CSAT Paper 2

Crack Set 1 with Detailed Solutions

Instructions

1.

Ma x. Ma rks : 2 0 0

Time : 2 Hrs

This set contains 80 questions. Each question comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response
which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case, if you feel that the correct response is more than one, then mark
the response, which you consider the best. In any case, choose only one response for each question.

2. All questions carry equal marks.

3. Penalty for wrong answers There will be penalty for wrong answers marked by the candidate except for questions
from 75 to 80, which do not carry any penalty for wrong answer.
(i) There are four alternatives to answer every question. If a question is marked wrong, one-third of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be
correct and there will be same penalty as to that question, if it has a penalty.

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-8) Read the following two passages and answer the questions that follow each passage.
Your answers to these questions should be based on the passages only.

Passage 1
Confronted by signs of economic vulnerability, Indias economic policy maker are blaming poor performance
on inadequate reform. Measures to appear and attract foreign capital are being advocated and announced as
a solution to the countrys problems. This ignores the evidence that the major policy shifts over the past two
decades have fundamentally altered the economic environment, making neoliberal reform a possible
explanation and not solution for the current mess. A recent example of such evidence is the preliminary
results of survey on foreign collaboration in Indian Industry.
The survey underlines how Indias balance of payments vulnerability is not the result of absent or inadequate
liberalisation of rules and regulations governing foreign investment, but occurs despite the dismantling of
regulations and the liberalisation of rules.
In fact, among the most dramatic shifts in the governments policy stance since the 1980s has been its
attitude, towards foreign collaboration in manufacturing and services. In the immediate post independence

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CSAT Paper 2

period, policy was influenced by the view warranted by Indias colonial experience that political freedom can
be meaningful only if it is backed by freedom from foreign capital. That experience suggested that policy
favouring foreign capital partly explained Indias related development.
Hence, successful development was seen as predicated on reduced dependence on foreign capital and
technology or an effort to pursue self-reliant growth.

1. According to the outcomes of survey on foreign collaboration in Indian Industry, which of the following is
real?
I.
II.
III.
IV.

Indias balance of payments vulnerability is the reason for making foreign capital reluctant to enter India.
Absence of liberalisation rules and regulations cause foreign capital to not to enter India.
Still occurs even after liberalising rules and regulations.
Both, absent of liberal rules and balance of payments are the reason.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) II and III
(c) I and III

(b) III and IV

(d) I and IV

2. According to the passage, successful development depends on

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

attracting more foreign capital into India

independence from foreign capital and technology and achieving self-reliance
foreign collaboration in manufacturing and services
political freedom backed by foreign capital

3. Since 1980s the government is trying to shift the policy from

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

foreign collaboration in manufacturing and services to political freedom

political freedom to get reduced dependence on foreign capital
foreign investment in India
Both (a) and (b)

4. The main idea of the passage is to explain the

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

unwillingness of foreign companies to invest in India

Balance of payments are vulnerable, causing foreign capital to stay away from India
Both (a) and (b)
None of the above

Passage 2
Sound is a form of energy which produces the sensation of hearing in our ears. Sound is produced by vibrating
objects. When an object vibrates, it sets the particles of the medium around it vibrating. The particles do not
travel all the way from the vibrating object to the ear. A particle of the medium in contact with the vibrating
object is first displaced from its equilibrium position. It then exerts a force on the adjacent particle. As a result
of which the adjacent particle get displaced from its position at rest. After displacing, the particle comes back to
its original position. This process continues in the medium till the sound reaches our ear.
Sound waves need a material medium like air, water or metal etc, for their propagation. Speed of sound in
different media is different. The speed of sound in a medium depends primarily on the nature and
temperature of the medium.

5. The main crust of the passage is to make emphasis on

(a) sound
(c) sound as energy

6. As the passage says sound is produced when

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

an object produce vibration

particles around an object vibrates
there is a sensation in the ear
a particle come around the medium

(b) noise pollution

(d) sound as force

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CSAT Paper 2 Crack Set 1 765

7. Among the following statements which is true in accordance with the passage.
I. The sound doesnt directly reach our ear.
II. The adjacent particle of the medium gets displaced and comes to original place after vibration before reaching
our ear.
III. The sound directly reach our ears through a medium.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) Only III

(b) I and II

(c) II and III

(d) I and III

8. Speed of the sound is

(a) different in different medium
(c) All of these

(b) same in all the medium

(d) None of these

Direction (Q. No. 9) The question given below contains a small passage followed by a question on it. Read the
passage carefully and answer the question given below it.
My folks are always telling me to sit at far from the TV set; they say my eyes will go bad, if I sit too close to the screen. Our
TV is an older set with one of those tubes and I read that the refresh rate on older TVs is the part that eyes have trouble in
focusing on, that is why computer screens on TV are always so hard to see. Flat-panel plasma TVs do not have that
problem, since they have much higher resolution and refresh much faster, so instead of always sitting back so far, buying a
flat-panel plasma TV will take care of many focus issues my eyes might have.

9. Which of the following best states the flaw in this arguments reasoning?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Refresh rates do not have an effect on the ability to read an image

Simply moving back from the TV is a simpler and less expensive solution
Flat-panel plasma TVs have a similar effect on the eyes, despite their higher performance standards
The teenager does not have any vision issues

10. A water tank of the dimensions as 22 m 10 m 7 m. A pipe of radius 7 cm is connected to it. If water is
flowing through the pipe at the rate of 100 m/min, the tank will be completely filled by the pipe (in min).
(a) 500

(b) 1000

(c) 800

(d) 1200

11. In a party, both rasgullas and laddoos were served in the dinner. Some people took only laddoos while some
people took only rasgullas. But there are some diabetic people who did not take either. The rest took both
rasgullas and laddoos. Which of the following logic diagrams correctly reflects this situation?
( a)

( b)

( c)

( d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 12-15) Examine the information and answer the questions that follow.
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are seated in two rows with four persons in each row. Also, each person in any row
faces exactly one person in the other row. Also,
I. A is to the immediate left of the person, who is opposite to F.
II. E is in the same row as B and one of them is opposite to G, who is not at the end.
III. There is only one person to the left of H, who is not in the same row as C.
IV. D is not opposite to E.
V. E is between C and A.

12. Who are the other three persons in the same row as H?
(a) A, G and F

(b) D, G and F

(c) E, D and G

(d) D, A and C

13. Who among the following are diagonally opposite to each other?
(a) A and H

(b) F and B

(c) D and B

(d) E and G

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14. Who is the person between H and D?

(a) E

(b) F

(c) A

(d) G

15. If the positions of E and B are interchanged, then who is opposite to E?

(a) A

(b) G

(c) F

(d) B

Directions (Q. Nos. 16-17) Answer the questions based on the information given below.
Prakash , Pratap, Praveen and Pranay are either a painter, actor, writer or author, not necessarily in that order. At that
moment, each one of them is carrying a certain item i.e. Pen, Glasses, Coat and Hat. No two of them share the same
profession or carry the same item.
Following information is also known about them.
1. The author is carrying glasses.
2. Praveen is not a painter but is carrying a pen.
3. Parnay is a writer but is not carrying a hat.
4. Prakash is neither a painter nor an actor.

16. Who is carrying a hat?

(a) Prakash

(b) Praveen

(c) Pranay

(d) Pratap

17. Which of the following is the right combination?

(a) Praveen-Actor-Glasses
(c) Pranay-Writer-Coat

(b) Pratap-Author-Glasses
(d) Prakash-Painter-Hat

Directions (Q. Nos. 18-21) Answer the questions based on the information given below.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are 8 people sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. They are seated according to the
following rules
1. E is three positions to the left of A.
2. E is equidistant from A and D.
3. D is two positions to the left of H.
4. G is farthest from E.
5. F and E are adjacent to C.

18. How many places to the right of A is E sitting?

(a) 4

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 5

(c) D

(d) F

(c) E and A

(d) A and C

19. Who is sitting opposite to B?

(a) A

(b) C

20. Who are the immediate neighbours of F?

(a) A and B

(b) C and F

21. The distance between which of the following pairs in the arrangement is the same as the distance between
them in the English alphabet?
(a) F and G

(b) C and H

(c) A and C

(d) B and D

Directions (Q. Nos. 22-23) Answer the questions based on the information given below.
There are 5 students in a class, Yogesh, Nilesh, Rajesh, Himesh and Suresh. Suresh is 5 months older than Himesh. Nilesh is
7 months younger to Yogesh and 9 months older to Rajesh . When Himesh was born Nilesh was 1.5 yr old.

22. Who is the second youngest among the six?

(a) Suresh
(c) Rajesh

(b) Himesh
(d) Nilesh

23. By how many months is Rajesh older than Suresh?

(a) 9
(c) 6

(b) 4
(d) 5

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CSAT Paper 2

CSAT Paper 2 Crack Set 1 767

Directions (Q. Nos. 24-27) Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow the passage. Your
answers to these questions should be based on the passage only.

Passage 1
Greenery is the easiest and most affordable way of enlivening the decor! Houseplants are commonly grown for
decorative and health reasons such as indoor air purification. The most important factors in growing healthy
houseplants are light, water, fertilizer, temperature, humidity and air circulation. Choosing the right place to
keep your plants ensures that they blend well into your house. If youre not keen on making drastic changes,
opt for window gardening. They not only give a new dimension to interior decoration but also draw attention
to the architectural details of your building. However, choosing proper hanging plants requires an extra
degree of precision and information that many amateur decorators may not have. The next step is to decide
how many plants you need to arrange, so that you achieve a proper decorative balance. Use plants to
highlight and accent the various attractive facets of your home. A green house is more than just aesthetically
appealing. The air of your home will be fresh and scented; plants provide relief for the eyes and can refresh
the atmosphere, leaving you calmer and more relaxed. Artificial varieties are no match for the real thing.
Real plants are far more charming and aesthetically appealing. Incorporating a green theme into your home
is a great way to unite artistic and utilitarian values of design.

24. Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
I.
II.
III.
IV.

Interior decoration.
A green office.
Green theme for your home.
Gardening outside your home.

(a) II and III

(b) III and IV

(c) Only III

(d) Only IV

25. The passage talks about all of the following except

(a) balcony decoration

(b)

terrace decoration

(c) window gardening

(d)

decorating the sit-outs

26. The author feels that the introduction of greenery into the home is both
(a) ornate and cumbersome
(c) imaginative and functional

(b)
lengthy and complex
(d) mechanical and essential

27. All of the following is mentioned by the author as potential benefits of a green home except
(a) an attractive house
(c) air freshness

(b)
functional design
(d) cooler house temperatures

28. In the figure given below, right angle mirrors produce three images of objects. Which of the following
statements is not true about the middle image?
M1

Object
Eye

I1

I2

M2

I3

(a) The middle image is the same size as the object

(b) The middle image is at the same distance from the mirror as the object
(c) The middle image will exhibit left-right reversal relative to the object

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(d) The middle image is an upright image

29. Which one will replace the question mark?

1
2

10

8
4

17

(a) 10

9
5

(b) 20

(c) 30

(d) 5

30. Where should the minute hand point to on the bottom clock?

(a) 5

(b) 6

(c) 7

(d) 8

31. There are 3 friends A, B and C having some mangoes. A gives B and C as many mangoes as they already
have. After some days, B gives A and C as many mangoes as they have. After some days C gives A and B as
many mangoes as they have.
Finally each has 24 mangoes. What is the original number of mangoes each had in the beginning?
(a) A-29, B-21, C-12

(b) A-39, B-21, C-12

(c) A-21, B-12, C-29

(d) A-21, B-12, C-39

Directions (Q. Nos. 32-33) Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow the passage. Your
answers to these questions should be based on the passage only.

Passage 1
Now, it is clear that the decline of a language must ultimately have political and economic causes; it is not
due simply to the bad influence of this or that individual writer. But an effect can become a cause, reinforcing
the original cause and producing the same effect in an intensified form and so on indefinitely. A man may
take to drink because he feels himself to be a failure and then fail all the more completely because he drinks.
It is rather the same thing that is happening to the Hindi language. It becomes ugly and inaccurate because
our thoughts are foolish but the slovenliness of our language makes it easier for us to have foolish thoughts.

32. The example of the man who takes to drink is used to illustrate which of the following ideas in the
paragraph?
(a) foolish thoughts
(c) political and economic causes

(b) the slovenliness of language

(d) an effect becoming a cause

33. What are the causes for the decline of the Hindi language?
I.
II.
III.
IV.

Political causes.
Economic causes.
Bad influence of writers.
Slovenliness of language used by people.

(a) I and II

(b) I, II and III

(c) I, II and IV

(d) I, II, III and IV

34. In how many ways, can we arrange 15 Mathematics books and 13 English books in a row on a shelf, so that 2
books on English may not be together?

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(a) 1

CSAT Paper 2 Crack Set 1 769

(b) 280

(c) 1120

(d) 560

35. Sum of a number and its reciprocal is 130/16. The product of the number with its square root is
(a) 8

(b) 64

(c) 16

(d) 16 2

36. Which of the following numbers will completely divide (9 35 - 1 )?

(a) 4

(b) 14

(c) 48

(d) 50

Directions (Q. Nos. 37-38) Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow the passage. Your
answers to these questions should be based on the passage only.

Passage 1
A new hearing device is now available for some hearing-impaired people. This device uses a magnet to hold
the detachable sound-processing portion in place. Like other aids, it converts sound into vibrations but it is
unique in that it can transmit the vibrations directly to the magnet and then to the inner ear. This produces a
clearer sound. The new device will not help all hearing-impaired people, but only those with a hearing loss
caused by infection or some other problem in the middle ear. It will probably help not more than 20% of all
people with hearing problems. Those people who have persistent ear infections, however should find relief
and restored hearing with the new device.

37. What is the authors main purpose?

(a) To describe a new cure for ear infections (b) To inform the reader about a new device
(c) To urge doctors to use a new device
(d) To explain the use of a magnet

38. Which of the following is/are correct regarding the new hearing device?
I. It is useful for all hearing- impaired persons.
II. It produces a clearer sound.
III. It can transmit the vibrations directly to the magnet.

Select the correct answer according to the following codes

(a) I and II

(b) II and III

(c) I and III

(d) I, II and III

39. The probability that Udit can solve a problem is 1/3. If he is given 4 problems, what is the probability that he
solves atleast 1 problem?
(a) 14/81

(b) 16/81

(c) 65/81

(d) 2/15

40. In order to increase business, a shopkeeper decreases prices of his goods by 30% and as a result, his sales
increased by 60%. His net increase/ decrease in business (in %) is
(a) 15

(b) 12

(c) 4.8

(d) 6

41. A wooden box has the external dimensions as 10 cm 5 cm 8 cm. If the box is 1 cm thick from all sides, the
volume of wood used (in cm 3 ) is
(a) 74

(b) 296

(c) 148

(d) 120

42. Examine the following three figures in which the numbers follow a specific pattern
2

3 210 7 4 120 3
5

12

The missing number (?) in the third figure above is

(a) 50

(b) 1000

(c) 1944

(d) 866

43. A cube has six numbers marked 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 on its faces. Three views of the cube are shown below.

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5

1
4

4
4

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B
A

What possible numbers can exist on the two focus marked (A) and (B), respectively on the cube?
(a) 3 and 4

(b) 2 and 4

(c) 3 and 6

(d) 6 and 1

44. How many numbers are there between 100 and 1000 which has exactly 1 digit as 6?
(a) 225

(b) 144

(c) 153

(d) 240

45. A car covers a distance of 200 km in 5 h and when it returns it covers the same distance in 8 h. Find the ratio
of the speed of the car in both the directions.
(a) 5 : 8

(b) 8 : 5

(c) 3 : 5

(d) 5 : 3

Directions (Q. Nos. 46-52) Read the following two passages and answer the questions that follow each passage.
Your answers to these questions should be based on the passages only.

Passage 1
A week earlier, Chris had been cut from Tantra Academys football team, which was Jangbaazs chief rival, for
skipping class. At that point he decided to help the team gain a Psychological edge of it. So, he hatched a plan
to kidnap Jangbaazs precious Jaguar. He arrived at the school at 5:30 am on Saturday of the big game and
entered the Main Hall of the Jangbaaz campus. He carried with him tools that would aid in the theft of the
effigy, such as screwdrivers, a crowbar, duct tape and paper clips for picking locks. After scraping the
Jaguars head on the ground for the first 50 metre of his escape route, Chris put his skateboard to use and
wheeled the thing, the rest of the way. Fortunately, he was able to disappear from the vicinity of the building
before the security guard arrived on the scene. His father, who had been keeping track of Chris mysterious
disappearances and who was not stranger to mischief himself or to hate Jangbaaz football, had an
extraordinary sense of insight when it came to his son. He pulled his pickup truck out of the shadows and
into his sons path, waving frantically at his son. The sight of his father at the apex of what Chris considered
to be his most grievous offence nearly jolted Chriss arms from his body. When it dawned upon him that his
father was actually attempting to help him, a strange new feeling swept over him, something that as a
lifelong, committed miscreant he had only rarely felt.

46. According to the passage, Chris was not planning to play in the big game against Jangbaaz because
I.
II.
III.
IV.

he was not a good enough player to play in the game.

he had already committed to a family engagement.
his spot on the team had been taken by a better player.
he had been cut from the team for skipping class.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) I and II

(b) Only III

(c) III and IV

(d) Only IV

47. In the passage, Chris had in his possession all of the following tools at one point in time except
(a) crowbar

(b) screwdrivers

(c) duct tape

(d) keys

48. It is implied in the passage that Chris

(a) has been acting strange for a few weeks (b) has always been a troublemaker
(c) is not a very good football player
(d) plays quarterback

49. The tone of this passage is

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(a) narrative

CSAT Paper 2 Crack Set 1 771

(b) expository

(c) persuasive

(d) argumentative

50. The use of the phrase Jolted Chriss arms from his body is an example of
(a) hyperbole

(b) sarcasm

(c) irony

(d) simile

Passage 2
When we about to visit Karade Malai, we were imaging a forest full of bears, standing on two feet, walking
towards us and baring its teeth and nails. We drive until we see karadi Malai camp sign etched on a wooden
plank. The gates open and we hear a grow. It seems to be getting closer and suddenly, the smallest of puppies
rushes out wagging its tail.
Here we are, says the wildlife conservationist, as we pass a row of three cottages. The cottages are made of
Andaman Bamboo and the rooms have beds with mosquito nets, cupboard, washroom and a table.
The area is teeming with birds and butterflies, plenty of scorpions and snakes, Russells Vipers, common
Kraits, rat, snakes and so many owls. It is a paradise for birdwatchers; there are spotted owlets, paradise fly
catches, pitta, brain fever birds, woodpeckers, sumbirds and atleast three types of bulbuls.
So, where are the Karadis (bears) of the Malai (hill)? I asked. The reply came oh, there arent any. We lost
our dog Karadi to the Leopards and hence the name.

51. The writer in the passage is going to visit

(a) a hill
(c) wildlife conservationists

(b) forest
(d) bears

52. The growling sound came from

(a) dog

(b) bears

(c) leopard

(d) puppies

53. A related pair of figures is given followed by five numbered pairs. Select a pair that has a relationship
similar to that of the original pair.

( i)
( a)

( ii)

( b)

( d)

( c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 54-55) Answer the questions based on the information given below.
In each item, there are two sets of figures; the first four figures are named problem figures and the next four figures are
named answer figures indicated as (a) , (b), (c) and (d) . The problem figures follow a particular sequence. In accordance
with the same, which one of the four answer figures should appear as the fifth figure?

54. Problem Figures

N

L
A

Answer Figures

Q E

S I
M

P
U O

X U

P
Y U

(a)

55. Problem Figures

Q
X L

(b)

Answer Figures

(c)

(d)

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( a)

( b)

( c)

CSAT Paper 2

( d)

56. Velocity versus displacement graph of a particle moving in a straight line is as shown in the figure. The
acceleration of the particle is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

constant
increases linearly with x
increases parabolically with x
None of the above

v
v0

57. Consider the following matrix

17
15

102
X

12
10

What is the number at X in the above matrix?

(a) 211

(b) 75

(c) 125

58.

(d) 117

19

12

25

Mark the appropriate alternative that completes the figure.

(a) 51

(b) 41

(c) 31

(d) 37

59. A merchant has 600 kg of sugar, part of which he sells at 10% profit and the rest at 16% profit. He gains 12%
on the whole. The quantity sold at 16% profit is
(a) 200 kg

(b) 300 kg

(c) 150 kg

(d) 100 kg

60. The speed of a motorboat in still water is 12 km/h. It goes 70 km downstream and returns in a total of 12 h.
The speed of the stream (in km/h) is
(a) 3

(b) 2

(c) 4

(d) 1

Directions (Q. Nos. 61-65) Study the following two figures and answer the five questions that follow.
400
350
300

Percentage of marks scored by students

Number of students in different subjects

350
300

300

250

Above 90

25%

200

200

Below 60

20%

150
100

100

35%
20%

50

Above 80

0
Maths

Physics Chemistry Biology

Arts

61. What is the ratio of number of Maths students to the total number of students?
(a) 6 : 10

(b) 5 : 21

(c) 6 : 25

62. How many Chemistry students got marks above 80?

Above 60

(d) 12 : 25

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(a) 70

CSAT Paper 2 Crack Set 1 773

(b) 80

(c) 90

(d) 100

63. What is the ratio of Chemistry students who got marks above 60 to the Chemistry students who got marks
below 60?
(a) 61 : 35

(b) 4 : 7

(c) 2 : 5

(d) 4 : 5

64. What is the ratio of Physics students to the total number of students?
(a) 2 : 19

(b) 5 : 18

(c) 4 : 25

(d) 3 : 31

65. What is the difference between the total number of Biology students and the Chemistry students who got
above 90 marks?
(a) 11

(b) 13

(c) 14

(d) 15

66. Consider the following figures

( 1)

( 2)

( 3)

( 4)

Which one of the following figures would logically come in the 5th position?
(a)

(b)

(d)

(c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 67-74) The following eight questions are based on three passages in English to test the
comprehension of English language and therefore these questions do not have Hindi version. Read each passages and
answer the questions that follow.

Passage 1
According to the reports in Economic Survey, the condition of the macro economy is positive but it has not
glossed over the challenges. The resilience of our economy is seen in its ability to withstand two shocks in quick
succession. The ripple effects of the global economic crisis that devastated world growth, trade and finances
have persisted in the form of the European fiscal crisis. On the domestic front, the farm sector that saw a
negative growth two years back was further hit by erratic monsoons, severe drought and unseasonal rains in
two successive years. Despite this, the economy is growing at rates seen during the pre-crisis period. The
economy is projected to grow at 9% during the year 2011-12. The services sector, for long the power house of the
economy, with more than 60% share of the GDP has started gaining momentum. Another favourable feature is
that Indias demographic dividend is yet to peak. The growing trend in savings and investment rates should
benefit from the gradual withdrawal of stimulus measures by the government. The survey notes that once the
economy operates around full capacity, it is not the saving and investment rates that will drive growth but skill
development and innovation.

67. Which of the following is/are among the favourable indicators noted by the Economic Survey?
I. The growing trend in saving and investment.
II. Indias favourable population statistics.
III. The gain in the momentum of the service sector.

(a) Only III

(b) I and III

(c) I and II

(d) All the three

68. The phrase glossed over, as used in the passage, is close in meaning to
(a) ignored

(b) considered

(c) explained

(d) faced

774 CSAT Paper 2 Crack Set 1

Cracking the

CSAT Paper 2

Passage 2
In India, severe restrictions on free transfer of property in most rural areas inhibit investment and
encourage urban flight. Planning policies, however, discourage building homes for these migrants, as
numerous homes are destroyed, if they do not comply with planning rules, essentially forcing people to live
in slums and perversely blaming it on population growth. UN habitat, the UN agency for housing poor, has
implemented more plans to stabilise the unplanned aspects of urban growth. It is when governments grant
people legal means to control their assets that they empower them to invest and plan ahead. The
commission on legal empowerment of the poor, a UN affiliated initiative made up of two dozen leaders is
exploring ideas to extend enforceable legal rights to impoverished members of society and is seeking to
bring about a consensus on incentive for national and local leaders. The poor are not helpless, but they need
governments to grant them right to freedom and responsibility.

69. According to the passage, the author wants to

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

exhort the UN to play a greater role in rehabilitating slum-dwellers

praise government initiatives for migrant slum-dwellers
convince government to empower the poor
enlist the aid of developed countries to tackle the issue of slums

70. What is the impact of planning policies on the development of slums?

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

They encourage the poor to invest in land, thereby perpetuating slums

They focus on development of rural areas
They offer alternative practical suggestions for construction of low-cost housing
They advocate demolishing homes which violate planning rules and encourage slums

71. What is the objective of the commission on legal empowerment of the poor?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Coerce international leaders to implement housing projects

Bring sanctions against countries denying their citizens
Selecting experts to recommend ideas to do away with poverty
Establish practical ways for government to empower the underprivileged

Passage 3
Conservation of natural resources is regarded as an integrated biological and social process and needs an
understanding of the target communities, specially their socio-economic aspirations and cultural leanings.
Experience gained so far around the world suggests that peoples livelihoods and their ability to be
meaningfully involved in conservation planning and practice are critical to environmental and nature
conservation. The restoration of these corridors is enormous in magnitude and requires new approaches and
ideas, especially in dealing with the human aspect of this undertaking. The relocation of only critical
locations is possible. This too would need them to express their willingness and an attractive package. For
rest of the areas, a wide range of confidence building measures from sustainable livelihoods, poverty
alleviation and health improvement programmes to employment generation and socio-cultural upliftment,
need to be undertaken.
While ecological restoration is the unquestionable domain of the forest department, the harnessing of the
talent and expertise of prominent non-governmental organisations in programmes related to human
development is also important. Area and site specific micro-planning in consultation with target area
themselves is absolutely essential and can only be overlooked at the peril of even a semblance of the success of
this restoration programme.

72. The line in the passage The restoration of these corridors means
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

peoples livelihoods depend only on the conservation of nature

peoples involvement in conservation and practising is important to nature conservation
Both (a) and (b)
None of the above