BIO201 FIF Final Exam Practice Questions

Spring 2014
Chapters 10, 11, 13, 14, 17
1. The following equation represents the process of photosynthesis:
6 CO2 + 12 H2O

C6H12O6 + 6 O2 + 6 H2O

Oxygen that is generated in the products (colored red) comes from which source in the
reactants?
a. Carbon dioxide, and therefore has been reduced.
b. Carbon dioxide, and therefore has been oxidized.
c. Water, and therefore has been reduced.
d. Water, and therefore has been oxidized.
2. Which of the following is not involved in the light reaction part of photosynthesis?
a. Oxygen
b. ATP
c. NAD+
d. NADPH
e. Chlorophyll
3. A researcher is testing photosynthesis of green plants when exposed to green light.
Which of the following statements is true?
a. The plants would have reduced function because they do not absorb green
light well.
b. The plants would have increased function because their green photo pigments
absorb best at green wavelengths of light.
c. The plants would have no noticeable difference in function on a long time
study when compared to white light.
d. The plants would begin to produce more green photo-pigments, stimulated by
the extra energy absorbed from the green light.
4. Which of the following has the highest concentration of hydrogen cations?
a. Extracellular matrix
b. Cytoplasm of a plant cell
c. Stroma of the chloroplast
d. Lumen of the thylakoid.
e. Matrix of the mitochondria

5. When ATP is made during photosynthesis, it is made (and released into solution) in the:
a. Extracellular matrix
b. Cytoplasm of a plant cell
c. Stroma of the chloroplast
d. Lumen of the thylakoid
e. Matrix of the mitochondria
6. Sugars created during photosynthesis are made directly from:
a. The light-dependent reactions involving the thylakoid.
b. The light-independent reactions involving the thylakoid.
c. The light-dependent reactions of the Calvin Cycle.
d. The light-independent reactions of the Calvin Cycle.
e. The light-dependent reactions of the Krebs cycle.
f. The light-independent reactions of the Krebs cycle.
7. Which of the following does not result from, or is a part of, mitosis?
a. DNA is bundled.
b. Two nuclei form.
c. Chromosomes line up.
d. Anaphase
e. DNA is replicated.
8. A researcher stained a single layer of onion cells and observed them under a microscope.
He found one cell with large, visible chromosomes lined up in the middle of the cell.
This cell is mostly likely in which stage of mitosis?
a. Interphase
b. Prophase
c. Metaphase
d. Anaphase
e. Telophase
9. During which part of meiosis would one see the least amount of cohesion attached to the
chromatid?
a. Prophase I
b. Metaphase I
c. Anaphase I
d. Prophase II
e. Anaphase II
10. Crossing over occurs during:
1. Prophase I
2. Anaphase I
3. Prophase II
4. Metaphase II
5. Anaphase II

11. Chiasmata form between ______ during _______.

1. Sister chromatids; mitosis
2. Sister chromatids; meiosis
3. Homologous pairs; mitosis
4. Homologous pairs; meiosis
5. Nonsister chromatids; prophase II
12. Which of the following best describes the role of electron transport in both mitochondria and
chloroplast functions?
1. To provide the energy to make sugars inside these organelles
2. To provide the energy to pump protons from low [H+] to high [H]
3. To produce the electrical driving force for H+ efflux
4. To counteract the chemical driving force and bring the pmf to zero
5. It is used to make NADH in mitochondria and NADP+ in chloroplasts
13. Which of the following best describes a comparison between mitochondria and chloroplast
electron transport pathways?
Initial (first)
Electron Donor
Mitochondria Chloroplast
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

NAD+
NADH
O2
NADH
water

light
water
water
Complex I
O2

Final Electron
Acceptor
Mitochondria Chloroplast

water
O2
ATP
O2
water

ATP
NADP+
NADP+
NADPH
NADPH

14. During photosynthesis, light energy is needed to:

1. Break apart the H-O bonds in water molecules and move electrons into the electron
transport chain.
2. Increase the reduction potential of P700 (photosystem I), making the value more
positive.
3. Reduce the reduction potential value of P680 (photosystem II).
4. Transition P680 from an excited state to a ground state.
5. Make both photosystems stronger oxidizing agents.
15. At the end of meiosis II, there should be:
1. Two daughter cells that are 2n
2. Two daughter cells that are 1n
3. Four daughter cells that are 2n
4. Four daughter cells that are 1n
5. None of the above.

16. Which of the following best describes trisomy?

1. A mutation in genes governing cellular replication which causes a third replication
during meiosis, resulting in a meiosis III.
2. An error during mitosis results in three identical daughter cells instead of two.
3. An error during fertilization, in which two sperm both give their genetic material to a
single egg.
4. A nondisjunction error that eventually creates a zygote with only one copy of a
chromosome, instead of two.
5. A mistake during meiosis that leads to an extra copy of a chromosome.
17. How to chromosomes move to the poles of the cell during mitosis?
1. Diffusion of the chromosomes, from high concentration in the center of the cell to the
low concentration at the poles.
2. The poles contain proteins and enzymes with high amounts of positively charged
amino acid side chains, which attract the negatively charged phosphate groups of the
DNA backbone.
3. A contractile ring forms in the middle of the chromosomes, which simultaneously
splits the cell and divides the chromosomes.
4. Kinetochores containing motor proteins walk along microtubules towards the poles,
pulling the chromosomes with them.
5. Actin filaments that are attached at the poles and the centromeres of the chromosomes
begin to break down at the end near the pole, shortening the filament and pulling the
chromosomes closer to the pole.
18. What is a disadvantage of asexual reproduction compared to sexual reproduction?
1. Asexual reproduction requires a much longer time to product offspring.
2. Asexual reproduction requires two individuals to create an offspring.
3. Sexual reproduction reduces genetic diversity within a population.
4. Asexually reducing populations are more likely to be killed off entirely by a potential
pathogen.
5. Sexual reproduction does not requires as much energy or resources.
19. What is an example of apoptosis?
1. Cells between the fingers of a fetus begin to die, carving out the individual fingers of
the hand.
2. A cancer cell begins to reproduce uncontrollably.
3. A genetic disease causes the buildup of glycogen in lysosomes, which eventually
cause the entire cell to swell, burst, and die.
4. Defective mitochondria release free radicals into the cytoplasm, which eventually
causes the cell to die by damaging proteins in the cell membrane.
5. A cell exposed to a hypotonic solution absorbs excess water end pops, releasing all
of its intracellular components.

20. A researcher sees a cell in an unknown part of the cell cycle. She observes that there are
visible chromosomes and there is an intact nuclear membrane. Based on this data, which
part of mitosis is the cell NOT in?
1. Prophase
2. Metaphase
3. Prophase II
4. Telophase
5. Anaphase II
21. What was the conclusion from the Griffith experiment (involving mice and R and S strain
bacteria)?
1. DNA is the genetic material of cells.
2. Proteins contain the genetic material that is able to be passed onto offspring.
3. A chemical substance from one cell is capable of genetically transforming another
cell.
4. Viruses contain may contain RNA or DNA.
5. The S-strain bacteria can not be killed by heat alone.
22. A researcher grows bacteriophages (a type of virus) on a medium containing radioactive
phosphorus. She then uses these viruses to infect a culture of bacteria. Afterwards, she
gently agitates the cells to detach the protein coat of the viruses from the surface of the
cells. She centrifuges the mixture for a certain amount of time, giving the bacteria cells
in the pellet and the virus cells in the supernatant liquid. Which part of the centrifuge
tube would be radioactive?
1. Both the pellet and the supernatant would be radioactive.
2. The pellet.
3. The supernatant.
4. Neither the pellet nor the supernatant.
5. The experiment could not be done, as radioactive phosphorus would kill the viruses.
23. Which is not a base found in DNA?
1. Adenine
2. Guanine
3. Cytosine
4. Thymine
5. Uracil
24. Which type of bonding is between base pairs in complementary DNA strands?
1. London dispersion forces
2. Ionic attractions
3. Hydrogen bonding
4. Van der Waals forces
5. Covalent bond
25. Which of the following best describes DNA replication?

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

Semi-conservative
Conservative
Dispersive
Liberal
Semi-liberal

26. An ori region of DNA is

1. A stretch of DNA where replication begins
2. A site where an Ori-restrictive enzyme can cut the DNA
3. A part of a genome that codes for the Ori protein.
4. The part of DNA replicated using Okazaki fragments
5. A part of DNA that is extra and is usually spliced out.
27. DNA ligase is used to
1. Form a bond between two Okazaki fragments
2. Cut a DNA molecule at a specific place
3. Begin the process of replication
4. Reform the bond between complementary base pairs to make the double helix
5. Reattach the ends of a plasmid, recreating the circle
28. Which of the following describes a telomere?
1. The final phase of mitosis.
2. Repetitive sequence at the end of eukaryotic chromosomes.
3. The end parts of RNA that do not code for protein and are spliced out.
4. An enzyme that is involved in end part of mitosis that proof reads DNA that has been
replicated.
5. The region of DNA that primase binds to.
29. What is the purpose of PCR?
1. To add a gene from one organism into another, such as the human insulin gene into
bacteria.
2. To repair errors made during DNA replication.
3. To extract chromosomes during mitosis to create a karyotype.
4. To determine the sequence of nucleotides in a strand of DNA.
5. To make many more copies of a DNA sequence.
30. Okazaki fragments are added to
1. the leading strand
2. tRNA
3. the leaning strand
4. the lagging strand
5. the loose strand

31. Reverse transcriptase:

1. Converts DNA into RNA
2. Converts protein into RNA
3. Converts RNA into DNA
4. Converts protein into DNA
5. Converts RNA into protein
32. Which of the following does not take place inside the nucleus?
1. Transcription
2. Translation
3. Synthesis of mRNA
4. Synthesis of tRNA
5. Binding of RNA polymerase
33. What is a promoter?
1. An enzyme that unwinds DNA to prepare it for RNA synthesis
2. A sequence of DNA that is the start of translation
3. Site of RNA polymerase binding to DNA
4. An enzyme that binds mRNA and rRNA
5. An enzyme that guides tRNA to the ribosome.
34. Which of the following statements about the genetic code is false?
1. There are 64 different possible codons.
2. The genetic code is redundant.
3. The codons code only for various amino acids.
4. There are at least 20 different types of tRNA.
5. Changing the third letter in a codon is least likely to change the amino acid it codes
for when compared to changing the first or second.
35. What is the difference between introns and exons?
1. Introns are spliced out of an mRMA molecule, while exons go on to be translated.
2. Exons are excess DNA code that are not translated, while introns are translated.
3. Introns are spliced out during transcription, keeping the exon portion.
4. Introns and exons are both found in prokaryotic plasmids, while exons are only found
in eukaryotic chromosomes.
5. Exons are the anticodon portion of tRNA, while intron are the rest of the molecule.

36. Which of the following is not a posttranslational modification of a polypeptide?

1. Proteolysis

2. Phosphorylation
3. Glycosylation
4. Elongation
37. Which statement about RNA is not true?
1. Transfer RNA functions in translation.
2. Ribosomal RNA functions in translation.
3. RNAs are produced by transcription
4. Messenger RNAs are produced on ribosomes.
5. DNA encodes for mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA.
38. Which of the following contains an anti-codon?
1. mRNA
2. rRNA
3. introns
4. DNA
5. tRNA
39. Rank the following in the correct order of mitosis and label the stage Prophase,
Anaphase, Telophase, or Metaphase.

40. Fill in the following diagram:

A:
C:
E:
G:
I:
K:

B:
D:
F:
H:
J:
L:

41. Which of the following is not something discovered from sequencing many eukaryotic
genomes?
1. Eukaryotic genomes are larger than those of prokaryotes.
2. Eukaryotic genomes have more regulatory sequences.
3. Eukaryotes have multiple chromosomes.
4. Eukaryotes contain fewer protein coding genes than prokaryotes.
5. Much of eukaryotic DNA is noncoding.

42. Which organism is considered one of the most useful models for studying genetics in
animals? (Hint: it is the organism that Dr. Shortridge studies.)
1. Drosophilia
2. Arabidopsis
3. C. elegans (nematode)
4. E. coli
5. S. cerevisae (yeast)
43. Which organism is considered one of the most useful models for studying eukaryotic
development in animals?
1. Drosophilia

2.
3.
4.
5.

Arabidopsis
C. elegans (nematode)
E. coli
S. cerevisae (yeast)

44. Around what percent of the human genome actually codes for proteins?
1. 1-2%
2. 10-15%
3. 30-33%
4. 49-51%
5. 99%

45. In which of the following is carbon dioxide not released as a product or used as a
reactant?
1. Photosynthesis
2. Glycolysis
3. Pyruvate Oxidation
4. Citric Acid Cycle
5. Ethanol fermentation
46. Which of the following will not result in an increase of membrane fluidity?
1. Increase the number of C=C bonds.
2. Decrease the amount of cholesterol in the membrane.
3. Increase the temperature of the solution.
4. Decrease the length of the carbon chains of the phospholipids.
5. Increase the amount of saturated fatty acid side chains.

47. A ribosome binds an mRNA molecule and begins translating a peptide. The growing
peptide begins with a signal sequence for the RER. Which of the following is correct?
1. The peptide would continue growing into the entire protein, and then move into the
RER.
2. The mRNA sequence could not be translated, because the signal sequence would
move the mRNA into the RER without binding to a ribosome.
3. The mRNA and ribosome unit move to the RER, translate the protein, and release it
into the cytoplasm.
4. The mRNA and ribosome unit move to the RER, translate the protein across the RER
membrane, and release the protein into the lumen.
5. None of the above.
48.

Answers (with page numbers from Life: The Science of Biology 10th edition and short
explanations):
1. D (Pages 186-187, Water is the source. The oxygen in the water molecule is losing
electron density when in the form of O=O compared to H-O-H, and thus is oxidized).
2. C (Page 188, NADH is used during the mitochondrial electron transport chain, NADPH
is used during photosynthesis and some anabolic processes).
3. A (Page 192. Green plants reflect green light, they do not absorb it.)
4. D (Page 193. Lumen of thylakoid is most acidic (lowest pH, highest [H+])).
5. C (Page 194)
6. D (Page 188, 196)
7. E (206, 212. DNA replication occurs during the S phase of the cell cycle).
8. C (215)
9. E (216, 223. Cohesion holds sister chromatids together. During Anaphase II, sister
chromatid are broken apart, and cohesion must be removed for this to happen.)
10. A (223)
11. D (220. Chiasmata are formed during crossing over in late prophase I of meiosis between
homologous pairs (also called nonsister chromatids).)
12. B (electron transport chains in both systems are to create the difference in [H+]
concentration. Question taken from Dr. Hennesseys Spring 2013 Quiz 4.)
13. B (193, 173. Question taken from Dr. Hennesseys Spring 2013 Quiz 4.)
14. C (191. Photosystems accept electrons, oxidizing the thing it takes electrons from. It
then absorbs light energy to reduce its reduction potential, allowing it to pass those
electrons onto another part of the chain that has a higher reduction potential, reducing
that item.)
15. D (223)
16. E (224)
17. D (215, 216, Chromosome Movement)
18. D (219. Populations that produce asexually are clones of each other (unless a mutation
arises). If a deadly pathogen can kill one of them, it can potentially infect them all.)
19. A (225. Apoptosis is programmed cell death. Apoptosis in the webbings of hands of a
fetus is an example.)
20. B (214-215. Metaphase is the only answer that does not have an intact nuclear membrane
with visible chromosomes. The other answer could be Anaphase, but the answer given
was Anaphase II, which is part of meiosis, not mitosis.)
21. C (260. Taken directly from table 13.1: Genetic Transformation.)
22. B (262. Radioactive phosphorus would be integrated into DNA during replication. Thus,
the DNA would be radioactive. The radioactive viral DNA would be injected into the
bacteria, and thus the pellet would be radioactive. Had the viruses been grown on
radioactive sulfur, then the proteins of the viruses would be radioactive, and thus the
supernatant would have been radioactive.)
23. E (Uracil is found in RNA)

24. C (266)
25. A (268)
26. A (268-271)
27. A (273)
28. B (275)
29. E (277)
30. D (272-273)
31. C (285. Reverse transcriptase does exactly as its name implies: to convert RNA into
DNA, the opposite of transcription.)
32. B (285)
33. C (286. A promoter is a sequence of DNA that is where transcription begins.)
34. C (288-289. This answer is false because the genetic code also contains STOP codons.)
35. A (291. Exons are expressed, introns are spliced out after transcription in eukaryotes.)
36. D (300)
37. D (mRNA are coded for by DNA and are transcribed in the nucleus, not on ribosomes.)
38. E (293. tRNA contains the anticodon that binds to the codon of mRNA.)
39. B Prophase
A Metaphase
D Anaphase
C Telophase
40. A light
46. G Calvin Cycle
41. B water
47. H ATP
42. C Carbon dioxide
48. I NADPH
43. D NADP+
49. J Chloroplast
44. E ADP
50. K Oxygen
45. F Light reactions, thylakoid
51. L sugars

52.

(image provided by http://ichthyosapiens.com/)

53. D (361. Eukaryotes have more protein coding genes than prokaryotes.)
54. A (362)
55. C (362)
56. A (366)
57. B (178)
58. E (107)
59. D (299)
60.
61. Note: These questions were written by the recitation teaching assistants and may not
accurately reflect the difficulty of the actual exam. Therefore, these questions should be
taken as supplementary material, but should not be the main source for studying.