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Test Booklet Code

A
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Time : 3 hrs.

Answers & Solutions


for

M.M. : 360

JEE (MAIN)-2015
(Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics)
Important Instructions :
1.

The test is of 3 hours duration.

2.

The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.

3.

There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Chemistry and
Mathematics having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4 (four)
marks for each correct response.

4.

Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in Instructions No. 3 for correct response of each
question. (one-fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question.
No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer
sheet.

5.

There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in each
question will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly
as per instruction 4 above.

6.

Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars/marking responses on Side-1 and Side-2
of the Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.

7.

No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile
phone, any electronic device, etc. except the Admit Card inside the examination room/hall.

8.

The CODE for this Booklet is

A. Make sure that the CODE printed on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet

and also tally the serial number of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet are the same as that on this
booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator
for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet.

JEE (MAIN)-2015

PARTA : PHYSICS
1.

2.

Two stones are thrown up simultaneously from the


edge of a cliff 240 m high with initial speed of
10 m/s and 40 m/s respectively. Which of the
following graph best represents the time variation of
relative position of the second stone with respect to
the first?

L
g . Measured value of L is 20.0 cm known
to 1 mm accuracy and time for 100 oscillations of
the pendulum is found to be 90 s using a wrist
watch of 1 s resolution. The accuracy in the
determination of g is
T 2

(Assume stones do not rebound after hitting the


ground and neglect air resistance, take g = 10 m/s2)
(The figures are schematic and not drawn to scale)

240

The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum is

(y2 y1) m

(1) 2%

(2) 3%

(3) 1%

(4) 5%

Answer (2)
2
Sol. g 4 .

(1)

12

t (s)

(y2 y1) m
240
(2)

240

3.

(y2 y1) m

(3)

240

g
l
T
100 100 2
100
g
l
T
=

l
t
100 2. 100
l
t

0.1
1
100 2 100
20.0
90

100 200 1 20


3%
200 90 2 9

t (s)

12

12

l
T2

A B

Given in the figure are two blocks A and B of


weight 20 N and 100 N, respectively. These are
being pressed against a wall by a force F as shown.
If the coefficient of friction between the blocks is 0.1
and between block B and the wall is 0.15, the
frictional force applied by the wall on block B is

t (s)

(y2 y1) m

(4)

(1) 100 N

(2) 80 N

(3) 120 N

(4) 150 N

Answer (3)

12

t (s)
fs

Answer (3)
Sol.

Sol. Till both are in air (From t = 0 to t = 8 sec)


x = x2 x1 = 30t

A
20 N

x t
When second stone hits ground and first stone is in
air x decreases.

100 N

Clearly fs = 120 N (for vertical equilibrium of the


system)
2

JEE (MAIN)-2015

4.

A particle of mass m moving in the x direction with


speed 2v is hit by another particle of mass 2m
moving in the y direction wth speed v. If the
collision is perfectly inelastic, the percentage loss in
the energy during the collision is close to
(1) 44%

(2) 50%

(3) 56%

(4) 62%

6.

From a solid sphere of mass M and radius R a cube


of maximum possible volume is cut. Moment of
inertia of cube about an axis passing through its
center and perpendicular to one of its faces is
(1)

MR 2
32 2

(2)

MR 2
16 2

(3)

4 MR 2
9 3

(4)

4 MR 2
3 3

Answer (3)
Sol. m

2v
v

v'

Answer (3)

2mv 2
v'
3m

Sol. d 2 R a 3

2m
KE loss =

1
1
2
m 2 v 2m v 2
2
2
2

2mv 2
1
5 2
3m
mv
2
3
m
3

5
mv 2
3
Required % =
100 56%
2mv 2 mv 2
5.

h2
4R

(2)

3h
4

(3)

5h
8

(4)

3h 2
8R

2
R
3

4 3
R
M
3
3

M 2 3
2
R

Distance of the centre of mass of a solid uniform


cone from its vertex is z0. If the radius of its base is
R and its height is h then z0 is equal to
(1)

M'

Answer (2)
Sol. dm r 2 .dy.

2M
3

M ' a2 2 M 4 2 1

R
6
6
3 3

4 MR 2
9 3
From a solid sphere of mass M and radius R, a
R
is removed, as
spherical portion of radius
2
shown in the figure. Taking gravitational potential
V = 0 at r = , the potential at the centre of the
cavity thus formed is
(G = gravitational constant)
I

7.

R
yCM

ydm
dm

r 2 dy y
1 2
R h
3

3h
4
3

(1)

GM
2R

(2)

GM
R

(3)

2GM
3R

(4)

2GM
R

JEE (MAIN)-2015

Answer (2)

Answer (3)

Sol. V = V1 V2

1U 1 4
Sol. P kT
3V 3

GM
V1 3 3R 2 R
2R
2

PV = RT

M
3G
8
V2
R

2
2

V T3

GM
R
A pendulum made of a uniform wire of crosssectional area A has time period T. When an
additional mass M is added to its bob, the time
period changes to TM. If the Young's modulus of the
material of the wire is Y then

(i) Sequentially keeping in contact with 2


reservoirs such that each reservoir supplies
same amount of heat.

1
is equal to
Y

TM 2
A
(1) T 1 Mg

TM 2
Mg
(2) T 1 A

TM 2 A
(3) 1 T Mg

T 2 A
(4) 1 T Mg
M

(ii) Sequentially keeping in contact with 8


reservoirs such that each reservoir supplies
same amount of heat.
In both the cases body is brought from initial
temperature 100C to final temperature 200C.
Entropy change of the body in the two cases
respectively is

Answer (1)

9.

(1) ln 2, 4ln 2

(2) ln 2, ln 2

(3) ln 2, 2ln 2

(4) 2ln 2, 8ln 2

Answer (None)

l
Sol. T 2 g

1
T

10. A solid body of constant heat capacity 1 J/C is


being heated by keeping it in contact with reservoirs
in two ways :

(g = gravitational acceleration)

Sol. ds

...(1)
l l
g

...(2)

Mgl
Fl
l
Al
AY

...(3)

TM 2

...(ii)

RT 1 4
kT
V
3

V
8.

...(i)

dQ
dT
ms
T
T

s ds ms

T
473
dT
1log e 2 log e
373
T
T1

11. Consider an ideal gas confined in an isolated closed


chamber. As the gas undergoes an adiabatic
expansion, the average time of collision between
molecules increases as Vq, where V is the volume of
the gas. The value of q is

1
A TM

Y Mg T

CP

Cv

Consider a spherical shell of radius R at


temperature T. The black body radiation inside it
can be considered as an ideal gas of photons with
internal energy per unit volume u

(1)

U
T 4 and
V

1
2
Answer (3)

(3)

1 U
pressure P . If the shell now undergoes an
3V

Sol.

adiabatic expansion the relation between T and R is


(1) T eR

(2) T e3R

(3) T 1
R

(4) T

3 5
6

1
R3

vrms

V
T

(2)

3 5
6

(4)

1
2

1
3 RT
N
2 d 2
V M

...(i)

...(ii)

JEE (MAIN)-2015

TV 1 = k

Answer (2)
v
320
320
Sol. f 1 f v v f 320 20 f 300 Hz

1
2

12. For a simple pendulum, a graph is plotted between


its kinetic energy (KE) and potential energy (PE)
against its displacement d. Which one of the
following represents these correctly?

v
320
f2 f
Hz
f
v
v
340

f
f f1
100 2 1 2
100
f1
f1

(Graphs are schematic and not drawn to scale)

300
100
1 12%
340
14. A long cylindrical shell carries positive surface
charge in the upper half and negative surface
charge in the lower half. The electric field lines
around the cylinder will look like figure given in

E
KE
PE
d
E

(2)

KE
E

(figures are schematic and not drawn to scale)

PE

++++
+
+

(1)

KE

d
(3)

(2)

+
++

++
+

(1)

...(iii)

PE

E
(3)

PE
(4)

KE

(4)

Answer (2)
Sol. KE

++ ++
+
+

1
m2 ( A2 d 2 )
2

Answer (1)

1
m2 d 2
2
At d = A,

Sol. The field line should resemble that of a dipole.

PE

15. A uniformly charged solid sphere of radius R has


potential V0 (measured with respect to ) on its
surface. For this sphere the equipotential surfaces
3V0 5V0 3V0
V
,
,
and 0 have radius
with potentials
2
4
4
4
R1, R2, R3 and R4 respectively. Then

PE = maximum while KE = 0.
13. A train is moving on a straight track with speed
20 ms1. It is blowing its whistle at the frequency of
1000 Hz. The percentage change in the frequency
heard by a person standing near the track as the
train passes him is (speed of sound = 320 ms1)
close to
(1) 6%

(2) 12%

(3) 18%

(4) 24%

(1) R1 = 0 and R2 > (R4 R3)


(2) R1 0 and (R2 R1) > (R4 R3)
(3) R1 = 0 and R2 < (R4 R3)
(4) 2R < R4
5

JEE (MAIN)-2015

Answer (3, 4)

Charge

Q
Sol. V0 k
R

...(i)

VI

kQ
3R 2 r 2
2 R3

Q2
(4)

1 F

3
V V0 R1 = 0
2

R2

Answer (2)

2 2
5 kQ
kQ 3R 3 r
4 R
2R

3 F

Sol. C aq =

3C
3C

...(i)

3C
E
Total charges q
3C

R
2

...(ii)

3 kQ kQ
3
4 R
R

Charge upon capacitor 2 F,

4R
3
1 kQ kQ

4 R
R4

q'

R3

R4 = 4R R4 > 2R

2 3CE
2CE
2E

3 (3 C ) 3 C 1 3
C

Now,

16. In the given circuit, charge Q2 on the 2 F capacitor


changes as C is varied from 1 F to 3 F. Q2 as a
function of C is given properly by : (Figures are
drawn schematically and are not to scale)

dQ
dQ 2
0, 2 0
dC
dC

17. When 5 V potential difference is applied across a


wire of length 0.1 m, the drift speed of electrons is
2.5 104 ms1. If the electron density in the wire is
8 1028 m3, the resistivity of the material is close to

1 F
C

(1) 1.6 108 m

(2) 1.6 107 m

(3) 1.6 106 m

(4) 1.6 105 m

Answer (4)

2 F

Sol. V IR I

Charge

VA
VA
V

Il
ln eA d
l n e d

5
0.1 2.5 10 19 1.6 10 19 8 10 28
= 1.6 105 m

Q2
(1)

1 F

l
A

3 F

18. In the circuit shown, the current in the 1 resistor


is

6V

Charge
Q2

(2)

1 F

3 F

3
Q

Charge

(1) 1.3 A, from P to Q

Q2

(2) 0 A

(3)

(3) 0.13 A, from Q to P

1 F

3 F

(4) 0.13 A, from P to Q


6

9V

JEE (MAIN)-2015

Answer (3)

Answer (2)

Sol. From KVL,

9 = 6I1 I2 (1)

6 = 4I2 I1 (2)
Solving, I1 I2 = 0.13A

6V

I2

Sol.

I1

(l)g

I1I2

Tcos = gl

9V

Tsin =

3
19. Two coaxial solenoids of different radii carry

current I in the same direction. Let F1 be the
magnetic force on the inner solenoid due to the

outer one and F2 be the magnetic force on the outer
solenoid due to the inner one. Then


(1) F1 = F2 = 0

(1)

0
I Il
.
2 2 L sin

gL
0 cos

I 2 sin

21. A rectangular loop of sides 10 cm and 5 cm carrying


a current I of 12 A is placed in different orientations
as shown in the figures below:



(2) F1 is radially inwards and F2 is radially
outwards


(3) F1 is radially inwards and F2 = 0

(a)



(4) F1 is radially outwards and F2 = 0

Answer (1)

Sol. Net force on each of them would be zero.

(b)

20. Two long current carrying thin wires, both with


current I, are held by insulating threads of length L
and are in equilibrium as shown in the figure, with
threads making an angle with the vertical. If wires
have mass per unit length then the value of I is

I
z

(g = gravitational acceleration)

(c)

B
y

gL
(1) sin cos
0

(d)

gL
(2) 2 sin cos
0

I
I

If there is a uniform magnetic field of 0.3 T in the


positive z direction, in which orientations the loop

(3) 2

gL
tan
0

(4)

gL
tan
0

would be in (i) stable equilibrium and (ii) unstable


equilibrium?
7

JEE (MAIN)-2015

23. A red LED emits light at 0.1 watt uniformly around


it. The amplitude of the electric field of the light at
a distance of 1 m from the diode is

(1) (a) and (b), respectively


(2) (a) and (c), respectively
(3) (b) and (d), respectively

(1) 1.73 V/m

(2) 2.45 V/m

(3) 5.48 V/m

(4) 7.75 V/m

Answer (2)

(4) (b) and (c), respectively


Answer (3)

Sol. I

 
Stable equilibrium M||B

U av

B
I

...(2)

P
1
0 E02 c
4 r 2 2

2P
2.45 V/m
4 r 2 0 c

24. Monochromatic light is incident on a glass prism of


angle A. If the refractive index of the material of the
prism is , a ray, incident at an angle , on the face
AB would get transmitted through the face AC of the
prism provided.

22. An inductor (L = 0.03 H) and a resistor (R = 0.15


k) are connected in series to a battery of 15 V EMF
in a circuit shown below. The key K1 has been kept
closed for a long time. Then at t = 0, K1 is opened
and key K 2 is closed simultaneously. At
t = 1 ms, the current in the circuit will be ( e 5 150)

0.03 H

1
1 1
(2) sin sin A sin

0.15 k

1
1 1
(3) cos sin A sin

1
1 1
(4) cos sin A sin

K1

15 V
(1) 100 mA

(2) 67 mA

(3) 6.7 mA

(4) 0.67 mA

Answer (1)

Answer (4)

1
1 1
(1) sin sin A sin

K2

Sol. I I 0 e ,

...(1)

1
0 E02
2

E0



Unstable equilibrium M|| B

P
U av c
4 r 2

L
R

Sol.

r
1

r2

1103

15 1/5103
e

0.67 mA
150

sin = sin r1
8

JEE (MAIN)-2015

26. Assuming human pupil to have a radius of 0.25 cm


and a comfortable viewing distance of 25 cm, the
minimum separation between two objects that
human eye can resolve at 500 nm wavelength is

sin
sin r1 =

1 sin
r1 = sin

sin
r2 = A sin 1

(2) 30 m

(3) 100 m

(4) 300 m

Answer (2)

Sol. RP

1 1
r2 < sin

1.22 (500 10 9 m)
1.22

2 sin
1
2 1

100

0.25 cm

sin
1 1
A sin 1
sin

(1) 1 m

25 cm

= 3.05 105 m

1
sin
A sin 1 sin 1

= 30 m
27. As an electron makes a transition from an excited
state to the ground state of a hydrogen-like atom/ion

sin
1 1
sin A sin

(1) Its kinetic energy increases but potential energy


and total energy decrease

1 1
sin A sin sin

(2) Kinetic energy, potential energy and total energy


decrease
(3) Kinetic energy decreases, potential energy
increases but total energy remains same

1
1 1
sin sin A sin

(4) Kinetic energy and total energy decrease but


potential energy increases

25. On a hot summer night, the refractive index of air is


smallest near the ground and increases with height
form the ground. When a light beam is directed
horizontally, the Huygen's principle leads us to
conclude that as it travels, the light beam

Answer (1)
Sol. PE 27.2

(1) Becomes narrower

TE

(2) Goes horizontally without any deflection


(3) Bends downwards
(4) Bends upwards
Answer (4)
Sol. Consider a plane wavefront travelling horizontally.
As it moves, its different parts move with different
speeds. So, its shape will change as shown

13.6 z 2
eV
n2

KE

13.6 z 2
eV
n2

KE

13.6
eV , As n decreases, KE
n2

Light bends upward

z2
eV
n2

PE

27.2
eV , as n decreases, PE
n2

TE

13.6
eV , as n decreases, TE
n2

JEE (MAIN)-2015

28. Match List-I (Fundamental Experiment) with List-II


(its conclusion) and select the correct option from
the choices given below the list:

List -I
(A) Franck-Hertz
experiment
(B) Photo-electric
experiment
(C) Davison-Germer
experiment

List-II
Particle nature
of light
(ii) Discrete energy
levels of atom
(iii) Wave nature of
electron
(iv) Structure of
atom

(i)

(1) (A) - (i)

(B) - (iv)

(C) - (iii)

(2) (A) - (ii)

(B) - (iv)

(C) - (iii)

(3) (A) - (ii)

(B) - (i)

(C) - (iii)

(4) (A) - (iv)

(B) - (iii)

(C) - (ii)

C
If a student plots graphs of the square of maximum
2
charge QMax
on the capacitor with time (t) for two

different values L1 and L2 (L1 > L2) of L then which


of the following represents this graph correctly?
(Plots are schematic and not drawn to scale)
2

QMax

L1

(1)

L2

Answer (3)
Sol. Franck-Hertz exp. Discrete energy level.
2

QMax

Photo-electric effect Particle nature of light

L2

(2)

Davison-Germer exp. Diffraction of electron beam.

L1

29. A signal of 5 kHz frequency is amplitude modulated


on a carrier wave of frequency 2 MHz. The
frequencies of the resultant signal is/are

QMax

L1

(1) 2 MHz only


(3)

(2) 2005 kHz and 1995 kHz

L2

(3) 2005 kHz, 2000 kHz and 1995 kHz


(4) 2000 kHz and 1995 kHz
2

QMax

Answer (3)

Q0 (For both L1 and L2)

(4)

Sol. Frequencies of resultant signal are

fe + fm, fe and fe fm
(2000 + 5) kHz, 2000 kHz, (2000 5) kHz,

Answer (1)

2005 kHz, 2000 kHz, 1995 kHz

Sol. For a damped pendulum, A = A0ebt/2m

30. An LCR circuit is equivalent to a damped


pendulum. In an LCR circuit the capacitor is

charged to Q0 and then connected to the L and R as


shown below :

A A0 e

t
2L

(Since L plays the same role as m)


10

JEE (MAIN)-2015

PARTB : CHEMISTRY
31. The molecular formula of a commercial resin used
for exchanging ions in water softening is
C8H 7SO 3Na (mol. wt. 206). What would be the
maximum uptake of Ca2+ ions by the resin when
expressed in mole per gram resin?
(1)

1
103

(2)

2
(3)
309

4 =2

34. The intermolecular interaction that is dependent on


the inverse cube of distance between the molecules
is

1
206

1
(4)
412

(1) Ion-ion interaction

(2) Ion-dipole interaction

(3) London force

(4) Hydrogen bond

Answer (4)
Sol. H-bond is one of the dipole-dipole interaction and
dependent on inverse cube of distance between the
molecules.

Answer (4)
Sol. Ca+2 + 2C8H7SO3Na+ Ca(C8H7SO3)2 + 2Na+
1 mol

13.6
=
3.4

2 mol

35. The following reaction is performed at 298 K.

1
1

mol/g
The maximum uptake =
206 2 412

 2NO (g)


2NO(g) + O2(g) 
2

The standard free energy of formation of NO(g) is


86.6 kJ/mol at 298 K. What is the standard free
energy of formation of NO2(g) at 298 K?

32. Sodium metal crystallizes in a body centred cubic


lattice with a unit cell edge of 4.29 . The radius of
sodium atom is approximately

(Kp = 1.6 1012)

(1) 1.86

(2) 3.22

(1) R(298) ln(1.6 1012) 86600

(3) 5.72

(4) 0.93

(2) 86600 + R(298) ln(1.6 1012)

Answer (1)

(3) 86600

Sol. Edge length of BCC is 4.29 .


In BCC,
edge length =

4.29

4
3

4
3

Answer (4)
 2NO (g)
Sol. 2NO(g) + O2(g) 
2

4.29
3 1.86
4

reaction

33. Which of the following is the energy of a possible


excited state of hydrogen?

formation
product

reactant
formation

RT ln K P 2 G

(1) +13.6 eV
(2) 6.8 eV

(3) 3.4 eV
(4) +6.8 eV

Answer (3)
Sol. Energy of excited state is negative and correspond to
n > 1.
n=

R 298

12
(4) 0.5 2 86, 600 R 298 ln1.6 10

ln 1.6 10 12

13.6

NO 2

NO 2

2 G

NO

NO 2

2 G

NO

RT ln K P

2 86600 R 298 ln K P
2

2 86600 R 298 ln1.6 10 12


2

0.5 2 86, 600 R 298 ln 1.6 1012

E excited state

11

JEE (MAIN)-2015

36. The vapour pressure of acetone at 20C is 185 torr.


When 1.2 g of a non-volatile substance was
dissolved in 100 g of acetone at 20C, its vapour
pressure was 183 torr. The molar mass (g mol1) of
the substance is

Now Q C

(2) 64

38. Two faraday of electricity is passed through a


solution of CuSO4. The mass of copper deposited at
the cathode is (at. mass of Cu = 63.5 amu)

(3) 128
(4) 488
Answer (2)

(1) 0 g

Sol. Vapour pressure of pure acetone PA 185 torr

(2) 63.5 g
(3) 2 g

Vapour pressure of solution, PS = 183 torr

(4) 127 g

Molar mass of solvent, MA = 58 g/mole

Answer (2)

PA PS n B
as we know

PS
nA

Sol. Cu+2 + 2e Cu
So, 2 F charge deposite 1 mol of Cu. Mass deposited
= 63.5 g.

185 183 WB M A

183
M B WA

39. Higher order (>3) reactions are rare due to

2
1.2 58

183 M B 100

MB

A 2

1
2
2
2 4
1

2

as QC > KC, hence reaction will shift in backward


direction.

(1) 32

C B

(1) Low probability of simultaneous collision of all


the reacting species
(2) Increase in entropy and activation energy as
more molecules are involved

1.2 58

183
2 100

(3) Shifting of equilibrium towards reactants due to


elastic collisions

63.68 g/mole

(4) Loss of active species on collision

37. The standard Gibbs energy change at 300 K for the

Answer (1)



reaction 2A 
 B + C is 2494.2 J. At a given time,

the composition of the reaction mixture

Sol. Higher order greater than 3 for reaction is rare


because there is low probability of simultaneous
collision of all the reacting species.

is

1
1
, B 2 and C . The reaction proceeds
2
2
in the : [R = 8.314 J/K/mol, e = 2.718]

40. 3 g of activated charcoal was added to 50 mL of


acetic acid solution (0.06N) in a flask. After an hour
it was filtered and the strength of the filtrate was
found to be 0.042 N. The amount of acetic acid
adsorbed (per gram of charcoal) is

(1) Forward direction because Q > KC


(2) Reverse direction because Q > KC

(1) 18 mg

(3) Forward direction because Q < KC

(2) 36 mg

(4) Reverse direction because Q < KC

(3) 42 mg

Answer (2)

(4) 54 mg



Sol. 2A 
 B + C, G = 2494.2 J

Answer (1)
Sol. Number of moles of acetic acid adsorbed

As we know G = 2.303 RT logKC

50
50

0.06
0.042

1000
1000

2494.2 = 2.303 8.314 300 log KC


0.434 = log KC

0.9
moles
1000
Weight of acetic acid adsorbed

KC = anti log (0.434)


KC = 0.367
Now A

= 0.9 60 mg
= 54 mg

1
1
, B 2 and C
2
2

Hence, the amount of acetic acid adsorbed per g of


12

JEE (MAIN)-2015

charcoal =

54
mg
3

Answer (2)
Sol. BeSO4 has hydration energy greater than its lattice
energy.

= 18 mg

45. Which among the following is the most reactive?

Hence, option (1) is correct.

(1) Cl2

41. The ionic radii (in ) of N 3 , O 2 and F are


respectively

(2) Br2

(1) 1.36, 1.40 and 1.71

(3) I2

(2) 1.36, 1.71 and 1.40

(4) ICl

(3) 1.71, 1.40 and 1.36

Answer (4)

(4) 1.71, 1.36 and 1.40

Sol. Because of polarity and weak bond interhalogen


compounds are more reactive.

Answer (3)

46. Match the catalysts to the correct processes :

Sol. Radius of N3, O2 and F follow order

Catalyst

N3 > O2 > F
As per inequality only option (3) is correct

a.

TiCl3

(i) Wacker process

b.

PdCl2

(ii) Ziegler-Natta
polymerization

c.

CuCl2

(iii) Contact process

that is 1.71 , 1.40 and 1.36


42. In the context of the Hall-Heroult process for the
extraction of Al, which of the following statement is
false?

d. V2O5
(2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)

(2) Al2O3 is mixed with CaF2 which lowers the


melting point of the mixture and brings
conductivity
(3)

(iv) Deacon's process

(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)

(1) CO and CO2 are produced in this process

Al 3+

Process

(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)


(4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)

is reduced at the cathode to form Al

Answer (2)

(4) Na3AlF6 serves as the electrolyte

Sol. TiCl3

Ziegler-Natta polymerisation

Answer (4)

V2O5

Contact process

Sol. In Hall-Heroult process Al2O3 (molten) is electrolyte.

PdCl2

Wacker process

43. From the following statement regarding H 2O 2,


choose the incorrect statement

CuCl2 -

Deacon's process

47. Which one has the highest boiling point?

(1) It can act only as an oxidizing agent

(1) He

(2) It decomposes on exposure to light

(2) Ne

(3) It has to be stored in plastic or wax lined glass


bottles in dark.

(3) Kr
(4) Xe

(4) It has to be kept away from dust

Answer (4)

Answer (1)
Sol. H2O2 can be reduced or oxidised. Hence, it can act
as reducing as well as oxidising agent.

Sol. Down the group strength of van der Waal's force of


attraction increases hence Xe have highest boiling
point.

44. Which one of the following alkaline earth metal


sulphates has its hydration enthalpy greater than
its lattice enthalpy?

48. The number of geometric isomers that can exist for


square planar [Pt(Cl)(py)(NH 3 )(NH 2 OH)] + is
(py = pyridine)

(1) CaSO4

(1) 2

(2) BeSO4

(2) 3

(3) BaSO4

(3) 4

(4) SrSO4

(4) 6
13

JEE (MAIN)-2015

52. Which of the following compounds will exhibit


geometrical isomerism?

Answer (2)

a
Sol.

Pt

Pt

Pt

(1) 1 - Phenyl - 2 - butene


(2) 3 - Phenyl - 1 - butene

(3) 2 - Phenyl - 1 - butene

as per question a = Cl, b = py, c = NH 3 and


d = NH2OH are assumed.

(4) 1, 1 - Diphenyl - 1 propane


Answer (1)

49. The color of KMnO4 is due to


(1) M L charge transfer transition

Sol. For geometrical isomerism doubly bonded carbon


must be bonded to two different groups which is
only satisfied by 1 - Phenyl - 2 - butene.

(2) d - d transition
(3) L M charge transfer transition

(4) - * transition

Ph CH2

Answer (3)

50. Assertion : Nitrogen and Oxygen are the main


components in the atmosphere but these
do not react to form oxides of nitrogen.

CH3
(2)

CH3

CH3

(3)

(4)

H3C

CH3
Answer (2)

(4) Both the assertion and reason are incorrect

Sol. 5-keto-2-methylhexanal is

Answer (1)

Sol. N2 + O2 2NO

O
H

Required temperature for above reaction is around


3000C which is a quite high temperature. This
reaction is observed during thunderstorm.

O3

Zn

51. In Carius method of estimation of halogens, 250 mg


of an organic compound gave 141 mg of AgBr. The
percentage of bromine in the compound is (At. mass
Ag = 108; Br = 80)

O
H

54. The synthesis of alkyl fluorides is best


accomplished by
(1) Free radical fluorination

Answer (1)

(2) Sandmeyer's reaction

Sol. Percentage of Br

(3) Finkelstein reaction


(4) Swarts reaction

Weight of AgBr
Mol. mass of Br
= Mol. mass of AgBr Weight of O.C. 0

Answer (4)
Sol. Swart's reaction

CH3

(3) The assertion is incorrect, but the reason is


correct

(4) 60

CH3

CH3

(2) Both assertion and reason are correct, but the


reason is not the correct explanation for the
assertion

(3) 48

Ph CH2

(1)

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct, and the


reason is the correct explanation for the
assertion

(2) 36

C=C

CH3

The reaction between nitrogen and


oxygen requires high temperature.

(1) 24

CH3

cis
trans
53. Which compound would give 5-keto-2-methyl
hexanal upon ozonolysis?

Sol. Charge transfer spectra from ligand (L) to metal (M)


is responsible for color of KMnO4.

Reason :

H
C=C

141 80

100 = 24%
188 250

CH 3 Cl AgF
CH 3 F AgCl

14

JEE (MAIN)-2015

55. In the following sequence of reactions :


KMnO

SOCl

57. Which polymer is used in the manufacture of paints

H /Pd

4
2
2
Toluene
A
B
C,
BaSO

and lacquers?

the product C is

(1) Bakelite

(1) C6H5COOH

(2) Glyptal

(2) C6H5CH3

(3) Polypropene

(3) C6H5CH2OH

(4) Poly vinyl chloride

(4) C6H5CHO

Answer (2)

Answer (4)
CH3

COOH
KMnO4

Sol.

COCl

SOCl2

Sol. Glyptal is used in manufacture of paints and

CHO

lacquires.

H2/Pd
BaSO4

(A)

(B)

58. Which of the vitamins given below is water soluble?

(C)

56. In the reaction

(1) Vitamin C

NH2

(2) Vitamin D
NaNO2/HCl
0-5C

CuCN/KCN

(3) Vitamin E

E + N2 ,

(4) Vitamin K

CH3

Answer (1)

the product E is

Sol. Vitamin C is water soluble vitamin.

COOH

59. Which of the following compounds is not an


antacid?

(1)

(1) Aluminium Hydroxide

CH3

(2) Cimetidine
(2) H3C

CH3

(3) Phenelzine
(4) Ranitidine

CN

Answer (3)
(3)

Sol. Phenelzine is not antacid, it is anti-depressant.

CH3

60. Which of the following compounds is not colored


yellow?

CH3

(1) Zn2[Fe(CN)6]
(4)

(2) K3[Co(NO2)6]
(3) (NH4)3[As (Mo3O10)4]

Answer (3)
+

NH2
Sol.

CH3

N2Cl

CN

NaNO2/HCl

CuCN/KCN

0C - 5C

CH3
(D)

(4) BaCrO4
Answer (1)

+ N2

Sol. (NH4)3[As (Mo3O10)4], BaCrO4 and K3[Co(NO2)6] are

CH3

yellow colored compounds but Zn2[Fe(CN)6] is not

(E)

yellow colored compound.


15

JEE (MAIN)-2015

PARTC : MATHEMATICS
61. Let A and B be two sets containing four and two
elements respectively. Then the number of subsets of
the set A B, each having at least three elements is
(1) 219

(2) 256

(3) 275

(4) 510

63. Let and be the roots of equation x2 6x 2 = 0.


a10 2 a8
If an = n n, for n 1, then the value of
2 a9
is equal to
(1) 6
(2) 6
(3) 3

Answer (1)

Answer (3)

Sol. n(A) = 4, n(B) = 2

Sol. From equation,

(4) 3

+=6

n(A B) = 8

= 2

Required numbers = 8C3 + 8C4 + ...... + 8C8

10
10
8
8
a10 2 a8 ( )
The value of
2( 9 9 )
2 a9

= 28 (8C0 + 8C1 + 8C2)


= 256 37

= 219

62. A complex number z is said to be unimodular if


|z| = 1. Suppose z1 and z2 are complex numbers
such that

z1 2 z2
is unimodular and z 2 is not
2 z1 z2

6
3
2
2

equation AAT = 9I, where I is 3 3 identity matrix,


then the ordered pair (a, b) is equal to

(1) Straight line parallel to x-axis


(2) Straight line parallel to y-axis
(3) Circle of radius 2

(1) (2, 1)

(2) (2, 1)

(3) (2, 1)

(4) (2, 1)

Answer (4)

Answer (3)

2 1 2 a 9 0 0
1 2
2 1 2 2
1 2 0 9 0

Sol.
a 2
b 2 2 b 0 0 9

z1 2 z2
Sol. 2 z z 1
1 2

z1 2 z2 z1 2 z2

2 z1 z2 2 z1 z2

2(9 9 )

1 2 2
64. If A = 2 1 2 is a matrix satisfying the
a 2 b

unimodular. Then the point z1 lies on a

(4) Circle of radius

9 ( ) 9 ( )

a 4 2b 0

2 a 2 2b 0

z1 z1 2 z1 z2 2 z2 z1 4 z2 z2

a1b 0

4 2 z1 z2 2 z1 z2 z1 z1 z2 z2

2 a 2 b 2
a 2 b 4

z1 z1 4 z2 z2 4 z1 z1 z2 z2

3 a 6

zz1 1 z2 z2 4 1 z2 z2 0

a 2

z1 z1 4 1 z2 z2 0

2 1 b 0

b=1

z1 z1 4

a=2

|z| = 2 i.e. z lies on circle of radius 2.

(2, 1)
16

JEE (MAIN)-2015

65. The set of all values of for which the system of


linear equations

5 digit numbers

2x1 2x2 + x3 = x1
2x1 3x2 + 2x3 = x2

x1 + 2x2 = x3

5 4 3 2 1 = 120

has a non-trivial solution

Total number of integers = 72 + 120 = 192

(1) Is an empty set

67. The sum of coefficients of integral powers of x in

(2) Is a singleton
(3) Contains two elements
(4) Contains more than two elements
Answer (3)
Sol. x1 (2 ) 2 x2 x3 0
2 x1 x2 ( 3) 2 x3 0
x1 2 x2 x3 0

2
1
2
2 3
2 0
2
1

Sol.

1 50
(3 1)
2

(2)

1 50
(3 )
2

(3)

1 50
(3 1)
2

(4)

1 50
(2 1)
2

1 2 x

50

50

C0

50

C1 2 x

50 C 2 (2 x )2 .....

50

C0 2 0 50 C 2 2 2 50 C 4 2 4  50 C 50 2 50

We know that
50

(1 + 2)50 =

3 2 2 2 2 3 3 0

C0 50 C1 2 ..... 50 C 50 2 50

Then,

2 ( 1) 2 ( 1) 3( 1) 0

350 1
2
68. If m is the A.M. of two distinct real numbers l and
n (l, n > 1) and G1, G2 and G3 are three geometric

( 1)( 2 2 3) 0

50

( 1)( 3)( 1) 0

1, 1, 3

C0 50 C 2 2 2 ..... 50 C 50 2 50

means between l and n, then G14 2G24 G34 equals.

Two elements.
66. The number of integers greater than 6,000 that can
be formed, using the digits 3, 5, 6, 7 and 8, without
repetition, is

(1) 4 l2mn

(2) 4 lm2n

(3) 4 lmn2

(4) 4 l2m2n2

Answer (2)

(1) 216
(2) 192

Sol.

(3) 120
(4) 72

ln
m
2
l + n = 2m

(i)

n 4
G1 l
l

Answer (2)
Sol. 4 digit numbers

6,

7,

678

n 4
G2 l
l

n 4
G3 l
l

Sum of coefficient of integral power of x

3 2 5 3 0

5,

is

(1)

3 2 5 3 0

3,

50

50 C 50 ( 2 x )50

2 6 8 3 4 4 4 1 0

Answer (1)

(2 )( 2 3 4) 2 ( 2 2) (4 3) 0
2

the binomial expansion of 1 2 x

= 72
17

JEE (MAIN)-2015

71. If the function.

Now G14 2G24 G33


2

l4

n
n
n
2 (l 2 ) l 4
l
l
l

k x 1
g( x )
mx 2

= nl3 + 2n2l2 + n3l

, 0x3
, 3x5

is differentiable, the value of k + m is

= 2n2l2 + nl(n2 + l2)


= 2n2l2 + nl((n + l)2 2nl)

(1) 2

= nl(n + l)2
= nl (2m)2

(3)

=4

nlm2

(1) 71

(2) 96

(3) 142

(4) 192

lim
h0

g(3 h ) g(3)
h

= lim
h0

n n 1

2
n

lim
h0

m(3 h ) 2 2 k
h

(3m 2 k ) mh 2
m
h

and 3m 2k + 2 = 0
L.H.D.

n 1 2
4

lim

k (3 h ) 1 2 k
h

h0

1
n2 2n 1
4

lim
h0

1 n n 1 2n 1 2 n n 1

4
6
2

h0

1 cos 2 x 3 cos x
x tan 4x

x 0

h( 4 h 2)

k
4

k
m and 3m 2k + 2 = 0
4
m

is equal to

2
8
and k
5
5

km

(1) 4

8 2 10

2
5 5 5

Alternative Answer

(2) 3

k x 1
g( x )
mx 2

(3) 2
(4)

4h4

From above,

= 96

lim

k[ 4 h 2]
h

lim k

1 9 10 19


9 10 9
4
6

70.

, 0x3
, 3x5

R.H.D.

Answer (2)

tn

(4) 4

k x 1
Sol. g( x )
mx 2

1
1 2
1 2 3

........ is
1
1 3
1 3 5

Sol.

10
3

16
5

Answer (1)

69. The sum of first 9 terms of the series


3

(2)

1
2

, 0x3
, 3x5

g is constant at x = 3

Answer (3)

k 4 3m 2

2 sin 2 x 3 cos x x 2
=2
Sol. lim

tan 4 x
x0
x
x2
4x
4x

2k = 3m + 2
k

m
Also

2 x 1 x3

18

(i)

JEE (MAIN)-2015

Now, f (x) = 4x + 3a3x2 + 4a4x3

k
m
4

= x[4 + 3a3x + 4a4x2]

k=4m

Given, f (1) = 0 and f (2) = 0

(ii)

8m=3m+2

2
8
m ,k
5
5
2 8
m k 2
5 5
72. The normal to the curve, x2 + 2xy 3y2 = 0 at (1,1)

3a3 + 4a4 + 4 = 0

(i)

and 6a3 + 16a4 + 4 = 0

1
, a = 2
2 3

Solving, a4

2
3
i.e., f ( x ) 2 x 2 x

(1) Does not meet the curve again

(ii)

1 4
x
2

i.e., f (2) 0

(2) Meets the curve again in the second quadrant


(3) Meets the curve again in the third quadrant

74. The integral

(4) Meets the curve again in the fourth quadrant


Answer (4)

dx
equals
( x 4 1)3/4

x4 1 4
(1) 4 c
x

Sol. Curve is x2 + 2xy 3y2 = 0


dy
dy

y 6y
0
Differentiate wr.t. x, 2 x 2 x
dx
dx

(2) ( x 4 1) 4 c
1

x4 1 4
(4) 4 c
x

1
4

(3) ( x 1) c
4

dy
1

dx (1, 1)

Answer (4)

So equation of normal at (1, 1) is


Sol. I

y 1 = 1 (x 1)
y=2x

dx

x 2 ( x 4 1)3/4

Solving it with the curve, we get


x2 + 2x(2 x) 3(2 x)2 = 0
4x2 + 16x 12 = 0
x2 4x + 3 = 0
x = 1, 3

4
t 5 dx dt
4
x
x

So, I

1 dt
1 3/4

t dt
3/4

4 t
4

73. Let f(x) be a polynomial of degree four having extreme

(1) 8

(2) 4

(3) 0

(4) 4

x5 1 4

Let 1

So points of intersections are (1, 1) & (3, 1) i.e.


normal cuts the curve again in fourth quadrant.
f (x)

values at x = 1 and x = 2. If lim 1


3 , then
x 0
x2
f(2) is equal to

dx
3/4

1 t 1/4
c
4 1 / 4

= 1 4
x

1/4

So, option (4).


4

75. The integral

Answer (3)
Sol. Let f(x) = a0 + a1x + a2x2 + a3x3 + a4x4

to

f (x)

Using lim 1 2 3
x 0
x
f (x)
lim 2 2
x 0 x

2 log x

log x 2
2

log(36 12 x x 2 )

(1) 2

(2) 4

(3) 1

(4) 6

Answer (3)
4

log x 2 dx

Sol. I

a a x a2 x 2 a3 x 3 a4 x 4
lim 0 1
2
x 0
x2
So, a0 = 0, a1 = 0, a2 = 2
i.e., f(x) = 2x2 + a3x3 + a4x4

2 log x

log(36 12 x x 2 )

log(6 x )2 dx

2 log x

19

log(6 x )2

dx is equal

JEE (MAIN)-2015
4

Answer (3)*

Sol. It is best option. Theoretically question is wrong,


because initial condition is not given.

2 I 1 dx
2I = 2
I=1
76. The area (in sq. units) of the region described by
{(x, y) : y2 2x and y 4x 1} is
7
32

(1)

dy
+ y = 2x logx
dx

x log x

(2)

15
(3)
64

dy
y

2
dx x log x

5
64

I.F. e

9
(4)
32

Sol.

x log x dx

e log log x log x

Solution is y log x 2 log x dx c

Answer (4)

y=1

If x = 1 then y = 0

y log x 2( x log x x ) c

y=1

x = 1, y = 0
Then, c = 2, y(e) = 2
78. The number of points, having both co-ordinates as
integers, that lie in the interior of the triangle with
vertices (0, 0), (0, 41) and (41, 0), is

1
2

After solving y = 4x 1 and y2 = 2x

y 4

y
1
2

y1=0

1 18 1 3

4
4
1

(3) 820

(4) 780

y 1,
1

(0, 41)

Sol.

A39

1
2

y
y1
4 dy 2 dy
1/2
1/2

A2

1 y2
1 y

y
4 2
1/2 2 3 1/2

1 4 8 1 4 1 8 1
2 24
4
8

1 15 9

4 8 48

15 6
9

32 32 32

B2
B1

A1

3 1

(41, 0)

(0, 0)

Total number of integral coordinates as required


= 39 + 38 + 37 + ....... + 1

39 40
780
2

79. Locus of the image of the point (2, 3) in the line


(2x 3y + 4) + k(x 2y + 3) = 0, k R, is a

77. Let y(x) be the solution of the differential equation

x log x

(2) 861

Answer (4)

2y2

(1) 901

(1) Straight line parallel to x-axis

dy
y 2 x log x , ( x 1).
dx

(2) Straight line parallel to y-axis

Then y(e) is equal to


(1) e

(2) 0

(3) 2

(4) 2e
20

(3) Circle of radius

(4) Circle of radius

JEE (MAIN)-2015

82. Let O be the vertex and Q be any point on the


parabola, x2 = 8y. If the point P divides the line
segment OQ internally in the ratio 1 : 3, then the
locus of P is

Answer (3)
Sol. After solving equation (i) & (ii)
2x 3y + 4 = 0

...(i)

2x 4y + 6 = 0

...(ii)

x = 1 and y = 2
Slope of AB Slope of MN = 1
b3
2
b3
2
1
a2 a2
1
2

(2, 3)

(2) y 2 x

(3) y 2 2 x

(4) x 2 2 y

Answer (4)

a 2 b 3
M
,

2
2

N
(1, 2)

(1) x 2 y

Sol. x2 = 8y
Let Q be (4t, 2t2)

(y 3)(y 1) = (x 2)x
(a, b)
B (Image of A)

y2 4y + 3 = x2 + 2x

x2 + y2 2x 4y + 3 = 0
Circle of radius =

Let P be (h, k)

80. The number of common tangents to the circles


x2 + y2 4x 6y 12 = 0 and
x2 + y2 + 6x + 18y + 26 = 0, is
(1) 1

(2) 2

(3) 3

(4) 4

h = t, k

Q(4t, 2t )

t2
2

2k h 2

Locus of (h, k) is x2 = 2y.


83. The distance of the point (1, 0, 2) from the point of

Answer (3)
Sol. x2 + y2 4x 6y 12 = 0
C1(center) = (2, 3), r =

intersection of the line

2 2 32 12 5

C2(center) ( 3, 9), r 9 81 26
64 8

C1C2 = 13, C1C2 = r1 + r2


81. The area (in sq. units) of the quadrilateral formed by
the tangents at the end points of the latera recta to

Sol.

27
4
27
(3)
2
Answer (4)

(2) 8

(3) 3 21

(4) 13

x2 y1 z2

3
4
12
P 3 2, 4 1, 12 2

x2 y2

1 , is
9
5

Lies on plane x y + z = 16
Then,

(2) 18

(1)

(1) 2 14

Answer (4)

Number of common tangent is 3.

the ellipse

x2 y1 z2

and the
3
4
12

plane x y + z = 16, is

x2 + y2 + 6x + 18y + 26 = 0

3 2 4 1 12 2 16

(4) 27
2

11 5 16

y
x

1
9
5
i.e., a2 = 9, b2 = 5

Sol. Ellipse is

So, e

t2
P t,
2

P 5, 3, 14

Distance =

16 9 144 169 13

84. The equation of the plane containing the line


2x 5y + z = 3; x + y + 4z = 5, and parallel to the
plane, x + 3y + 6z = 1, is

2
3

2
As, required area 2a 2 9 27
e
(2/3)

21

(1) 2 x 6 y 12 z 13

(2) x 3y 6 z 7

(3) x 3y 6 z 7

(4) 2 x 6 y 12 z 13

JEE (MAIN)-2015

Answer (3)

Answer (1)*

Sol. Required plane is

Sol. Question is wrong but the best suitable option is (1).

(2x 5y + z 3) + (x + y + 4z 5) = 0

Required probability =

It is parallel to x + 3y + 6z = 1

C3

29
312

55 2

3 3

11

87. The mean of the data set comprising of 16


observations is 16. If one of the observation valued
16 is deleted and three new observations valued 3,
4 and 5 are added to the data, then the mean of the
resultant data, is

2 5 1 4

1
3
6

11
2

Solving =

12

(1) 16.8

Required plane is

(2) 16.0
(3) 15.8

11
(x + y + 4z 5) = 0
(2x 5y + z 3)
2

(4) 14.0
Answer (4)

x + 3y + 6z 7 = 0

Sol. Mean = 16


85. Let a , b and c be three non-zero vectors such that
no two of them are collinear and

Sum = 16 16 = 256
New sum = 256 16 + 3 + 4 + 5 = 252

   1   
( a b ) c |b ||c | a . If is the angle between
3

vectors b and c , then a value of sin is

(1)

2 2
3

(2)

2
3

(3)

2
3

(4)

2 3
3

252
= 14
18

Mean =

88. If the angles of elevation of the top of a tower from


three collinear points A, B and C, on a line leading
to the foot of the tower, are 30, 45 and 60
respectively, then the ratio, AB : BC, is
(1)

3 : 1

(2)

3 :

Answer (1)
(3) 1 :

      1   
Sol. ( a c ) b (b c ) a |b ||c | a
3

 
1  
(b c ) |b ||c |
3

1
cos
3

sin

(4) 2 : 3
Answer (1)

55 2

3 3

h 3

1
(3) 220
3

12

BO = h

2 2
3

11

Sol. AO = h cot30

CO

86. If 12 identical balls are to be placed in 3 identical


boxes, then the probability that one the boxes
contains exactly 3 balls is
(1)

2
(2) 55
3

10

1
(4) 22
3

11

h
3

AB AO BO

BC BO CO

h 3 h
h
h
3

22

30

60

45
B

JEE (MAIN)-2015

2x
89. Let tan 1 y tan 1 x tan 1
1 x 2
where |x|

1
3

90. The negation of ~ s (~ r s) is equivalent to

. Then a value of y is

3x x 3
(1)
1 3x 2

3x x 3
(2)
1 3x 2

3x x 3
(3)
1 3x 2
Answer (1)

3x x 3
(4)
1 3x 2

(1) s ~ r
(2) s (r ~ s)
(3) s (r ~ s)
(4) s r
Answer (4)
Sol. ( s ( r s ))

2x
Sol. tan y tan x tan
1 x 2
1

3x x 3
1 3x 2

= s (r s )
= (s r ) (s s )

3
1 3x x
3tan1 x = tan
2
1 3x

= s r

  

23