. Is less likely to cause neutropenia
C. Is more likely to induce antiplatlet antibodies
D. Will have a greater anti-platelet effect

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