1

Ondansetron HCL is used for :

a- Hypertension
b- Angina pectoris
c- Prophylaxis of migraine
d- Anti-emetic
It is used as anti-emetic with patients receiving cytotoxics due
to its serotonin antagonism.
Ondansetron is [ Zofran 2 , 4 mg. Tab & Amp. ]

All These are side effects of Chloramphenicol except :

a- Irreversible a plastic anemia
b- optic neuritis
c- peripheral neuritis
d- iron deficiency anemia

Ticlopidine is used for :

a- Anticoagulant
b- Antibiotic
c- anticholinergic
d- Antiplatelets

All these drugs are fibrinolytic except :

a- Dipyridamole
b- Steptokinase
c- urikinase

All These drugs cause anti-metabolic effect except :

a- Methotrexate
b- Flurouracil
C- Cytabrin
d- Azothioprine
e- Cyclophosphamide

All These drugs can be used for Parkinsonism except :

a- Selgitine HCL
b- Carbidopa
c- Pergolide
d- Nedocromil Sod.

all These cases not cure with thiazides except :

a- Hypernatrimia
b- hyperglycemia
c- Hypokalaemia
d- hyperuricaemia

Cardiac arrest could be managed by the following except :

a- Ephedrine
b- Ledocaine
c- Propranolol
d- Normal saline

Insulin which can be given I.V. is :

a- Regular type
b- 30/70 type
c- NPH type
d- Non of the above

10 Drug is used for Leishmania :

a- Sod. Stiboglyconate
b- Sod. Cromoglyconate
c- Mebendazole
11

All These drugs are anti-bacterial except :

a- Zalcitabine
b-Lomefloxacin
c- Cefprazone

12 All These are natural Estrogens except :

a- Mestronol
b- Oestrone
c- Oestriol
d- Oestradiol
13 Co-Trimethoxazole contains ;

Trimethopirm + Sulphmethoxazole
14 Which one of the following has vasodilator effect :

a- Nicotine
b- Cholestyramin
c- urikinase
d- Vit. A
15 One of the following is not from Quinolone group :

a- Nalidixic acid
b- Quinine
c- Eoxacin
d- Norfloxacin
16 One of the following is not for Epilepsy :

a- Clorizepam
b- Phenytoin
c- Primidone
d- Imipramine

17 All of these can be used for Leprosy except :

a- Dapson
b- Rifampcin
c- Clofazinine
d- INH
18 Sumatriptan is used for :

a- Hypertension
b- Treatment of migraine
c- Angina Pectoris
d- Control of Epilepsy
19 Which one of the following is enzyme inducer :

a- Rifampcin
b- Cimetidine
c- Chloramphenicol
d- Vit. C
20 All of the following for prophylaxis of asthma except :

a- Ketotifen
b- Nedocromil Sod.
c- Sod. Cromoglycate
d- Salbutamol

21 All of the following is NSAH [ non sedating antihistamine ] except :

a- Loratidine
b- Cetrizine
c- Astemizol
d- Azotodin
22 All of the following are controlled drugs except :

a- Rivotril
b- Epanutin
c- Sresolid
d- Diazepam
23 All These drugs are anti-viral except :

a- Amantadine
b- Zidovudine
c- Acyclovir
d- Aluerin [ anti-spasmodic ]
24 Which one of the symptoms does not occur with morphine :

a- Diarrhea
b- Respiratory depression
c- Constipation
d- Vomiting

25 Which one of these drugs is not used for acute pain :

a- Naproxen
b- Colchicine
c- Codeine
d- Prednisolone
26 Which one of these drugs is drug of choice for Myxodema

[ Hypothyrodism ]
a- Carbimazole
b- iodine
c- thyroxin sod.
d- propyl thiouracil
27 Benzyl peroxide is a local treatment for Acne Vulgaris
28 Vit. A daily dose is 30,000 - 50,000 IU for the correction of

deficiency and for therapy from 100,000 - 200,000 IU / daily

29 The drug of choice for the treatment of amoebae :

a- Chloramphenicol
b- Tetracycline
c- Gentamycin
d- Metronidazole

30 To prevent more absorption of the toxic drug we use :

a- Water
b- Salt Sol.
c- Saline
d- Charcoal
31 Hepatitis Vaccine dose is :

a- Once / year
b- Twice / Year
c- Three times / Year
32 Which one is OTC drug :

a- Simple analgesic
b- Warfarin
c- Ciprofloxacin
33 Anti-coagulant effect of Warfarin is decreased by :

a- Rifampcin
b- Aspirin
c- Vit. K
d- Verapamil
34 One of the following is given once daily

a- Amorphous Insulin
b- Protamine Zinc Insulin
c- Neutral insulin
d- Regular Insulin

35 The steady state conc. Of the drug in the plasma depends on :

a- Direct proportion to the rate of administration

b- Indirect proportion to the rate of administration
c- Indirect proportion to the rate of elimination
d- Direct proportion to the rate of elimination
36 All these are Anti-Coagulants except :

a- Warfarin
b- Ancord
c- Heparin
d- Dipyridamol
37 All these are Anti-Platelets except :

a- Dipyridamol
b- Aspirin
c- Streptokinase
d- Presantin
e- Ticlopidine
38 Ferrograde is :

a- Ferrous Sulphate
b- Ferrous Citrate
c- Ferrous gluconate
d- Ferrous Fumarate
39 Procainamide is :

a- Ca channel blocker
b- Nifedipine
c- Lisinopril
d- Qunidine

40 What is the mechanism of action of Vit. K ?

Vit. K has an essential role in the synthesis of coagulation

factors by hepatic cells.
41 Thiazide diuretics cause all the following except :

a- Hypokalamia
b- Hypercalcemia
c- Hyperuricamia
d- Hyponatrimia
e- Hyperglycemia
f- Hypernatremia
42 Treatment with anti-arrhythmic drug depends on except :

a- Type of medication
b- Period of medication
c- Patient sex
43 Elimination of Digoxin is mainly by :

a- Kidney
b- Liver
c- Both
d- None of the above
44 Dobutamine is given I.V. because :

a- It is not stable in the gastric PH

b- It is needed in large quantities in case of oral route
c- It is eliminated very quickly
45 Amilorid as trimetren causes :

a- CNS disturbances
b- Hyperkalamia
c- Hypokalamia
d- Not affect K [ Potassium ]

46 What is the most drug can cause damage if it is given OTC ?

a- Captopril
b- Warfarin
c- Chlorothiazide
d- Rifampcin
47 Drug physical dependence is as same as drug abuse

a- True
b- false
48 Mention two Thiazide diuretics ?

1- Chlorothiazide

2- Hydrochlorothiazide

49 What is the difference between QID & Q6H ?

QID = 4 times / day

Q6H = every after 6 hours
50 What is the difference between the following anti-fungal ?

Miconazole = local & systemic

Amphotercin = parenteral only
Griseofulvin = oral
51 Give the indication of the following drugs :

1- Gimfibrazole

for hyperlipidaemia

2- Cisapride

for gastro-oesophegyal reflux

3- Fluoxetin

SSRI [ selective serotonin reuptake inh.]

( Antidepressant )

4- Carbimazole

for hyperthyrodism

5- Imipramine

Tricyclic anti-depressant

6- Ipratropium Br.

Anti muscarinic as broncho-dilator

52 All are anti-metabolic except :

a- Methotrexate
b- Flurouracil
c- Cytabrin
d- Azothiopin
e- Cyclophosphamide
53 Cefaclor is :

a- Ist, Generation Cephalosporin

b- 2nd, generation Cephalosporin
c- 3rd, generation Cephalosporin
d- None of the above
54 Which Aminoglycoside antibiotic can be taken orally ?

a- Gentamycin
b- Neomycin
c- Amikacin
d- Tobramycin
55 Teicoplanin antibiotic has similar effect on Gram positive as :

a- Vancomycin
b- Jamicacin
c- Gentamycin
d- Kanamycin
56 Which one is not Tetracycline ?

a- Minocycline
b- Demeclocycline
c- Doxycycline
d- Clindamycin

57 Which one is not Ca channel blocker ?

a- Verapamil
b- Deltiazem
c- Amlodipine
d- Cinnarzine
58 Mesalazine is used for the treatment & maintenance of remission

of Ulcerative Colitis
59 Mention 4 lipid soluble vitamins ?

Vit. A, D ,E & K
60 Imipenam [ Carbapenam ]

It is the first Thiemamycin Beta - Lactam anti-biotic

61 All These medications are used in treating T.B. except :

a- Cyclosporin
b- INH
c- Cycloserin
d- Rifampcin
62 All These drugs are anti-cholinergic except :

a- Iprotropium
b- Atropine Sulphate
c- Benzatropine Methylate
d- Dobutamin
63 All Of These are antibiotics except :

a- Zalcitabin
b- Cefaprozil
c- loefloxacin
d- Cefopodoxin

64 There is one drug is used for HIV :

a- Zalcitabin
b- Kinasterdin
c- Cefaprozil
d- Enoxacin
65 Which one is Suprax ?

a- Cefixime
b- Itraconazole
66 Which one is Sporanox ?

a- Cefixime
b- Itraconazole
67 All of These can be used in treating leprosy except :

a- Dapson
b- Rifampcin
c- Clofazimine
d- INH
68 One of these is not like the others :

a-Timolol

Non - selective

b- Acebutalol

Selective Beta Blocker

c- Labetolol

Non - selective

d- Betaxolol

Non - selective

69 Which is not Aminoglycoside ?

a- Netilimicin
b- Tobramycin
c- Kanamycin
d- Lymecyclin

70 Betahistine HCL

a- For Mieniere disease

b- Antihistamine
c- Analgesic
d- a & b
71 Which one is not 5HT3 antagonist ?

a- Tropisetron
b- Ondansetron
c- Domperidone [ Motilium ]
d- Granisetron
72 Which is not oral anti-coagulant ?

a- Warfarin
b- Enoxaprine
c- Phenidione
d- Nicoumolone
73 Which is correct ? Diazepam

a- Can cause muscle spasm

b- Is taken I.M. only
c- Is derivative from Morphine
d- Is not used for long term
74 Maximum dose of Paracetamol is 4 Gm / day
75 The duration of treatment of T.B. by CTC is :

[ CTC is Tuberculosis Committee Thoracic Society ]

a- One week
b- Two months
c- One month
d- 6 months
76 Metoclopramide is a dopamine antagonist

acts centrally by blocking Vomiting Center [ V.C. ] and

peripherally acts on the Chemo-Receptor Trigger Zone [ CTZ ]
to be used as anti-emetic.

77 Which one is contra-indicated in pregnancy :

a- Sucralfate
b- Ethambutol
c- Chlorphenramine
d- Ciprofloxacin
78 What is the definition of Bioavailability of the drug ?

Is the quantity of the active constituent of the drug

absorbed by the blood through the intestine or any other
route in a certain period of time .
OR : It is the conc. of the drug in the blood in a certain
period of time
79 Give an ex. Of a drug induce Hepatotoxicity ?

1- Paracetamol

2- Ketoconazol

3- Rifampcin

4- Quinolones

80 Give an ex. Of a drug induce Nephrotoxicity ?

Aminoglycosides as Gentamycin
81 Give the anti-dote for each of the following :

Heparin

Protamine Sulphate

Paracetamol

Acetyl cystine

Warfarin

Vit. K

Morphine

Naloxone

82 What is the generic name of Vit. B 12 ?

Cyanocobolamine
83 Zidovudine is used for HIV
84 What is the meaning of poor patient compliance ?

The patient did not take the medication properly [ not proper
dose, not proper time ] may be due to the dose regimen is not
easy or the dose is high, or the side effects is clear
85 Fluxotine is :

Prozac

is selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitor

86 Omeprazole is

Losec

is a proton pump inhibitor

87 Mention two diseases cause Edema ?

1- Renal Failure

2- Congestive Heart failure

88 Give examples of drug - drug interactions ?

1- Warfarin

Aspirin

2- Insulin

B-Blockers

3- Heparin

Aspirin & Ampicillin

4- Warfarin

Vit. K

5- Warfarin

Phenobarbital

6- Spironolactone

Digoxin

7- ACEI

Pot. Sparing diuretics

89 Generic name of :

Vit. B1

Thiamine

Vit. B2

Riboflavin

Vit. B6

Pyridoxin

Vit. B12

Cyanocobolamine

90 All of these are the components of Calamine lotion B.P. except :

a- ZnO
b- calamine
c- Sod. Citrate
d- Bentonite

e- Sod. Sulphate
91 Terbinafine is used topically for :

a- Eczema
b- Candida
c- Fungal infections
92 Which one is not contra-indicated in pregnancy ?

a- Captopril
b- Enalpril
c- Lisinopril
d- Methyldopa
93 PCP [ Pneumocystis Corini Pneumonia ]

a- Virus
b- Bacteria
c- Parasite
d- Mycobacterum
94 Which of the following is not antibiotic ?

a- Erythromycin
b- Cefprozil
c- Ceprodoxin
d- Finasteride

95 Which one is used for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia [ BPHP ]

a- Flumazenil
b- Cefprozil
c- Mivacurim
d- Finasteride
96 All of these are third generation Cephalosporin except :

a- Cefixime
b- Cefopodoxime
c- Ceftriaxone
d- Cefotaxime
97 Which of the following is not mucolytic ?

a- Bromohexin
b- Carbocistene
c- Ambroxol
d- guaphenesin
e- Dextromethorphan
98 Which one is anti-platelet ?

a- Ticlopidine
b- Desfluron
c- Aldesleukin
d- Atovaquon
99 All of these anti-neoplastic except :

a- Aldesleukin
b- Teniposide
c- Pentostatin
d- Amlodipine

100 Which is not Benzodiazepine ?

a- Temazepam
b- Nitrozepam
c- Loprazolam
d- Clozapine
101 Potassium supplement must not be given with Triametren

1- False

2- True

102 Misoprostol inhibit gastric acid by blocking the hydrogen potassium

adenosine triphosphate enzyme system of gastric cell

[ Misoprostol is Cytotic ]
1- False

2- True

103 MMR vaccine is Measles - Mumps - Rubella vaccine

104 Oral re-hydrate solution is one of the following :

a- Sod. Citrate - Pot. Chloride - Glucose

b- Sod. Citrate - Pot. Chloride - Sod. Chloride
c- Sod. Chloride - Pot. Citrate - Sod. Citrate - glucose
d- Sod. Chloride - Pot. Chloride - NaHCO3 - Citric acid
105 Gemfibrazile

a- Increase HDL & Triglycerides

b- Increase HDL & decrease Triglycerides
c- Decrease HDL & LDL
d- Increase LDL & Triglycerides.
106 Nitroprusside Sod. Is :

a- Potent vasodilator
b- potent diuretic
c- potent vasoconstrictor
d- Anti-arrhythmic agent.

107 4 drugs need monitor for their serum level

1- Amikacin

3- Warfarin

2- Theophyllin

4- Digoxin

108 For Fluxacillin, all these statments are wrong except :

a- It is activated by Penicillinase enzyme

b- It is taken by oral route only
c- It is base stable
d- It is better absorbed than Cloxacilin
109 What are the instruction for patient taken Metamucil

Or any other bulk foaming laxative as Bran, methyl Cellulose &

Psyllum : The adequate fluid intake should be maintained to
avoid intestinal obstruction
110 Cytotec

Is used for gastric & duodenal ulcer. It is contra-indicated in

pregnancy.
111 Mention two drugs from HMG - COA- reductase inhibitors

Simvastatin - Provastatin - Fluvastatin

112 HMG-COA-Reductase Inhibitor is

[ 3-hydroxy. 3- methyl Glutoryl COA Reductase inhibitor ]

113 Source of Human Insulin is E-Coli by :

Recombinant DNA Technology

114 Zinnat contains :

Cefuroxime
115 Thiabendazole is one of Thiazides diuretics

1- False

2- True

N.B. Thiabendazole is anthelmintic

116 Praziquantil is :

a- Cause loss of intracellular calcium of worms

b- Used for malaria
c- Biltracid is the trade name
d- a & c
117 Nitrofurantoin is indicated for :

a- Viral infection
b- GIT Infection
c- Urinary tract infection [ UTI ]
d- URI
118 Vit. K

a- Increase formation of clotting factor

b- Increase conversion of Vit. K to the active form
c- Prevent conversion of Vit. K back to the active form
d- Non of the above
119 Quinidine Sulphate is :

a- Anti-arrhythmic agent
b- Anti-malarial agent
c- Anti-hypertensive agent
d- a & c
120 ACE stands for :

a- Converting Ag11 to vasoconstrictor Ag1

b- Converting Ag1 to vasoconstrictor Ag11
c- Converting Ag1 to vasodilator Ag11
d- Converting Ag11 to vasodilator Ag1
121 One of these side effects not occur with Thiazide diuretics

a- Hypernatraemia
b- Hypoglycemia
c- Hypokalamia
d- Hyperuricamia

122 Ipeca is emetic agent which induce emesis through :

a- Stimulation of the stomach

b- Stimulation of the CTZ
c- a & b
d- Inhibition of the stomach through CNS
123 Theophyllin is

a- Bronchdilator
b- B2 agonist
c- Cause Bradycardia
d- All of the above
124 Schedule of immunization for HBV is :

a- Single dose
b- Two doses
c- Three doses
d- Five doses
125 Itraconazol

is antifungal
126 Treatment of anaphylactic reaction is initiated by immediate :

a- Hydrocortisone
b- Cimetidine
c- Human albumin
d- Epinephrine
127 Introduction of emesis is not indicated in the following except :

a- Caustic substance ingestion

b- CNS
c- Seizures
d- paracetamol poisoning

128 all of these are anions except :

a- Phosphate
b-Acetate
c- Sodium
d- Chloride
129 Astemizole

is long acting non sedating anti-histamine

130 Triazole is

a- Antifungal
b- Trade name of clotrimazole
c- Trade name of amphotercin B
d- Nystatin
131 With Minoxidil, all these parameters should be monitored except :

a- Urine flow rate

b- B.P.
c- Pulse rate
d- Body weight
132 Aspirin is recommended with one of the following :

a- Anti-coagulant
b- Chicken box
c- Influenza symptoms
d- Dys-menorrhoea
133 Which is not true with Tetracycline

a- Broad spectrum bacteriostatic

b- Broad spectrum bactericidal
c- Inhibit protein synthesis
d- Used for acne
134 Give 2 indications for allopurinol

1- prophylaxis of Gout
2- Treatment of uric acid & Ca Oxalate renal stones
135 Give an ex. Of non sedating anti-histamines

Loratidine - Cetrizine- Terfenadine

136 Famotidine is H2 antagonist used for :

Treatment of gastric & duodenal ulcers

137 What are the effects of Captopril

1- Decrease conversion of Ag1 to Ag11

2- Effective hypotensive when others are contra-indicated
[ B blockers & diuretics ]
138 Type 2 Diabetics is characterized by :

a- Lack of response to Insulin

b- Lack of response to sulphonylurea
c- Respond to dietary therapy alone
d- Slowly increasing sulphonylurea requirement
139 Give 2 side effects of Aminoglycosides ?

Ototoxicity - Nephrotoxicity
140 Mention 2 quinolones

Ciprofloxacin

Norfloxacin

141 Give 3 drugs as Pot. Sparing diuretics

Trimetren - Spironolactone - Amilorid

142 Acetazolamide is a diuretic used for Glaucoma by inhibition of

carbonic anhydrase enz. This reduce the carbonate in the aqueous

humor leads to reduction of I.O.P.
143 Which one reduces the metabolism of other drugs in the liver :

a- Rifampcin
B- Vit. C
c- Cimetidine
d- Metronidazole
144 All of these can be dispensed without prescription except :

a- Aspirin

b- Maalox

d- Tegretol
145 Simvastatin is used for hypolipidemic action

c- Bisacodyl

146 Acetohexamide is hypoglycemic

147 List the trade name of the following :

Pindolol

Visken

Baclofen

Lioresal

Omeprazol

Losec

148 What is the meaning of each of the following :

POM

Prescription Only Medicine

BID

Twice Daily

ECG

Electro Cardio Gram

G.6.PD

Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase

BPC

British Pharmacopial Codex

149 Which of these is Pro-drug

a- Ampicillin
b- Erythromycin
c- Pivampicillin
d-All of the above
150 500 ml Normal saline 0.9 % contains 4.5 gm. NACL
151 Mention 3 ACEI

Captopril - Enalpril - Cilazapril

152 Levodopa with Cardiodopa for the treatment of Parkinsonism

153 Specific Serotonin reuptake inhibitor are used as :

a- Antihistaminic
b- Antidepressant
c- Antihypertensive
d- Antiemetic
154 Which of these has no vasodilator effect :

a- Methyl dopa
b- Hydralazine
c- Enalpril
d- Prazocin
155 Enalpril is the prodrug of :

Enalprilate
156 Mention 3 drugs contraindicated in pregnancy :

1 NSAI
2 Co-trimoxol
3 Antiepileptic
157 List 3 drugs used to treat T.B. :

1 INH [ Isoniazide ]
2 Rifampcin
3 Ethambutol
158 Calcipotriol is indicated for :

a- Psoriasis
b- Hypertension
c- Calcium supplement
d- Acne

159 List 8 side effects of Corticosteroids :

1 Water & sod. Retention

2 Cushing syndrome
3 Gastric ulcer
4 Hypertension
5 Pot. Loss
6 DM [ diabetes mellitus ]
7 Glaucoma
8 Osteoporosis
160 Maximum dose of Captopril is 150 mg / day
161 Amantadine is used for all of the following except :

a- Antiviral
b- For influenza A
c- Anti-parkinsonism
d- For influenza B
162 All are viral infections except :

a- Hepatitis B
b- Influenza
c- Herpes Zoster
d- Rikettsia
163 At the cardiac arrest [ shock ] . The drug of choice is :

a- Epinephrine
b- Propranolol
c- Hydrocortisone
d- Saline sol.
164 Give ae example of cardio selective B blocker ?

a- Atenolol
b- Bisoprolol
c- Esmolol
d- Betaxolol
e- Metoprolol
f- Acebutolol

165 Drugs to pass B.B.B. should be :

a- Unionized hydrophilic
b- Ionized hydrophilic
c- Unionized lipophilic
d- Ionized lipophilic
166 All of these are anti-parkinsonism except :

a- Amantadine

e- Lysuride

b- Apomorphine

f- Pergolide

c- Bromocriptine

g- Levodopa

d- Primidone

h- Selegiline

167 All of these are anti-metabolite [ cytotoxic ] except :

a- Methotrexate

d- Azothioprin

b- Cylarabin

e- Mercaptopurine

c- Cyclophosphamide

f- Flurouracil

168 All of these are antichlonergic except :

a- Atropine sulphate

d- Iprotropium bromide

b- Hydroatropine

e- Butrepium bromide

c- Mebeverine
169 All of these are corticosteroids except :

a- Ondansetron

d- Beclomethasone

b- Prednisolone

e- Dexamethazone

c- Triamcinolone

f- Methyl prednisolone

170 When newly married do not want child. How to arrange

a- Arrange contraception.
b- Send wife to the family doctor
c- Send the wife to her mother
171 Side effects of Insulin ?

1 Local reaction [ urticaria ]

2 Hypoglycemia
3 Fat dystrophy at site of injection

172 One of the following is the main side effect of insulin :

a- Hypoglycemia
b- Fluid retention
c- Hyperglycemia
d- All of the above
173 The only aminoglycoside can be taken orally is :

Neomycin sulphate
174 Chloramphenicol affect liver inhibitory enzyme. So

a- Decrease metabolism & increase response

b- Decrease metabolism & decrease response
c- Increase metabolism & increase response
d- Increase metabolism & decrease response
175 OTC simple analgesic is paracetamol
176 Enteric coated tab

a- Pass the stomach & release in the intestine

b- Pass the stomach & intestine
c- Release in the stomach
177 All of these are true for Levodopa except :

a- precursor of dopa
b- Does not pass B.B.B.
c- Effective in parkinsonism
d- Stimulate dopamine
178 Morphine & Morpin are similar in addiction
179 Cytocin is one of the posterior pituitary hormones
180 The conc. Of the drug on Exp. Date is :

a- Not less than 100%

b- Not less than 90%
c- From 90-110%
d- Non of the above

181 If you have prescription contains Inderal and the patient is

wheezing. What is your advice ?

Call the doctor
182 Bioavailability means :

a- Rate
b- Extent
c- Rate & extent
d- Non of the above
183 Pharmacokinetics means :

a- Effect of the body on the drug

b- Drug - receptor reaction
c- Non of the above
184 Surfactant not used orally

a- Tween
b- Spon
c- Na lauryl sulphate
d- B & C
185 Type 1 Diabetes. advise to use :
a- Insulin
B- Glibneclamide
c- a & b
c- Non of the above.
186 Type 11 Diabetes. advise to use :
a- Diet control
b- Insulin
c- Sulphonyl urea
d- All of the above
187 One of the following is the main side effect of insulin :
a- Hyperglycemia
b- Hypoglycemia
c- Fluid retention
C- All of the above

188 Pentobarbital differs from Phenobarbital in :

a- Longer
b- Faster
C- Not use very much
d- a & b
189 Morphine & morpin are similar in :
a- Miosis
b- Addiction
C- Analgesic
d- All of the above
190 Theophyllin dose in children.
a- Increased metabolism & dose must be increased .
b- Decreased metabolism & dose must be increased .
c- Decreased metabolism & dose must be decreased .
191 Biotransformation

a- More lipid soluble

b- Less lipid soluble.
192 Phenylephrine is used for :

a- Decongestant
b- For runny nose
c- Sympathomimetics.
d- All of the above.
193 Oxytocin produces all the following except :

a- Progestron release
b- Uterine stimulation
c- Labor induction
d- Mammalian glands stimulation
194 Binding to the plasma protein , means :

a- Increase half life

b- Decrease half life.

195 New & best therapy for peptic ulcer is :

a- Antacid + H2 antagonist.
b- Use more than one H2 antagonist.
c- Four medicines including antibiotic.
196 In case of Osteoarthritis & peptic ulcer of elderly patients use :

a- Paracetamol
b- Strong NSAI
c- Aspirin
197 Give names of drugs that change the color of urine ?

1 Nitrofurantoin
2 Phenazopyridin
3 Rifampcin
198 The drug of choice for Febril Convulsion in children is :

Diazepam 250 microgram / kg.

199 Cyproteron [ Androcur ] is used for :

Increasing the sexual abilities.

200 Immunocompetent means ?

Control resistant to infections.

201 Immunocompromised means ?

Low resistant to infections.

202 Which of the following is not cardio-specific B blocker ?

a- Atenolol
b- Acebutolol
c- Satolol
d- Labetolol
203 Controled released drug delivery depends on :

a- Body fluid interaction

b- Enzymatic reactions
c- Ready programmed & no influece of the body fluid
d- Stomach PH.

204 The conc. Of the drug on exp. Date is :

a- Not less than 100%

b- Not less than 90%
c- From 90 - 110%
d- Not of the above
205 Type 11 Diabetes. Advise to use :

a- Diet control.
b- Insulin
c- Sulphonyl Urea.
d- All of the above.
206 All of these are antichlonergics except :

a- Atropine Sulphate
b- Hydro-atropine.
c- Mebeverine.
d- Iprotropium Bromide.
e- Butrepium Bromide.
207 Pharmacokinetics means :

a-Effect of the body on the drug.

b- Drug - Receptor reaction
c- Non of the above.
208 Specific Serotonin reuptake inhibitors are used as :

a- Anti-histaminic
b- Anti-depressant
c- Anti-hypertensive
d- Anti-emetic
209 Type 1 Diabetes. Advise to use :

a- Insulin
b- Glibneclamide
c- a & b
d- Non of the above.
210 Biotransformation

a- More lipid soluble

b- Less lipid soluble

211 Pentobarbital differs from Phenobarbital in :

a- Longer
b- Faster
c- Not use very much
d- a & b
212 Which one of these can not be used in pain crisis :

a- Morphine
b- Naproxine
c- Codeine
d- Colchicin [ used mainly in gout pain ]
213 All of the following are Ca ++ channel blockers except :

a- Mesalamine
b- Verapamil
c- Cinnarzine
d- Amlodipine
214 One of the following is not used for Parkinson disease :

a- Pergolide
b- Selegline
c- Amantadine
d- Disulfiram
215 All the following are ACE inhibitors except :

a- Captopril
b- Ramipril
c- Lisinopril
d- Isradipine
216 Quinidine Sulphate Is :

a- Anti-arrhythmic
b- Anti-malarial
c- Anti-hypertensive
d- a & b

217 All the following are used as Anti-tussive except :

a- Guaifenesin
b- Dextromethorphane
c- Codeine Phosphate
d- Morphine Hydrochloride
218 Nitrous Oxide is used in anaesthesia because :

a- It is non explosive & non inflammable

b- It induces rapid induction & rapid recovery
c- It is potent muscle relaxant
d- All of the above
219 All of the following have GIT upset except :

a- Phenytoin
b- Phenobarbiton
c- Ethosux - Pn 7 de
d- Benzodiazepam
220 A patient has a prescription of Erythromycin 500 mg tablets every 6 hours.

and you do not have this anti-biotic. You can phone the doctor to change
it with :
a- Clarithromycin
b- Amoxicillin
c- Clindamycin
d- Ampicillin
221 A child of 41 degrees centigrade, when his father ask you about him,

you must tell him to :

a- Go to hospital which is 30 m. distance.
b- Sponge by tap water and go to hospital.
c- Take 1 GM. Paracetamol
d- Go to home.
222 The patient under the prescribing drug.

when he comes to you , Then you must tell him :

a- All the drug side effects.
b- Some relatively side effects.
c- Another side effects.
d- Non of the above

223 A patient has a prescription of Enalpril + KCL,

what are you ask him ?

a- Any product of K do you need.
b- You take any other anti-hypertensive
c- You need syrup or tablets.
d- Not of all
224 ACE inhibitors are used for the treatment of :

a- Asthma
b- Migraine
c- Hypertension
d- All of the above
225 New non sedative anti-histaminics act through :

a- H1 antagonist
b- H2 antagonist
c- Muscarinic receptors
d- B1 antagonist
226 All of the following are B antagonists except :

a- Salbutamol
b- Metoprolol
c- Nadolol
d- Atenolol
227 B agonist causes :

a-Increasing of Oxygen consumption

b- Increasing of ectotopic effect
c- Increasing of inotopic effect
d- All of the above
227 Atropine is used as pre-anaesthetic to :

a- Give skeletal muscle relaxation

b- Decrease saliva
c- Treat the side effects of anesthesic.
d- Help the sleeping effect of anaesthetic

228 A patient weighing 10 kilograms is given a paracetamol

one teaspoon full every 4-6 hours.

you should call doctor and tell him that :
a- The dose is very high
b- The dose must not exceed 180 mg daily
c- The dose is not sufficient
d- There is no need to call the doctor.
229 Malignant hypothermia is usually a side effect of :

a- Anaesthesia
b- Azathropin
c- Phenytoin
d- Aspirin
230 The common side effect of Sulphonylurea is :

a- GIT upset
b- Thyrotoxosis
c- Hypoglysuris
d- All of the above
231 Vasopressine is used for the treatment of :

a- Diabetes insipidus
b- Diabetes mellitus type 1
c- Diabetes mellitus type 2
d- Anti-hypertensive
232 Pseudomembraneous colitis is a side effect of :

a- Vancomycin
b- Clindamycin
c- Reserpine
d- INH

233 Phenobarbiton induces liver microsomal enzymes

when taken with Warfarin anti-coagulant leads to :

a- Increasing the activity of liver enzymes
so, decreasing the activity of Warfarin
b- Increasing the activity of liver enzymes
so, increasing the activity of Warfarin
c- Decreasing the activity of liver enzymes
so, decreasing the activity of Warfarin
c- Decreasing the activity of liver enzymes
so, increasing the activity of Warfarin
234 Tetracycline, when taken with metals such as Calcium, Iron & Aluminium

from a chelate which is :

a- Inactive & not absorbed
b- Active & poorly absorbed
c- Inactive & poorly absorbed
d- Active & absorbed
235 Disulfiram is used for :

a- Treatment of chronic alcohol dependence

b- Protection of liver cells from alcoholism
c- Prevention of conversion of acetaldehyde to acetic acid
d- All of the above
236 The drug transfer through the cell membrane by :

a- Aqueous diffusion
b- Osmotic pressure
c- Lipid dissolve
d- Non of the above

237 Protein bound drugs forming a compound which is :

a- Inactive while the free part is active

b- Highly active while the free part is inactive
c- Less active while the free part is active
d- Active while the free part is more active
238 The drug metabolism in the body occurs in :

a- GIT & Plasma

b- Gut wall during absorption
c- Gut wall during absorption & in plasma stream
d- Liver , Kidney & bowel mucosa
239 Clonidine is used as :

a- A drug that prevents the recurrence of Migraine

b- Anti-hypertensive acting centrally
c- a & b
d- Non of the above
240 Dolomol is :

a- Paracetamol with analgesic & anti-inflammatory

b- Paracetamol with analgesic & without anti-inflammatory
c- Non Paracetamol with analgesic & anti-inflammatory
d- Non Paracetamol with analgesic & without anti-inflammatory
241 Metoclopramide gives its anti-emetic through :

a- Peripheral action
b- Dopaminergic receptors
c- Muscarinic receptors
d- All of the above
242 Dobutamine is used as :

a- Parasympathomimetic
b- In cardiac surgery
c- Hypotensive agent
d- All of the above

243 The following are the indications of Diazepam except :

a- Anti-Psychotic
b- Epelipsy
c- Analgesic
d- Hypnotic
244 The diuretic which is used with Captopril is :

a- Aldactone
b- Ethacrynic acid
c- Furosemide
d- Non of the above
245 The following drugs are used for the treatment of anxiety except :

a- Propranolol
b- Diazepam
c- Homatropine
d- Mebrobamate
246 All the following are macrolides except :

a- Clarithomycin
b- Roxithromycin
c- Erythromycin
d- Clindamycin
247 The main use of Metronidazole is :

a- Anti-amoebiasis
b- Anthelmintic
c- Anti-biotic
d- Anti-malarial

Ondansetron HCL is used for :

a- Hypertension
b- Angina pectoris
c- Prophylaxis of migraine
d- Anti-emetic
It is used as
Ondansetron is

All These are side effects of Chloramphenicol except :

a- Irreversible a plastic anemia
b- optic neuritis
c- peripheral neuritis
d- iron deficiency anemia

Ticlopidine is used for :

a- Anticoagulant
b- Antibiotic
c- anticholinergic
d- Antiplatelets

All these drugs are fibrinolytic except :

a- Dipyridamole
b- Steptokinase
c- urikinase

All These drugs cause anti-metabolic effect except :

a- Methotrexate
b- Flurouracil
C- Cytabrin
d- Azothioprine
e- Cyclophosphamide

1
6

All These drugs can be used for Parkinsonism except :

a- Selgitine HCL
b- Carbidopa

c- Pergolide
d- Nedocromil Sod.
7

all These cases not cure with thiazides except :

a- Hypernatrimia
b- hyperglycemia
c- Hypokalaemia
d- hyperuricaemia

Cardiac arrest could be managed by the following except :

a- Ephedrine
b- Ledocaine
c- Propranolol
d- Normal saline

Insulin which can be given I.V. is :

a- Regular type
b- 30/70 type
c- NPH type
d- Non of the above

10 Drug is used for Leishmania :

a- Sod. Stiboglyconate
b- Sod. Cromoglyconate
c- Mebendazole

2
11

All These drugs are anti-bacterial except :

a- Zalcitabine
b-Lomefloxacin
c- Cefprazone

12 All These are natural Estrogens except :

a- Mestronol
b- Oestrone
c- Oestriol
d- Oestradiol
13 Co-Trimethoxazole contains :

14 Which one of the following has vasodilator effect :

a- Nicotine
b- Cholestyramin
c- urikinase
d- Vit. A
15 One of the following is not from Quinolone group :

a- Nalidixic acid
b- Quinine
c- Eoxacin
d- Norfloxacin
16 One of the following is not for Epilepsy :

a- Clorizepam
b- Phenytoin
c- Primidone
d- Imipramine
17 All of these can be used for Leprosy except :

a- Dapson
b- Rifampcin
c- Clofazinine
d- INH
18 Sumatriptan is used for :

a- Hypertension
b- Treatment of migraine
c- Angina Pectoris
d- Control of Epilepsy
19 Which one of the following is enzyme inducer :

a- Rifampcin
b- Cimetidine
c- Chloramphenicol
d- Vit. C
20 All of the following for prophylaxis of asthma except :

a- Ketotifen

b- Nedocromil Sod.
c- Sod. Cromoglycate
d- Salbutamol
21 All of the following is NSAH [ non sedating antihistamine ] except :

a- Loratidine
b- Cetrizine
c- Astemizol
4

d- Azotodin
22 All of the following are controlled drugs except :

a- Rivotril
b- Epanutin
c- Sresolid
d- Diazepam
23 All These drugs are anti-viral except :

a- Amantadine
b- Zidovudine
c- Acyclovir
d- Aluerin [ anti-spasmodic ]
24 Which one of the symptoms does not occur with morphine :

a- Diarrhea
b- Respiratory depression
c- Constipation
d- Vomiting
25 Which one of these drugs is not used for acute pain :

a- Naproxen
b- Colchicine
c- Codeine
d- Prednisolone
26 Which one of these drugs is drug of choice for Myxodema

[ Hypothyrodism ]
a- Carbimazole
b- iodine
c- thyroxin sod.

d- propyl thiouracil

27 Benzyl peroxide is a local treatment for

28 Vit. A daily dose is

29 The drug of choice for the treatment of amoebae :

a- Chloramphenicol
b- Tetracycline
c- Gentamycin
d- Metronidazole
30 To prevent more absorption of the toxic drug we use :

a- Water
b- Salt Sol.
c- Saline
d- Charcoal
31 Hepatitis Vaccine dose is :

a- Once / year
b- Twice / Year
c- Three times / Year
32 Which one is OTC drug :

a- Simple analgesic
b- Warfarin
c- Ciprofloxacin
33 Anti-coagulant effect of Warfarin is decreased by :

a- Rifampcin

b- Aspirin
c- Vit. K
d- Verapamil
34 One of the following is given once daily

a- Amorphous Insulin
b- Protamine Zinc Insulin
c- Neutral insulin

d- Regular Insulin
35 The steady state conc. Of the drug in the plasma depends on :

a- Direct proportion to the rate of administration

b- Indirect proportion to the rate of administration
c- Indirect proportion to the rate of elimination
d- Direct proportion to the rate of elimination
36 All these are Anti-Coagulants except :

a- Warfarin
b- Ancord
c- Heparin
d- Dipyridamol
37 All these are Anti-Platelets except :

a- Dipyridamol
b- Aspirin
c- Streptokinase
d- Presantin
e- Ticlopidine
38 Ferrograde is :

a- Ferrous Sulphate

b- Ferrous Citrate
c- Ferrous gluconate
d- Ferrous Fumarate
39 Procainamide is :

a- Ca channel blocker
b- Nifedipine
c- Lisinopril
d- Qunidine
40 What is the mechanism of action of Vit. K ?

41 Thiazide diuretics cause all the following except :

a- Hypokalamia

b- Hypercalcemia
c- Hyperuricamia
d- Hyponatrimia
e- Hyperglycemia
f- Hypernatremia
42 Treatment with anti-arrhythmic drug depends on except :

a- Type of medication
b- Period of medication
c- Patient sex
43 Elimination of Digoxin is mainly by :

a- Kidney
b- Liver
c- Both
d- None of the above
44 Dobutamine is given I.V. because :

a- It is not stable in the gastric PH

b- It is needed in large quantities in case of oral route
c- It is eliminated very quickly
45 Amilorid as trimetren causes :

a- CNS disturbances
b- Hyperkalamia
c- Hypokalamia
d- Not affect K [ Potassium ]
46 What is the most drug can cause damage if it is given OTC ?

a- Captopril
b- Warfarin
c- Chlorothiazide
d- Rifampcin
47 Drug physical dependence is as same as drug abuse

a- True
b- false
48 Mention two Thiazide diuretics ?

49 What is the difference between QID & Q6H ?

QID =
Q6H =
50 What is the difference between the following anti-fungal ?

Miconazole
9

Amphotercin =
Griseofulvin =
51 Give the indication of the following drugs :

1- Gimfibrazole
2345-

Cisapride
Fluoxetin
Carbimazole
Imipramine

6- Ipratropium Br.
52 All are anti-metabolic except :

a- Methotrexate
b- Flurouracil
c- Cytabrin
d- Azothiopin
e- Cyclophosphamide
53 Cefaclor is :

a- Ist, Generation Cephalosporin

b- 2nd, generation Cephalosporin
c- 3rd, generation Cephalosporin
d- None of the above
54 Which Aminoglycoside antibiotic can be taken orally ?

a- Gentamycin
b- Neomycin
c- Amikacin
d- Tobramycin

55 Teicoplanin antibiotic has similar effect on Gram positive as :

a- Vancomycin
b- Jamicacin
c- Gentamycin
10

d- Kanamycin

10

56 Which one is not Tetracycline ?

a- Minocycline
b- Demeclocycline
c- Doxycycline
d- Clindamycin
57 Which one is not Ca channel blocker ?

a- Verapamil
b- Deltiazem
c- Amlodipine
d- Cinnarzine
58 Mesalazine is used for

59 Mention 4 lipid soluble vitamins ?

60 Imipenam [ Carbapenam ] is

61 All These medications are used in treating T.B. except :

a- Cyclosporin
b- INH
c- Cycloserin
d- Rifampcin
62 All These drugs are anti-cholinergic except :

11

a- Iprotropium
b- Atropine Sulphate
c- Benzatropine Methylate
d- Dobutamin

11

63 All Of These are antibiotics except :

a- Zalcitabin
b- Cefaprozil
c- loefloxacin
d- Cefopodoxin
64 There is one drug is used for HIV :

a- Zalcitabin
b- Kinasterdin
c- Cefaprozil
d- Enoxacin
65 Which one is Suprax ?

a- Cefixime
b- Itraconazole
66 Which one is Sporanox ?

a- Cefixime
b- Itraconazole
67 All of These can be used in treating leprosy except :

a- Dapson
b- Rifampcin
c- Clofazimine
d- INH
68 One of these is not like the others :

12

a-Timolol
b- Acebutalol
c- Labetolol
d- Betaxolol
69 Which is not Aminoglycoside ?

a- Netilimicin
b- Tobramycin
c- Kanamycin
d- Lymecyclin
70 Betahistine HCL

12

a- For Mieniere disease

b- Antihistamine
c- Analgesic
d- a & b
71 Which one is not 5HT3 antagonist ?

a- Tropisetron
b- Ondansetron
c- Domperidone [ Motilium ]
d- Granisetron
72 Which is not oral anti-coagulant ?

a- Warfarin
b- Enoxaprine
c- Phenidione
d- Nicoumolone
73 Which is correct ? Diazepam

a- Can cause muscle spasm

b- Is taken I.M. only
c- Is derivative from Morphine
d- Is not used for long term
13 74 Maximum dose of Paracetamol is

Gm / day

75 The duration of treatment of T.B. by CTC is :

[ CTC is Tuberculosis Committee Thoracic Society ]

a- One week
b- Two months
c- One month
d- 6 months
76 Metoclopramide is

77 Which one is contra-indicated in pregnancy :

a- Sucralfate
b- Ethambutol

13

c- Chlorphenramine
d- Ciprofloxacin
78 What is the definition of Bioavailability of the drug ?

79 Give an ex. Of a drug induce Hepatotoxicity ?

13-

24-

80 Give an ex. Of a drug induce Nephrotoxicity ?

14

14
81 Give the anti-dote for each of the following :

Heparin
Paracetamol
Warfarin
Morphine
82 What is the generic name of Vit. B 12 ?

83 Zidovudine is used for

84 What is the meaning of poor patient compliance ?

85 Fluxotine is :

86 Omeprazole is

87 Mention two diseases cause Edema ?

1-

2-

88 Give examples of drug - drug interactions ?

1234-

15

56789 Generic name of :

Vit. B1
Vit. B2
Vit. B6
Vit. B12
90 All of these are the components of Calamine lotion B.P. except :

a- ZnO
b- calamine
c- Sod. Citrate
d- Bentonite
e- Sod. Sulphate
91 Terbinafine is used topically for :

a- Eczema
b- Candida
c- Fungal infections
92 Which one is not contra-indicated in pregnancy ?

a- Captopril
b- Enalpril
c- Lisinopril
d- Methyldopa
93 PCP [ Pneumocystis Corini Pneumonia ]

a- Virus
b- Bacteria

15

c- Parasite
d- Mycobacterum
94 Which of the following is not antibiotic ?

16

a- Erythromycin
b- Cefprozil
c- Ceprodoxin
d- Finasteride

16

95 Which one is used for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia [ BPHP ]

a- Flumazenil
b- Cefprozil
c- Mivacurim
d- Finasteride
96 All of these are third generation Cephalosporin except :

a- Cefixime
b- Cefopodoxime
c- Ceftriaxone
d- Cefotaxime
97 Which of the following is not mucolytic ?

a- Bromohexin
b- Carbocistene
c- Ambroxol
d- guaphenesin
e- Dextromethorphan
98 Which one is anti-platelet ?

a- Ticlopidine
b- Desfluron
c- Aldesleukin
d- Atovaquon
99 All of these anti-neoplastic except :

17

a- Aldesleukin
b- Teniposide
c- Pentostatin
d- Amlodipine

17

100 Which is not Benzodiazepine ?

a- Temazepam
b- Nitrozepam
c- Loprazolam
d- Clozapine
101 Potassium supplement must not be given with Triametren

1- False

2- True

102 Misoprostol inhibit gastric acid by blocking the hydrogen potassium

adenosine triphosphate enzyme system of gastric cell

[ Misoprostol is Cytotic ]
1- False

2- True

103 MMR vaccine is

104 Oral re-hydrate solution is one of the following :

a- Sod. Citrate - Pot. Chloride - Glucose

b- Sod. Citrate - Pot. Chloride - Sod. Chloride
c- Sod. Chloride - Pot. Citrate - Sod. Citrate - glucose
d- Sod. Chloride - Pot. Chloride - NaHCO3 - Citric acid
105 Gemfibrazile

a- Increase HDL & Triglycerides

b- Increase HDL & decrease Triglycerides
c- Decrease HDL & LDL
d- Increase LDL & Triglycerides.
106 Nitroprusside Sod. Is :

a- Potent vasodilator
b- potent diuretic
c- potent vasoconstrictor
18

d- Anti-arrhythmic agent.
107 4 drugs need monitor for their serum level

1-

3-

2-

4-

18

108 For Fluxacillin, all these statments are wrong except :

a- It is activated by Penicillinase enzyme

b- It is taken by oral route only
c- It is base stable
d- It is better absorbed than Cloxacilin
109 What are the instruction for patient taken Metamucil

Or any other bulk foaming laxative as Bran, methyl Cellulose &

Psyllum :

110 Cytotec

Is used for

111 Mention two drugs from HMG - COA- reductase inhibitors

112 HMG-COA-Reductase Inhibitor is

113 Source of Human Insulin is E-Coli by :

19

19
114 Zinnat contains :

115 Thiabendazole is one of Thiazides diuretics

1- False

2- True

116 Praziquantil is :

a- Cause loss of intracellular calcium of worms

b- Used for malaria
c- Biltracid is the trade name
d- a & c
117 Nitrofurantoin is indicated for :

a- Viral infection
b- GIT Infection
c- Urinary tract infection [ UTI ]
d- URI
118 Vit. K

a- Increase formation of clotting factor

b- Increase conversion of Vit. K to the active form
c- Prevent conversion of Vit. K back to the active form
d- Non of the above
119 Quinidine Sulphate is :

a- Anti-arrhythmic agent
b- Anti-malarial agent
20

c- Anti-hypertensive agent
d- a & c
120 ACE stands for :

a- Converting Ag11 to vasoconstrictor Ag1

b- Converting Ag1 to vasoconstrictor Ag11
c- Converting Ag1 to vasodilator Ag11
d- Converting Ag11 to vasodilator Ag1
121 One of these side effects not occur with Thiazide diuretics

a- Hypernatraemia
b- Hypoglycemia
c- Hypokalamia
d- Hyperuricamia
122 Ipeca is emetic agent which induce emesis through :

a- Stimulation of the stomach

b- Stimulation of the CTZ
c- a & b
d- Inhibition of the stomach through CNS
123 Theophyllin is

a- Bronchdilator
b- B2 agonist
c- Cause Bradycardia

20

d- All of the above

124 Schedule of immunization for HBV is :

a- Single dose
b- Two doses
c- Three doses
d- Five doses
125 Itraconazol

21

Is
126 Treatment of anaphylactic reaction is initiated by immediate :

a- Hydrocortisone
b- Cimetidine
c- Human albumin
d- Epinephrine
127 Introduction of emesis is not indicated in the following except :

a- Caustic substance ingestion

b- CNS
c- Seizures
d- Paracetamol poisoning
128 all of these are anions except :

a- Phosphate
b-Acetate
c- Sodium
d- Chloride
129 Astemizole is

130 Triazole is

a- Antifungal
b- Trade name of clotrimazole
c- Trade name of amphotercin B
d- Nystatin
131 With Minoxidil, all these parameters should be monitored except :

21

22

a- Urine flow rate

b- B.P.
c- Pulse rate
d- Body weight

22

132 Aspirin is recommended with one of the following :

a- Anti-coagulant
b- Chicken box
c- Influenza symptoms
d- Dys-menorrhoea
133 Which is not true with Tetracycline

a- Broad spectrum bacteriostatic

b- Broad spectrum bactericidal
c- Inhibit protein synthesis
d- Used for acne
134 Give 2 indications for allopurinol

12135 Give an ex. Of non sedating anti-histamines

136 Famotidine is

137 What are the effects of Captopril

1- Decrease conversion of Ag1 to Ag11

2- Effective hypotensive when others are contra-indicated
[ B blockers & diuretics ]
138 Type 2 Diabetics is characterized by :

23

a- Lack of response to Insulin

b- Lack of response to sulphonylurea
c- Respond to dietary therapy alone
d- Slowly increasing sulphonylurea requirement
139 Give 2 side effects of Aminoglycosides ?

23

140 Mention 2 quinolones

1
2
141 Give 3 drugs as Pot. Sparing diuretics

142 Acetazolamide is

143 Which one reduces the metabolism of other drugs in the liver :

a- Rifampcin
B- Vit. C
c- Cimetidine
d- Metronidazole
144 All of these can be dispensed without prescription except :

a- Aspirin

b- Maalox

c- Bisacodyl

d- Tegretol
145 Simvastatin is used for
146 Acetohexamide is
147 List the trade name of the following :

24

Pindolol
Baclofen
Omeprazol
148 What is the meaning of each of the following :

POM
BID
ECG
G.6.PD
BPC

24

149 Which of these is Pro-drug

a- Ampicillin
b- Erythromycin
c- Pivampicillin
d-All of the above
150 500 ml Normal saline 0.9 % contains

gm. NACL

151 Mention 3 ACEI

152 Levodopa with Cardiodopa for the treatment of

153 Specific Serotonin reuptake inhibitor are used as :

a- Antihistaminic
b- Antidepressant
c- Antihypertensive
d- antiemetic
154 Which of these has no vasodilator effect :

a- Methyl dopa
b- Hydralazine
c- Enalpril
25

d- Prazocin
155 Enalpril is the prodrug of :

156 Mention 3 drugs contraindicated in pregnancy :

1
2
3
157 List 3 drugs used to treat T.B. :

1
2
3
158 Calcipotriol is indicated for :

25

a- Psoriasis
b- Hypertension
c- Calcium supplement
d- Acne
159 List 8 side effects of Corticosteroids :

1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
26 160 Maximum dose of Captopril is

mg / day

161 Amantadine is used for all of the following except :

a- Antiviral
b- For influenza A
c- Anti-parkinsonism
d- For influenza B
162 All are viral infections except :

a- Hepatitis B
b- Influenza
c- Herpes Zoster
d- Rikettsia
163 At the cardiac arrest [ shock ] . The drug of choice is :

a- Epinephrine
b- Propranolol
c- Hydrocortisone
d- Saline sol.
164 Give ae example of cardio selective B blocker ?

a- Atenolol
b- Bisoprolol
c- Esmolol

26

d- Betaxolol
e- Metoprolol
f- Acebutolol
165 Drugs to pass B.B.B. should be :

a- Unionized hydrophilic
b- Ionized hydrophilic
c- Unionized lipophilic
27

d- Ionized lipophilic

27

166 All of these are anti-parkinsonism except :

a- Amantadine
b- Apomorphine

e- Lysuride
f- Pergolide

c- Bromocriptine

g- Levodopa

d- Primidone

h- Selegiline

167 All of these are anti-metabolite [ cytotoxic ] except :

a- Methotrexate

d- Azothioprin

b- Cylarabin
c- Cyclophosphamide

e- Mercaptopurine
f- Flurouracil

168 All of these are antichlonergic except :

a- Atropine sulphate

d- Iprotropium bromide

b- Hydroatropine
c- Mebeverine

e- Butrepium bromide

169 All of these are corticosteroids except :

a- Ondansetron
b- Prednisolone
c- Triamcinolone

d- Beclomethasone
e- Dexamethazone
f- Methyl prednisolone

170 When newly married do not want child. How to arrange

a- Arrange contraception.
b- Send wife to the family doctor
c- Send the wife to her mother
171 Side effects of Insulin ?

1 Local reaction [ urticaria ]

2 Hypoglycemia

28

3 Fat dystrophy at site of injection

28

172 One of the following is the main side effect of insulin :

a- Hypoglycemia
b- Fluid retention
c- Hyperglycemia
d- All of the above
173 The only aminoglycoside can be taken orally is :

174 Chloramphenicol affect liver inhibitory enzyme. So

a- Decrease metabolism & increase response

b- Decrease metabolism & decrease response
c- Increase metabolism & increase response
d- Increase metabolism & decrease response
175 OTC simple analgesic is
176 Enteric coated tab

a- Pass the stomach & release in the intestine

b- Pass the stomach & intestine
c- Release in the stomach
177 All of these are true for Levodopa except :

a- precursor of dopa
b- Does not pass B.B.B.
c- Effective in parkinsonism
d- Stimulate dopamine
178 Morphine & Morpin are similar in

29 179 Cytocin is
180 The conc. Of the drug on Exp. Date is :

a- Not less than 100%

b- Not less than 90%
c- From 90-110%
d- Non of the above

29

181 If you have prescription contains Inderal and the patient is

wheezing. What is your advice ?

182 Bioavailability means :

a- Rate
b- Extent
c- Rate & extent
d- Non of the above
183 Pharmacokinetics means :

a- Effect of the body on the drug

b- Drug - receptor reaction
c- Non of the above
184 Surfactant not used orally

a- Tween

30

b- Spon
c- Na lauryl sulphate
d- B & C
185 Type 1 Diabetes. advise to use :
a- Insulin
B- Glibneclamide
c- a & b
c- Non of the above.
186 Type 11 Diabetes. advise to use :
a- Diet control
b- Insulin
c- Sulphonyl urea
d- All of the above
187 One of the following is the main side effect of insulin :
a- Hyperglycemia
b- Hypoglycemia
c- Fluid retention
C- All of the above

30

188 Pentobarbital differs from Phenobarbital in :

a- Longer
b- Faster
C- Not use very much
d- a & b
189 Morphine & morpin are similar in :

31

a- Miosis
b- Addiction
C- Analgesic
d- All of the above

31

190 Theophyllin dose in children.

a- Increased metabolism & dose must be increased .
b- Decreased metabolism & dose must be increased .
c- Decreased metabolism & dose must be decreased .
191 Biotransformation

a- More lipid soluble

b- Less lipid soluble.
192 Phenylephrine is used for :

a- Decongestant
b- For runny nose
c- Sympathomimetics.
d- All of the above.
193 Oxytocin produces all the following except :

a- Progestron release
b- Uterine stimulation
c- Labor induction
d- Mammalian glands stimulation
194 Binding to the plasma protein , means :

32

a- Increase half life

b- Decrease half life.
195 New & best therapy for peptic ulcer is :

32

a- Antacid + H2 antagonist.
b- Use more than one H2 antagonist.
c- Four medicines including antibiotic.
196 In case of Osteoarthritis & peptic ulcer of elderly patients use :

a- Paracetamol
b- Strong NSAI
c- Aspirin
197 Give names of drugs that change the color of urine ?

1 Nitrofurantoin
2 Phenazopyridin
3 Rifampcin
198 The drug of choice for Febril Convulsion in children is :

199 Cyproteron [ Androcur ] is used for :

200 Immunocompetent means ?

33

33
201 Immunocompromised means ?

202 Which of the following is not cardio-specific B blocker ?

a- Atenolol
b- Acebutolol
c- Satolol
d- Labetolol
203 Controled released drug delivery depends on :

a- Body fluid interaction

b- Enzymatic reactions
c- Ready programmed & no influece of the body fluid
d- Stomach PH.
204 The conc. Of the drug on exp. Date is :

a- Not less than 100%

b- Not less than 90%
c- From 90 - 110%
d- Not of the above
205 Type 11 Diabetes. Advise to use :

a- Diet control.
b- Insulin
34

c- Sulphonyl Urea.
d- All of the above.

34

206 All of these are antichlonergics except :

a- Atropine Sulphate
b- Hydro-atropine.
c- Mebeverine.
d- Iprotropium Bromide.
e- Butrepium Bromide.
207 Pharmacokinetics means :

a-Effect of the body on the drug.

b- Drug - Receptor reaction
c- Non of the above.
208 Specific Serotonin reuptake inhibitors are used as :

a- Anti-histaminic
b- Anti-depressant
c- Anti-hypertensive
d- Anti-emetic
209 Type 1 Diabetes. Advise to use :

a- Insulin
b- Glibneclamide
c- a & b
d- Non of the above.
210 Biotransformation

35

a- More lipid soluble

b- Less lipid soluble

35

211 Pentobarbital differs from Phenobarbital in :

a- Longer
b- Faster
c- Not use very much
d- a & b
212 Which one of these can not be used in pain crisis :

a- Morphine
b- Naproxine
c- Codeine
d- Colchicin [ used mainly in gout pain ]
213 All of the following are Ca ++ channel blockers except :

a- Mesalamine
b- Verapamil
c- Cinnarzine
d- Amlodipine
214 One of the following is not used for Parkinson disease :

a- Pergolide
b- Selegline
c- Amantadine
d- Disulfiram
215 All the following are ACE inhibitors except :

36

a- Captopril
b- Ramipril
c- Lisinopril
d- Isradipine
216 Quinidine Sulphate Is :

a- Anti-arrhythmic
b- Anti-malarial
c- Anti-hypertensive
d- a & b
217 All the following are used as Anti-tussive except :

a- Guaifenesin
b- Dextromethorphane

36

c- Codeine Phosphate
d- Morphine Hydrochloride
218 Nitrous Oxide is used in anaesthesia because :

a- It is non explosive & non inflammable

b- It induces rapid induction & rapid recovery
c- It is potent muscle relaxant
d- All of the above
219 All of the following have GIT upset except :

a- Phenytoin
b- Phenobarbiton
c- Ethosux - Pn 7 de
d- Benzodiazepam
220 A patient has a prescription of Erythromycin 500 mg tablets every 6 hours.

and you do not have this anti-biotic. You can phone the doctor to change
it with :
a- Clarithromycin
b- Amoxicillin
c- Clindamycin
37

d- Ampicillin

37

221 A child of 41 degrees centigrade, when his father ask you about him,

you must tell him to :

a- Go to hospital which is 30 m. distance.
b- Sponge by tap water and go to hospital.
c- Take 1 GM. Paracetamol
d- Go to home.
222 The patient under the prescribing drug.

when he comes to you , Then you must tell him :

a- All the drug side effects.
b- Some relatively side effects.
c- Another side effects.
d- Non of the above
223 A patient has a prescription of Enalpril + KCL,

what are you ask him ?

a- Any product of K do you need.

b- You take any other anti-hypertensive
c- You need syrup or tablets.
d- Not of all
224 ACE inhibitors are used for the treatment of :

a- Asthma
b- Migraine
c- Hypertension
d- All of the above
225 New non sedative anti-histaminics act through :

a- H1 antagonist
b- H2 antagonist
38

c- Muscarinic receptors
d- B1 antagonist
226 All of the following are B antagonists except :

a- Salbutamol
b- Metoprolol
c- Nadolol
d- Atenolol
227 B agonist causes :

a-Increasing of Oxygen consumption

b- Increasing of ectotopic effect
c- Increasing of inotopic effect
d- All of the above
227 Atropine is used as pre-anaesthetic to :

a- Give skeletal muscle relaxation

b- Decrease saliva
c- Treat the side effects of anesthesic.
d- Help the sleeping effect of anaesthetic
228 A patient weighing 10 kilograms is given a paracetamol

one teaspoon full every 4-6 hours.

you should call doctor and tell him that :
a- The dose is very high

38

b- The dose must not exceed 180 mg daily

c- The dose is not sufficient
d- There is no need to call the doctor.
229 Malignant hypothermia is usually a side effect of :

a- Anaesthesia
b- Azathropin
c- Phenytoin
39

d- Aspirin

39

230 The common side effect of Sulphonylurea is :

a- GIT upset
b- Thyrotoxosis
c- Hypoglysuris
d- All of the above
231 Vasopressine is used for the treatment of :

a- Diabetes insipidus
b- Diabetes mellitus type 1
c- Diabetes mellitus type 2
d- Anti-hypertensive
232 Pseudomembraneous colitis is a side effect of :

a- Vancomycin
b- Clindamycin
c- Reserpine
d- INH
233 Phenobarbiton induces liver microsomal enzymes

when taken with Warfarin anti-coagulant leads to :

a- Increasing the activity of liver enzymes

40

so, decreasing the activity of Warfarin

b- Increasing the activity of liver enzymes
so, increasing the activity of Warfarin
c- Decreasing the activity of liver enzymes
so, decreasing the activity of Warfarin
c- Decreasing the activity of liver enzymes
so, increasing the activity of Warfarin

40

234 Tetracycline, when taken with metals such as Calcium, Iron & Aluminium

from a chelate which is :

a- Inactive & not absorbed
b- Active & poorly absorbed
c- Inactive & poorly absorbed
d- Active & absorbed
235 Disulfiram is used for :

a- Treatment of chronic alcohol dependence

b- Protection of liver cells from alcoholism
c- Prevention of conversion of acetaldehyde to acetic acid
d- All of the above
236 The drug transfer through the cell membrane by :

a- Aqueous diffusion
b- Osmotic pressure
c- Lipid dissolve
d- Non of the above
237 Protein bound drugs forming a compound which is :

a- Inactive while the free part is active

b- Highly active while the free part is inactive
c- Less active while the free part is active
d- Active while the free part is more active
238 The drug metabolism in the body occurs in :

41

a- GIT & Plasma

b- Gut wall during absorption
c- Gut wall during absorption & in plasma stream
d- Liver , Kidney & bowel mucosa
239 Clonidine is used as :

a- A drug that prevents the recurrence of Migraine

b- Anti-hypertensive acting centrally
c- a & b
d- Non of the above
240 Dolomol is :

a- Paracetamol with analgesic & anti-inflammatory

41

b- Paracetamol with analgesic & without anti-inflammatory

c- Non Paracetamol with analgesic & anti-inflammatory
d- Non Paracetamol with analgesic & without anti-inflammatory
241 Metoclopramide gives its anti-emetic through :

a- Peripheral action
b- Dopaminergic receptors
c- Muscarinic receptors
d- All of the above
242 Dobutamine is used as :

a- Parasympathomimetic
b- In cardiac surgery
c- Hypotensive agent
d- All of the above
243 The following are the indications of Diazepam except :

a- Anti-Psychotic

42

b- Epelipsy
c- Analgesic
d- Hypnotic

42

244 The diuretic which is used with Captopril is :

a- Aldactone
b- Ethacrynic acid
c- Furosemide
d- Non of the above
245 The following drugs are used for the treatment of anxiety except :

a- Propranolol
b- Diazepam
c- Homatropine
d- Mebrobamate
246 All the following are macrolides except :

a- Clarithomycin
b- Roxithromycin
c- Erythromycin
d- Clindamycin

247 The main use of Metronidazole is :

a- Anti-amoebiasis
b- Anthelmintic
c- Anti-biotic
d- Anti-malarial

DEFINITIONS
DRUG
Is any small molecule that when introduced into the body
affect the functions.
PHARMACODYNAMIC :
Is the interaction between the drug & the body.
OR :
The effect [ desired & undesired ] of the drug on the body
PHARMACOKINETIC :
Is the way of the body to handle the drug.
[ through absorption, distribution, metabolism & excretion ]
EFFICACY :
Is the relation between occupancy of receptor sites & the
pharmacological response.
OR :
Is the degree of response regardless the dose.
POTENCY :
Is the dose or concentration of the drug required to produce
a given response.
OR :
Is the minimal dose required for the needed response.
THERAPEUTIC INDEX :
Is the ratio between TD50 : ED50.
TD50 is toxic dose that produce undesired effect.
ED50 is effective dose that produce desired effect.

IDIOSYNCRASY :
Is unusual drug response.
i.e. single individual may respond differently to the same drug
at different times during the course of treatment.
HYPERSENSITIVITY :
Is allergic or any other immunological response to the drug
TOLERANCE :
Is the decreasing of the intensity of response during the
treatment. [ the patient feels to increase the dose of the
drug to get the same response ]
TACHYPHYLAXIS :
When responsiveness decreases rapidly after drug administration
BIOAVAILABILITY :
Measure of speed & completeness of absorption from
the site of administration.
CLEARANCE :
Is the measure of the ability of the body to eliminate the
drug through the urine[ relative to the plasma drug conc. ]
VOLUME OF DISTRIBUTION :
Is the measure of the space in the body available to contain
the drug.

HALF LIFE :
Is the time required to attain 50% of steady state
OR :
Is the time to decay 50% of the steady state.
MAINTENANCE DOSE :
The dose needed to maintain a chosen steady state.
LOADING DOSE :
Is the amount of the drug needed to achieve a given steady
state conc. In the plasma.
XENOBIOTICS :
Substances absorbed across the lungs, skin or ingested with
food or drinks or drugs for recreational purposes.

ORPHAN DRUGS ;
Drugs for rare diseases.
1- What is the mechanism of drug permeation ?
There are 4 mechanisms :
1- Aquous diffusion
through gut or cornes.
2- Lipid diffusion
through cell membranes.
3- Special carriers
as B.B.B.
4- Pinocytosis
drugs of exceptional large size
2- What are the factors that affect the drug distribution ?
1- Protein binding
2- Blood flow
3- Membrane permeability
4- Tissue solubility
Diabetes Mellitus [ DM ]

IDDM
Insulin Dependant DM

NIDDM
Non Insulin Dependant DM

Type 1
Type 1 :

Type 11
Type 11 :

Is a severe form. Mainly in juveniles &

Mainly in adults ( obese )

rare in adults ( non obese & elderly )

Occurs due to infections as mumps

insulin is insufficient or
the tissue sensitivity to

or exposure to destructive substance

insulin is low or B cells impaired

as Cytotoxics. There is ketosis.

to respond to Glucose.

* Insulin Structure :
It is 51 amino acids in two chains [ A & B ] linked by disulphide bridges.
Beef insulin is differ in 3 amino acids. But Pork is differ in one only.
Human Pancreas has Islets of Langerhams which has 4 types of cells
A cells [ alpha ]

B cells [ beta ]

D cells [ delta ]

F cells [ PP ]

secretes

secretes

secretes

secretes

glycogen

Insulin

somatostatin

pancreatic polypeptides

* Insulin preparations ;
1- Short acting Insulin :
a- Regular type [ crystalline zinc ]
clear sol. & the only one can be taken I.V.
b- Semilente [ amorphous crystalline ]
2- Intermediate acing Insulin :
a- Lente type is mixture of [ 30% semilent & 70% ultralent ]
b- NPH [ protamine zinc - Isophane ]
ex. most common use one is 30/70 type ( NOVOLIN ) from Squibb
it is 70% NPH & 30% regular type.
3- Long acting Insulin :
ex.

Ultralente

* Complications of Insulin Therapy ;

1- hypoglycemia [ treated by sugar intake ]
2- lipodystrophy at the site of injection.
3- Two immunopathology disorders
a- Insulin allergy
local & systemic urticaria
b- immuno insulin resistance
the tissues sensitivity to insulin decreased due to IgG
anti-insulin antibody neutralize the action of insulin.

** Oral Hypoglycemics :
1- Sulphonyl Ureas
mainly are used for type 11 DM
as Tolbutamide - Glibenclamide [ Daonil ] - Tolazamide Acetohexamide - Glipizide - Chlorpropamide
Mechanism of action
a- Stimulate B cells to release Insulin
b- Decrease the serum glycogen
c- Potentiate the action of Insulin on the target tissues.

2- Biguanides :
It decreases the level of glucose in the blood
as Phenformin [ Glucophage ] - Metformin - Buformin
Bronchodilators & Asthma
Drugs used to treat asthma are :
1- Cromolyn Sod.
ex. Sod. Cromoglycate for prophylaxis.
2- Methyl Xanthines
ex. Theophylline - Theobromine - Caffeine
Aminophylline [ theophylline + ethyldiamine ]
Pentoxyfylline [ Trental ]
3- Sympathomimetics :
ex. Ephedrine - Epinephrine - Isoproternol [ non specific B agonist ]
B2 selective agonists as :
a- Terbutaline [ Bricanyl ]
b- Metaproternol [ Alupent ]
c- Albuterol [ Salbovent , Ventolin ]
4- Anti-muscarinic drugs :
ex. Atropine - Ipratropium [ Atrovent
5- Corticosteroids :
ex. Beclomethasone - Dexamethazone - Triamcinolone.

AUTONOMIC NERVOUS SYSTEM [ ANS ]

Q- What is the difference between ANS & endocrine system ?
** Is in the mode of transmission
in case endocrine system via blood - borne hormones.
in case ANS via chemical transmission as acetylcholine & nor-epinephrine
And both of them is used to control & integrate the body functions.
Q- The nervous system is two divisions :
a- Autonomic
b- Somatic
What is the difference ?
** The autonomic to control the activities that are not under conscious
as blood flow , cardiac output
The somatic to control the activities that under conscious.
as respiration , exercise.

Q- The autonomic nervous system is sub-divided into :

a- Sympathetic
b- Parasympathetic
What is effect on the body activities of both of them ?
Organ

Sub-organ

Sympathetic

Parasympathetic

action

receptor

action

receptor

Vascular muscles

constrict

alpha

relax

Muscarinic/M

contractility

contract

alpha

relax

2- Lungs

bronchial muscles

Relax

B2

contract

3- G.I.T.

walls

Relax

B2

contract

sphincters

contract

Alpha

Relax

Secretions

******

****

Increase

Penis

ejaculation

alpha

erection

uterus

Relax

B2

Bladder wall

Relax

B2

contract

sphincters

contract

alpha

Relax

sweat glands

Increase

Heat stress

Increase

alpha

Radial muscles

contract

alpha

Relax

circular muscles

contract

alpha

Relax

1- Heart

4- Sex Organs

5- Urinary t.

6- Skin

7- Eye

[ mydriasis ]

[ miosis ]

A- PARASYMPATHOMIMETICS :

A- Direct acting

B- Indirect acting

Cholinesterase
inhibitors

muscarinic

nicotinic

reversible

irreversible

1- Carbamates

Phosphates

2- Edrophonium
esters

alkaloids

3- Neostigmine

1- Acetylcholine

as Muscarine & Nicotine

4- Phtsostigmine{ eserine }

2- Bethanchole
3- Methacholine
4- Carbachol

** The main uses of Parasympathomimetics :

1- Glaucoma
There are two types of glaucoma
1- Primary

2- Secondary
It is caused by surgical procedures
( chronic )

Angle closure
( Acute )

Open angle
( chronic )

* for the closure angle type :

is kind of emergency & needs medication then surgery.

as Pilocarpine , physostigmine , Carbachole & Methacholine.

* for the open angle type :
only use medication

2- Postoperative ileus & Congenital megacolon

Use Bethanichole & Neostigmine
3- Myasthenia Gravis :
Use Edrophonium & Neostigmine
*** Antidote :
1- Atropine

2- Pralidoxime

B- PARASYMPATHOLYTICS :
They are contraindicated in Glaucoma & in elderly patients with urinary
retention.
Examples :
1- Anti-muscarinics : Atropine - Homatropine - isopropamide
Cyclopentolate - Hyoscyamine
Scopolamine - Propanthine
2- Ganglion Blockers : Mecamylamines - Hexamethonium - Trimethaphan
3- Cholinesterase regenerator : Pralidoxime
4- Sympathomimetics : Nor-epinephrine
** It is used to treat Mashroom poisoning
also Atropine is used before anesthesia to reduce secretions & retina
examination & as anti-spasmodic.
C- SYMPATHOMIMETICS :
mainly this group has positive effect on the heart & C.V.S.
This group is classified according the selectivity on Alpha & Beta receptors.

Alpha Agonists

B1 & B2 non-selective

B2 selective

1- Epinephrine

1- Epinephrine

1- Albuterol ( ventolin )

1- Norepinph..

2- Nor-epinephrine

2- Isoproternol

2- Terbutaline ( Bricanyl

2- Dobutamine

3- Phenylephrine

3- Metaproternol ( Alupent )

4- Methoxamine

4- Ritodrine

** Main Uses :
1- Hypotension
2- Heart block
3- Bronchodilators
4- Retinal examination

B1 selective

D- SYMPATHOLYTICS :
mainly are used for treating hypertension.

Alpha blockers

Beta blockers

B1 blockers

1- Prazocin ( Minipress )

1- Propranolol ( Inderal )

1- Metoprolol ( Lepressor )

2- Phenoxybenzamine

2- Timolol

2- Acebutolol ( Sectral )

3- Phentolamine

3- Nadolol ( Corgard )

3- Atenolol ( Tenormin )

4- Tolazoline ( Priscoline )

4- Pindolol ( Visken )

4- Esmolol

5- yohimbine ( for sex disorders )

N.B.

Levobunolol

( Betagan liquifilm )

** Uses :
1- Hypertension
2- Pheichromocytoma
3- Glaucoma
4- Ischemic heart disease
5- Cardiac arrhythmia
7- Hyperthyroidism.

5- Alprenol

Betaxolol

( Betoptic )

B2 blockers
Butoxamine

ANTIMICROBIAL DRUGS
** Mechanism Of Action
Antimicrobial action
1- Through inhibition of cell wall
synthesis

Antimicrobial group
Penicillin's, Cephalosporins, Bacitracin
Cycloserin, Vancomycin

2- Through inhibition of cell

Amphotericin B, Nystatin, Imidazoles

membrane

Polymyxines

3- Through inhibition of protein

synthesis

Chloramphenicol, Erythromycin's,
Tetracycline's, Aminoglycosides

4- Through inhibition of nucleic

Quinolones, Rifampin, Sulfonamides.

acid synthesis
Q- What is the definition of Cross Resistance ?
When micro-organisms resistant to a certain drug may also be resistant
to other drugs.
CEPHALOSPORINS

Ist, generation Gr.

2nd, generation Gr.

3rd, generation Gr.

1- Cephalexin ( Keflex )

1- Cefaclor ( Ceclor )

1- Cefoperazone ( Cefobid )

2- Cephalothin ( Keflin )

2- Cefuroxime ( Zinacef - Zinnat )

2- Cefotaxime ( Claforan )

3- Cephradin ( Velosef )

3- Cefoxitin

3- Cefotetan

4- Cefazolin ( Kefzol )

4- Cefonicid

4- Ceftizoxime ( Cefizox )

5- Cefadroxil ( Ultracif )

CHLORAMPHENICOL
** Side Effects :
1- G.I.T. disturbances.
2- Bone Marrow Disturbances [ aplastic anemia ]
3- Newborn infants toxicity [ gray syndrome ]

TETRACYCLINE'S
** Side Effects :
1- G.I.T. side effects
2- It affects the bony structures & teeth.
3- Liver & kidney toxicity.
4- Photosensitization [ specially Demecycline ]
* examples of tetracycline's :
1 Doxycycline ( Vibramycin )
2 Minocycline ( Minocin )
3 Oxytetracycline ( Terramycin )
4 Tetracycline

AMINOGLYCOSIDES
* Examples :
1- Amikacin ( Amikin )
2- Gentamycin ( Garamycin )
3- Neomycin
4- Sreptomycin
5- Tobramycin ( Nebcin )