Biology 105

Midterm Examination II
10th April, 2014
Version B

Name (print):

Laboratory Instructor:

Use number 2 pencils only.

YOUR SCANTRON SHEET MUST BE FILLED OUT AS SHOWN BELOW

1) Print your nameon this sheet and on the scantron sheet. LAST NAME FIRST.
2) Print your laboratory instructors name on this sheet and on the scantron sheet.
3) Examination version: Write the examination version, version A or version B, in the middle
of the upper margin of the scantron above the box SEX

There are 60 questions on 12 pages (including this page) on both sides of a sheet.

Biology 105

Midterm Examination II Version B

Spring 2014

This is an examination from a previous semester. This is not the examination for this
semester. Previous semesters may have different instructors, different emphases, and covered
topics in different order. This examination is tailored to a previous semester, not to the current
semester.
If you have any questions regarding this sample examination, please refer to the
paragraph above.

01. Apart from sunlight, which of the following is an essential ingredient for the lightdependent reaction of photosynthesis?
a. ATP.
b. CO2.
c. H2O.
d. NADH.
e. O2.
02. Based on nutrition acquisition abilities, plants are categorized as:
a. chemoautotroph.
b. chemohetrotroph.
c. photoautotroph.
d. photochemotroph.
e. photoheterotroph.
03. In plant cells, the photo-pigments used in photosynthesis are located in:
a. the outer membrane of the chloroplasts.
b. the inner membrane of the chloroplats.
c. the stroma of the thylakoids.
d. the matrix of the chloroplasts.
e. the membrane of the thylakoids.
04. In plant cells, the electron transport chain proteins used for generating proton
gradients for ATP production are located in:
a. the outer membrane of the chloroplasts.
b. the inner membrane of the chloroplats.
c. the stroma of the thylakoids.
d. the matrix of the chloroplasts.
e. the membrane of the thylakoids.
05. During photosynthesis, water functions as:
a. an electron donor.
b. an electron acceptor.
c. a weak acid buffer.
d. a coolant against heat from the sun.
e. an electron carrier in the cyclic pathway.
2

Biology 105

Midterm Examination II Version B

Spring 2014

06. What will change if a plant is transferred from sunlight to a room illuminated by
predominantly green light?
a. Not much will change in the plant.
b. Photosynthetic activity will decrease.
c. Oxygen production will be accelerated.
d. Leaves will rapidly turn red.
e. The rate of CO2 consumption will increase.
07. In the noncyclic electron transport pathway, the source of an electron is _____________
, and the final destination of the electron is ________________.
a. photosystem II; photosystem I.
b. H2O; photosystem I.
c. photosystem II; NADPH.
d. phtosystem I; photosystem I.
e. electron transport chain; NADPH.
08. In the cyclic electron transport pathway, the source of an electron is ______________ ,
and the final destination of the electron is ________________.
a. photosystem II; photosystem I.
b. H2O; photosystem I.
c. photosystem II; NADPH.
d. photosystem I; photosystem I.
e. electron transport chain; NADPH.
09. What prevents sister chromatids from separating before anaphase of mitosis?
a. The chiasmata hold chromatids together.
b. Cohesin molecules prevents separation of sister chromatids.
c. The nuclear envelop keeps chromosomes together.
d. Mitotic spindles form after anaphase.
e. The kinetochore and centromere are attached by covalent bonds.
10. Which of the following statement regarding the spindle apparatus is incorrect?
a. It pulls sister chromatids apart during mitosis.
b. It moves sister chromosomes apart during mitosis.
c. It is made up of microfilaments.
d. a and c.
e. b and c.
11. The total number of daughter chromosomes that will be produced by a human cell in
anaphase of meiosis II is:
a. 2.
b. 23.
c. 46.
d. 92.
e. 184.
3

Biology 105

Midterm Examination II Version B

Spring 2014

12. Down syndrome occurs when an individual has an extra copy of chromosome 21
(trisomy 21). This condition is called:
a. cross over.
b. duplicaton.
c. independent assortment.
d. nondisjunction.
e. recombination.
13. The retinoblastoma (RB) protein is an example of a negative regulator of the cell cycle.
How does RB protein act?
a. RB protein acts at a restriction site to prevent the cell cycle from moving beyond the G1
phase.
b. RB protein forces cells to enter the G0 phase.
c. RB protein prevents cells in G0 to re-enter the cell cycle.
d. RB protein blocks the activity of oncogene proteins.
e. RB protein inhibits the formation of mitotic spindles during mitosis.
14. During mitosis, what are the structures linked by mitotic spindles?
a. Centromeres and centrosomes.
b. Centromeres and kinetochores.
c. Homologous chromosomes.
d. Centrosomes and kinetochores.
e. Microtubules and tubulins.
15. Sister chromatids:
a. are joined together by the centromere.
b. are complementary to each other.
c. cross-over before mitosis.
d. separate during meiosis I.
e. All of the above.
16. Which of the following is temporally the longest phase in proliferating cells?
a. Anaphase.
b. Interphase.
c. Metaphase.
d. Prophase.
e. Telophase.
17. A dominant allele is:
a. the allele that determines the phenotype.
b. the allele that is expressed only when it is homozygous.
c. always heterozygous.
d.the most common allele in a population.
e. larger than other alleles of the same gene.

Biology 105

Midterm Examination II Version B

Spring 2014

18. In a cross of two identical heterozygous dihybrids, how many phenotypes are produced,
and in what ratio if the alleles are dominant-recessive pairs?
a. 2 phenotypes; 3:1 ratio.
b. 2 phenotypes; 1:1 ratio.
c. 4 phenotypes; 1:1:1:1 ratio.
d. 4 phenotypes; 9:3:3:1 ratio.
e. 6 phenotypes; 9:3:3:1 ratio.
19. Which of the following correctly identifies characters and traits?
a. Character: seed texture; trait: smooth.
b. Character: yellow; trait: seed color.
c. Character: wrinkled; trait: smooth.
d. Character: incomplete dominance; trait: pink flower.
e. Character: epistasis; trait: yellow Labrador retriever.
20. In a sex-linked trait, red eye is dominant and white eye is recessive traits. If we cross a
homozygous dominant female with a hemizygous white-eyed male, what percent of the
male offspring will be white-eyed?
a. 100%.
b. 75%.
c. 50%.
d. 25%.
e. 0%.
21. In the mating above, what percent of the female offspring will be white-eyed?
a. 100%.
b. 75%.
c. 50%.
d. 25%.
e. 0%.
22. What is the genetic basis of Mendels first law, the law of segregation?
a. Each individual has only 2 parents.
b. Each gamete inherits only one of the 2 alleles of a gene from their parent.
c. Alleles are either dominant or recessive.
d.The zygote is diploid.
e. Individuals that have the same phenotype may have different genotypes.
23. What is the genetic basis of Mendels second law, the law of independent assortment?
a. In a population, there are many alleles for each gene.
b. Dominant and recessive alleles are independent.
c. Genetic recombination occurs during meiosis I.
d. Chromosomes from each parent do not necessarily remain together during gamete
formation.
e. Many genes are located on each chromosome.

Biology 105

Midterm Examination II Version B

Spring 2014

24. In co-dominance:
a. Both alleles of each gene are expressed about equally.
b. The gene concerned is homozygous.
c. The dominant-recessive status of the 2 alleles of each gene is different in different cells.
d. A separate gene in the genome determines which allele is expressed.
e. The gene must contain 2 alleles before each is expressed.
25. Introns are:
a. segments of DNA that are not transcribed into mRNA.
b. segments of DNA whose transcript are removed from the mRNA.
c. segments of DNA that are removed before transcription.
d. chains of stop codons on mRNAs.
e. mRNA segments that are translated into polypeptides.
26. A processive enzyme:
a. becomes modified at the end of a chemical reaction.
b. can catalyze many rounds of reaction without dissociating from its substrate.
c. requires a co-enzyme in order to function.
d. has more than one active site for substrates and can catalyze more than one reaction at a
time.
e. functions to process substrates and are not involved in anabolic or catabolic reactions.
27. Frederick Griffiths transformation experiment with Pneumococcus bacteria proved
that:
a. nucleic acid is the genetic material.
b. proteins are the genetic material.
c. bacteria and mice share the same genetic code.
d. a chemical substance from one cell is capable of genetically transforming another cell.
e. mice can become immuned to bacteria by acquiring bacterial DNA.
28. Which of the following correctly states the characteristics of the two strands of DNA in
a double helix?
a. Complementary base pairing involves covalent bonding between A-T and C-G pairs.
b. Complementary base pairing involves hydrogen bonding between A-G and C-T pairs
c. The DNA strands are complementary and parallel.
d. One strand is left-handed, one strand is right-handed.
e. None of the above.
29. DNAs that have a higher G-C content tend to be more stable because:
a. guanine and cytosine are larger molecules.
b. the double helix is more uniform along stretches of G-C base pairing.
c. adenine sometimes base pairs with uracil.
d. the energy content of GTP and CTP is higher than that of ATP and TTP.
e. G-C base pairing involves more hydrogen bonding than A-T pairing.

Biology 105

Midterm Examination II Version B

Spring 2014

30. Which of the following is an example of post-transcriptional modification?

a. Phosphorylation.
b. G capping.
c. Glycosylation.
d. Proteolysis.
e. All of the above.
31. In the blender experiment, why did Hershey and Chase labeled protein with 35S and
nucleic acid with 32P?
a. After labeling the protein will be heavier than nucleic acid and could be separated by
centrifugation.
b. There is not sulphur in nucleic acid and no phosphorus in protein; the labeling allowed
them to distinguish the two types of macromolecules.
c. Cysteine disulphide bridges in proteins and phosphodiester bonds in the backbone of
nucleic acids are the most stable structures in the two types of macromolecules.
d. Bacteria and viruses can synthesize macromolecular building blocks from elements,
including sulphur and phosphorus.
35
e. S and 32P are isotopes that have different half-lives and decay patterns; they can be
distinguished easily from each other.
32. Which of the following does not occur during RNA synthesis?
a. Unwinding of the parent double helix.
b. Sliding of polymerase along a template strand.
c. Complementary base pairing.
d. Proof-reading.
e. Elongation of polynucleotide.
33. The genetic code is:
a. ambiguous.
b. anti-parallel.
c. redundant.
d. wobbly.
e. All of the above.
34 The codon AUG, which codes for the amino acid methionine, also serves as a:
a. G cap.
b. promoter.
c. start codon.
d. stop codon.
e. wobble base.
35. Which of the following statements concerning the genetic code is correct?
a. For every codon there is an anticodon.
b. For every codon there is a corresponding amino acid.
c. There are more codons than anticodons.
d. There are more anticodons than codons.
7

Biology 105

Midterm Examination II Version B

Spring 2014

e. Each transfer RNA carries only one codon.

36. During translation, the mRNA is read from __________________, and the polypeptide
is synthesized from _________________.
a. 5 to 3; N-terminus to C-terminus.
b. 5 to 3; C-terminus to N-terminus.
c. 3 t o5; .N terminus to C terminus.
d. 3 to 5; C-terminus to N-terminus.
e. Either b or d.
37. When an 8-cell stage sea urchin embryo is divided horizontally, the two halves
developed into disparate embryos. This is because:
a. fertilization occurs only in one side of the embryo.
b. gastrulation has yet not happened at the 8-cell stage.
c. sea urchin eggs contain relatively little yolk materials.
d. cytoplasmic determinants are unevenly distributed in the early egg.
e. the blastopore is located on only one side of the embryo.
38. Which of the following concerning fates of germ layers is correct?
a. Ectoderm gives rise to skin and nervous system.
b. Mesoderm gives rise to blood vessels and intestine.
c. Endoderm gives rise to bones and muscles.
d. Ectoderm and endoderm are interchangeable.
e. None of the above.
39. Apoptosis is:
a. programmed cell death during early development.
b. programmed cell growth during gastrulation.
c. programmed cell proliferation during blastulation.
d. programmed entering into meiosis during gametogenesis.
e. programmed return to the cell cycle after entering G0.
40. During cleavage division, the cell cycle differs from cell cycles in later stages in:
a. being more irregular.
b. being more prolonged.
c. having a truncated G2 phase.
d. having a truncated M phase.
e. having a truncated S phase.
41. Which of the following is not a correct induction pair during embryogenesis?
a. Lens, cornea.
b. Notochord, neural tube.
c. Optic vesicle, lens.
d. Organizer, embryonic axis.
e. Primitive groove, endoderm.

Biology 105

Midterm Examination II Version B

Spring 2014

42. In the amphibian egg, the sperm entry point:

a. develops into the grey crescent.
b. determines the midline of the future embryo.
c. becomes the dorsal lip of the blastopore.
d. separates the animal pole from the vegetal pole.
e. marks where the mouth is going to form.
43. Which of the following must be the first step in arousing an animal from hibernation?
a. shut off the thermoregulatory cooling mechanism.
b. shiver and increase metabolic activity in brown fat.
c. increase heart and respiratory rates.
d. turn on the homeostatic machinery of the hypothalamus.
e. resetting the temperature set point.
44. In mammals, what is the evidence that the thermostat is located in the
hypothalamus?
a. The temperature of the hypothalamus is adjustable.
b. The hypothalamus is the interface between the nervous and endocrine systems.
c. All mammals have a hypothalamus and all mammals maintain a constant body
temperature.
d. Direct heating of the hypothalamus results in an increase in metabolic rate.
e. None of the above.
45. When the temperature of the hypothalamus rises, which thermoregulatory response
would likely result?
a. increased in overall metabolism.
b. resetting of the thermostat higher.
c. increase of blood flow to the skin.
d. activation of brown fat.
e. initiation of shivering movements.
46. In response to a 10C rise in ambient temperature, an endotherms body temperature
will:
a. rise with the ambient temperature.
b. rise at a constant rate.
c. fall to a set point, then become stable.
d. rise to a set point, then become stable.
e. remain relatively constant.
47. In response to a 10C rise in environmental temperature, a ectotherms body
temperature will:
a. rise with the ambient temperature.
b. rise at a constant rate.
c. fall to a point, then become stable.
d. rise to a point, then become stable.
e. remain relatively constant.
9

Biology 105

Midterm Examination II Version B

Spring 2014

48. A chemical reaction has a Q10 of zero. This means that:

a. the reaction is temperature independent.
b. the reaction is endergonic.
c. the reaction is unpredictable.
d. the reaction is at equilibrium.
e. Q10 cannot be zero.
49. A paracrine hormone:
a. feedback inhibits its own release.
b. feedback increases its own release.
c. circulates in the blood stream.
d. is released outside of the body.
e. acts to influence the physiology of adjacent cells.
50. Which of the following statement regarding parathyroid hormone (PTH) is incorrect?
a. PTH stimulates the conversion of vitamin D to calcitriol.
b. PTH inhibits the release of calcitonin.
c. PTH promotes the removal of calcium from storage in bones.
d. PTH is released in response to low calcium.
e. PTH increases the absorption of calcium from diet.
51. What is the function of iodine in the endocrine system?
a. Iodine is required for producing active thyroxine.
b. Iodine feeds back inhibit hypothalamic release of corticotrophin releasing hormone.
c. Iodine in a co-factor in the synthesis of adrenocorticotropic hormone.
d. Iodine promotes the release of steroid hormones by endocrine glands.
e. The anterior pituitary is a iodine storage structure.
52. A person suffers from a mysterious persistent Ca++ deficit? Which of the following
might be a likely cause?
a. This person has a defective calcitonin.
b. The person is producing too much vitamin D.
c. This person has a persistent over-secretion of calcitonin.
d. The thyroxine feedback system is not functioning in this person.
e. This persons kidney is conserving too much Ca++.
53. Cortisol and epinephrine each exert opposite effects on brain cells and gut cells. This is
due to:
a. cortisol and epinephrine are antagonistic to each other.
b. gut cells do not have cortisol and epinephrine receptors.
c. brain cells are more sensitive to cortisol and epinephrine than gut cells.
d. cortisol and epinephrine receptors are coupled to different intracellular signaling pathways
in different cell types.
e. the gut is not a part of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis.

10

Biology 105

Midterm Examination II Version B

Spring 2014

54. Which of the following is a likely physiological response of a direct injection of cortisol?
a. An increase in stress stimuli.
b. A decrease in stress stimuli.
c. An increase in adrenaline release by the adrenal gland.
d. An increase in muscle mass.
e. A decrease in cortisol release by the adrenal gland.
55. In males, follicle stimulating hormone stimulates ______________, whereas luteinizing
hormone stimulates _______________.
a. sperm production, sperm maturation.
b. facial hair growth; testicular growth.
c. Leydig cells; Sertoli cells.
d. sperm production; testosterone release.
e. testosterone production; inhibin release.
56. In females, follicle stimulating hormone stimulates ______________, whereas luteinizing
hormone stimulates _______________.
a. progesterone release, estrogen release.
b. the ovaries; the uterus.
c. luteinizing hormone.
d. ovulation; endometrium.
e. follicular cells; the corpus luteum.
57. During pregnancy, hypothalamic gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) is not
released because:
a. estrogen and progesterone inhibition is strong.
b. chorionic gonadotropic inhibits GnRH release.
c. FSH and LH feedback inhibits GnRH release.
d. oxytocin inhibits GnRH release.
e. the hypothalamus is not responsive to environmental cues that trigger the release of GnRH.
58. Chorionic gonadotropin:
a. is not regulated by feedback inhibition.
b. has actions similar to follicle stimulation hormone.
c. inhibits hypothalamic releasing hormone release.
d. oxytocin inhibits GnRH release.
e. All of the above.
59. Which one of the following is an example of positive feedback?
a. Estrogen stimulation of oxytocin receptor in myometrial muscles.
b. Fetal growth induces contraction of myometrial muscles.
c. Increase in oxytocin release by the hypothalamus in response to myometrial contraction.
d. Chorionic gonadotropin stimulation of progesterone release by the corpus luteum.
e. None of the above.

11

Biology 105

Midterm Examination II Version B

60. The most reliable predictor of ovulation is:

a. increase in chorionic gonadotropin release.
b. level of progesterone in the blood.
c . a reduction in plasma follicle stimulation hormone level.
d. a surge in plasma luteinizing hormone level.
e. menstruation.

12

Spring 2014