JP-JF - Jee Main (MT-1) - 26-12-2012 - Code-0

CODE
MAJOR TEST-1 (MT-1) (JEE MAIN)

TARGET : JEE (IITs) 2013
Date : 26-12-2012
COURSE : VIJETA (JP) & VISHWAAS (JF)

Duration : 3 Hours
Max. Marks : 300
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
INSTRUCTIONS
2.
The question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner on this sheet of this booklet.
3.
No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
4.
Blank paper, clipboard, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets
in any form are not allowed.
5.
The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately.
6.
Do not Tamper / mutilate the ORS or this booklet.
7.
Do not break the seals of the question-paper booklet before instructed to do so by the invigilators.
8.
Write your Name, Roll No. and Sign in the space provide on the back page of this booklet.
B. Filling the Top-half of the ORS :

Use only Black ball point pen only for filling the ORS. Do not use Gel / Ink / Felt pen as it might smudge the
ORS.
9.
Write your Roll no. in the boxes given at the top left corner of your ORS with black ball point pen. Also, darken
the corresponding bubbles with Black ball point pen only. Also fill your roll no on the back side of your ORS
in the space provided (if the ORS is both side printed).
10. Fill your Paper Code as mentioned on the Test Paper and darken the corresponding bubble with Black ball
point pen.
11. If student does not fill his/her roll no. and paper code correctly and properly, then his/her marks will not be
displayed and 5 marks will be deducted (paper wise) from the total.
12. Since it is not possible to erase and correct pen filled bubble, you are advised to be extremely careful while
darken the bubble corresponding to your answer.
13. Neither try to erase / rub / scratch the option nor make the Cross (X) mark on the option once filled. Do not
scribble, smudge, cut, tear, or wrinkle the ORS. Do not put any stray marks or whitener anywhere on the
ORS.
14. If there is any discrepancy between the written data and the bubbled data in your ORS, the bubbled data will
be taken as final.
C. Question paper format and Marking scheme :
15. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry & Mathematics). Each part consists of Four
Sections.
16. For each question in SectionI, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the
correct choice for the answer and zero mark if no bubbled is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect
answer, minus one (1) mark will be awarded.
17. For each question in SectionII, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble(s) corresponding
to the correct choice for the answer and zero mark if no bubbled is darkened. There is no negative
marking for incorrect answer(s) in this section.
18. For each question in SectionIII, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble(s) corresponding
19. For each question in SectionIV, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble(s) corresponding
DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING

INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR
A. General :
1. This Question Paper contains 87 questions.
2.
PART-A
The current through 15 V battery is :
SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type
T his s ec tion contains 12 m ultiple c hoic e
questions. Each question has choices (1), (2),
(1) 1A
(3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
(2) 2A
1.
(3) 3A
Area of each conducting plates 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 is
(4) 4A
A. The system is kept in air. Then the capacitance

between A and B is : (1 & 4, 2 & 5 and 3 & 6 are pair
of parallel plates).
3.
Two circular plates of radius R are kept at distance

h to make a parallel plate capacitor as shown in
figure. Then the capacitance of this capacitor is.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
3 0 A
d
2 0 A
3 d
3 0 A
2 d
0 A
3d
(1)
0 R 2
h
(2)
0 2R
h
(3)
2 0 2R 2
h
(4) None of these
(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)
RESONANCE
JPJEEMAINSXII261212C0-1
4.
The direction of force on electron at point O due to
6.
A plane mirror is moving in a circle in front of a

stationary point object O as shown in fig. Then path
dipole P is.
of image of object is.
(1)
(2)
7.
(1) circle
(2) straight line
(3) ellipse
(4) parabolic
A beam of electrons striking a copper target

produces X-rays.Its spectrum is as shown. Keeping
the voltage same if the copper target is replaced
(3)
with a different metal, the cut-off wavelength and

characteristic lines of the new spectrum will change
in comparision with old as :
(4)
5.
The equalent resistance between A and B is.
(1) Cut-off wavelength will remain unchanged while

characteristic lines will be different.
(2) Both cut-off wavelength and characteristic lines
will remain unchanged.
R
2
(1) R
(2)
(3) 2R
(4) None of these
(3) Both cut-off wavelength and characteristic lines

will be different.
(4) Cut-off wavelength will be different while
characteristic lines will remain unchanged.
RESONANCE
8.
Consider the circuit containing resistors and an
10. In a series LR circuit, the voltage drop across
ideal battery. Potential difference Va Vb is equal
inductor is 8 volt and across resistor is 6 volt. Then
to (where points 'a' and 'b' are as shown)
voltage applied and power factor of circuit
11
32V
10
20
respectively are:
(1) 14 V, 0.8
(2) 10 V, 0.8
(3) 10 V, 0.6
(4) 14 V, 0.6
15
11. A current i in a circular loop of radius b produces

a magnetic field. At a fixed point far from the loop
(1) 5V
(2) 10 V
(on its axis) the magnetic field is proportional to
(3) 12.5 V
(4) 5 V
which of the following combinations of i and b ?

(1) ib
9.
Two large oppositely charged insulated plates have
(2) ib2
a uniform electric field between them as shown.
(3) i2b
The distance between the plates is increased by a
(4) i/b2
small amount. Which of the following statements

is/are correct.
12. A negative charge is given to a loop and the loop is
rotated in the plane of paper about its centre as
shown. The magnetic field produced by the ring
affects a small magnet placed above the ring in
the same plane of paper.
Statement(i) The electric field strength decreases.

Statement(ii) The electrostatic force of attraction
(1) the magnet does not rotate
between the plates increases.
(2) the magnet rotates clockwise as seen by
Statement(iii) The potential difference between the
observer from below
plates increases.
(3) the magnet rotates anti-clockwise as seen from
(1) (i) only
(2) (ii) only
below
(3) (iii) only
(4) (i) and (iii) only
(4) none of the above
RESONANCE
15. A negative test charge is moving near a long
SECTION - II
straight current carrying wire . A force will act on

This section contains 5 multiple choice questions.
Each question has choices (1), (2), (3), (4) and
(5) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
the test charge in a direction parallel to the

direction of the current, if the motion of the charge
is in a direction:
(1) towards wire
13. Figure shows a hemisphere of charge Q and radius
(2) the same as that of current
R and a sphere of charge 2Q and radius R. The
(3) opposite to that of current
total potential energy of hemisphere is UH and that
(4) perpendicular to both the direction of current
the sphere is US. Then.
and the direction towards wire.

(5) None of these
16. In the circuit shown, cells are of equal emf E but of

different internal resistances r1 = 6 and r2 = 4 .
Reading of the ideal voltmeter connected across
(1) 2UH = US
(2) 2UH < US
(3) 2UH > US
(4) UH = US
cell 1 is zero. Value of the external resistance R in

ohm is equal to-
(5) Data insefficient

R
14. Refractive indices of 2 different media with

separating boundary at the diagonal of rectangular
glass slab are shown. Total angle of deviation of
the ray as shown in the figure, when it emerges in
Cell1
r1
E
Cell2
r2
air is :
(1) 2
(3) 10
(2) 2.4
(4) 24
(5) zero
(1) 120
(2) 90
(3) 60
(4) 45
(5) 30
RESONANCE
17. T he negatively and
unif or m ly c harged
19. W hich
of
the
following
converges
the
nonconduc ting dis c as shown, is r otated
monochromatic parallel beam of light incidenting on
clockwise. The direction of the magnetic field at
it. (all are kept in air)
point A in the plane of the disc is :
(1) into the page
(2) out of the page
(3) up
(4) down
(5) zero
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) None of these
20. Figure shows a LCR 'circuit connected with a dc

battery of emf and internal resistance R. After a
long time (initially the capacitor was uncharged):
SECTION - III
Multiple Correct Answers Type
This s ection contains 8 m ultiple c orrect
answer(s) type questions. Each question has 4
choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONE
OR MORE is/are correct.
18. Path of charged particle, if only magnetic force acts

on it can be.
(1) circle
(2) helix with constant pitch
(1) Current through the inductor is 8 R

C
(2) Charge stored in the capacitor is 4
(3) helix with variable pitch
C
(3) Charge stored in the capacitor is 2
(4) cycloid
(4) Potential difference across the terminals of
battery is 4
RESONANCE
21. Which of the following statements is/are correct for
23. In the circuit shown the capacitor and inductor do

not have energy initially. Then
an x-ray tube ?
(1) On increasing potential difference between
filament and target, photon flux of x-rays increases
(2) On increasing potential difference between
filament and target, frequency of x-rays increases
(3) On increasing filament current, cutoff
wavelength increases
(4) On increasing filament current intensity of x-
(1) the current flowing through the battery at t = 0
rays increases
is /2R
(2) The current flowing through the battery at t = 0
22. In standard Young double slit experiment, visible
is 2/3R
light ( ( 390 nm, 700 nm)) is used in both the
(3) The current flowing through the battery at t =
slits. Distance between the slits is 2 mm, and
is 2/5R
distance of screen from the slits is 1 m. A thin glass
(4) The current flowing through the battery at t =
slab ( = 1.5) of thickness 6 m is placed in front of
is /2R
slit S2. Light of which wavelength (s) is missing at

point P, which is directly in front of slit S2. (Neglect
dispersion of light)
24. Pick up the correct statements :

(1) The changing (with time) magnetic field need
not be in existence at the location of induced electric
field.
(2) A uniform magnetic field increasing at constant
rate, induces an electric field which is constant and
non conservative.
(3) Non zero force exerted by uniform and constant
magnetic field on a moving charged particle does
(1) 400 nm
(2) 500 nm
2000
(3)
nm
3
1600
(4)
nm
3
no work but always changes momentum of the

particle.
(4) All the above statements are wrong.
RESONANCE
25. In a co-ordinate system shown, non-uniform
magnetic induction B = B0 | x | k exist, where B0 is

a positive constant, x- is x-coordinate of point in
shown space and k is unit vector in positive z-
26. STATEMENT-1 : For the situation shown in the

figure two monochromatic identical coherent light
sources produce interference pattern on the screen.
The intensity of minima nearest to S1 is not exactly
zero.
direction. A square coil placed in this system is

rotated with uniform angular speed about y axis.
The coil may be placed in four ways as shown. If
eI, eII eIII and eIV are the rms emfs induced in these
four cases, which of the following will be correct.
STATEMENT-2 : Minimum intensity is zero when
interfering waves have same intensity at the location
of super position.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1.
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
(1) eI = eII
(2) eIII < eI
(3) eIII > eIV
(4) eII > eI
SECTION - IV
Reasoning Type
T his s ec tion c ontains 4 r easoning type
questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),
(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
RESONANCE
27. STATEMENT-1 : In alpha decay of different
29. STATEMENT-1 : Heavy nuclides tend to have
radioactive nuclides, energies of alpha particles has
more number of neutrons than protons.
been compared. It is found that as energy of alpha
STATEMENT-2 : In heavy nuclei, as there is
particle increases the half life of the decay
coloumbic repulsion between protons, so excess
decreases.
of neutrons are preferable.
STATEMENT-2 : More is the energy in any decay
process, more is the probability of decaying the
nuclide which leads to faster rate of decay.
Statement-1
Statement-1.
Statement-1
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
Statement-1
28. STATEMENT-1 : Although the surface of goggles

lenses are curved, it does not have any optical
power.
STATEMENT-2 : In case of goggles both the curved
surfaces have equal radii of curvature and have
centre of curvature same side.
Statement-1.
Statement-1
RESONANCE
PART- B
Atomic masses : [H = 1, D = 2, Li = 7, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24,
Al = 27, Si = 28, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5,
Zn = 65, As = 75, Br = 80, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, Hg = 200, Pb = 207]
SECTION - I

This section contains 12 questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its answer, out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.
30.
A hydrogen electrode is immersed in a solution

with pH = 0 (HCl). By how much will the potential
(reduction) change if an equivalent amount of NaOH
is added to the solution.
32.
The incorrect statement is :

(1) Vapour pressure of a liquid always increases
by increasing temperature.
(Take pH2 = 1 atm) T = 298 K.
(2) Vapour pressure only depends on temperature

and not on the nature of substance.
(1) increase by 0.41 V

(3) Vapour pressure does not depend on the
quantity of the liquid taken and the surface
area of the liquid.
(2) increase by 59 mV
(3) decrease by 0.41 V
(4) Vapour pressure is not a colligative property

& is independent of the concentration of the
liquid.
(4) decrease by 59 mV
31.
Equal volume of two solution having pH = 2 and

pH = 10 are mixed together at 90C. Then pH of
resulting solution is : (Take Kw at 90C = 1012)
(1) 2 + log 2
(2) 10 log 2
(3) 7
(4) 6
33.
When borax is dissolved in water :

(1) B(OH)3 is formed only
(2) [B(OH)4] is formed only
(3) both B(OH)3 and [B(OH)4] are formed
(4) [B3O3(OH)4] is formed only
RESONANCE
34.
Which one of the following statements is correct:
37.
Ammonia gas is not prepared by :
(1) Brownian movement is more pronounced for

smaller particles than for bigger ones
(1)
reduction of sodium nitrite or sodium nitrate

by the reaction of zinc dust and sodium
hydroxide.
(2)
hydrolysis of calcium cyanamide.
(3)
heating ammonium chloride with slaked lime.
(4)
heating of (NH4)2Cr2O7
(2) Sols of metal sulphides are lyophilic

(3) Schulze-Hardy law states, the bigger the size
of the ion, the greater is its coagulating power
(4) None of these
35.
Sodium nitroprusside when added to an alkaline

solution of sulphide ions produces purple
colouration due to the formation of :
(1) Na[Fe(H2O)5NOS]
(2) Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS]
38.
(3) Na3[Fe(CN)5NOS]
Write the basicity order of the following :
(4) Na4[Fe(H2O5)NOS)]
CH3 CH2 NH2 (CH3)2NH
36.
Which of the following are bidentate monoanion

ligands ?
(I)
(II)
(III)
O
||
CH3 C NH2
(IV)
(1) Acetylacetonato
(2) Oxalato ion
(1) (II) > (I) > (III) > (IV)
(3) Dimethylglyoximato
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below :
(2) (I) > (III) > (II) > (IV)
(1) 1 only
(2) 1 and 3 only
(3) (III) > (I) > (II) > (IV)
(3) 3 only
(4) 2 and 3 only
(4) (I) > (II) > (III) > (IV)
RESONANCE
50%
H/

product
39.
NaOH /
; the major product is
40.
NaOH,
Product is :
(1)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(2)
(4)
(3)
41.
A neutral type amino acid migrates at anode at

(1) pH > pI
(2) pH < pI
(4)
(3) pH = pI
(4) it depends on structure of amino acid
RESONANCE
44.
SECTION - II
Ionisation constant of each HA (weak acid) and

BOH (weak base) are 3.0 x 107 each at 298K.
The percentage degree of hydrolysis of BA at the
dilution of 10L is :
(1) 25
This section contains 5 questions. Each question

has 5 choices (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) for its answer,
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
(2) 50
(3) 75
(4) 40
42.
Among the following, the species that is both

paramagnetic and coloured is :
(1) [MnO4]2
(5) Data is insufficient

45.
Identify final product in the following :
(2) [TiCl6]2
(3) [VO4]3
HOBr / H ( 2 eq.)
(4) CrO2Cl2
(5) [MnO4]
43.
W hich one of the following statements is

incorrect?
(1)
In the aluminothermite process, aluminium

acts as reducing agent.
(2)
Lead is extracted form its chief ore by both

carbon reduction and self reduction.
(3)
Zinc is extracted from its chief ore by carbon

reduction.
(4)
Extraction of gold involves the leaching of ore

with cyanide solution followed by reduction
with zinc.
(5)
(1)
O
||
C
CHBr2
(2)
O
||
C
CH2Br
Br
(3)
(4)
CH
CHO
(5)
In Hall-Heroult process, the electrolyte used

is a molten mixture of alumina, sodium
hydroxide and cryolite.
RESONANCE
46.
The following compound on hydrolysis will give :
48.
A solution containing Br ions is treated with each

of the following. Which of these will not liberate
bromine gas (in acidic medium) ?
(1) Cl2
(2) HI
(3) I2
(1) A pair of anomers

(4) SO3
(2) A pair of enantiomeris
49.
(3) A pair of epimers
(4) A pair of chain isomers
(5) A pair of molecules having common tautomer
The ozone layer in the earth's upper atmosphere

is important in shielding the earth from very
harmful ultraviolet radiation. The ozone, O3,
decomposes according to the equation 2O3(g)
3O2(g). The mechanism of the reaction is thought
to proceed through an initial fast, reversible step
and then a slow second step.
Step 1: Fast, reversible O3(g)
O2(g) +O(g)
SECTION - III
Step 2: Slow O3(g) + O(g) 2O2(g)
Multiple Correct Answer Type
The which of the following is correct ?

has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its answer,
out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
(1)
Step 2 is rate determining step
(2)
The rate expression for step 2 is
d
[O 3 ]
dt
= k[O3][O]
47.
In the fluorite structure if the radius ratio is
1 ,
2
how many ions does each cation touch ?
(3)
For Step 1 , molecularity is 1
(4)
For Step 2 , molecularity is 2
(1) 4 anions
(2) 12 cations
(3) 8 anions
(4) No cations
RESONANCE
50.
W hich of the following complexes is(are)

paramagnetic ?
52.
(1) [Mn(CN6)]3
(1) Na metal
(2) [Cr(NH3)6]3+
(2) H2, Lindlar catalyst
(3) [Fe(CN)6]4
(3) dilute H2SO4, HgSO4
(4) [Co(CN)6]3
51.
Identify a reagent from the following list which can

easily distinguish between 1-butyne and 2-butyne.
(4) ammonical Cu2Cl2 solution
Consider the reactions shown below ;
53.
The correct order of leaving group ability is/are :
(1)
>
(2)
Which of the following statement (s) is/are correct?

(1)
[X] is a yellow coloured precipitate.

54.
(2)
>
(3)
>
(4)
>
CH OH
Ether
3
RX + Mg
n-Butane
RMgX
[X] is soluble in ammonia solution.

What can be R in the above reaction sequence ?
(3)
(4)
[Y] gives green coloured solution with excess

of sodium hydroxide solution.
The conversion of Cr2O72 to [Y] is an redox
reaction.
(1) n-Butyl
(2) sec-Butyl
(3) n-Propyl
(4) Isopropyl
RESONANCE
57.
SECTION - IV
Reasoning Type
Statement-1 : In water, orthoboric acid behaves

as a weak monobasic Lewis acid.
Statement-2 : In water, orthoboric acid acts as a
proton donor.
(1)
Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

Statement-1.
58.
56.
(2)

Statement-1
(3)
Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4)
Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
Statement-1 : On increasing dilution, the specific

conductance keep on increasing.
Statement-2 : On increasing dilution, degree of
ionization of weak electrolyte increases and
mobility of ions also increases.
Statement-1.
Statement-1.
are
Statement : 2 All isomers are nonidentical

compounds.
This section contains 4 reasoning type questions.

Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and
(4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
55.
Statement
:
1
Enantiomers
nonsuperimposable on each other.
(1)

Statement-1.
(2)

Statement-1
(3)
Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4)
Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
Statement 1 : The reactivity order is :
for Br2/KOH reagent
Statement 2 : Presence of OMe group

increases rate of Hofmann bromamide reaction
by increasing electron density in migrating
phenyl group.
(1)

Statement-1.

Statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.

RESONANCE
PART- C
62. If f x 4 x ,n N and f r 0 represents the rth
SECTION - I
derivative of f(x) at x = 0, then the value of
(f r 0 )
r 0
r!
is equal to

has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its answer, out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
(2) en
59. The maximum value of f(x) = cosx on the set of real

numbers satisfying x4 + 36 13x2 is
(1) cos2
(2) cos3
(3) 1
(4) cos1
(1) 2n
(3) 5n
(4) 4n
63. A person while dialing a telephone number, forgets

the last three digits of the number but remembers
that exactly two of them are same. He dials the
number randomly. The probability that he dialed the
60.
n (81 18 x x 2 ) n ( x 2 6 x 9)
(1) 2
(3)
correct number, is equal to
n (81 18 x x 2 )
(2) 1
1
n2
2
61. If the determinant
dx =
(4)
1
n3
2
3 cos 2x
cos 4 x 1 cos 3 x
sin 2 x
2 cos 6 x cos 2 x
sin 4 x 1 cos 3 x 1
expressed in terms of powers of cosx then the value

of constant term is
(1)
1
135
(2)
1
27
(3)
1
54
(4)
1
270
64. If A,B,C are set then A (B C) is equal to

(1) A (B C)
(2) A B C
(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) A (B C)
(3) 9
(4) 8
(4) none of these
RESONANCE
68. Let p,q be statements. Negation of statement

1
65. If I =
p ~ q, is
cos x dx then
0
(1) ~ q p
1 1
(1) I 3 ,
2
(2) ~ p q
(3) p q
3
(2) I <
2
(4) p q
(3) I < cos1

x
x 2 5x 3
im
is equal to
69. x 2
x x3
1
(4) I sin 1 , cos 2
8
(1) e4
66. If the mean of x in distribution
(2) e2
Variate X
Frequency of X
(3) e3
(4) e
is 2.6, then the value of k is

(1) 8
70. A curve passes through the point (2a, a) and is
(2) 10
such that sum of subtangent and abscissa is
(3) 12
equal to a. Its equation is
(4) 18
(1) (x a) y2 = a3
67. Let a relation R in the set N of natural numbers be

defined as (x, y) x2 4xy + 3y2 = 0 for all
x, y N. The relation R is
(2) (x a)2 y = a3
(3) (x a) y = a2
(1) reflexive
(4) (x + a) y = a2
(2) symmetric
(3) transitive
(4) an equivalence relation.
RESONANCE
73. Let f(x) =
SECTION - II
2
x 1
cosec1
. Then

(1) lim f(x) = 0

x 1
has 5 choices (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) for its answer,
(2) lim f(x) =
x 1
71. If x1, x2, x3, x4 are the roots of the equation x4 x3
(3) lim
x 3
f(x) = 1
sin 2 + x2 cos2 x cos sin = 0, where

(4) lim f(x) = 1
(0, ). Then
i 1
x 3
tan 1 x i is equal to
(5)
(1)
lim f(x) =
x 3
74. The contents of urn and are as follows,

Urn : 4 white and 5 black balls
(2)
+
2
Urn : 3 white and 6 black balls

One urn is chosen at random and a ball is drawn
(3)
and its colour is noted and replaced back to the

urn. Again a ball is drawn from the same urn,
(4)
colour is noted and replaced. The process is

repeated 4 times and as a result one ball of white
(5) +
colour and 3 of black colour are noted. The
72. If a i 2j k , b j k , then the point of

intersection of lines r a b a and r b a b
probability that the chosen urn was is

(1)
125
287
(2)
64
127
(3)
25
287
(4)
79
192
is
(1) i j k
(2) i 3 j
(3) i j 2k
(4) 3i j k
(5) i j 2k
(5)
250
94
RESONANCE
75. Area of the region bounded by the curve y = x2 and
77. A normal is drawn at a point P(x, y) of a curve. It
y = sec1 [sin2x] (where [ . ] denotes the greatest
meets the x-axis and y-axis at points A and B
integer function) is
respectively such that
(1)
2
3
+
= 1, O being
OA
OB
origin. Equation of such curve passing through point

(1, 1) can be
2
(2)
3
(3)
(1) x2 + y2 4x 6y + 8 = 0
4
3
(2) x2 + y2 2x 3y + 3 = 0
(3) 2x2 + 2y2 x y 2 = 0
6
(4)
3
(5)
(4) x2 + y2 4x + 6y 4 = 0
3
2
78. If f(x) = x2, 1 x 4, g(x) = sec1x, x 1 then

(1) Domain of gof(x) is [1, 4] {1}
SECTION - III
Multiple Correct Answer Type
(2) Domain of gof(x) is [1, 4]

has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its answer, out
(3) Range of gof(x) is [0, sec1 16]
of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

76. If f(x) is real valued continuous and differentiable
x
function satisfying (f(x))2 =
f
0
( t ) ( f ' ( t ))2 dt + 2013
then which of following are possible.
2013 e
(2) f(x) = 2013 e
x
(1) f(x) =
(4) Range of fog(x) is 0,
79. If f(x) = 0 for x < 0 and f(x) is differentiable at x = 0,

then for x > 0, f(x) may be
(1) x2
(2) x
(3) f(x). f(x)= (f(x))2
(4) f(x) = 2013 + 2x
(3) sin x
(4) x3/2
RESONANCE
80. If G is the centroid and O is the circumcentre of the

triangle with vertices (1, 2, 0), (0, 0, 2) and
83. Tw o e q u a t i o n s r . n1 q1 a n d r . n 2 q 2
(2, 1, 1), then equation/s of line OG is/are
represent two perpendicular planes, where n1
(1) x = y = z
and n 2 are two unit vectors. One of these plane
(2) y = 1, z = 1
is rotated through an angle 45 about line of
intersection of two given planes then equation
x2
y2
z2
=
=
(3)
1
1
1
(4)
of plane in new position can be

(1) r . n1 n 2 = q 1 q 2
x 1
y 1
z 1
=
=
1
1
1

(2) r . n1 n 2 = q 1 + q 2

(3) r . n1 n 2 = q 1 + q 2
81. If p, q, r are any three statements and t is a tautology

then which of the following is/are CORRECT ?

(4) r . n1 n 2 = q 1 q 2
(1) p (q r) = (p q) (p r)
SECTION - IV
Reasoning Type
(2) p (~ p) = t
This section contains 4 reasoning type questions.

Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4),
(3) ~ (p q) = (~p) (~ q)
(4) ~ (p q) = (p ~ q) (~ p q)
82. If c is an arbitrary constant then solution of
differential equation x2dy y2dx xy2(x y) dy = 0
can be
(1) n
a 0 0
84. STATEMENT-1 : If A = 0 a 0 , then |adj A| = a6
0 0 a
and |adj (adj A) | = a9.
STATEMENT-2 : Let A be a square matrix of order
xy
y2
c
xy
2
n, then |adj A| = |A|n 1 and |adj (adj A)| = | A |(n 1)

(2) n
x y y2
c
xy
2
(3) ( x
y2
y )e 2
(4) ( x y )e

Statement-1.
cxy
y2
2
Statement-1
cxy
RESONANCE
85. STATEMENT-1 : Number of solutions for the

equation 2x + 3x + 5x =
1
is equal to one.
100
STATEMENT-2 : Let f(x) be a strictly increasing

function and g(x) be a constant function. Then
number of
solutions for f(x) = g(x) is always equal
to one.
Statement-1.

87. STATEMENT-1 : If a , b , c are non coplanar unit
vectors equally inclined to one another at an angle
, then there will exist three scalar p, q, r such that
a b + b c = pa + qb + rc .

STATEMENT-2 : a b is a vector perpendicular to
plane containing a and b and b c is a vector
perpendicular to plane containing b and c so

a b + b c will be non-zero only if a , b , c are
coplanar.
Statement-1
Statement-1.
86. Let c be arbitrary constant
STATEMENT-1 :
Statement-1
x
1 sin x
dx = ex cot
+c
2
1 cos x
STATEMENT-2 :
( f ( x ) f ( x )) dx = ex f(x) + c

Statement-1.
Statement-1
RESONANCE
Name of the Candidate
Roll Number
I have read all the instructions and

shall abide by them.
I have verified all the information

filled in by the Candidate.
--------------------------------
--------------------------------
Signature of the Candidate
Signature of the Invigilator
(Space for rough work)

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CODE

MAJOR TEST-1 (MT-1) (JEE MAIN)

COURSE : VIJETA (JP) & VISHWAAS (JF)

Max. Marks : 300

No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.

Do not Tamper / mutilate the ORS or this booklet.

B. Filling the Top-half of the ORS :

DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING

The current through 15 V battery is :

(3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Area of each conducting plates 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 is

A. The system is kept in air. Then the capacitance

Two circular plates of radius R are kept at distance

(4) None of these

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

The direction of force on electron at point O due to

A plane mirror is moving in a circle in front of a

of image of object is.

(2) straight line

A beam of electrons striking a copper target

with a different metal, the cut-off wavelength and

The equalent resistance between A and B is.

(1) Cut-off wavelength will remain unchanged while

(4) None of these

(3) Both cut-off wavelength and characteristic lines

Consider the circuit containing resistors and an

10. In a series LR circuit, the voltage drop across

ideal battery. Potential difference Va Vb is equal

inductor is 8 volt and across resistor is 6 volt. Then

to (where points 'a' and 'b' are as shown)

voltage applied and power factor of circuit

11. A current i in a circular loop of radius b produces

(on its axis) the magnetic field is proportional to

which of the following combinations of i and b ?

Two large oppositely charged insulated plates have

a uniform electric field between them as shown.

The distance between the plates is increased by a

small amount. Which of the following statements

Statement(i) The electric field strength decreases.

(1) the magnet does not rotate

between the plates increases.

(2) the magnet rotates clockwise as seen by

Statement(iii) The potential difference between the

observer from below

(3) the magnet rotates anti-clockwise as seen from

(1) (i) only

(2) (ii) only

(3) (iii) only

(4) (i) and (iii) only

(4) none of the above

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

15. A negative test charge is moving near a long

straight current carrying wire . A force will act on

Straight Objective Type

the test charge in a direction parallel to the

13. Figure shows a hemisphere of charge Q and radius

(2) the same as that of current

R and a sphere of charge 2Q and radius R. The

(3) opposite to that of current

total potential energy of hemisphere is UH and that

(4) perpendicular to both the direction of current

the sphere is US. Then.

and the direction towards wire.