PHYSICS AP/IB CH8.

1,2,4 Review Guide

Short Answer
1. A vault is opened by applying a force of 300 N perpendicular to the plane of the door, 0.80 m from
the hinges. Find the torque due to this force about an axis through the hinges.

2. A 3.0-m rod is pivoted about its left end. A force of 6.0 N is applied perpendicular to the rod at a
distance of 1.2 m from the pivot causing a ccw torque, and a force of 5.2 N is applied at the end of
the rod 3.0 m from the pivot. The 5.2 N is at an angle of 30o to the rod and causes a cw torque. What
is the net torque about the pivot?

3. Two children seat themselves on a seesaw. The one on the left has a weight of 400 N while the one
on the right weighs 300 N. The fulcrum is at the midpoint of the seesaw. If the child on the left is not
at the end but is 1.50 m from the fulcrum and the seesaw is balanced, what is the torque provided by
the weight of the child on the right?

4. A uniform bridge span weighs 50.0 103 N and is 40.0 m long. An automobile weighing 15.0 103
N is parked with its center of gravity located 12.0 m from the right pier. What upward support force
does the left pier provide?

5. Tasha has mass 20 kg and wants to use a 4.0-m board of mass 10 kg as a seesaw. Her friends are
busy, so Tasha seesaws by herself by putting the support at the system's center of gravity when she
sits on one end of the board. How far is she from the support point?

6. An 80-kg man is one fourth of the way up a 10-m ladder that is resting against a smooth, frictionless
wall. If the ladder has a mass of 20 kg and it makes an angle of 60 with the ground, find the force of
friction of the ground on the foot of the ladder.

7. An 800-N billboard worker stands on a 4.0-m scaffold supported by vertical ropes at each end. If the
scaffold weighs 500 N and the worker stands 1.0 m from one end, what is the tension in the rope
nearest the worker?

8. A uniform, horizontal beam of length 6.0 m and weight 120 N is attached at one end to a wall by a
pin connection (so that it may rotate). A cable attached to the wall above the pin supports the
opposite end. The cable makes an angle of 60 with the horizontal. What is the tension in the cable
needed to maintain the beam in equilibrium?

9. A rod of length L is pivoted about its left end and has a force F applied perpendicular to the other
end. The force F is now removed and another force F' is applied at the midpoint of the rod. If F' is at
an angle of 30o with respect to the rod, what is its magnitude if the resulting torque is the same as
when F was applied?

10. A bucket filled with water has a mass of 23 kg and is attached to a rope, which in turn, is wound
around a 0.050-m radius cylinder at the top of a well. What torque does the weight of water and
bucket produce on the cylinder if the cylinder is not permitted to rotate? (g = 9.8 m/s2)

11. A bucket of water with total mass 23 kg is attached to a rope, which in turn, is wound around a
0.050-m radius cylinder at the top of a well. A crank with a turning radius of 0.25 m is attached to
the end of the cylinder. What minimum force directed perpendicular to the crank handle is required
to just raise the bucket? (Assume the rope's mass is negligible, that cylinder turns on frictionless
bearings, and that g = 9.8 m/s2.)

12. A 100-N uniform ladder, 8.0 m long, rests against a smooth vertical wall. The coefficient of static
friction between ladder and floor is 0.40. What minimum angle can the ladder make with the floor
before it slips?

13. A meter stick is supported by a knife-edge at the 50-cm mark. Doug hangs masses of 0.40 and 0.60
kg from the 20-cm and 80-cm marks, respectively. Where should Doug hang a third mass of 0.30 kg
to keep the stick balanced?

14. An 800-N billboard worker stands on a 4.0-m scaffold weighing 500 N and supported by vertical
ropes at each end. How far would the worker stand from one of the supporting ropes to produce a
tension of 550 N in that rope?

15. A woman who weighs 500 N stands on an 8.0-m-long board that weighs 100 N. The board is
supported at each end. The support force at the right end is 3 times the support force at the left end.
How far from the right end is the woman standing?

16. A uniform 1.0-N meter stick is suspended horizontally by vertical strings attached at each end. A 2.0N weight is suspended from the 10-cm position on the stick, another 2.0-N weight is suspended from
the 50 cm position, and a 3.0-N weight is suspended from the 60 cm position. What is the tension in
the string attached at the 100-cm end of the stick?

PHYSICS AP/IB CH8.1,2,4 Review Guide

Answer Section
SHORT ANSWER
1.
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240 N m
-0.6 Nm
-600 Nm
29.5 103 N
0.67 m
1.7 102 N
850 N
69 N
4F
11 N m
45 N
51
30 cm
2.5 m
1.6 m
3.5 N

Physics AP/IB Review Guide CH4

Short Answer (you may want to do your work on a separate sheet of paper)
1. A 7.0-kg bowling ball experiences a net force of 5.0 N. What will be its acceleration?
2. The acceleration due to gravity on the Moon's surface is one-sixth that on Earth. An astronaut's life
support backpack weighs 300 lbs on Earth. What does it weigh on the Moon?
3. Two forces act on a 6.00-kg object. One of the forces is 10.0 N. If the object accelerates at 2.00 m/s2,
what is the greatest possible magnitude of the other force?
4. A baseball batter hits an incoming 40-m/s fastball. The ball leaves the bat at 50 m/s after a ball-onbat contact time of 0.030 s. What is the force exerted on the 0.15-kg baseball?
5. A horizontal force of 750 N is needed to overcome the force of static friction between a level floor
and a 250-kg crate. If g = 9.8 m/s2, what is the coefficient of static friction?
6. A 200-N crate rests on an ramp; the maximum angle just before it slips is 25 with the horizontal.
What is the coefficient of static friction between crate and ramp surfaces?
7. A 10-kg mass and a 2.0-kg mass are connected by a light string over a massless, frictionless pulley.
If g = 9.8 m/s2, what is the acceleration of the system when released?
8. A 10.0-kg mass is placed on a 25.0o incline and friction keeps it from sliding. The coefficient of
static friction in this case is 0.580, and the coefficient of sliding friction is 0.520. What is the
frictional force in this situation?
9. A 100-N block, on a 30 incline, is being held motionless by friction. The coefficient of static friction
between the block and the plane is 0.60. The force due to friction is:
10. A hockey puck moving at 7.0 m/s coasts to a halt in 75 m on a smooth ice surface. What is the
coefficient of friction between the ice and the puck?
11. The coefficient of static friction between the tires of a car and the street is s = 0.77. Of the
following, what is the steepest inclination angle of a street on which a car can be parked (with
wheels locked) without slipping?
12. A 9.0-kg hanging weight is connected by a string over a pulley to a 5.0-kg block sliding on a flat
table. If the coefficient of sliding friction is 0.20, find the tension in the string.

13. An Olympic skier moving at 20.0 m/s down a 30.0 slope encounters a region of wet snow, of
coefficient of friction k = 0.740. How far down the slope does she go before stopping?

14. A worker pulls a 200-N packing crate at constant velocity across a rough floor by exerting a force F
= 55.0 N at an angle of 35.0 above the horizontal. What is the coefficient of kinetic friction of the
floor?
15. A 150-N sled is pulled up a 28 slope at a constant speed by a force of 100 N. What is the coefficient
of kinetic friction between sled and slope?
16. Dana uses a rope to pull a box that weighs 300 N across a level surface with constant velocity. The
rope makes an angle of 30 above the horizontal and the tension in the rope is 100 N. What is the
coefficient of friction?
17. Hector drives a pickup truck horizontally at 15.0 m/s. He is transporting a crate of delicate lead
crystal. If the coefficient of static friction between the crate and the truck bed is 0.400, what is the
minimum stopping distance for the truck so the crate will not slide?
18. Jamal pulls a 150-N sled up a 28.0 slope at constant speed by a force of 100 N. Near the top of the
hill he releases the sled. With what acceleration does the sled go down the hill?
19. A 10.0-kg mass is placed on a 25.0o incline and friction keeps it from sliding. The coefficient of
static friction in this case is 0.580, and the coefficient of sliding friction is 0.520. The mass is given a
shove causing it to slide down the incline. What is the frictional force while the mass is sliding?
20. A 10.0-kg mass is placed on a 25.0o incline and friction keeps it from sliding. The coefficient of
static friction in this case is 0.580 and the coefficient of sliding friction is 0.520. The mass is given a
shove causing it to slide down the incline. Taking down the incline as positive, what is the
acceleration of the mass while it is sliding?
21. A trapeze artist, with swing, weighs 800 N; he is momentarily held to one side by his partner so that
the swing ropes make an angle of 30.0 with the vertical. In such a condition of static equilibrium,
what is the horizontal force being applied by the partner?
22. Find the tension in an elevator cable if the 1 000-kg elevator is descending with an acceleration of
1.8 m/s2, downward.
23. A horizontal force of 750 N is needed to overcome the force of static friction between a level floor
and a 250-kg crate. What is the acceleration of the crate if the 750-N force is maintained after the
crate begins to move and the coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.12?
24. A block of mass 5.00 kg rests on a horizontal surface where the coefficient of kinetic friction
between the two is 0.200. A string attached to the block is pulled horizontally, resulting in a 2.00m/s2 acceleration by the block. Find the tension in the string. (g = 9.80 m/s2)
25. A girl is using a rope to pull a box that weighs 300 N across a level surface with constant velocity.
The rope makes an angle of 30 above the horizontal, and the tension in the rope is 100 N. What is
the normal force of the floor on the box?
26. A sled weighs 100 N. It is held in place on a frictionless 20 slope by a rope attached to a stake at the
top; the rope is parallel to the slope. What is the normal force of the slope acting on the sled?
27. A sled weighs 100 N. It is held in place on a frictionless 20 slope by a rope attached to a stake at the
top; the rope is parallel to the slope. Find the tension in the rope.

28. A 500-N tightrope walker stands at the center of the rope. If the rope can withstand a tension of 1
800 N without breaking, what is the minimum angle the rope can make with the horizontal?
29. A 20-kg traffic light hangs midway on a cable between two poles 40 meters apart. If the sag in the
cable is 0.40 meters, what is the tension in each side of the cable?
30. A 500-N tightrope walker stands at the center of the rope such that each half of the rope makes an
angle of 10.0 with the horizontal. What is the tension in the rope?
31. A 5 000-N weight is held suspended in equilibrium by two cables. Cable 1 applies a horizontal force
to the right of the object and has a tension, T1. Cable 2 applies a force upward and to the left at an
angle of 37.0 to the negative x axis and has a tension, T2. What is the tension, T1?
32. A 5 000-N weight is suspended in equilibrium by two cables. Cable 1 applies a horizontal force to
the right of the object and has a tension, T1. Cable 2 applies a force upward and to the left at an angle
of 37.0 to the negative x axis and has a tension, T2. Find T2.
33. Three identical 6.0-kg cubes are placed on a horizontal frictionless surface in contact with one
another. The cubes are lined up from left to right and a force is applied to the left side of the left cube
causing all three cubes to accelerate to the right at 2.0 m/s2. What is the magnitude of the force
exerted on the right cube by the middle cube in this case?
34. An elevator weighing 20 000 N is supported by a steel cable. What is the tension in the cable when
the elevator is being accelerated upward at a rate of 3.00 m/s2? (g = 9.80 m/s2)
35. Three identical 6.0-kg cubes are placed on a horizontal frictionless surface in contact with one
another. The cubes are lined up from left to right and a force is applied to the left side of the left cube
causing all three cubes to accelerate to the right at 2.0 m/s2. What is the magnitude of the force
exerted on the middle cube by the left cube in this case?
36. A 15-kg block rests on a level frictionless surface and is attached by a light string to a 5.0-kg
hanging mass where the string passes over a massless frictionless pulley. If g = 9.8 m/s2, what is the
tension in the connecting string?
37. Two blocks of masses 20 kg and 8.0 kg are connected together by a light string and rest on a
frictionless level surface. Attached to the 8-kg mass is a second light string, which a person uses to
pull both blocks horizontally. If the two-block system accelerates at 0.5 m/s2, what is the tension in
the second string attached to the 8-kg mass?
38. A boxcar of mass 200 tons at rest becomes uncoupled on a 2.5 grade. If the track is considered to be
frictionless, what speed does the boxcar have after 10 seconds?
39. As a 3.0-kg bucket is being lowered into a 10-m-deep well, starting from the top, the tension in the
rope is 9.8 N. The acceleration of the bucket will be:
40. A shot-putter moves his arm and the 7.0-kg shot through a distance of 1.0 m, giving the shot a
velocity of 10 m/s from rest. Find the average force exerted on the shot during this time.
41. Two blocks of masses 20 kg and 8 kg are connected together by a light string and rest on a
frictionless level surface. Attached to the 8-kg mass is another light string, which a person uses to
pull both blocks horizontally. If the two-block system accelerates at 0.5 m/s2 what is the tension in
the connecting string between the blocks?

42. An astronaut applies a force of 500 N to an asteroid, and it accelerates at 7.00 m/s2. What is the
asteroid's mass?
43. Rita accelerates a 0.40-kg ball from rest to 9.0 m/s during the 0.15 s in which her foot is in contact
with the ball. What average force does she apply to the ball during the kick?
44. A 70.0-kg man jumps 1.00 m down onto a concrete walkway. His downward motion stops in 0.0200
seconds. What net force acts on the man?
45. Two ropes are attached to a 40-kg object. The first rope applies a force of 25 N and the second, 40 N.
If the two ropes are perpendicular to each other, what is the resultant acceleration of the object?
46. The accelerating force of the wind on a small 200-kg sailboat is 707 N northeast. If the drag of the
keel is 500 N acting west, what is the acceleration of the boat?
47. The acceleration due to gravity on the Moon's surface is one-sixth that on Earth. What net force
would be required to accelerate a 20-kg object at 6.0 m/s2 on the moon?
48. An airplane of mass 1.2 104 kg tows a glider of mass 0.6 104 kg. The airplane propellers
provide a net forward thrust of 3.6 104 N. What is the glider's acceleration?
49. Two blocks, joined by a string, have masses of 6.0 and 9.0 kg. They rest on a frictionless horizontal
surface. A 2nd string, attached only to the 9-kg block, has horizontal force = 30 N applied to it. Both
blocks accelerate. Find the tension in the string between the blocks.
50. An automobile of mass 2 000 kg moving at 30 m/s is braked suddenly with a constant braking force
of 10 000 N. How far does the car travel before stopping?
51. A rock is rolled in the sand. It starts at 5.0 m/s, moves in a straight line for a distance of 3.0 m, and
then stops. What is the magnitude of the average acceleration?
52. A 2 000-kg sailboat experiences an eastward force of 3 000 N by the ocean tide and a wind force
against its sails with magnitude of 6 000 N directed toward the northwest (45 N of W). What is the
direction of the resultant acceleration?
53. A barefoot field-goal kicker imparts a speed of 30 m/s to a football at rest. If the football has a mass
of 0.50 kg and time of contact with the football is 0.025 s, what is the force exerted on the foot?
54. A cart of weight 20 N is accelerated across a level surface at 0.15 m/s2. What net force acts on the
wagon? (g = 9.8 m/s2)

Physics AP/IB Review Guide CH4

Answer Section
SHORT ANSWER
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0.71 m/s2
50 lb
22.0 N
450 N
0.31
0.47
6.5 m/s2
41.4 N
50 N.
= 0.033
37
38 N
145 m
0.267
0.22
0.35
28.7 m
2.67 m/s2
46.2 N
-0.477 m/s2
462 N
8 000 N
1.8 m/s2
19.8 N
250 N
94 N
34 N
8
4 900 N
1 440 N
6 640 N
8 310 N
12 N
26 100 N
24 N
37 N
14 N
4.3 m/s

39.
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6.5 m/s2 downward.

350 N
10 N
71 kg
24 N
15 500 N
1.2 m/s2
2.5 m/s2 due north
120 N
2.0 m/s2
12 N
90 m
4.2 m/s2
74 N of W
600 N
0.31 N

PHYSICS AP/IB CH5 Review Guide

Problems: Do work on separate sheets of paper. Circle or box your answers.
1. A worker pushes a wheelbarrow with a force of 40 N over a level distance of 6.0 m. If a frictional force
of 24 N acts on the wheelbarrow in a direction opposite to that of the worker, what net work is done on
the wheelbarrow?
2. I use a rope 2.00 m long to swing a 10.0-kg weight around my head. The tension in the rope is 20.0 N. In
half a revolution how much work is done by the rope on the weight?
3. A satellite is held in orbit by a 2 000-N gravitational force. Each time the satellite completes an orbit of
circumference 80 000 km, the work done on it by gravity is:
4. A golf ball hits a wall and bounces back at 3/4 the original speed. What part of the original kinetic energy
of the ball did it lose in the collision?
5. A 1 200-kg automobile moving at 25 m/s has the brakes applied with a deceleration of 8.0 m/s2. How far
does the car travel before it stops?
6. A very light cart holding a 300-N box is moved at constant velocity across a 15-m level surface. What is
the net work done in the process?
7. A baseball outfielder throws a baseball of mass 0.15 kg at a speed of 40 m/s and initial angle of 30. What
is the kinetic energy of the baseball at the highest point of the trajectory? Ignore air friction.
8. A Hooke's law spring is compressed 12.0 cm from equilibrium and the potential energy stored is 72.0 J.
What is the spring constant in this case?
9. A Hooke's law spring is mounted horizontally over a frictionless surface. The spring is then compressed a
distance d and is used to launch a mass m along the frictionless surface. What compression of the spring
would result in the mass attaining double the speed received in the above situation?
10. Adisa pulls a 40-N crate up a 5.0-m long inclined plane at a constant velocity. If the plane is inclined at
an angle of 37 to the horizontal and there is a constant force of friction of 10 N between the crate and the
surface, what is the net change in potential energy of the crate?
11. Preston pushes a wheelbarrow weighing 500 N to the top of a 50.0-m ramp, inclined at 20.0 with the
horizontal, and leaves it. Tamara accidentally bumps the wheelbarrow. It slides back down the ramp,
during which an 80.0-N frictional force acts on it over the 50.0 m. What is the wheelbarrow's kinetic
energy at the bottom at of the ramp? (g = 9.8 m/s2)
12. A pile driver drives a post into the ground. The mass of the pile driver is 2 500 kg and it is dropped
through a height of 8.0 m on each stroke. If the resisting force of the ground is 4.0 106 N, how far is the
post driven in on each stroke?
13. A girl and her bicycle have a total mass of 40 kg. At the top of the hill her speed is 5.0 m/s. The hill is 10
m high and 100 m long. If the force of friction as she rides down the hill is 20 N, what is her speed at the
bottom?

14. A parachutist of mass 50.0 kg jumps out of an airplane at a height of 1 000 m. The parachute deploys, and
she lands on the ground with a speed of 5.0 m/s. How much energy was lost to air friction during this
jump?
15. A Hooke's law spring is compressed a distance d and is used to launch a particle of mass m vertically to a
height h above its starting position. Under double the compression, the spring is now used to launch a
particle of mass 2 m. How high does the second mass rise above its starting position?
16. A jet engine develops 1.0 105 N of thrust in moving an airplane forward at a speed of 900 km/h. What
is the power developed by the engine?
17. A speed boat requires 80 kW to move at a constant speed of 15 m/s. What is the resistive force of the
water at this speed?
18. A 1 000-kg sports car accelerates from zero to 25 m/s in 7.5 s. What is the average power delivered by
the automobile engine?
19. A force of 100 N is applied to a 50-kg mass in the direction of motion for a distance of 6.0 m and then the
force is increased to 150 N for the next 4.0 m. For the 10 m of travel, how much work is done by the
varying force?
20. The net force acting on a 6.0-kg object is given by Fx = (10 - x) N, where Fx is in newtons and x is in
meters. How much work is done on the object as it moves from x = 0 to x = 10 m?
21. The net force acting on a 12.6-kg object is given by Fx = (20 - x) N, where Fx is in newtons and x is in
meters. How much work is done on the object as it moves from x = 0 to x = 10 m?
22. What is the minimum amount of energy required for an 80-kg climber carrying a 20-kg pack to climb Mt.
Everest, 8 850 m high?
23. A professional skier reaches a speed of 56 m/s on a 30 ski slope. Ignoring friction, what was the
minimum distance along the slope the skier would have had to travel, starting from rest?
24. Samantha pushes a 50-N crate up a ramp 25.0 m in length and inclined at 10 with the horizontal. What
potential energy change does the crate experience?
25. A 15.0-kg crate, initially at rest, slides down a ramp 2.0 m long and inclined at an angle of 20 with the
horizontal. If there is no friction between ramp surface and crate, what is the kinetic energy of the crate at
the bottom of the ramp? (g = 9.8 m/s2)
26. A baseball catcher puts on an exhibition by catching a 0.15-kg ball dropped from a helicopter at a height
of 101 m. What is the speed of the ball just before it hits the catcher's glove 1.0 m above the ground? (g =
9.8 m/s2 and ignore air resistance)
27. A simple pendulum, 1.00 m in length, is released from rest when the support string is at an angle of 35.0
from the vertical. What is the speed of the suspended mass at the bottom of the swing? (g = 9.80 m/s2 and
ignore air resistance)
28. A simple pendulum, 2.0 m in length, is released with a push when the support string is at an angle of 25
from the vertical. If the initial speed of the suspended mass is 1.2 m/s when at the release point, what is
its speed at the bottom of the swing? (g = 9.8 m/s2)

29. A simple pendulum, 2.0 m in length, is released by a push when the support string is at an angle of 25
from the vertical. If the initial speed of the suspended mass is 1.2 m/s when at the release point, to what
maximum angle will it move in the second half of its swing?
30. A hill is 100 m long and makes an angle of 12 with the horizontal. As a 50-kg jogger runs up the hill,
how much work does gravity do on the jogger?
31. Old Faithful geyser in Yellowstone Park shoots water hourly to a height of 40 m. With what velocity does
the water leave the ground?
32. An 80 000-kg airliner is flying at 900 km/h at a height of 10.0 km. What is its total energy (kinetic +
potential) if the total was 0 when the airliner was at rest on the ground?
33. A pole vaulter clears 6.00 m. With what speed does he strike the mat in the landing area?
34. A bobsled makes a run down an ice track starting at 150 m vertical distance up the hill. If there is no
friction, what is the velocity at the bottom of the hill?
35. A Hooke's law spring is compressed 12.0 cm from equilibrium, and the potential energy stored is 72.0 J.
What compression (as measured from equilibrium) would result in 100 J being stored in this case?
36. A Hooke's law spring is mounted horizontally over a frictionless surface. The spring is then compressed a
distance d and is used to launch a mass m along the frictionless surface. What compression of the spring
would result in the mass attaining double the kinetic energy received in the above situation?
37. A 50-N crate is pulled up a 5-m inclined plane by a worker at constant velocity. If the plane is inclined at
an angle of 37 to the horizontal and there exists a constant frictional force of 10 N between the crate and
the surface, what is the force applied by the worker?
38. A girl and her bicycle have a total mass of 40.0 kg. At the top of the hill her speed is 5.0 m/s, and her
speed doubles as she rides down the hill. The hill is 10.0 m high and 100 m long. How much kinetic
energy and potential energy is lost to friction?
39. A Hooke's law spring is compressed a distance d and is used to launch a mass m vertically to a height h
above its starting position. Under the same compression d, the spring is now used to launch a mass of 2m.
How high does this second mass rise?
40. A Hooke's law spring is compressed a distance d and is used to launch a mass m vertically to a height h
above its starting position. Under double the compression, the spring is now used to launch the mass.
How high does the mass now rise above its starting position?
41. Yuri, a Russian weightlifter, is able to lift 250 kg 2.00 m in 2.00 s. What is his power output?
42. Water flows over a section of Niagara Falls at a rate of 1.20 106 kg/s and falls 50.0 m. What is the
power dissipated by the waterfall?
43. A 100-W light bulb is left on for 10.0 hours. Over this period of time, how much energy was used by the
bulb?
44. Rupel pushes a box 5.00 m by applying a 25.0-N horizontal force. What work does she do?
45. A horizontal force of 100 N is applied to move a 45-kg cart across a 9.0-m level surface. What work is
done by the 100-N force?
46. What is the kinetic energy of a 0.135-kg baseball thrown at 40.0 m/s (90.0 mph)?

47. A horizontal force of 200 N is applied to a 55-kg cart across a 10-m level surface. If the cart accelerates at
2.0 m/s2, then what is the work done by the force of friction as it acts to retard the motion of the cart?
48. A 7.00-kg bowling ball falls from a 2.00-m shelf. Just before hitting the floor, what will be its kinetic
energy? (g = 9.80 m/s2 and assume air resistance is negligible)
49. A rock is thrown straight up with an initial velocity of 15.0 m/s. Ignore energy lost to air friction. How
high will the rock rise?
50. A 10.0-kg box starts at rest and slides 3.5 m down a ramp inclined at an angle of 10 with the horizontal.
If there is no friction between the ramp surface and crate, what is the velocity of the crate at the bottom of
the ramp? (g = 9.8 m/s2)
51. A 2 000-kg ore car rolls 50.0 m down a frictionless 10.0 incline. If there is a horizontal spring at the end
of the incline, what spring constant is required to stop the ore car in a distance of 1.00 m?
52. An amount of work equal to 1.5 J is required to compress the spring in a spring-gun. What is the "launch
speed" of a 15-g marble?
53. A 20-N crate starting at rest slides down a rough 5.0-m long ramp, inclined at 25 with the horizontal. 20
J of energy is lost to friction. What will be the speed of the crate at the bottom of the incline?
54. A baseball catcher puts on an exhibition by catching a 0.150-kg ball dropped from a helicopter at a height
of 100 m above the catcher. If the catcher "gives" with the ball for a distance of 0.750 m while catching
it, what average force is exerted on the mitt by the ball? (g = 9.80 m/s2)
55. I drop a 60-g golf ball from 2.0 m high. It rebounds to 1.5 m. How much energy is lost?
56. A 60-kg woman runs up a flight of stairs having a rise of 4.0 m in a time of 4.2 s. What average power
did she supply?

PHYSICS AP/IB CH5 Review Guide

Answer Section
SHORT ANSWER
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.

96 J
0
0.
7/16
39 m
zero
90 J
10 000 N/m
2.00 d
120 J
4 550 J
4.9 cm
11 m/s
489 000 J
2h
25 MW
5 300 N
41.7 kW
1 200 J
50 J
150 J
8.67 MJ
320 m
220 J
100 J
44 m/s
1.88 m/s
2.3 m/s
30
10 000 J
28 m/s
10 300 MJ
10.8 m/s
54 m/s
14.1 cm
1.41 d
40 N
2 420 J

39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.

h/2
4h
2.45 kW
588 MW
3 600 000 J
125 J
900 J
108 J
-900 J
137 J
11.5 m
3.5 m/s
340 kN/m
14 m/s
4.7 m/s
197 N
0.29 J
560 W

PHYSICS AP/IB CH6 Review Guide

Multiple Choice
____
____

____

____

____

____

____
____
____

____

1. A valid unit for momentum is which of the following?

A) kg m/s2
B) kg/m2
C) kg m/s
D) N m
E) N/m
2. The impulse experienced by a body is equivalent to its change in:
A) velocity.
C) momentum.
B) kinetic energy.
D) potential energy.
3. The dimensional equivalence of the quantity "momentum" in terms of the fundamental quantities
(mass, length, time) is:
A) MLT1.
B) ML2T2.
C) MLT.
D) MLT2.
E) ML2T
4. If a glass of water is on a table with a piece of paper under it, it is relatively easy to pull the paper
out without disturbing the glass very much if the pull is done very quickly. This is because, with a
quick pull:
A) the force on the glass will be less.
B) the momentum of the paper will be greater.
C) the time for the pull will be less.
D) the coefficient of kinetic friction will be less.
E) the coefficient of kinetic friction will be greater.
5. The units of impulse are equivalent to:
A) those of
B) N m.
C) kg m/s.
D) those of
E) N/m.
energy.
force.
6. The law of conservation of momentum is applicable to systems made up of objects described by
which of the following?
A) macroscopic
C) interacting through friction
B) microscopic
D) All the above choices are valid.
7. If the momentum of an object is tripled, its kinetic energy will change by what factor?
A) zero
B) one-third
C) three
D) nine
8. The kinetic energy of an object is quadrupled. Its momentum will change by what factor?
A) zero
B) two
C) eight
D) four
9. A moderate force will break an egg. However, an egg dropped on the road usually breaks, while one
dropped on the grass usually doesn't break. This is because for the egg dropped on the grass:
A) the change in momentum is greater.
D) the time interval for stopping is less.
B) the change in momentum is less.
E) Both choices A and C are valid.
C)
the time interval for stopping is greater.
10. A 70-kg man is standing in a 20-kg boat. The man steps to the right thinking he is stepping out onto
the dock. However, the following will actually happen (ignore the friction of the water or air on the
boat or the man):
A) The man only moves a short distance to the right while the boat moves a larger
distance to the left.
B) The man actually stays still while the boat moves toward the left.
C) The boat doesn't move and the man moves to the right.
D) The boat and the man don't move.

____ 11. A lump of clay is thrown at a wall. A rubber ball of identical mass is thrown with the same speed
toward the same wall. Which statement is true?
A) The clay experiences a greater change in momentum than the ball.
B) The ball experiences a greater change in momentum than the clay.
C) The clay and the ball experience the same change in momentum.
D) It is not possible to know which object has the greater change in momentum.
E) The clay doesn't change its momentum.
____ 12. Object 1 has twice the mass of Object 2. Both objects have the same kinetic energy. Which of the
following statements is true?
A) Both objects can have the same magnitude of momentum.
B) Object 1 has a momentum of greater magnitude than Object 2.
C) The magnitude of the momentum of Object 2 is four times that of Object 1.
D) The magnitude of the momentum of Object 2 is two times that of Object 1.
E) All the statements are false.
____ 13. Object 1 has twice the mass of Object 2. Each of the objects has the same magnitude of momentum.
Which of the following statements is true?
A) Both objects can have the same kinetic energy.
B) One object has 0.707 times the kinetic energy of the other.
C) One object has twice the kinetic energy of the other.
D) One object has 4 times the kinetic energy of the other.
E) None of the above choices are valid.
____ 14. Three satellites are launched into space connected together. Once in deep space, an explosive charge
separates the three satellites and they move apart. The satellites each have different masses with m1 <
m2 < m3. Which of the following statements is always true?
A) The one with mass m1 receives the greatest impulse.
B) The one with mass m3 receives the greatest impulse.
C) The all must receive equal impulses.
D) Although one or more of the above statements could be true in special cases, they
are not always true.
E) All of the above statements are always false.
____ 15. An object of mass m moving at speed v0 strikes and object of mass 2m which had been at rest. The
first object bounces backward along its initial path at speed v0. Is this collision elastic, and if not,
what is the change in kinetic energy of the system?
A) The collision is elastic.
B) The kinetic energy decreases by mv2.
C)
The kinetic energy decreases by mv2.
D) The kinetic energy increases by mv2.
E) The kinetic energy increases by mv2.
____ 16. A billiard ball is moving in the x-direction at 30.0 cm/s and strikes another billiard ball moving in
the y-direction at 40.0 cm/s. As a result of the collision, the first ball moves at 50.0 cm/s, and the
second ball stops. What is the change in kinetic energy of the system as a result of the collision?
A) 0
B) some positive value
C) some negative value
D) No answer above is correct.

____ 17. A billiard ball collides in an elastic head-on collision with a second stationary identical ball. After
the collision which of the following conditions applies to the first ball?
A) maintains the same velocity as before
B) has one half its initial velocity
C) comes to rest
D) moves in the opposite direction
E) Both choices B and D are valid.
____ 18. In a two-body collision, if the momentum of the system is conserved, then which of the following
best describes the kinetic energy after the collision?
A) must be less
B) must also be conserved
C) may also be conserved
D) is doubled in value
E) is halved in value
____ 19. In a two-body collision, if the kinetic energy of the system is conserved, then which of the following
best describes the momentum after the collision?
A) must be less
B) must also be conserved
C) may also be conserved
D) is doubled in value
E) is halved in value
____ 20. Two objects, one less massive than the other, collide elastically and bounce back after the collision.
If the two originally had velocities that were equal in size but opposite in direction, then which one
will be moving faster after the collision?
A) The less massive one.
B) The more massive one.
C) The speeds will be the same after the collision.
D) There is no way to be sure without the actual masses.
____ 21. In a partially elastic collision between two objects with unequal mass:
A) the velocity of one will increase by the amount that the velocity of the other
decreases.
B) the momentum of one will increase by the amount that the momentum of the other
decreases.
C) the energy of one increases by the amount that the energy of the other decreases.
D) the total momentum of the system will decrease.
E) both choices A and B are valid.
____ 22. Kaitlin uses a bat to hit a thrown baseball. She knocks the ball back in the direction from which it
came in a partially inelastic collision. The bat, which is heavier than the baseball, continues to move
in the same direction after the hit as Kaitlin "follows through." Is the ball moving faster before or
after it was hit?
A) The ball was moving faster before it was hit.
B) The ball was moving faster after it was hit.
C) The ball was moving at essentially the same speed before and after the hit.
D) There is insufficient information to answer this problem.

____ 23. A tennis ball is held above and in contact with a basketball, and then both are simultaneously
dropped. The tennis ball bounces off the basketball at a fairly high speed. This is because:
A) the basketball falls farther than the tennis ball.
B) the tennis ball is slightly shielded from the Earth's gravitational pull.
C) the massive basketball transfers momentum to the lighter tennis ball.
D) the tennis ball has a smaller radius.
E) None of the above choices are valid.
____ 24. Two identical 7-kg bowling balls roll toward each other. The one on the left is moving at +4 m/s
while the one on the right is moving at 4 m/s. What is the velocity of each ball after they collide
elastically?
A) Neither is moving.
B) 4 m/s, +4 m/s
C) +4 m/s, 4 m/s
D) 14 m/s, 14 m/s
E) +14 m/s, 14 m/s
____ 25. A 5-kg object is moving to the right at 4 m/s and collides with another object moving to the left at 5
m/s. The objects collide and stick together. After the collision, the combined object:
A) is moving to the right.
B) is moving to the left.
C) is at rest.
D) has less kinetic energy than the system had before the collision.
E) has the same kinetic energy that the system had before the collision.
____ 26. A 5-kg object is moving to the right at 4 m/s and collides with a 4-kg object moving to the left at 5
m/s. The objects collide and stick together. After the collision, the combined object:
A) has the same kinetic energy that the system had before the collision.
B) has more kinetic energy than the system had before the collision.
C) has no kinetic energy.
D) has less momentum than the system had before the collision.
E) has more momentum than the system had before the collision.
____ 27. If a two-body collision is not head-on, then we may always assume that:
A) momentum is conserved.
B) kinetic energy is conserved.
C) neither momentum nor kinetic energy are conserved.
D) both momentum and kinetic energy are conserved.
E) none of the above choices are valid.
____ 28. In a system with two moving objects, when a collision occurs between the objects:
A) the total kinetic energy is always conserved.
B) the total momentum is always conserved.
C) the total kinetic energy and total momentum are always conserved.
D) neither the kinetic energy nor the momentum is conserved.
E) none of the above choices are valid.
____ 29. When a collision is perfectly inelastic, then:
A) all the kinetic energy is conserved.
B) all the kinetic energy is gone.
C) the participants stick together.

D) the total momentum is zero.

E) both choices A and C are valid.
Short Answer
30. Alex throws a 0.15-kg rubber ball down onto the floor. The ball's speed just before impact is 6.5 m/s,
and just after is 3.5 m/s. What is the change in the magnitude of the ball's momentum?
31. Alex throws a 0.15-kg rubber ball down onto the floor. The ball's speed just before impact is 6.5 m/s,
and just after is 3.5 m/s. If the ball is in contact with the floor for 0.025 s, what is the magnitude of
the average force applied by the floor on the ball?
32. A crane drops a 0.30 kg steel ball onto a steel plate. The ball's speeds just before impact and after are
4.5 m/s and 4.2 m/s, respectively. If the ball is in contact with the plate for 0.030 s, what is the
magnitude of the average force that the ball exerts on the plate during impact?
33. Jerome pitches a baseball of mass 0.20 kg. The ball arrives at home plate with a speed of 40 m/s and
is batted straight back to Jerome with a return speed of 60 m/s. What is the magnitude of change in
the ball's momentum?
34. A 75-kg swimmer dives horizontally off a 500-kg raft. The diver's speed immediately after leaving
the raft is 4.0 m/s. A micro-sensor system attached to the edge of the raft measures the time interval
during which the diver applies an impulse to the raft just prior to leaving the raft surface. If the time
interval is read as 0.20 s, what is the magnitude of the average horizontal force by diver on the raft?
35. Lonnie pitches a baseball of mass 0.20 kg. The ball arrives at home plate with a speed of 40 m/s and
is batted straight back to Lonnie with a return speed of 60 m/s. If the bat is in contact with the ball
for 0.050 s, what is the impulse experienced by the ball?
36. A ball with original momentum +4.0 kg m/s hits a wall and bounces straight back without losing
any kinetic energy. The change in momentum of the ball is:
37. A 0.12-kg ball is moving at 6 m/s when it is hit by a bat, causing it to reverse direction and have a
speed of 14 m/s. What is the change in the magnitude of the momentum of the ball?
38. A car wash nozzle directs a steady stream of water at 1.5 kg/s, with a speed of 30 m/s, against a car
window. What force does the water exert on the glass? Assume the water does not splash back.
39. A 75-kg swimmer dives horizontally off a 500-kg raft. If the diver's speed immediately after leaving
the raft is 4 m/s, what is the corresponding raft speed?
40. A machine gun is attached to a railroad flatcar that rolls with negligible friction. If the railroad car
has a mass of 6.25 104 kg, how many bullets of mass 25 g would have to be fired at 250 m/s off
the back to give the railroad car a forward velocity of 0.5 m/s?
41. A miniature spring-loaded, radio-controlled gun is mounted on an air puck. The gun's bullet has a
mass of 5.00 g, and the gun and puck have a combined mass of 120 g. With the system initially at
rest, the radio controlled trigger releases the bullet causing the puck and empty gun to move with a
speed of 0.500 m/s. What is the bullet's speed?

42. A uranium nucleus (mass 238 units) at rest decays into a helium nucleus (mass 4.0 units) and a
thorium nucleus (mass 234 units). If the speed of the helium nucleus is 6.0 105 m/s, what is the
speed of the thorium nucleus?
43. A high-diver of mass 70 kg jumps off a board 10 m above the water. If, 1.0 s after entering the water
his downward motion is stopped, what average upward force did the water exert?
44. A 20-g bullet moving at 1 000 m/s is fired through a one-kg block of wood emerging at a speed of
100 m/s. What is the kinetic energy of the block that results from the collision if the block had not
been moving prior to the collision and was free to move?
45. A 20-g bullet moving at 1 000 m/s is fired through a one-kg block of wood emerging at a speed of
100 m/s. What is the change in the kinetic energy of the bullet-block system as a result of the
collision assuming the block is free to move?
46. A billiard ball is moving in the x-direction at 30.0 cm/s and strikes another billiard ball moving in
the y-direction at 40.0 cm/s. As a result of the collision, the first ball moves at 50.0 cm/s, and the
second ball stops. In what final direction does the first ball move?
47. A billiard ball collides in an elastic head-on collision with a second identical ball. What is the kinetic
energy of the system after the collision compared to that before collision?
48. A railroad freight car, mass 15 000 kg, is allowed to coast along a level track at a speed of 2.0 m/s. It
collides and couples with a 50 000-kg loaded second car, initially at rest and with brakes released.
What percentage of the initial kinetic energy of the 15 000-kg car is preserved in the two-coupled
cars after collision?
49. A miniature, spring-loaded, radio-controlled gun is mounted on an air puck. The gun's bullet has a
mass of 5.00 g, and the gun and puck have a combined mass of 120 g. With the system initially at
rest, the radio-controlled trigger releases the bullet, causing the puck and empty gun to move with a
speed of 0.500 m/s. Of the total kinetic energy of the gun-puck-bullet system, what percentage is in
the bullet?
50. A 20-kg object sitting at rest is struck elastically in a head-on collision with a 10-kg object initially
moving at +3.0 m/s. Find the final velocity of the 20-kg object after the collision.
51. A 0.10-kg object moving initially with a velocity of +0.20 m/s makes an elastic head-on collision
with a 0.15-kg object initially at rest. What percentage of the original kinetic energy is retained by
the 0.10-kg object?
52. A 7.0-kg bowling ball strikes a 2.0-kg pin. The pin flies forward with a velocity of 6.0 m/s; the ball
continues forward at 4.0 m/s. What was the original velocity of the ball?
53. A 1.00-kg duck is flying overhead at 1.50 m/s when a hunter fires straight up. The 0.010 0-kg bullet
is moving 100 m/s when it hits the duck and stays lodged in the duck's body. What is the speed of the
duck and bullet immediately after the hit?
54. Two skaters, both of mass 75 kg, are on skates on a frictionless ice pond. One skater throws a 0.3-kg
ball at 5 m/s to his friend, who catches it and throws it back at 5 m/s. When the first skater has
caught the returned ball, what is the velocity of each of the two skaters?

55. A neutron in a nuclear reactor makes an elastic head-on collision with a carbon atom initially at rest.
(The mass of the carbon atom is 12 times that of the neutron.) What fraction of the neutron's kinetic
energy is transferred to the carbon atom?
56. Popeye, of mass 70 kg, has just downed a can of spinach. He accelerates quickly and stops Bluto, of
mass 700 kg (Bluto is very dense), who is charging in at 10 m/s. What was Popeye's speed?
57. Mitch throws a 100-g lump of clay at a 500-g target, which is at rest on a horizontal surface. After
impact, the target, including the attached clay, slides 2.1 m before stopping. If the coefficient of
friction is = 0.50, find the speed of the clay before impact.
58. A baseball infielder, mass 75.0 kg, jumps up with velocity 3.00 m/s and catches a 0.150-kg baseball
moving horizontally at 50.0 m/s. Of the following, which is closest to the final momentum of the
system, infielder and baseball?
59. A billiard ball (Ball #1) moving at 5.00 m/s strikes a stationary ball (Ball #2) of the same mass. After
the collision, Ball #1 moves at a speed of 3.00 m/s at an angle of 30.0o above the its previous path.
Find the speed and angle of Ball #2 after the collision.
60. A 90-kg halfback running north with a speed of 10 m/s is tackled by a 120-kg opponent running
south at 4 m/s. The collision is perfectly inelastic. Compute the velocity of the two players just after
the tackle.
61. Two billiard balls have velocities of 2.0 m/s and 1.0 m/s when they meet in an elastic head-on
collision. What is the final velocity of the first ball after collision?
62. A 2 500-kg truck moving at 10.00 m/s strikes a car waiting at a traffic light, hooking bumpers. The
two continue to move together at 7.00 m/s. What was the mass of the struck car?
63. A cannon of mass 1 500 kg fires a 10-kg shell with a velocity of 200 m/s at an angle of 45 above the
horizontal. Find the recoil velocity of the cannon across the level ground.
64. During a snowball fight two balls with masses of 0.4 and 0.6 kg, respectively, are thrown in such a
manner that they meet head-on and combine to form a single mass. The magnitude of initial velocity
for each is 15 m/s. What is the speed of the 1.0-kg mass immediately after collision?
65. Ann the Astronaut weighs 60 kg. She is space walking outside the space shuttle and pushes a 350-kg
satellite away from the shuttle at 0.90 m/s. What speed does this give Ann as she moves toward the
shuttle?
66. A 20-g bullet moving at 1 000 m/s is fired through a one-kg block of wood emerging at a speed of
100 m/s. If the block had been originally at rest and is free to move, what is its resulting speed?

PHYSICS AP/IB CH6 Review Guide

Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.

C
C
A
C
C
D
D
B
C
A
B
B
C
D
D
A
C
C
B
A
B
D
C
B
D
C
A
B
C

SHORT ANSWER
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.

1.5 kg m/s
60 N
87 N
20 kg m/s
1 500 N

35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.

20 N s
8.0 kg m/s.
2.4 kg m/s
45 N
0.6 m/s
5 000
12.0 m/s
1.0 104 m/s
980 N
0.16 kJ
9.7 kJ
at an angle of 53.1o ccw from the x-direction
the same as
23%
96%
+2.0 m/s
4%
5.7 m/s
1.78 m/s
0.04 m/s, moving apart
28.4%
100 m/s
27 m/s
225 kg m/s
1.73 m/s at 60.0o below the previous path of Ball#1.
2 m/s north
1.0 m/s
1 070 kg
0.94 m/s
3 m/s
5.3 m/s
18 m/s

PHYSICS AP/IB CH7 Review Guide

Multiple Choice
____

____

____

____

____

____

____

____

1. Consider a point on a bicycle wheel as the wheel makes exactly four complete revolutions about a
fixed axis. Compare the linear and angular displacement of the point.
a. Both are zero.
b. Only the angular displacement is zero.
c. Only the linear displacement is zero.
d. Neither is zero.
2. Consider a point on a bicycle wheel as the wheel turns about a fixed axis, neither speeding up nor
slowing down. Compare the linear and angular velocities of the point.
a. Both are constant.
c. Only the linear velocity is constant.
b. Only the angular velocity is constant. d. Neither is constant.
3. Consider a point on a bicycle wheel as the wheel turns about a fixed axis, neither speeding up nor
slowing down. Compare the linear and angular accelerations of the point.
a. Both are zero.
c. Only the linear acceleration is zero.
b. Only the angular acceleration is zero. d. Neither is zero.
4. Consider a point on a bicycle tire that is momentarily in contact with the ground as the bicycle rolls
across the ground with constant speed. The direction for the acceleration for this point at that
moment is:
a. upward.
d. at that moment the acceleration is zero.
b. down toward the ground.
e. none of the above.
c.
forward.
5. Consider a child who is swinging. As she reaches the lowest point in her swing:
a. the tension in the rope is equal to her weight.
b. the tension in the rope is equal to her mass times her acceleration.
c. her acceleration is downward at 9.8 m/s2.
d. none of the above.
e. both choices A and C are valid.
6. A wheel is rotated about a horizontal axle at a constant angular speed. Next it is rotated in the
opposite direction with the same angular speed. The acceleration at a point on the top of the wheel in
the second case as compared to the acceleration in the first case:
a. is in the same direction.
d. is tangential to the wheel.
b. is in the opposite direction.
e. none of the above.
c.
is upward.
7. Somewhere between the Earth and the Moon is a point where the gravitational attraction of the Earth
is canceled by the gravitational pull of the Moon. The mass of the Moon is 1/81 that of the Earth.
How far from the center of the Earth is this point?
a. 8/9 the way to the Moon
d. 80/81 the way to the Moon
b. 9/10 the way to the Moon
e. 3/8 the way to the Moon
c.
3/4 the way to the Moon
8. At what location does an artificial Earth satellite in elliptical orbit have its greatest speed?
a. nearest the Earth
b. farthest from the Earth

____

9.

____ 10.

____ 11.

____ 12.

____ 13.

c. between Earth and Moon

d. between Earth and Sun
e. nearest the Moon
An artificial Earth satellite in an elliptical orbit has its greatest centripetal acceleration when it is at
what location?
a. nearest the Earth
d. between Earth and Sun
b. farthest from the Earth
e. nearest the Moon
c.
between Earth and Moon
Which of the following best describes the property of the period of orbital revolution for an Earth
satellite?
a. greater when the orbital radius is
d. determined mainly by the satellite's
smaller
mass
b. greater when the orbital radius is larger e. none of the above
c.
independent of the orbital radius
Of the nine known planets in our solar system, the innermost is Mercury. When compared to the
other planets in the system, Mercury has the:
a. greatest centripetal acceleration.
d. smallest tangential velocity.
b. greatest period of revolution.
e. both choices A and D are valid.
c.
smallest angular velocity.
According to Kepler's second law, Halley's Comet circles the Sun in an elliptical path with the Sun at
one focus of the ellipse. What is at the other focus of the ellipse?
a. nothing
b. the Earth
c. The comet itself passes through the other focus.
d. The tail of the comet stays at the other ellipse.
e. the Jupiter
In order for a satellite to be geosynchronous, its orbit must:
a. go over the North and South Poles.
d. emit television signals.
b. be over the equator.
e. none of the above.
c.
be over a single longitude.

Problems
14. 2 600 rev/min is equivalent to which of the following?
15. A grindstone spinning at the rate of 8.3 rev/s has what approximate angular speed?
16. A 0.12-m-radius grinding wheel takes 5.5 s to speed up from 2.0 rad/s to 11.0 rad/s. What is the
wheel's average angular acceleration?
17. A ceiling fan is turned on and reaches an angular speed of 120 rev/min in 20 s. It is then turned off
and coasts to a stop in an additional 40 s. The ratio of the average angular acceleration for the first 20
s to that for the last 40 s is which of the following?
18. What is the angular speed about the rotational axis of the Earth for a person standing on the surface?

19. A spool of thread has an average radius of 1.00 cm. If the spool contains 62.8 m of thread, how many
turns of thread are on the spool?
20. A ventilation fan has blades 0.25 m in radius rotating at 20 rpm. What is the tangential speed of each
blade tip?
21. A point on the rim of a 0.30-m-radius rotating wheel has a tangential speed of 4.0 m/s. What is the
tangential speed of a point 0.20 m from the center of the same wheel?
22. The end of the cutting cord on a gas-powered weed cutter is 0.15 m in length. If the motor rotates at
the rate of 20 rev/s, what is the tangential speed of the end of the cord?
23. A bucket in an old well is hoisted upward by a rope which winds up on a cylinder having a radius of
0.050 m. How many rev/s must the cylinder turn if the bucket is raised at a speed of 0.15 m/s?
24. Calculate the linear speed due to the Earth's rotation for a person at the equator of the Earth. The
radius of the Earth is 6.40 106 m.
25. Calculate the linear speed due to the Earth's rotation for a person at a point on its surface located at
40o N latitude. The radius of the Earth is 6.40 106 m.
26. At what angle (relative to the horizontal) should a curve 52 m in radius be banked if no friction is
required to prevent the car from slipping when traveling at 12 m/s? (g = 9.8 m/s2)
27. The Earth is 93 million miles (mi) from the Sun and its period of revolution is 1 year = 3.15 107 s.
What is the acceleration of the Earth in its orbit about the Sun?
28. An airplane in a wide sweeping "outside" loop can create zero gees inside the aircraft cabin. What
must be the radius of curvature of the flight path for an aircraft moving at 150 m/s to create a
condition of "weightlessness" inside the aircraft?
29. A roller coaster, loaded with passengers, has a mass of 2 000 kg; the radius of curvature of the track
at the bottom point of the dip is 24 m. If the vehicle has a speed of 18 m/s at this point, what force is
exerted on the vehicle by the track? (g = 9.8 m/s2)
30. A 1 500-kg car rounds an unbanked curve with a radius of 52 m at a speed of 12 m/s. What
minimum coefficient of friction must exist between the road and tires to prevent the car from
slipping? (g = 9.8 m/s2)
31. At what speed will a car round a 52-m-radius curve, banked at a 45 angle, if no friction is required
between the road and tires to prevent the car from slipping? (g = 9.8 m/s2)
32. A point on the rim of a 0.25-m-radius fan blade has centripetal acceleration of 0.20 m/s2. Find the
centripetal acceleration of a point 0.05 m from the center of the same wheel.
33. A 0.40-kg mass, attached to the end of a 0.75-m string, is whirled around in a circular horizontal
path. If the maximum tension that the string can withstand is 450 N, then what maximum speed can
the mass have if the string is not to break?
34. A ventilation fan has blades 0.25 m long rotating at 20 rpm. What is the centripetal acceleration of a
point on the outer tip of a blade?
35. A point on the rim of a 0.25-m-radius rotating wheel has a centripetal acceleration of 4.0 m/s2. What
is the angular speed of the wheel?

36. A point on the rim of a 0.15-m-radius rotating disk has a centripetal acceleration of 5.0 m/s2. What is
the angular speed of a point 0.075 m from the center of the disk?
37. A cylindrical space colony 8 km in diameter and 30 km long has been proposed as living quarters for
future space explorers. Such a habitat would have cities, land and lakes on the inside surface and air
and clouds in the center. All this would be held in place by the rotation of the cylinder about the long
axis. How fast would such a cylinder have to rotate to produce a 1-g gravitational field at the walls
of the cylinder?
38. A 0.150-m-radius grinding wheel, starting at rest, develops an angular speed of 12.0 rad/s in a time
interval of 4.00 s. What is the centripetal acceleration of a point 0.100 m from the center when the
wheel is moving at an angular speed of 12.0 rad/s?
39. The distance from the center of a Ferris wheel to a passenger seat is 12 m. What centripetal
acceleration does a passenger experience when the wheel's angular speed is 0.50 rad/s?
40. What centripetal force does an 80-kg passenger experience when seated 12 m from the center of a
Ferris wheel whose angular speed is 0.50 rad/s?
41. A 0.400-kg object is swung in a circular path and in a vertical plane on a 0.500-m-length string. If
the angular speed at the bottom is 8.00 rad/s, what is the tension in the string when the object is at
the bottom of the circle?
42. A 0.30-kg rock is swung in a circular path and in a vertical plane on a 0.25-m-length string. At the
top of the path, the angular speed is 12.0 rad/s. What is the tension in the string at that point?
43. What angular speed (in revolutions/second) is needed for a centrifuge to produce an acceleration of 1
000 g at a radius arm of 15.0 cm?
44. An object of mass 0.50 kg is transported to the surface of Planet X where the object's weight is
measured to be 20 N. The radius of the planet is 4.0 106 m. What is the mass of Planet X? (G =

6.67 10 11 N m2/kg2)
45. A satellite is in a circular orbit about the Earth at a distance of one Earth radius above the surface.

What is the speed of the satellite? (The radius of the Earth is 6.4 106 m, and G = 6.67 10 11 N
2
2
m /kg .)
46. Geosynchronous satellites orbit the Earth at a distance of 42 000 km from the Earth's center. Their
angular speed at this height is the same as the rotation rate of the Earth, so they appear stationary at
certain locations in the sky. What is the force acting on a 1 500-kg satellite at this height?
47. The escape speed from the surface of the Earth is 11.2 km/s. Estimate the escape speed for a
spacecraft from the surface of the Moon. The Moon has a mass 1/81 that of Earth and a radius 0.25
that of Earth.
48. If the mass of Mars is 0.107 times that of Earth, and its radius is 0.530 that of Earth, estimate the
gravitational acceleration g at the surface of Mars. (gearth = 9.80 m/s2)
49. A careful photographic survey of Jupiter's moon Io by the spacecraft Voyager 1 showed active
volcanoes spewing liquid sulfur to heights of 70 km above the surface of this moon. If the value of g
on Io is 2.0 m/s2, estimate the speed with which the liquid sulfur left the volcano.

50. An object when orbiting the Earth at a height of three Earth radii from the center of the Earth has a
weight of 1.00 N. What is the object's mass? (g at the surface of the Earth is 9.8 m/s2)
51. An object of mass 0.50 kg is transported to the surface of Planet X where the object's weight is
measured to be 20 N. The radius of the planet is 4.0 106 m. What free fall acceleration will the
0.50-kg object experience when transported to a distance of 2.0 106 m from the surface of this
planet?
52. If a planet has a radius 20% greater than that of the Earth but has the same mass as the Earth, what is
the acceleration due to gravity at its surface?
53. If a planet has 3 times the radius of the Earth, but has the same density as the Earth, what is the
gravitational acceleration at the surface of the planet? (g = 9.8 m/s2)
54. An Earth satellite is orbiting at a distance from the Earth's surface equal to one Earth radius (4 000
miles). At this location, the acceleration due to gravity is what factor times the value of g at the
Earth's surface?
55. An object of mass 0.50 kg is transported to the surface of Planet X where the object's weight is
measured to be 20 N. The radius of the planet is 4.0 106 m. What free fall acceleration will the
0.50-kg object experience when at the surface of Planet X?
56. Two satellites are monitored as they orbit the Earth; satellite X is eight times as far from the Earth's
center as is satellite Y. From Kepler's third law one may conclude that the period or revolution of X
is what factor times that of Y?
57. Doubling the mean distance from the Sun results in changing the orbital period of revolution by what
factor?
58. For any object orbiting the Sun, Kepler's Law may be written T2 = kr3. If T is measured in years and
r in units of the Earth's distance from the Sun, then k = 1. What, therefore, is the time (in years) for
Mars to orbit the Sun if its mean radius from the Sun is 1.5 times the Earth's distance from the Sun?
59. An asteroid has a perihelion (the orbit's closest approach to the sun) of 1.5 AU and a period of
revolution of 8.0 y. What is its greatest distance from the sun (its aphelion)?
60. An asteroid is in orbit at 4 times the earth's distance from the Sun. What is its period of revolution?
61. An asteroid in orbit about the sun has a linear speed of 4 km/s when at a distance of closest approach
d from the sun. What is its linear speed when it is at its greatest distance from the sun, a distance 2
d?

PHYSICS AP/IB CH7 Review Guide

Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.

C
B
B
A
D
A
B
A
A
B
A
A
B

SHORT ANSWER
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.

273 rad/s
52 rad/s
1.6 rad/s2
-2

7.3 10 5 rad/s
1 000
0.52 m/s
2.7 m/s
19 m/s
0.48 rev/s
465 m/s
357 m/s
16

3.7 10 6 mi/s2
2 300 m
4.7 104 N
0.28
23 m/s
0.04 m/s2
29 m/s
1.1 m/s2

35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.

4.0 rad/s
5.8 rad/s
0.05 rad/s
14.4 m/s2
3.0 m/s2
240 N
16.7 N
7.9 N
40.7 rev/s
9.6 1024 kg
5 600 m/s
333 N
2.5 km/s
3.73 m/s2
530 m/s
0.92 kg
18 m/s2
6.8 m/s2
29.4 m/s2
1/4
40 m/s2
22.6
23/2
1.8 years
6.5 AU
8 years
2 km/s

AP/IB Physics Review Guide CH9.3-9.7

Short Answer
1. The pressure inside a commercial airliner is maintained at 1.00 atm (105 Pa). What is the net outward
force exerted on a 1.0 m 2.0 m cabin door if the outside pressure is 0.30 atm?
2. A stonecutter's chisel has an edge area of 0.50 cm2. If the chisel is struck with a force of 45 N, what
is the pressure exerted on the stone?
3. When water freezes, it expands about nine percent. What would be the pressure increase inside your
automobile engine block if the water in there froze? (The bulk modulus of ice is 2.0 109 Pa, and 1
atm = 1.0 105 Pa.)
4. The Greenland ice sheet can be one km thick. Estimate the pressure underneath the ice. (The density
of ice is 918 kg/m3.)
5. What is the total mass of the Earth's atmosphere? (The radius of the Earth is 6.4 106 m, and
atmospheric pressure at the surface is 105 N/m2.)
6. A solid object is made of two materials, one material having density of 2 000 kg/m3 and the other
having density of 6 000 kg/m3. If the object contains equal volumes of the materials, what is its
average density?
7. A solid object is made of two materials, one material having density of 2 000 kg/m3 and the other
having density of 6 000 kg/m3. If the object contains equal masses of the materials, what is its
average density?
8. What is the total force on the bottom of a 2.0-m-diameter by 1.0-m-deep round wading pool due to
the weight of the air and the weight of the water? (Note the pressure contribution from the
atmosphere is 1.0 105 N/m2, the density of water is 1 000 kg/m3, and g = 9.8 m/s2.)
9. A 15 000-N car on a hydraulic lift rests on a cylinder with a piston of radius 0.20 m. If a connecting
cylinder with a piston of 0.040-m radius is driven by compressed air, what force must be applied to
this smaller piston in order to lift the car?
10. By what factor is the total pressure greater at a depth of 850 m in water than at the surface where
pressure is one atmosphere? (water density = 1.0 103 kg/m3, 1 atmosphere pressure = 1.01 105
N/m2, and g = 9.8 m/s2)
11. If the column of mercury in a barometer stands at 72.6 cm, what is the atmospheric pressure? (The
density of mercury is 13.6 103 kg/m3 and g = 9.80 m/s2)

12. Dams at two different locations are needed to form a lake. When the lake is filled, the water level
will be at the top of both dams. The Dam #2 is twice as high and twice as wide as Dam #1. How
much greater is the force of the water on Dam #2 than the force on Dam #1? (Ignore atmospheric
pressure; it is pushing on both sides of the dams.)
13. Atmospheric pressure is 1.0 105 N/m2, and the density of air is 1.29 kg/m3. If the density of air is
constant as you get higher and higher, calculate the height of the atmosphere needed to produce this
pressure.
14. The water behind Grand Coulee Dam is 1 200 m wide and 150 m deep. Find the hydrostatic force on
the back of the dam. (Hint: the total force = average pressure area)
15. How deep under the surface of a lake would the pressure be double that at the surface? (1 atm = 1.01
x 105 Pa)
16. A piece of aluminum has density 2.70 g/cm3 and mass 775 g. The aluminum is submerged in a
container of oil (oil's density = 0.650 g/cm3). How much oil does the metal displace?
17. A piece of aluminum has density 2.70 g/cm3 and mass 775 g. The aluminum is submerged in a
container of oil of density 0.650 g/cm3. A spring balance is attached with string to the piece of
aluminum. What reading will the balance register in grams (g) for the submerged metal?
18. A block of wood has density 0.50 g/cm3 and mass 1 500 g. It floats in a container of oil (the oil's
density is 0.75 g/cm3). What volume of oil does the wood displace?
19. What volume of water is displaced by a submerged 2.0-kg cylinder made of solid aluminum?
(aluminum density = 2.7 103 kg/m3 and water density = 1.0 103 kg/m3)
20. A ping-pong ball has an average density of 0.0840 g/cm3 and a diameter of 3.80 cm. What force
would be required to keep the ball completely submerged under water?
21. A cube of wood of density 0.78 g/cm3 is 10 cm on a side. When placed in water, what height of the
block will float above the surface? (water density = 1.00 g/cm3)
22. The bottom of a flat-bottomed aluminum boat has an area of 4.0 m2 and the boat's mass is 60 kg.
When set afloat in water, how far below the water surface is the boat bottom? (water density = 1.0
103 kg/m3)
23. The bottom of a flat-bottomed aluminum boat has area = 4.0 m2 and mass = 60 kg. If two fishermen
and their fishing gear with total mass of 300 kg are placed in the boat, how much lower will the boat
ride in the water? (H2O density = 1.0 103 kg/m3)
24. Legend says that Archimedes, in determining whether or not the king's crown was made of pure
gold, measured its volume by the water displacement method. If the density of gold is 19.3 g/cm3,
and the crown's mass is 600 g, what volume would be necessary to prove that it is pure gold?

25. A solid rock, suspended in air by a spring scale, has a measured mass of 9.00 kg. When the rock is
submerged in water, the scale reads 3.30 kg. What is the density of the rock? (water density = 1 000
kg/m3)
26. A blimp is filled with 400 m3 of helium. How big a payload can the balloon lift? (The density of air
is 1.29 kg/m3; the density of helium is 0.18 kg/m3.)
27. A block of wood has specific gravity 0.80. When placed in water, what percent of the volume of the
wood is above the surface?
28. An ideal fluid flows through a pipe made of two sections with diameters of 1.0 and 3.0 inches,
respectively. The speed of the fluid flow through the 3.0-inch section will be what factor times that
through the 1.0-inch section?
29. The flow rate of a liquid through a 2.0-cm-radius pipe is 0.008 0 m3/s. The average fluid speed in the
pipe is:
30. An ideal fluid, of density 0.85 103 kg/m3, flows at 0.25 kg/s through a pipe of radius 0.010 m.
What is the fluid speed?
31. An ideal fluid, of density 0.90 103 kg/m3, flows at 6.0 m/s through a level pipe with radius of 0.50
cm. The pressure in the fluid is 1.3 105 N/m2. This pipe connects to a second level pipe, with
radius of 1.5 cm. Find the speed of flow in the second pipe.
32. The flow rate of blood through the average human aorta, of radius 1.0 cm, is about 90 cm3/s. What is
the speed of the blood flow through the aorta?
33. Water (density = 1 103 kg/m3) flows at 15 m/s through a pipe with radius 0.040 m. The pipe goes
up to the second floor of the building, 3.0 m higher, and the pressure remains unchanged. What is the
speed of the water flow in the pipe on the second floor?
34. Water (density = 1 103 kg/m3) flows at 10 m/s through a pipe with radius 0.030 m. The pipe goes
up to the second floor of the building, 2.0 m higher, and the pressure remains unchanged. What is the
radius of the pipe on the second floor?
35. Air pressure is 1.0 105 N/m2, air density is 1.3 kg/m3, and the density of soft drinks is 1.0 103
kg/m3. If one blows carefully across the top of a straw sticking up 0.100 m from the liquid in a soft
drink can, it is possible to make the soft drink rise half way up the straw and stay there. How fast
must the air be blown across the top of the straw?
36. A hole is poked through the metal side of a drum holding water. The hole is 18 cm below the water
surface. What is the initial speed of outflow?
37. Water comes down the spillway of a dam from an initial vertical height of 170 m. What is the
highest possible speed of the water at the end of the spillway?

38. Water pressurized to 3 105 Pa is flowing at 5.0 m/s in a pipe which contracts to 1/3 of its former
area. What are the pressure and speed of the water after the contraction? (Density of water = 1 x 103
kg/m3.)
39. The standard kilogram is a platinum-iridium cylinder 39.0 mm in height and 39.0 mm in diameter.
What is the density of the material?

AP/IB Physics Review Guide CH9.3-9.7

Answer Section
SHORT ANSWER
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.

140 000 N
900 000 Pa
1 800 atm
9.0 106 Pa (90 atm)
5 1018 kg
4 000 kg/m3
3 000 kg/m3
3.4 105 N
600 N
83
0.968 105 N/m2
8
7 900 m
13.2 1010 N
10.3 m
287 cm3
588 g
2 000 cm3

7.4 l0 4 m3
0.258 N
2.2 cm
0.015 m
0.075 m
31.1 cm3
1.58 103 kg/m3
444 kg
20%
1/9
6.4 m/s.
0.94 m/s
0.67 m/s
29 cm/s
13 m/s
0.034 m
27 m/s
1.9 m/s
58 m/s

38. 2 105 Pa, 15 m/s

39. 21.5 g/cm3

AP/IB Physics Review Guide CH15

Short Answer

1. A metallic object holds a charge of 3.8 10 6 C. What total number of electrons does this represent?

(e = 1.6 10 19 C is the magnitude of the electronic charge.)

2. About how many electrons are in 30 grams of water (H2O)?
3. Two point charges are 4 cm apart. They are moved to a new separation of 2 cm. By what factor does
the resulting mutual force between them change?
4. If the distance between two point charges is tripled, the mutual force between them will be changed
by what factor?
5. If the size of the charge value is tripled for both of two point charges maintained at a constant
separation, the mutual force between them will be changed by what factor?
6. Two point charges, separated by 1.5 cm, have charge values of +2.0 and 4.0 C, respectively. What
is the value of the mutual force between them? (ke = 8.99 109 N m2/C2)
7. Charge A and charge B are 3.00 m apart, and charge A is +2.00 C and charge B is +3.00 C. Charge C
is located between them at a certain point and the force on charge C is zero. How far from charge A
is charge C?
8. In a thundercloud there may be an electric charge of +40 C near the top of the cloud and 40 C near
the bottom of the cloud. These charges are separated by about 2.0 km. What is the electric force
between these two sets of charges? (ke = 8.99 109 Nm2/C2)
9. An electron is sent at high speed toward a gold nucleus (charge +79e). What is the electrical force

acting on the electron when it is 3.0 10 14 m away from the gold nucleus? (e = 1.6 10 19 C, ke =
8.99 109 Nm2/C2)
10. Two electrons are separated by one cm. What is the ratio of the electric force to the gravitational

force between them? (me = 9.11 10 31 kg, ke = 8.99 109 N m2/C2, G = 6.67 10-11 N m2/kg2,

and e = 1.6 10 19 C)
11. Two equal charges, each Q, are separated by some distance. What third charge would need to be
placed half way between the two charges so that the net force on each charge would be zero?
12. A 6.0 C charge is placed at the origin and a second charge is placed on the x-axis at x = 0.30 m. If
the resulting force on the second charge is 5.4 N in the positive x-direction, what is the value of its
charge?
13. A 6.00 C charge is placed at the origin and a second charge is placed on the x-axis at x = 0.300 m.
If the resulting force on the second charge is 6.40 N in the positive x-direction, what is the force on
the charge at the origin?
14. Two point charges each have a value of 30.0 mC and are separated by a distance of 4.00 cm. What is
the electric field midway between the two charges? (ke = 8.99 109 Nm2/C2)

15. Two point charges are separated by 10.0 cm and have charges of +2.00 C and 2.00 C,
respectively. What is the electric field at a point midway between the two charges? (ke = 8.99 109
Nm2/C2)

16. An electron with a charge value of 1.6 10 19 C is moving in the presence of an electric field of 400
N/C. What force does the electron experience?
17. Charges of 4.0 C and 6.0 C are placed at two corners of an equilateral triangle with sides of 0.10
m. At the third corner, what is the electric field magnitude created by these two charges? (ke = 8.99
109 Nm2/C2)

18. The average distance of the electron from the proton in the hydrogen atom is 0.51 10 10 m. What is
the electric field from the proton's charge at the location of the electron? (ke = 8.99 109 N m2/C2, e

= 1.6 10 19 C)
19. Two point charges are placed along a horizontal axis with the following values and positions: +3.0
C at x = 0 cm and 7.0 C at x = 20 cm. At what point along the x axis is the electric field zero?
20. A proton initially moves left to right long the x axis at a speed of 2.00 103 m/s. It moves into an
electric field, which points in the negative x direction, and travels a distance of 0.200 m before
coming to rest. What acceleration magnitude does the proton experience?
21. A proton initially moves left to right long the x axis at a speed of 2.00 103 m/s. It moves into an
electric field, which points in the negative x direction, and travels a distance of 0.200 m before

coming to rest. If the proton's mass and charge are 1.67 10 27 kg and 1.60 10 19 C respectively,
what is the magnitude of the electric field?
22. An electron with a speed of 2.0 106 m/s moves into a uniform electric field of 500 N/C that is
parallel to the electron's motion. How long does it take to bring the electron to rest? (me = 9.11

10 31 kg, e = 1.6 10 19 C)
23. In x-ray machines, electrons are subjected to electric fields as great as 6.0 105 N/C. Find an

electron's acceleration in this field. (me = 9.11 10 31 kg, e = 1.6 10 19 C)

24. A proton moving at 3.0 104 m/s is projected at an angle of 30 above a horizontal plane. If an
electric field of 400 N/C is acting down, how long does it take the proton to return to the horizontal

plane? (Hint: Ignore gravity. mproton = 1.67 10 27 kg, qproton = 1.6 10 19 C)

25. An airplane is flying through a thundercloud at a height of 2 000 m. (This is a very dangerous thing
to do because of updrafts, turbulence, and the possibility of electric discharge.) If there is a charge
concentration of +40 C at height 3 000 m within the cloud and 40 C at height 1 000 m, what is the
magnitude of the electric field E at the aircraft? (ke = 8.99 109 Nm2/C2)

26. Electrons in a particle beam each have a kinetic energy of 3.2 10 17 J. What is the magnitude of the

electric field that will stop these electrons in a distance of 0.1 m? (e = 1.6 10 19 C)
27. The electric field in a cathode ray tube is supposed to accelerate electrons from 0 to 1.60 107 m/s

in a distance of 2.00 cm. What electric field is required? (me = 9.11 10 31 kg and e = 1.60 10 19
C)

28. Two point charges, separated by 1.5 cm, have charge values of +2.0 and 4.0 C, respectively.
Suppose we determine that 10 field lines radiate out from the +2.0-C charge. If so, what might be
inferred about the 4.0-C charge with respect to field lines?
29. Charge A has 10 electric field lines coming out, Charge B has 20 lines coming out, and Charge C has
30 lines coming in. Which pair of these charges will have the largest force between them if placed
one cm apart?
30. Q1 has 50 electric field lines radiating outward and Q2 has 100 field lines converging inward. What is
the ratio Q1/Q2?
31. Relative distribution of charge density on the surface of a conducting solid depends on:
32. The electric field associated with a uniformly charged hollow metallic sphere is the greatest at:
33. At what point is the charge per unit area greatest on the surface of an irregularly shaped conducting
solid?
34. An initially uncharged hollow metallic sphere with radius of 5 cm has a small object with a charge of
+10 C carefully placed at the center of the sphere through a hole in the latter's surface. With the
charge in place, what charge is now present on the outside surface of the sphere?
35. An initially uncharged hollow metallic sphere with radius of 5 cm has a small object with a charge of
+10 C carefully placed at the center of the sphere through a hole in the latter's surface. What charge
resides inner surface of the sphere?
36. We have an initially uncharged hollow metallic sphere with radius of 5.0 cm. I place a small object
with a charge of +10 C at the center of the sphere through a hole in the surface. Find the electric
field present at a point 10 cm from the sphere's center. (ke = 8.99 109 N m2/C2)
37. We have a hollow metallic sphere with charge 5.0 C and radius 5.0 cm. We insert a +10-C charge
at the center of the sphere through a hole in the surface. What charge now rests on the outer surface
of the sphere?
38. Two identical spheres each carry a charge of 40.0 C. The spheres are separated by a distance of
1.00 m. What is the electric force between the spheres? (ke = 8.99 109 Nm2/C2)

39. A ping-pong ball covered with a conducting graphite coating has a mass of 5.0 10 3 kg and a
charge of 4.0 C. What electric field directed upward will exactly balance the weight of the ball? (g
= 9.8 m/s2)
40. Two identical iron spheres have equal positive charges and the force between them when they are 1
m apart is 1 N. What percentage of the electrons has been removed from each sphere if each sphere
has 1 mole (6 1023) of iron atoms? (ke = 8.99 109 N m2/C2, the atomic number of iron is 26, and

the electron charge is 1.6 10 19 C)

41. A thin uncharged conducting spherical shell has a charge q carefully placed at its center through a
small hole in the shell. The charge q does not touch the shell. What is the charge on the shell?

AP/IB Physics Review Guide CH15

Answer Section
SHORT ANSWER
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.

2.4 1013
1025
4
1/9
9.0
320 N
1.35 m
3.6 106 N
20 N
4.2 1042
Q/4
9.0 C
6.40 N in the negative x-direction
zero
14.4 106 N/C

6.4 10 17 N
4.8 106 N/C
5.5 1011 N/C
38 cm
1.00 107 m/s2
0.104 N/C

2.3 10 8 s
1.1 1017 m/s2

7.8 10 7 s
720 000 N/C
2 000 N/C
36 400 N/C
20 radiate in
B and C
1/2
the shape of the conductor.
the sphere's outer surface.
where curvature is greatest
+10 C
10 C
9.0 106 N/C

37.
38.
39.
40.
41.

+5 C
14.4 N (repulsive)
1.2 104 N/C

4 10 10 %
0

AP/IB PHYSICS Review Guide CH17

Short Answer
1. The current in an electron beam in a cathode-ray tube is measured to be 70 A. How many electrons hit

the screen in 5.0 s? (e = 1.6 10 19 C)

2. A wire carries a steady current of 0.1 A over a period of 20 s. What total charge passes through the wire
in this time interval?
3. In a certain material there is a current of 16 A flowing through a surface to the right, and there is an equal
amount of positive and negative charge passing through the surface producing the current. How much
negative charge passes through the surface?
4. You measure a 25.0-V potential difference across a 5.00- resistor. What is the current flowing through
it?
5. A flashlight bulb operating at a voltage of 4.5 V has a resistance of 8.0 . How many electrons pass

through the bulb filament per second (e = 1.6 10 19 C)?

6. A metallic conductor has a resistivity of 18 10 6 m. What is the resistance of a piece that is 30 m

long and has a uniform cross sectional area of 3.0 10 6 m2?

7. How long is a wire made from 100 cm3 of copper if its resistance is 8.5 ohms? The resistivity of copper is
1.7 x 10-5 m.
8. Two wires with the same resistance have the same diameter but different lengths. If wire 1 has length L1
and wire 2 has length L2, how do L1 and L2 compare if wire 1 is made from copper and wire 2 is made
from aluminum? The resistivity of copper is 1.7 10-5 m and the resistivity of aluminum is 2.82 10-5
m.

9. A 0.20-m-long metal rod has a radius of 1.0 cm and a resistance of 3.2 10 5 . What is the resistivity
of the metal?

10. A nichrome wire has a radius of 0.50 mm and a resistivity of 1.5 10 6 m. What is the resistance per
unit length of this wire?

11. A nichrome wire has a radius of 0.50 mm and a resistivity of 1.5 10 6 m. If the wire carries a current
of 0.50 A, what is the potential difference per unit length along this wire?
12. Number 10 copper wire (radius = 1.3 mm) is commonly used for electrical installations in homes. What
is the voltage drop in 40 m of #10 copper wire if it carries a current of 10 A? ( resistivity of copper is 1.7

10 8 m.)
13. A copper cable needs to carry a current of 200 A with a power loss of only 3.0 W/m. What is the required

radius of the copper cable? (The resistivity of copper is 1.7 10 8 m.)

14. Some superconductors are capable of carrying a very large quantity of current. If the measured current is

1.00 105 A, how many electrons are moving through the superconductor per second? (e = 1.60 10 19
C)

15. If a 9.0-V battery, with negligible internal resistance, and an 18- resistor are connected in series, what is
the amount of electrical energy transformed to heat per coulomb of charge that flows through the circuit?
16. A 60-W light bulb is in a socket supplied with 120 V. What is the current in the bulb?
17. A resistor is connected to a battery with negligible internal resistance. If you replace the resistor with one
that has twice the resistance, by what factor does the power dissipated in the circuit change?
18. If a 500-W heater carries a current of 4.00 A, what is the voltage across the ends of the heating element?
19. If a 500-W heater carries a current of 4.00 A, what is the resistance of the heating element?
20. A 500-W heater carries a current of 4.0 A. How much does it cost to operate the heater for 30 min if
electrical energy costs 6.0 cents per kWh?
21. If a lamp has resistance of 120 when it operates at 100 W, what is the applied voltage?
22. If a lamp has a resistance of 120 when it operates at 100 W, what current does it carry?
23. An electric toaster requires 1 100 W at 110 V. What is the resistance of the heating coil?
24. A light bulb, sold as long-lasting, is rated 100 W at 130 V. The "increased" lifetime comes from using it at
120 V. Assuming negligible change in resistance at the different voltage, what is its power consumption
at 120 V?
25. An electric clothes dryer draws 15 A at 220 V. If the clothes put into the dryer have a mass of 7.0 kg when
wet and 4.0 kg dry, how long does it take to dry the clothes? (Assume all heat energy goes into
vaporizing water, Lv = 2.26 106 J/kg.)
26. A steam turbine at an electric power plant delivers 4 500 kW of power to an electrical generator which
converts 95% of this mechanical energy into electrical energy. What is the current delivered by the
generator if it delivers at 3 600 V?
27. The heating coil of a hot water heater has a resistance of 20 and operates at 210 V. How long a time is
required to raise the temperature of 200 kg of water from 15C to 80C? (The specific heat for water = 103
cal/kg C and 1.0 cal = 4.186 J.)
28. If electrical energy costs 5.5 cents per kWh, what does it cost to heat 200 kg water from 15C to 80C?
(The specific heat of water = 103 cal/kgC and 1.0 cal = 4.186 J.)
29. A light bulb has resistance of 240 when operating at 120 V. Find the current in the light bulb.
30. A water pump draws about 3.8 A when connected to 240 V. What is the cost (with electrical energy at 9
cents per kWh) of running the pump for 10 h?
31. A high-voltage transmission line carries 1 000 A at 700 000 V. What is the power carried by the line?
32. A high-voltage transmission line carries 1 000 A at 700 kV for a distance of 100 miles. If the resistance in
the wire is 1 /mile, what is the power loss due to resistive losses?
33. An electric car is designed to run off a bank of 12-V batteries with total energy storage of 3.0 107 J. If
the electric motor draws 6 000 W, what current will be delivered to the motor?

34. An electric car is designed to run off a bank of 12-V batteries with total energy storage of 3.0 107 J. If
the electric motor draws 6 000 W in moving the car at a steady speed of 10 m/s, how far will the car go
before it is "out of juice?"
35. A solar panel measures 80 cm 50 cm. In direct sunlight, the panel delivers 3.2 A at 15 V. If the intensity
of sunlight is 1 000 W/m2, what is the efficiency of the solar panel in converting solar energy into
electrical energy?
36. Suppose that a voltage surge produces 140 V for a moment in a 120-V line. What will temporarily be the
output of a 100-W light bulb assuming its resistance does not change?
37. An 8.00- resistor is dissipating 100 watts. Find the current through it, and the difference of potential
across it.

Jerick

AP/IB PHYSICS Review Guide CH17

Answer Section
SHORT ANSWER
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.

2.2 1015 electrons

2C
8 C/s toward the left
5.00 A
3.5 1018
180
7.1 m
L1 = 1.7 L2

5.0 10 8 m
1.9 /m
0.95 V/m
1.3 V
0.85 cm
6.25 1023
9.0 J
0.50 A
0.50
125 V
31.3
1.5 cents
110 V
0.91 A
11.0
85 W
34 min
1.2 103 A
6.9 h
83 cents
0.50 A
82 cents
700 MW
100 MW
500 A
50 km
12%
136 W
3.54 A, 28.3 V

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AP Physics Chapters 26 & 27 Review

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

1. A car battery is rated at 80 A h. An ampere-hour is a unit of:

power
energy
current
charge
force

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

2. Current has units:

kilowatthour
ampere
coulomb
volt
ohm

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

3. The rate at which electrical energy is used may be measured in:

watt/second
wattsecond
watt
joulesecond
kilowatthour

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

4. Which one of the following quantities is correctly matched to its unit?

power kWh
energy kW
potential difference J/C
current A/s
resistance V/C

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

5. A 60-watt light bulb carries a current of 0.5 ampere. The total charge passing through it
in one hour is:
120 C
3600 C
3000 C
2400 C
1800 C

A)
B)
C)
D)

6. Conduction electrons move to the right in a certain wire. This indicates that:
the current density and electric field both point right
the current density and electric field both point left
the current density points right and the electric field points left
the current density points left and the electric field points right
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Jerick
E)
the current density points left but the direction of the electric field is unknown

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

7. A wire with a length of 150 m and a radius of 0.15 m carries a current with a unifrom
current density of 2.8 107 A/m2. The current is:
0.63 A2
2.0 A
5.9 A2
296 A
400 A2

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

8. Two substances are identical except that the electron mean free time for substance A is
twice the electron mean free time for substance B. If the same electric field exists in
both substances the electron drift speed in A is:
the same as in B
twice that in B
half that in B
four times that in B
one fourth that in B

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

9. The current density is the same in two wires. Wire A has twice the free electron
concentration of wire B. The drift speed of electrons in A is:
twice that of electrons in B
four times that of electrons in B
half that of electrons in B
one-fourth that of electrons in B
the same as that of electrons in B

10. If is the current density and d2 is a vector element of area then the integral d2 over
an area represents:
A)
the electric flux through the area
B)
the average current density at the position of the area
C)
the resistance of the area
D)
the resistivity of the area
E)
the current through the area

A)

11. Five cylindrical wires are made of the same

material. Their lengths and radii are
wire 1: length E , radius r
wire 2: lenth 3E /2, radius r/2
wire 3: length E /2, radius r/2
wire 4: length E , radius r/2
wire 5: length 5E , radius r/2
Rank the wires according to their resistances,
least to greatest.
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
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Jerick
B)
C)
D)
E)

5, 4, 3, 2, 1
1 and 2 tie, then 5, 3, 4
1, 3, 4, 2, 5
1, 2, 4, 3, 5

12. A cylindrical copper rod has resistance R. It is reformed to twice its original length with
no change of volume. Its new resistance is:
A)
R
B)
2R
C)
4R
D)
8R
E)
R/2
13. A certain wire has resistance R. Another wire, of the same material, has half the length
and half the diameter of the first wire. The resistance of the second wire is:
A)
R/4
B)
R/2
C)
R
D)
2R
E)
4R
14. Two conductors are made of the same material and have the same length. Conductor A
is a solid wire of diameter 1 m. Conductor B is a hollow tube of inside diameter 1 m and
outside diameter 2 m. The ratio of their resistance, RA/RB, is:
A)
1
B)
C)
2
D)
3
E)
4
15. A certain sample carries a current of 4 A when the potential difference is 2 V and a
current of 10 A when the potential difference is 4 V. This sample:
A)
obeys Ohm's law
B)
has a resistance of 0.5 at 1 V
C)
has a resistance of 2.5 at 2 V
D)
has a resistance of 25 at 2 V
E)
does not have a resistance

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16. Which of the following graphs best represents the current-voltage relationship of an
incandescent light bulb?

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

I
II
III
IV
V

17. Two wires are made of the same material and have the same length but different radii.
They are joined end-to-end and a potential difference is maintained across the
combination. Of the following the quantity that is the same for both wires is:
A)
potential difference
B)
current
C)
current density
D)
electric field
E)
conduction electron drift speed

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

18. For an ohmic resistor, resistance is the proportionality constant for:

potential difference and electric field
current and electric field
current and length
current and cross-sectional area
current and potential difference

19. For a cylindrical resistor made of ohmic material, the resistance does NOT depend on:
A)
the current
B)
the length
C)
the cross-sectional area
D)
the resistivity
E)
the electron drift velocity
20. You wish to triple the rate of energy dissipation in a heating device. To do this you could
triple:
A)
the potential difference keeping the resistance the same
B)
the current keeping the resistance the same
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Jerick
C)
the resistance keeping the potential difference the same
D)
the resistance keeping the current the same
E)
both the potential difference and current

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

21. A flat iron is marked "120 volt, 600 watt". In normal use, the current in it is:
2A
4A
5A
7.2 A
0.2 A

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

22. An ordinary light bulb is marked "60 watt, 120 volt". Its resistance is:
60
120
180
240
15

23. It is better to send 10,000 kW of electric power long distances at 10,000 V rather than at
220 V because:
A)
there is less heating in the transmission wires
B)
the resistance of the wires is less at high voltages
C)
more current is transmitted at high voltages
D)
the insulation is more effective at high voltages
E)
the iR drop along the wires is greater at high voltage
24. A certain x-ray tube requires a current of 7 mA at a voltage of 80 kV. The rate of energy
dissipation (in watts) is:
A)
560
B)
5600
C)
26
D)
11.4
E)
87.5
25. You buy a "75 W" light bulb. The label means that:
no matter how you use the bulb, the power will be 75 W
the bulb was filled with 75 W at the factory
the actual power dissipated will be much higher than 75 W since most of the power
appears as heat
D)
the bulb is expected to "burn out" after you use up its 75 watts
E)
none of the above
A)
B)
C)

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26. "The sum of the currents into a junction equals the sum of the currents out of the
junction" is a consequence of:
A)
Newton's third law
B)
Ohm's law
C)
Newton's second law
D)
conservation of energy
E)
conservation of charge
27. A portion of a circuit is shown, with the values of the currents given for some branches.
What is the direction and value of the current i?

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

, 6A
, 6A
, 4A
, 4A
, 2A
28. In the context of the loop and junctions rules for electrical circuits a junction is:
where a wire is connected to a resistor
where a wire is connected to a battery
where only two wires are joined
where three or more wires are joined
where a wire is bent

29. If a circuit has L closed loops, B branches, and J junctions the number of independent
loop equations is:
A)
BJ+1
B)
BJ
C)
B
D)
L
E)
LJ
30. A battery is connected across a parallel combination of two identical resistors. If the
potential difference across the terminals is V and the current in the battery is i, then:
A)
the potential difference across each resistor is V and the current in each resistor is i
B)
the potential difference across each resistor is V/2 and the current in each resistor is i/2
C)
the potential difference across each resistor is V and the current in each resistor is i/2
D)
the potential difference across each resistor is V/2 and the current in each resistor is i
E)
none of the above are true

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31. By using only two resistors, R1 and R2 a student is able to obtain resistances of 3 , 4 ,
12 , and 16 . The values of R1 and R2 (in ohms) are:
A)
3, 4
B)
2, 12
C)
3, 16
D)
4, 12
E)
4, 16
32. Four 20- resistors are connected in parallel and the combination is connected to a 20V emf device. The current in any one of the resistors is:
A)
0.25 A
B)
1.0 A
C)
4.0 A
D)
5.0 A
E)
100 A
33. Four 20- resistors are connected in series and the combination is connected to a 20-V
emf device. The potential difference across any one of the resistors is:
A)
1V
B)
4V
C)
5V
D)
20 V
E)
80 V
34. Nine identical wires, each of diameter d and length L, are connected in series. The
combination has the same resistance as a single similar wire of length L but whose
diameter is:
A)
3d
B)
9d
C)
d/3
D)
d/9
E)
d/81
35. Two wires made of the same material have the same length but different diameters.
They are connected in series to a battery. The quantity that is the same for the wires is:
A)
the end-to-end potential difference
B)
the current
C)
the current density
D)
the electric field
E)
the electron drift velocity

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36. Each of the resistors in the diagram is 12 . The resistance of the entire circuit is:

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

5.76
25
48
120
none of these

37. The resistance of resistor 1 is twice the resistance of resistor 2. The two are connected in
series and a potential difference is maintained across the combination. Then:
A)
the current in 1 is twice that in 2
B)
the current in 1 is half that in 2
C)
the potential difference across 1 is twice that across 2
D)
the potential difference across 1 is half that across 2
E)
none of the above are true
38. Resistor 1 has twice the resistance of resistor 2. The two are connected in parallel and a
potential difference is maintained across the combination. The rate of thermal energy
dissipation in 1 is:
A)
the same as that in 2
B)
twice that in 2
C)
half that in 2
D)
four times that in 2
E)
one fourth that in 2
39. The terminal potential difference of a battery is less greater than its emf:
A)
under all conditions
B)
only when the battery is being charged
C)
only when the battery is being discharged
D)
only when there is no current in the battery
E)
under no conditions
40. A battery of emf 24 V is connected to a 6- resistor. As a result, current of 3 A exists in
the resistor. The terminal potential difference of the battery is:
A)
0
B)
6V
C)
12 V
D)
18 V
E)
24 V

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41. Resistances of 2.0 , 4.0 , and 6.0 and a 24-V battery are all in series. The current
in the 2.0 resistor is:
A)
12 A
B)
4.0 A
C)
2.4 A
D)
2.0 A
E)
0.50 A
42. A battery with an emf of 12 V and an internal resistance of 1 is used to charge a
battery with an emf of 10 V and an internal resistance of 1 . The current in the circuit
is:
A)
1A
B)
2A
C)
4A
D)
11 A
E)
22 A
43. The current in the 5.0- resistor in the circuit shown is:

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

0.42 A
0.67 A
1.5 A
2.4 A
3.0 A

44. A 3- and a 1.5- resistor are wired in parallel and the combination is wired in series to
a 4- resistor and a 10-V emf device. The potential difference across the 3- resistor is:
A)
2.0 V
B)
6.0 V
C)
8.0 V
D)
10 V
E)
12 V
45. Two identical batteries, each with an emf of 18 V and an internal resistance of 1 , are
wired in parallel by connecting their positive terminals together and connecting their
negative terminals together. The combination is then wired across a 4- resistor. The
current in each battery is:
A)
1.0 A
B)
2.0 A
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Jerick
C)
4.0 A
D)
3.6 A
E)
7.2 A
46. In the diagrams, all light bulbs are identical and all emf devices are identical. In which
circuit (I, II, III, IV, V) will the bulbs glow with the same brightness as in circuit X?

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

I
II
III
IV
V

47. A 120-V power line is protected by a 15-A fuse. What is the maximum number of "120
V, 500 W" light bulbs that can be operated at full brightness from this line?
A)
1
B)
2
C)
3
D)
4
E)
5
48. A resistor with resistance R1 and a resistor with resistance R2 are connected in parrallel
to an ideal battery with emf . The rate of thermal energy generation in the resistor with
resistance R1 is:
A)
2/R1
B)
2 R1/(R1 + R2)2
C)
2 /(R1 + R2)
D)
2/R2
E)
49. Resistor 1 has twice the resistance of resistor 2. They are connected in parallel to a
battery. The ratio of the thermal energy dissipation by 1 to that by 2 is:
A)
1:4
B)
1:2
C)
1:1
D)
2:1
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Jerick
E)
4:1
50. The positive terminals of two batteries with emf's of 1 and 2, respectively, are
connected together. Here 1 > 2. The circuit is completed by connecting the negative
terminals. If each battery has an internal resistance of r, the rate in watts at which
electrical energy is converted to chemical energy in the smaller battery is:
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
51. The circuit shown was wired for the purpose of measuring the resistance of the lamp L.
Inspection shows that:

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

voltmeter V and rheostat R should be interchanged

the circuit is satisfactory
the ammeter A should be in parallel with R, not L
the meters, V and A, should be interchanged
L and V should be interchanged

52. A certain galvanometer has a resistance of 100 and requires 1 mA for full scale
deflection. To make this into a voltmeter reading 1 V full scale, connect a resistance of:
A)
1000 in parallel
B)
900 in series
C)
1000 in series
D)
10 in parallel
E)
0.1 in series
53. A certain voltmeter has an internal resistance of 10,000 and a range from 0 to 100 V.
To give it a range from 0 to 1000 V, one should connect:
A)
100,000 in series
B)
100,000 in parallel
C)
1000 in series
D)
1000 in parallel
E)
90,000 in series

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54. A galvanometer has an internal resistance of 12 and requires 0.01 A for full scale
deflection. To convert it to a voltmeter reading 3 V full scale, one must use a series
resistance of:
A)
102
B)
288
C)
300
D)
360
E)
412
55. Four circuits have the form shown in the
diagram. The capacitor is initially uncharged
and the switch S is open.

The values of the emf , resistance and R, and

capacitance C for each for the circuits are
circuit 1: = 18 V, R = 3 , C = 1 F
circuit 2: = 18 V, R = 6 , C = 9 F
circuit 3: = 12 V, R = 1 , C = 7 F
circuit 4: = 10 V, R = 5 , C = 7 F
Rank the circuits according to the current just
after switch S is closed least to greatest.
1, 2, 3, 4
4, 3, 2, 1
4, 2, 3, 1
4, 2, 1, 3
3, 1, 2, 4

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

56. The time constant RC has units of:

second/farad
second/ohm
1/second
second/watt
none of these

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57. In the circuit shown, the capacitor is initially uncharged. At time t = 0, switch S is
closed. If denotes the time constant, the approximate current through the 3 resistor
when
t = /10 is:

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

0.38 A
0.50 A
0.75 A
1.0 A
1.5 A

58. A charged capacitor is being discharged through a resistor. At the end of one time
constant the charge has been reduced by (1 1/e) = 63% of its initial value. At the end
of two time constants the charge has been reduced by what percent of its initial value?
A)
82%
B)
86%
C)
100%
D)
between 90% and 100%
E)
need to know more data to answer the question
59. A certain capacitor, in series with a resistor, is being charged. At the end of 10 ms its
charge is half the final value. The time constant for the process is about:
A)
0.43 ms
B)
2.3 ms
C)
6.9 ms
D)
10 ms
E)
14 ms
60. In the capacitor discharge formula q = q0et/RC the symbol t represents:
A)
the time constant
B)
the time it takes for C to lose the fraction 1/e of its initial charge
C)
the time it takes for C to lose the fraction (1 1/e) of its initial charge
D)
the time it takes for C to lose essentially all of its initial charge
E)
none of the above

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Answer Key
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.

D
B
C
C
E
B
C
B
C
E
C
C
D
D
B
A
B
E
A
D
C
D
A
A
E
E
A
D
A
C
D
B
C
C
B
B
C
C
C
D
D
A
C
A
B
D
C
A
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49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.

B
D
D
B
E
B
D
E
D
B
E
E

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AP Physics

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

Chapter 28 Review Sheet

1. Units of a magnetic field might be:

C m/s
C s/m
C/kg
kg/C s
N/C m
2. An electron moves in the negative x direction, through a uniform magnetic field in the
negative y direction. The magnetic force on the electron is:

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

in the negative x direction

in the positive y direction
in the negative y direction
in the positive z direction
in the negative z direction

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

3. The magnetic force on a charged particle is in the direction of its velocity if:
it is moving in the direction of the field
it is moving opposite to the direction of the field
it is moving perpendicular to the field
it is moving in some other direction
never

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

4. The direction of the magnetic field in a certain region of space is determined by firing a
test charge into the region with its velocity in various directions in different trials. The
field direction is:
one of the directions of the velocity when the magnetic force is zero
the direction of the velocity when the magnetic force is a maximum
the direction of the magnetic force
perpendicular to the velocity when the magnetic force is zero
none of the above

5. A magnetic field CANNOT:

A)
exert a force on a charge
B)
accelerate a charge
C)
change the momentum of a charge
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D)
change the kinetic energy of a charge
E)
exist

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

6. A hydrogen atom that has lost its electron is moving east in a region where the magnetic
field is directed from south to north. It will be deflected:
up
down
north
south
not at all

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

7. An electron (charge = 1.6 1019 C) is moving at 3 105 m/s in the positive x

direction. A magnetic field of 0.8 T is in the positive z direction. The magnetic force on
the electron is:
0
4 1014 N in the positive z direction
4 1014 N in the negative z direction
4 1014 N in the positive y direction
4 1014 N in the negative y direction

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

8. At one instant an electron (charge = 1.6 1019 C) is moving in the xy plane, the
components of its velocity being vx = 5 105 m/s and vy = 3 105 m/s. A magnetic field
of 0.8 T is in the positive x direction. At that instant the magnitude of the magnetic force
on the electron is:
0
3.8 1014 N
5.1 1014 N
6.4 1014 N
7.5 1014 N

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

9. At one instant an electron is moving in the positive x direction along the x axis in a
region where there is a uniform magnetic field in the positive z direction. When viewed
from a point on the positive z axis, it subsequent motion is:
straight ahead
counterclockwise around a circle in the xy plane
clockwise around a circle in the xy plane
in the positive z direction
in the negative z direction

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10. An electron and a proton both each travel with equal speeds around circular orbits in the
same uniform magnetic field, as shown in the diagram (not to scale). The field is into
the page on the diagram. Because the electron is less massive than the proton and
because the electron is negatively charged and the proton is positively charged:

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

the electron travels clockwise around the smaller circle and the proton travels
counterclockwise around the larger circle.
the electron travels counterclockwise around the smaller circle and the proton travels
clockwise around the larger circle
the electron travels clockwise around the larger circle and the proton travels
counterclockwise around the smaller circle
the electron travels counterclockwise around the larger circle and the proton travels
clockwise around the smaller circle
the electron travels counterclockwise around the smaller circle and the proton travels
counterclockwise around the larger circle

11. An electron and a proton are both initially moving with the same speed and in the same
direction at 90 to the same uniform magnetic field. They experience magnetic forces,
which are initially:
A)
identical
B)
equal in magnitude but opposite in direction
C)
in the same direction and differing in magnitude by a factor of 1840
D)
in opposite directions and differing in magnitude by a factor of 1840
E)
equal in magnitude but perpendicular to each other
12. A charged particle is projected into a region of uniform, parallel, and 4 fields. The
force on the particle is:
A)
zero
B)
at some angle < 90 with the field lines
C)
along the field lines
D)
perpendicular to the field lines
E)
unknown (need to know the sign of the charge)

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13. An electron is travelling in the positive x direction. A uniform electric field is in the
negative y direction. If a uniform magnetic field with the appropriate magnitude and
direction also exists in the region, the total force on the electron will be zero. The
appropriate direction for the magetic field is:

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

the positive y direction

the negative y direction
into the page
out of the page
the negative x direction
14. The current is from left to right in the conductor shown. The magnetic field is into the
page and point S is at a higher potential than point T. The charge carriers are:

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

positive
negative
neutral
absent
moving near the speed of light

15. In a certain mass spectrograph, an ion beam passes through a velocity filter consisting of
mutually perpendicular fields and 4. The beam then enters a region of another
magnetic field 4' perpendicular to the beam. The radius of curvature of the resulting ion
beam is proportional to:
A)
EB'/B
B)
EB/B'
C)
BB'/E
D)
B/EB'
E)
E/BB'
16. J. J. Thomson's experiment, involving the motion of an electron beam in mutually
perpendicular and 4 fields, gave the value of:
A)
mass of electron
B)
charge of electron
C)
Earth's magnetic field
D)
charge/mass ratio for electron
E)
Avogadro's number
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17. The figure shows the motion of electrons in a wire which is near the N pole of a magnet.
The wire will be pushed:

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

toward the magnet

away from the magnet
downwards
upwards
along its length
18. The figure shows a uniform magnetic field 4 directed to the left and a wire carrying a
current into the page. The magnetic force acting on the wire is:

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

toward the top of the page

toward the bottom of the page
toward the left
toward the right
zero

19. A loop of wire carrying a current of 2.0 A is in the shape of a right triangle with two
equal sides, each 15 cm long. A 0.7 T uniform magnetic field is in the plane of the
triangle and is perpendicular to the hypotenuse. The resultant magnetic force on the two
sides has a magnitude of:
A)
0
B)
0.21 N
C)
0.30 N
D)
0.41 N
E)
0.51 N

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20. A square loop of wire lies in the plane of the page and carries a current I as shown.
There is a uniform magnetic field 4 parallel to the side MK as indicated. The loop will
tend to rotate:

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

about PQ with KL coming out of the page

about PQ with KL going into the page
about RS with MK coming out of the page
about RS with MK going into the page
about an axis perpendicular to the page

21. You are facing a loop of wire which carries a clockwise current of 3.0 A and which
surrounds an area of 5.8 102m2. The magnetic dipole moment of the loop is:
A)
3.0 A m2, into the page
B)
3.0 A m2, out of the page
C)
0.17 A m2, into the page
D)
0.17 A m2, out of the page
E)
0.17 A m2, left to right
22. A circular loop of wire with a radius of 20 cm lies in the xy plane and carries a current of
2 A, counterclockwise when viewed from a point on the positive z axis. Its magnetic
dipole moment is:
A)
0.25 A m2, in the positive z direction
B)
0.25 A m2, in the negative z direction
C)
2.5 A m2, in the positive z direction
D)
2.5 A m2, in the negative z direction
E)
0.25 A m2, in the xy plane
23. The magnetic dipole moment of a current-carrying loop of wire is in the positive z
direction. If a uniform magnetic field is in the positive x direction the magnetic torque
on the loop is:
A)
0
B)
in the positive y direction
C)
in the negative y direction
D)
in the positive z direction
E)
in the negative z direction

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24. The diagrms show five possible orientations of a magnetic dipole in a uniform
magnetic field 4. For which of these is the potential energy the greatest?

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

I
II
III
IV
V

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Answer Key
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.

D
E
E
A
D
A
D
B
B
A
B
B
C
A
E
D
D
A
C
A
C
A
B
E

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Physics First Semester Final Review CH 2-13

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____

____

____

____

____

____

____

1. A train travels 6 meters in the first second of travel, 6 meters again during the second second of travel, and
6 meters again during the third second. Its acceleration is
a. 0 m/s2.
b. 6 m/s2.
c. 12 m/s2.
d. 18 m/s2.
e. none of the above
2. Suppose an object is in free fall. Each second the object falls
a. the same distance as in the second before.
b. a larger distance than in the second before.
c. with the same instantaneous speed.
d. with the same average speed.
e. none of the above
3. A ball is thrown straight up. At the top of its path its instantaneous speed is
a. 0 m/s.
b. about 5 m/s.
c. about 10 m/s.
d. about 20 m/s.
e. about 50 m/s.
4. A car accelerates at 2 m/s2. Assuming the car starts from rest, how much time does it need to accelerate to
a speed of 20 m/s?
a. 2 seconds
b. 10 seconds
c. 20 seconds
d. 40 seconds
e. none of the above
5. If a freely falling object were somehow equipped with a speedometer, its speed reading would increase
each second by
a. about 5 m/s.
b. about 10 m/s.
c. about 15 m/s.
d. a variable amount.
e. a rate that depends on its initial speed.
6. If a ball were equipped with a speedometer and allowed to fall freely on a planet where the acceleration
due to gravity is 23 m/s2, the reading on the speedometer would increase each second by
a. a rate that depends on its initial speed.
b. 10 m/s.
c. 12 m/s.
d. 23 m/s.
e. 46 m/s.
7. If you drop a feather and a coin at the same time in a vacuum tube, which will reach the bottom of the
tube first?
a. Neither-they will both reach the bottom at the same time.
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9.

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Jerick
b. The coin
c. The feather
Suppose a jumper claims a hang time of 2 seconds. Then that jumper must be able to jump a vertical
distance of
a. 1 m.
b. 2 m.
c. 3 m.
d. 4 m.
e. 5 m.
In order to find the components of a vector, you should
a. draw the vector with correct magnitude and orientation.
b. measure the sides of the rectangle.
c. draw a rectangle so that the vector is the diagonal.
d. all of the above
At the instant a ball is thrown horizontally with a large force, an identical ball is dropped from the same
height. Which ball hits the ground first?
a. Neither. They both hit the ground at the same time.
b. The dropped ball
c. The horizontally thrown ball
Jose can jump vertically 1 meter from his skateboard when it is at rest. When the skateboard is moving
horizontally, Jose can jump
a. no higher.
b. higher.
If you could throw a baseball horizontally at a speed of 8 km/s and if there were no air drag and nothing to
stop it,
a. after 90 minutes it would return to you.
b. it would orbit Earth.
c. it would escape Earths atmosphere.
A cannon with a barrel velocity of 140 m/s launches a cannonball horizontally from a tower. Neglecting
air resistance, how far vertically will the cannonball have fallen after 4 seconds?
a. 80 m
b. 140 m
c. 560 m
d. 2240 m
e. none of the above
The law of inertia states that an object
a. will continue moving at the same velocity unless an outside force acts on it.
b. will continue moving in a straight line unless an outside force acts on it.
c. that is not moving will never move unless a force acts on it.
d. at rest will remain at rest unless acted on by an outside force.
e. will do all of the above.
If the force of gravity suddenly stopped acting on the planets, they would
a. spiral slowly towards the sun.
b. continue to orbit the sun.
c. move in straight lines tangent to their orbits.
d. spiral slowly away from the sun.
e. fly straight away from the sun.
Compared to its weight on Earth, a 10-kg object on the moon will weigh
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Jerick
a. the same amount.
b. less.
c. more.
The mass of a sheep that weighs 110 N is about
a. 1 kg.
b. 11 kg.
c. 110 kg.
d. 1100 kg.
e. none of the above
The force required to maintain an object at a constant speed in free space is equal to
a. the mass of the object.
b. the weight of the object.
c. zero.
d. the force required to stop it.
e. none of the above
An object following a straight-line path at constant speed
a. has no forces acting on it.
b. has a net force acting on it in the direction of motion.
c. has zero acceleration.
d. must be moving in a vacuum.
e. none of the above
Friction
a. comes from microscopic bumps that act as obstructions to the object's motion.
b. is the name given to the force acting between surfaces sliding past one another.
c. acts in a direction that opposes the motion of an object.
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
A 15-N force and a 45-N force act on an object in opposite directions. What is the net force on the object?
a. 15 N
b. 30 N
c. 45 N
d. 60 N
e. none of the above
A barge is being pulled along a canal by two ropes that make equal angles with the direction in which the
barge points. Assuming the two pulls on the barge are equal, in what direction does the barge move?
a. It oscillates back and forth between the two banks.
b. It moves straight ahead.
c. It moves in the direction of the resultant force on it.
d. both A and B
e. both B and C
The weight of a person can be represented by a vector that acts
a. in a direction that depends on where the person is standing.
b. perpendicular to the ground underneath the person.
c. parallel to the ground.
d. straight down, even if the person is standing on a hill.
e. all of the above
A clothesline is stretched between two trees. A tire hangs in the middle of the line and the two halves of
the line make equal angles with the horizontal. The tension in the line is
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Jerick
a. half the tires weight.
b. is less than half the tires weight.
c. is more than half the tires weight.
Which has more mass, a kilogram of feathers or a kilogram of iron?
a. The feathers
b. The iron
c. Neitherthey both have the same mass.
What is the minimum resultant possible when adding a 5-N force to an 8-N force?
a. 5 N
b. 3 N
c. 8 N
d. 13 N
e. 40 N
How does acceleration of an object change in relation to its mass? It is
a. directly proportional.
b. Acceleration doesn't depend on mass at all.
c. inversely proportional.
The acceleration produced by a net force on an object is
a. inversely proportional to the mass of the object.
b. directly proportional to the magnitude of the net force.
c. in the same direction as the net force.
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
The unit of pressure is
a. newtons per meter.
b. newtons per square meter (or pascals).
c. the newton.
d. the meter.
e. meters per second squared.
The reason a tennis ball and a solid steel ball will accelerate at the same rate, in the absence of air
resistance, is that
a. they have the same mass.
b. the ball with the larger force has the smaller mass.
c. the ball with the larger force also has the larger mass.
d. the force acting on them is the same.
e. none of the above
Aunt Minnie throws a rock downward, and air resistance is negligible. Compared to a rock that is
dropped, the acceleration of the rock after it is thrown is
a. less.
b. the same.
c. more.
If you pull horizontally on a desk with a force of 150 N and the desk doesn't move, the friction force must
be 150 N. Now if you pull with 250 N so the desk slides at constant velocity, the friction force is
a. more than 150 N but less than 250 N.
b. 250 N.
c. more than 250.
A block is at rest on an incline. The force of friction necessary to prevent the block from sliding increases
when the incline angle is
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a. increased.
b. decreased.
c. neither A nor B (Force of friction stays the same.)
How much force is needed to accelerate a 4.0-kg physics book to an acceleration of 2.0 m/s2?
a. 0 N
b. 2.0 N
c. 0.5 N
d. 8.0 N
e. 24.0 N
A 6-N falling object encounters 6 N of air resistance. The magnitude of the net force on the object is
a. 0 N.
b. 6 N.
c. 12 N.
d. none of the above
An unfortunate bug splatters against the windshield of a moving car. Compared to the force of the car on
the bug, the force of the bug on the car is
a. larger.
b. the same.
c. smaller.
d. Need more information to say
An unfortunate bug splatters against the windshield of a moving car. Compared to the deceleration of the
car, the deceleration of the bug is
a. larger.
b. the same.
c. smaller.
A rocket is able to accelerate in the vacuum of space when it fires its engines. The force that propels the
rocket is the force
a. of the rocket on the exhaust gases.
b. of the exhaust gases on the rocket.
c. neither A nor B
The momentum of an object is defined as the object's
a. mass times its velocity.
b. force times the time interval.
c. force times its acceleration.
d. mass times it acceleration.
e. velocity times the time interval.
Compared to a sports car moving at 30 miles per hour, the same sports car moving at miles per hour
has
a. twice as much momentum.
b. four times as much momentum.
c. the same momentum.
If the momentum of an object changes and its mass remains constant,
a. it is accelerating (or decelerating).
b. there is a force acting on it.
c. its velocity is changing.
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
A karate expert executes a swift blow and splits a cement block with her bare hand.
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a. The forces on both the block and the expert's hand have the same magnitude.
b. The times of impact on both the block and the expert's hand are the same.
c. The impulses on both the block and the expert's hand have the same magnitude.
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
A moving freight car runs into an identical car at rest on the track. The cars couple together. Compared to
the velocity of the first car before the collision, the velocity of the combined cars after the collision is
a. zero.
b. one half as large.
c. the same.
d. twice as large.
e. More information is needed to say.
The force that accelerates a rocket into outer space is exerted on the rocket by
a. the exhaust gases.
b. Earth's gravity.
c. atmospheric pressure.
d. rocket's wings.
e. none of the above
While roller-skating, Granny collides with her tiny grandson Ambrose who is at rest. Ignoring any friction
effects, Ambrose's speed after the collision will be greatest when
a. Granny catches him and they both move together.
b. he and Granny make a bouncing collision, each going in opposite directions.
How much farther will a car traveling at 100 km/s skid than the same car traveling at 50 km/s?
a. Half as far.
b. The same distance.
c. Twice as far.
d. Four times as far.
e. Five times as far.
An arrow in a bow has 70 J of potential energy. Assuming no loss of energy to heat, how much kinetic
energy will it have after it has been shot?
a. 0 J
b. 35 J
c. 50 J
d. 70 J
e. 140 J
As a pendulum swings back and forth
a. at the end points of its swing, its energy is all potential.
b. at the lowest part of its swing, its energy is all kinetic.
c. kinetic energy is transformed into potential energy.
d. potential energy is transformed into kinetic energy.
e. all of the above
Rockets are launched from an airplane in the forward direction of motion. The kinetic energy of the
airplane will be
a. unchanged.
b. increased.
c. decreased.
Which requires more work: lifting a 70-kg sack vertically 2 meters or lifting a 35-kg sack vertically 4
meters?
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a. Lifting the 70 kg sack
b. Lifting the 35 kg sack
c. Both require the same amount of work.
An object that has kinetic energy must be
a. at rest.
b. falling.
c. moving.
d. elevated.
The ratio of useful work output to total work input is called the
a. mechanical advantage.
b. lever arm.
c. pivot point.
d. fulcrum.
e. efficiency.
About how efficient is a typical gasoline-burning car engine?
a. 5%
b. 30%
c. 70%
d. 100%
A small economy car (low mass) and a limousine (high mass) are pushed from rest across a parking lot,
equal distances with equal forces. The car that receives more kinetic energy is the
a. the limousine.
b. the small economy car.
c. neither onethey receive the same amount of kinetic energy.
Consider molecules of hydrogen gas and molecules of heavier oxygen gas that have the same kinetic
energy. The molecules with the greater speed are
a. hydrogen.
b. Both have the same speed.
c. oxygen.
How much work is done on a 60-N box of books that you carry horizontally across a 6-m room?
a. 0 J
b. 6 J
c. 10 J
d. 60 J
e. 360 J
How much work is done on a 20-N crate that you lift 2 m?
a. 0 J
b. 1 J
c. 2 J
d. 20 J
e. 40 J
If Kelly the skater's speed increases so he has three times the momentum, then his kinetic energy increases
by
a. one third times.
b. three times.
c. nine times.
d. none of the above (KE remains the same).
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Which has greater angular speed, a horse near the outside rail of a merry-go-round or a horse near the
inside rail?
a. Neitherthey both have the same angular speed.
b. The inside horse
c. The outside horse
As the rotational speed of a space habitat increases, the weight of people inside
a. decreases.
b. increases.
c. stays the same.
A car travels in a circle with constant speed. The net force on the car
a. is zero because the car is not accelerating.
b. is directed forward, in the direction of travel.
c. is directed toward the center of the curve.
d. none of the above
To weigh less in the Northern Hemisphere, you should go
a. west.
b. east.
c. south.
d. north.
The centripetal force exerted on stunt motorcyclist Biker Bob while riding on the inner vertical surface of
a circular track is
a. friction.
b. his weight.
c. the normal force.
d. none of the above
Nellie Newton swings a rock into a circular path while holding an attached string overhead. The string
makes a 45-degree angle to the vertical (comprising a "conical pendulum"). The centripetal force that
holds the rock in its circular path is the
a. vertical component of the string tension.
b. horizontal component of the string tension.
c. tension in the string.
d. none of the above
Stunt motorcyclist Biker Bob rides his bike inside a futuristic rotating space stationa giant rotating
donut-shaped structure in space. The normal support force feels like weight to him. As he rides his bike in
the opposite direction to the stations rotation, the normal force
a. remains unaffected.
b. increases.
c. decreases.
Suzie Spacewalker hovers in space beside a rotating space station in outer space. Both she and the center
of mass of the space station are at relative rest. If the space station is in Earth orbit, then Suzie
a. is also in Earth orbit.
b. is not in Earth orbit.
c. may or may not be in Earth orbit.
A space habitat is designed so that the variation in g between a person's head and feet is less than 0.01 g.
If the person is 2 m tall, then the radius of the habitat is
a. 20 m.
b. 200 m.
c. 2000 m.
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Jerick
d. more than 2000 m.
When you carry a heavy load with one arm, why do you tend to hold your free arm away from your body?
a. To change the mass of your body
b. To be ready to grab something in case you fall
c. To look good
d. To change the center of gravity of your body and the load
e. To change the weight of your body and the load
If an object is in unstable equilibrium, any displacement will
a. raise its center of gravity.
b. increase its mass.
c. neither raise nor lower its center of gravity.
d. lower its center of gravity.
e. decrease its mass.
If an object is in stable equilibrium, any displacement will
a. raise its center of gravity.
b. neither raise nor lower its center of gravity.
c. decrease its mass.
d. increase its mass.
e. lower its center of gravity.
If an object is in neutral equilibrium, any displacement will
a. raise its center of gravity.
b. decrease its mass.
c. increase its mass.
d. neither raise nor lower its center of gravity.
e. lower its center of gravity.
If you try to touch your toes while standing flat against a wall, you probably will fall over. The reason this
happens is that
a. your center of gravity is not located directly above your support area.
b. your center of gravity is outside your support area.
c. both A and B
The center of mass of the solar system
a. varies as the planets move.
b. is at the center of the sun.
c. neither A nor B
An object thrown into the air with a spin rotates about its
a. geometric center.
b. center of gravity.
c. edge.
d. midpoint.
e. none of the above
If a plumb line is dropped from a suspension point of a rectangular sheet of plywood,
a. half the mass of the wood will be on either side of the line.
b. the line will pass through the center of gravity of the wood.
c. half the weight will be on either side of the line.
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
Torque is defined as _____.
a. mass times velocity
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Jerick
b. force times lever arm
c. momentum times radius
d. force times time
e. mass times acceleration
The resistance an object has to changes in its rotational state of motion is called rotational _____.
a. inertia
b. momentum
c. torque
d. acceleration
e. velocity
Which has more rotational inertia, a bicycle wheel or a solid disk of the same mass and diameter?
a. The wheel.
b. The disk.
c. They both have the same rotational inertia.
Which has more rotational inertia, a girl running with her legs bent or the same girl running with her legs
straight?
a. With straight legs.
b. With bent legs.
c. Both have the same rotational inertia.
Any solid cylinder will roll down an incline with greater acceleration than any hollow cylinder if the
_____.
a. diameter of the solid cylinder is large
b. mass of the solid cylinder is small
c. mass of the solid cylinder is large
d. none of the above are necessary
Suppose a huge rotating cloud of particles in space gravitates together to form a dense ball. As the cloud
shrinks in size it rotates _____.
a. faster
b. slower
c. at the same speed
To turn a stubborn screw, it is best to use a screwdriver that has a _____.
a. yellow color
b. wide handle
c. long handle
d. none of the above
Suppose a carnival Ferris wheel has seats that are located halfway between the center and the outside rim.
Compared to the ordinary Ferris wheel, where the seats are on the outside rim, your rotational speed on
this Ferris wheel would be _____.
a. greater
b. the same
c. smaller
A ring and a disk roll down a hill together. Which reaches the bottom first?
a. Both reach the bottom at the same time
b. Depends on the moments of inertia
c. The disk
d. Depends on the masses
e. The ring
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A meter stick is balanced at the 50.0-cm mark. You tie a 10.0-N weight at the 15.0-cm mark. Where
should a 30.0-N weight be placed so the meter stick will again be balanced?
a. 10.0-cm mark
b. 15.0-cm mark
c. 61.7-cm mark
d. 25.0-cm mark
e. 30.0-cm mark
A ring, a disk, and a solid ball having equal masses roll down a hill at the same time. Which reaches the
bottom first?
a. Depends on what each is made of.
b. The disk
c. The ring
d. Depends on the radius of each.
e. The ball
Newton hypothesized that the moon _____.
a. is a projectile
b. is falling around Earth
c. has tangential velocity that prevents it from falling into Earth
d. is actually attracted to Earth
e. all of the above
If Earth's mass decreased to one half its original mass, with no change in radius, then your weight would
_____.
a. stay the same
b. decrease to one half your original weight
c. decrease to one quarter your original weight
d. none of the above
The gravitational force between two massive spheres
a. is always an attraction.
b. depends on how massive they are.
c. depends inversely on the square of the distances between them.
d. all of the above
By noticing that Uranus's orbit is perturbed and by using the law of gravitation, two astronomers
independently discovered _____.
a. Neptune
b. exceptions to the law of gravitation
c. the law of gravitation fails at large distances
d. Uranus has several moons
The reason the moon does not fall into Earth is that _____.
a. Earth's gravitational field at the moon is weak
b. the moon has a sufficiently large orbital speed
c. gravitational pull of other planets keeps the moon up
d. the moon has less mass than Earth
e. none of the above
A lunar month is about 28 days. If the moon were closer to Earth than it is now, the lunar month would be
_____.
a. more than 28 days
b. unchanged at 28 days
c. less than 28 days
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Jerick
Consider the gravitational force between Earth and a meteor in outer space. If the meteor moves so its
distance from the Earth's center doubles, the gravitational force on the meteor will be _____.
a. one quarter
b. half
c. double
d. quadruple
e. eight times greater
Ocean tides occur mainly because _____.
a. of the gravitational pull of the sun on Earth
b. water normally runs to the side of Earth away from the sun
c. of different gravitational pulls of the moon on opposite sides of Earth
d. as Earth rotates it leaves the ocean water somewhat behind it
e. none of the above
A lunar eclipse happens when _____.
a. the moon is between Earth and the sun
b. the sun is between Earth and the moon
c. Earth is between the moon and the sun
Earth tides in which the solid surface of Earth rises and falls are caused by _____.
a. many volcanic eruptions
b. different forces between the moon and opposite parts of Earth
c. the alignment of the sun and the moon
d. the motion of water caused by ocean tides
e. none of the abovethe solid surface of Earth cannot have tides.
Suppose the moon had twice its present mass and still orbited Earth at the same distance. In that case
_____.
a. the ocean tide facing the moon would rise, and the other tide would lower
b. the ocean tides would be the same as they are now
c. both ocean tides would be smaller
d. the ocean tide facing the moon would lower, and the other tide would rise
e. both ocean tides would be higher
A black hole is an object that _____.
a. alters the space around it
b. has an enormous density
c. has an enormous gravitational field near it
d. has an escape speed greater than the speed of light
e. all of the above
If the sun were to collapse to form a black hole (quite unlikely), Earth would _____.
a. immediately disappear
b. spiral into the black hole
c. orbit the black hole just as it orbits the sun now
d. leave the solar system in the direction of its tangential velocity
e. be drawn into the black hole
Which of these three produces the greatest tidal effect on you right now?
a. Earth
b. The moon
c. The sun

Problem
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Jerick
101. What is the average speed of a cheetah that runs 88 m in 5 seconds?
102. A bicycle travels 15 km in 30 minutes. What is its average speed?
103. What is the average acceleration of a car that goes from rest to 60 km/h in 8 seconds?
104. A skateboarder starting from rest accelerates down a ramp at 2 m/s2 for 2 s. What is the final speed of the
skateboarder?
105. You toss a ball at 5 m/s straight upward. How much time will the ball take to reach the top of its path?
106. What is the hang time of a person who can jump a vertical distance of 0.6 m?
107. If a projectile fired beneath the water, straight up, breaks through the surface at a speed of 13 m/s, to what
height above the water will it ascend?
108. A stone is dropped from a cliff. After it has fallen 10 m, what is the stone's velocity?
109. A package falls out of a helicopter that is traveling horizontally at 70 m/s. It falls into the water below 8.0
seconds later. Assuming no air resistance, what is the horizontal distance it travels while falling?
110. An airplane whose airspeed is 295 km/h flies parallel to the direction of a wind with a speed of 40.0 km/h.
What are the two possible speeds of the plane relative to the ground?
111. A ball is thrown horizontally from the top of a tall cliff. Neglecting air drag, what vertical distance has the
ball fallen 2.0 seconds later?
112. A projectile shot with an initial velocity of 51 m/s at an angle of 45 follows a parabolic path and hits a
stationary balloon at the top of its trajectory. With what speed does the projectile hit the balloon?
113. A ball is thrown upward. Its initial vertical component of velocity is 20 m/s and its initial horizontal
component of velocity is 12 m/s. What is the ball's speed 1.0 s later?
114. A ball is thrown upward. Its initial vertical component of velocity is 30 m/s and its initial horizontal
component of velocity is 10 m/s. What is the ball's speed 4 s later?
115. How much (in newtons) does a 10.0-kg bag of grass seed weigh?
116. A person weighs 650 N. What is the mass of the person?
117. On the surface of Jupiter, the acceleration due to gravity is about 3 times that on Earth. How much would
a 0.40-kg rock weigh on Jupiter?
118. On the surface of Jupiter, the acceleration due to gravity is about 3 times that of Earth. What would be the
mass of a 170-kg rock on Jupiter?
119. What is the magnitude of the resultant of a 6.0-N force acting vertically upward and a 4.0-N force acting
horizontally?
120. Two forces of 10 N both act on an object. The angle between the forces is 90. What is the magnitude of
their resultant?
121. A 230.0 kg bear grasping a vertical tree slides down at constant velocity. What is the friction force
between the tree and the bear?
122. You push with 10.0 N on a 5.0-kg block and there are no opposing forces. How fast will the block
accelerate?
123. You push with 27 N on a 10-kg chest, and there is a 7-N force of friction. How fast will the chest
accelerate?
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124. A certain unbalanced force gives a 20-kg object an acceleration of 2.0 m/s2. What acceleration would the
same force give a 30-kg object?
125. When air resistance on a falling skydiver builds up to 0.3 the weight of the skydiver, what is the
acceleration of the skydiver?
126. Bronco the skydiver, whose mass is 80 kg experiences 200 N of air resistance. What is the acceleration of
his fall?
127. Two people have a tug-of-war on low-friction ice. One person has 2 times the mass of the other.
Compared to the lighter person, how many times as fast does the heavier person accelerate?
128. What engine thrust (in newtons) is required for a rocket of mass 35 kg to leave the launching pad?
129. A cement truck of mass 16,000 kg moving at 15 m/s slams into a cement wall and comes to a halt. What is
the force of impact on the truck?
130. A 10-kg cement block moving horizontally at 6 m/s plows into a bank of sand and comes to a stop in 2 s.
What is the average impact force on the bank?
131. A 40-kg football player leaps through the air to collide with and tackle a 50-kg player heading toward
him, also in the air. If the 40-kg player is heading to the right at 9 m/s and the 50-kg player is heading
toward the left at 2 m/s, what is the speed and direction of the tangled players?
132. A 10-kg bowling ball moving at 4 m/s bounces off a spring at about the same speed that it had before
bouncing. What is the change in momentum of the bowling ball?
133. A loaded freight car has 5 times as much mass as an empty freight car. If the loaded car coasts at 5 m/s
and collides with and attaches to the empty car at rest, what will be the speed of both cars after collision?
134. A 50-kg cart moving at 100 km/h collides head-on with an approaching 50-kg cart moving at 10 km/h (in
the opposite direction). If the two carts stick together, what will be their speed?
135. What is the work done in raising a 20-kg block 5 m vertically?
136. What amount of work is done on a chair that is pushed 9 m across a floor by a horizontal 30-N net force?
137. If possible, determine the power expended when a barbell is raised 5.0 m in 2 s.
138. In raising a 3000-N piano with a pulley system, it is noted that for every 2 m of rope pulled down, the
piano rises 0.2 m. Ideally, what force is needed to lift the piano?
139. What amount of work can a 600-W motor do in 4 minutes?
140. The tangential speed at the outer rim of a Ferris wheel is 10 m/s. What is the tangential speed of a position
half way from the center to the outer rim?
141. You sit at the outer rim of a Ferris wheel that rotates at 2 revolutions per minute (RPM). What would your
rotational speed be if you were instead clinging to a position halfway from the center to the outer rim?
142. Suppose the torque produced by a wrench on a stubborn nut is 30 Nm. If the lever arm is doubled with no
change in force, what is the resulting torque?
143. Consider a long uniform wooden plank of weight W resting on a table. The left end of the plank can
extend beyond the table without toppling as long as the CG of the plank rests on the table. If the CG
extends beyond the table's edge, then a weight placed on its right end can prevent toppling. How much
weight would prevent toppling if

of the plank extended beyond the edge?

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Jerick
144. By what factor would your weight be multiplied if Earth's diameter were 2 times as big and Earth's mass
remained unchanged?
145. What would a person who weighs 610 N on Earth weigh on a planet that has the same mass as Earth but
half its radius?
146. A woman whose mass is 70 kg on Earth's surface is in a spacecraft at a height of twice Earth's radius (that
is, 3 Earth radii) above Earth's surface. What is her mass (not weight) there?
147. A man whose mass is 90 kg is in a spacecraft at a height equal to Earth's diameter (not radius!) above
Earth's surface. What is the gravitational force between him and Earth at this distance?
148. Jupiter has a mass about 300 times that of Earth, and its radius is about 11 times that of Earth. What
would be the approximate weight of a 5-kg rock on the surface of Jupiter?
149. Satellites often orbit 640 km above Earth's surface (640 km = 10% of Earth's radius). What is Earth's
approximate gravitational field, g, in satellite territory?
1

150. The tidal force of the moon on you right now is about 3.0
what would be the moon's tidal force on you?

10

-13

N/kg. If the moon were

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Jerick

Physics First Semester Final Review CH 2-13

Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. ANS:
STO:
2. ANS:
OBJ:
3. ANS:
STO:
4. ANS:
STO:
5. ANS:
STO:
6. ANS:
STO:
7. ANS:
STO:
8. ANS:
STO:
9. ANS:
STO:
10. ANS:
STO:
11. ANS:
STO:
12. ANS:
STO:
13. ANS:
STO:
14. ANS:
STO:
15. ANS:
STO:
16. ANS:
17. ANS:
18. ANS:
STO:
19. ANS:
STO:
20. ANS:
STO:
21. ANS:
STO:
22. ANS:
STO:

A
DIF: 2
REF: p. 15, p. 16 OBJ:
Ph.1.c
B
DIF: 2
REF: p. 17, p. 18, p. 19
2.5
STO: Ph.1.b, Ph.1.c, Ph.2.c
A
DIF: 2
REF: p. 18, p. 19 OBJ:
Ph.1.b, Ph.1.c, Ph.2.c
B
DIF: 3
REF: p. 16
OBJ:
Ph.1.c
B
DIF: 1
REF: p. 18
OBJ:
Ph.1.b, Ph.1.c, Ph.2.c
D
DIF: 2
REF: p. 17, p. 18 OBJ:
Ph.1.a, Ph.2.c
A
DIF: 1
REF: p. 24
OBJ:
Ph.1.b, Ph.1.c, Ph.2.c
E
DIF: 3
REF: p. 22
OBJ:
Ph.1.i
D
DIF: 2
REF: p. 31, p. 32 OBJ:
Ph.1.j
A
DIF: 3
REF: p. 33, p. 34 OBJ:
Ph.1.f
A
DIF: 3
REF: p. 36
OBJ:
Ph.1.f
B
DIF: 2
REF: p. 39
OBJ:
Ph.1.f
A
DIF: 2
REF: p. 33
OBJ:
Ph.1.f
E
DIF: 1
REF: p. 46
OBJ:
Ph.1.b
C
DIF: 3
REF: p. 47, p. 48 OBJ:
Ph.1.b
B
DIF: 2
REF: p. 49
OBJ:
B
DIF: 2
REF: p. 50
OBJ:
C
DIF: 2
REF: p. 47, p. 48 OBJ:
Ph.1.b
C
DIF: 3
REF: p. 47, p. 48 OBJ:
Ph.1.b
D
DIF: 1
REF: p. 44
OBJ:
Ph.1.b
B
DIF: 2
REF: p. 51
OBJ:
Ph.1.g, Ph.1.l
E
DIF: 3
REF: p. 53
OBJ:
Ph.1.j

2.4

2.5
2.4
2.5
2.6
2.8
2.7
3.3
3.4
3.5
3.6
3.4
4.4
4.4
4.5
4.5
4.4
4.4
4.4
4.6
4.8

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23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.

Jerick
ANS: D
DIF:
STO: Ph.1.e, Ph.1.m
ANS: C
DIF:
STO: Ph.1.j
ANS: C
DIF:
ANS: A
DIF:
STO: Ph.1.g, Ph.1.l
ANS: C
DIF:
STO: Ph.1.c
ANS: D
DIF:
STO: Ph.1.c
ANS: B
DIF:
STO: Ph.1.c
ANS: C
DIF:
STO: Ph.1.c, Ph.2.c
ANS: B
DIF:
STO: Ph.1.c, Ph.2.c
ANS: B
DIF:
STO: Ph.1.c
ANS: A
DIF:
STO: Ph.1.c
ANS: D
DIF:
STO: Ph.1.c
ANS: A
DIF:
STO: Ph.1.c
ANS: B
DIF:
STO: Ph.1.d
ANS: A
DIF:
STO: Ph.1.d
ANS: B
DIF:
STO: Ph.1.d
ANS: A
DIF:
STO: Ph.2.d
ANS: A
DIF:
STO: Ph.2.d
ANS: D
DIF:
STO: Ph.2.d
ANS: D
DIF:
STO: Ph.2.g
ANS: B
DIF:
STO: Ph.2.g
ANS: A
DIF:
STO: Ph.2.e
ANS: B
DIF:
STO: Ph.2.g
ANS: D
DIF:
STO: Ph.2.a
ANS: D
DIF:

REF: p. 51, p. 52

OBJ: 4.7

REF: p. 53

OBJ: 4.8

2
2

REF: p. 48, p. 49
REF: p. 51

OBJ: 4.5
OBJ: 4.6

REF: p. 60

OBJ: 5.2

REF: p. 60

OBJ: 5.1

REF: p. 65

OBJ: 5.5

REF: p. 68

OBJ: 5.6

REF: p. 68

OBJ: 5.6

REF: p. 63, p. 64

OBJ: 5.4

REF: p. 63, p. 64

OBJ: 5.4

REF: p. 62

OBJ: 5.3

REF: p. 63, p. 64

OBJ: 5.3

REF: p. 77

OBJ: 6.4

REF: p. 77

OBJ: 6.4

REF: p. 76

OBJ: 6.3

REF: p. 86

OBJ: 7.1

REF: p. 86

OBJ: 7.1

REF: p. 86

OBJ: 7.1

REF: p. 95

OBJ: 7.5

REF: p. 95

OBJ: 7.5

REF: p. 92, p. 93

OBJ: 7.4

REF: p. 94, p. 95

OBJ: 7.5

REF: p. 108

OBJ: 8.5

REF: p. 109, p. 110

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48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.

Jerick
OBJ: 8.6
STO:
ANS: E
DIF:
STO: Ph.2.c
ANS: C
DIF:
STO: Ph.2.a
ANS: C
DIF:
OBJ: 8.1
STO:
ANS: C
DIF:
STO: Ph.2.a
ANS: E
DIF:
ANS: B
DIF:
OBJ: 8.8
ANS: C
DIF:
STO: Ph.2.a
ANS: A
DIF:
STO: Ph.2.a
ANS: A
DIF:
STO: Ph.3.a
ANS: E
DIF:
STO: Ph.3.a
ANS: C
DIF:
STO: Ph.2.a
ANS: A
DIF:
OBJ: 9.2
STO:
ANS: B
DIF:
STO: Ph.1.l
ANS: C
DIF:
STO: Ph.1.f, Ph.1.g
ANS: C
DIF:
STO: Ph.1.l
ANS: C
DIF:
STO: Ph.1.f, Ph.1.g
ANS: B
DIF:
STO: Ph.1.f, Ph.1.g
ANS: C
DIF:
STO: Ph.1.l
ANS: A
DIF:
STO: Ph.1.l
ANS: B
DIF:
STO: Ph.1.l
ANS: D
DIF:
STO: Ph.1.b, Ph.1.k
ANS: D
DIF:
STO: Ph.1.k
ANS: A
DIF:
STO: Ph.1.k
ANS: D
DIF:
STO: Ph.1.k

Ph.2.c
2

REF: p. 110

OBJ: 8.6

REF: p. 108

OBJ: 8.5

2
Ph.3.a
2

REF: p. 103, p. 104

1
1

REF: p. 115
OBJ: 8.8
REF: p. 116, p. 117

REF: p. 108

OBJ: 8.5

REF: p. 108

OBJ: 8.5

REF: p. 104

OBJ: 8.1

REF: p. 104

OBJ: 8.1

REF: p. 108

OBJ: 8.5

2
Ph.1.l
2

REF: p. 123, p. 124

REF: p. 131

OBJ: 9.6

REF: p. 127

OBJ: 9.3

REF: p. 131

OBJ: 9.6

REF: p. 127

OBJ: 9.3

REF: p. 127

OBJ: 9.3

REF: p. 131

OBJ: 9.6

REF: p. 131

OBJ: 9.6

REF: p. 132

OBJ: 9.6

REF: p. 140

OBJ: 10.4

REF: p. 142

OBJ: 10.5

REF: p. 142

OBJ: 10.5

REF: p. 142

OBJ: 10.5

REF: p. 108

OBJ: 8.5

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72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.

Jerick
ANS: A
DIF:
ANS: A
DIF:
STO: Ph.1.e
ANS: B
DIF:
STO: Ph.1.e
ANS: D
DIF:
STO: Ph.1.e
ANS: B
DIF:
STO: Ph.1.l
ANS: A
DIF:
STO: Ph.1.l
ANS: A
DIF:
STO: Ph.1.l
ANS: A
DIF:
STO: Ph.1.l
ANS: D
DIF:
STO: Ph.1.l
ANS: A
DIF:
STO: Ph.2.f
ANS: B
DIF:
STO: Ph.1.l
ANS: B
DIF:
STO: Ph.2.f
ANS: C
DIF:
STO: Ph.1.l
ANS: C
DIF:
STO: Ph.1.k, Ph.1.l
ANS: E
DIF:
STO: Ph.1.l
ANS: E
DIF:
STO: Ph.1.m
ANS: B
DIF:
STO: Ph.1.e, Ph.1.m
ANS: D
DIF:
OBJ: 12.4
STO:
ANS: D
DIF:
OBJ: 12.6
STO:
ANS: B
DIF:
STO: Ph.1.m
ANS: C
DIF:
STO: Ph.1.m
ANS: A
DIF:
STO: Ph.1.e, Ph.1.m
ANS: C
DIF:
STO: Ph.1.m
ANS: C
DIF:
STO: Ph.1.m
ANS: B
DIF:

2
2

REF: p. 145
REF: p. 132

OBJ: 10.6
OBJ: 10.2

REF: p. 136

OBJ: 10.1

REF: p. 139

OBJ: 10.3

REF: p. 151

OBJ: 11.1

REF: p. 154

OBJ: 11.4

REF: p. 157

OBJ: 11.4

REF: p. 156

OBJ: 11.4

REF: p. 158

OBJ: 11.4

REF: p. 163

OBJ: 11.7

REF: p. 151

OBJ: 11.1

REF: p. 163

OBJ: 11.7

REF: p. 158

OBJ: 11.4

REF: p. 153

OBJ: 11.2

REF: p. 158

OBJ: 11.4

REF: p. 169

OBJ: 12.2

REF: p. 173

OBJ: 12.4

2
REF: p. 172, p. 173
Ph.1.e, Ph.1.m
2
REF: p. 177, p. 178
Ph.1.m
2
REF: p. 169
OBJ: 12.2
3

REF: p. 170

OBJ: 12.2

REF: p. 175

OBJ: 12.5

REF: p. 187

OBJ: 13.4

REF: p. 191

OBJ: 13.4

REF: p. 193
OBJ: 13.5
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ANS: E
STO: Ph.1.m
ANS: E
STO: Ph.1.m
ANS: C
STO: Ph.1.m
ANS: A
STO: Ph.1.m

DIF: 3

REF: p. 188

OBJ: 13.4

DIF: 2

REF: p. 194

OBJ: 13.4

DIF: 2

REF: p. 195

OBJ: 13.6

DIF: 2

REF: p. 190

OBJ: 13.4

DIF: 2
102. ANS:
30 km/hr

REF: p. 11, p. 12

OBJ: 2.2

STO: Ph.1.a, Ph.1.b

DIF: 2
103. ANS:
7.5 km/hs

REF: p. 11, p. 12

OBJ: 2.2

STO: Ph.1.a, Ph.1.b

DIF: 2
104. ANS:
4 m/s

REF: p. 16

OBJ: 2.4

STO: Ph.1.c

DIF: 3
105. ANS:
0.5 s

REF: p. 15, p. 16

OBJ: 2.4

STO: Ph.1.c

DIF: 3
106. ANS:
0.7 s

REF: p. 18

OBJ: 2.6

STO: Ph.1.a, Ph.2.c

DIF: 3
107. ANS:
8.5 m

REF: p. 22

OBJ: 2.7

STO: Ph.1.i

DIF: 3
108. ANS:
14 m/s

REF: p. 20, p. 21

OBJ: 2.6

STO: Ph.1.a, Ph.2.c

DIF: 3
109. ANS:
560 m

REF: p. 20, p. 21

OBJ: 2.6

STO: Ph.1.a, Ph.2.c

DIF: 2
110. ANS:

REF: p. 33, p. 34

OBJ: 3.4

STO: Ph.1.f

98.
99.
100.

PROBLEM
101. ANS:
17.6 m/s

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255 and 335 km/h
DIF: 2
111. ANS:
20 m

REF: p. 29

OBJ: 3.2

STO: Ph.1.j

DIF: 3
112. ANS:
36 m/s

REF: p. 35

OBJ: 3.5

STO: Ph.1.f

DIF: 3
113. ANS:
16 m/s

REF: p. 36

OBJ: 3.5

STO: Ph.1.f

DIF: 3
114. ANS:
14 m/s

REF: p. 36

OBJ: 3.5

STO: Ph.1.f

DIF: 3
115. ANS:
98 N

REF: p. 36

OBJ: 3.5

STO: Ph.1.f

DIF: 2
116. ANS:
66 kg

REF: p. 50

OBJ: 4.5

DIF: 2
117. ANS:
11.8 N

REF: p. 50

OBJ: 4.5

DIF: 3
118. ANS:
170 kg

REF: p. 50

OBJ: 4.5

DIF: 3
119. ANS:
7.2 N

REF: p. 50

OBJ: 4.5

DIF: 3
120. ANS:
14 N

REF: p. 51

OBJ: 4.6

STO: Ph.1.g, Ph.1.l

DIF: 3
121. ANS:
2254 N

REF: p. 53

OBJ: 4.8

STO: Ph.1.j

DIF: 3
122. ANS:
2.0 m/s2

REF: p. 51, p. 52

OBJ: 4.7

STO: Ph.1.e, Ph.1.m

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DIF: 3
123. ANS:
2 m/s2

REF: p. 62

OBJ: 5.3

STO: Ph.1.c

DIF: 3
124. ANS:
1.3 m/s2

REF: p. 62

OBJ: 5.3

STO: Ph.1.c

DIF: 3
125. ANS:
7 m/s2

REF: p. 62

OBJ: 5.3

STO: Ph.1.c

DIF: 3
126. ANS:
7.5 m/s2

REF: p. 68

OBJ: 5.7

STO: Ph.1.c, Ph.2.c

DIF: 3
127. ANS:

REF: p. 69

OBJ: 5.7

STO: Ph.1.c, Ph.2.c

REF: p. 77

OBJ: 6.4

STO: Ph.1.d

DIF: 3
REF: p. 77
129. ANS:
Not enough information to say.

OBJ: 6.4

STO: Ph.1.d

DIF: 3
130. ANS:
30 N

REF: p. 87

OBJ: 7.2

STO: Ph.2.d, Ph.2.e

DIF: 3
REF: p. 87
131. ANS:
2.9 m/s toward the right

OBJ: 7.2

STO: Ph.2.d, Ph.2.e

DIF: 3
132. ANS:
80 kgm/s

REF: p. 95

OBJ: 7.5

STO: Ph.2.g

DIF: 3
133. ANS:
4.2 m/s

REF: p. 95

OBJ: 7.2

STO: Ph.2.d, Ph.2.e

DIF: 3
134. ANS:

REF: p. 95

OBJ: 7.5

STO: Ph.2.g

1
2 as much

DIF: 3
128. ANS:
350 N

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45.0 km/h
DIF: 3
135. ANS:
1000 J

REF: p. 95

OBJ: 7.5

STO: Ph.2.g

DIF: 2
STO: Ph.3.a
136. ANS:
270 J

REF: p. 103, p. 104

OBJ: 8.1

DIF: 2
REF: p. 103, p. 104
STO: Ph.3.a
137. ANS:
dependent on the mass of the barbell

OBJ: 8.1

DIF: 2
138. ANS:
300 N

REF: p. 104, p. 105

OBJ: 8.2

DIF: 2
139. ANS:
144,000 J

REF: p. 113

OBJ: 8.7

DIF: 2
140. ANS:
5 m/s

REF: p. 105

OBJ: 8.2

DIF: 2
STO: Ph.1.l
141. ANS:
2 RPM

REF: p. 123, p. 124

OBJ: 9.2

DIF: 2
STO: Ph.1.l
142. ANS:
60 Nm

REF: p. 123, p. 124

OBJ: 9.2

DIF: 3
143. ANS:
W

REF: p. 151

OBJ: 11.1

STO: Ph.1.l

DIF: 3
144. ANS:

REF: p. 153

OBJ: 11.2

STO: Ph.1.k, Ph.1.l

REF: p. 175

OBJ: 12.5

STO: Ph.1.e, Ph.1.m

1
4

DIF: 3
145. ANS:

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Jerick
2440 N
DIF: 3
146. ANS:
70 kg

REF: p. 175

OBJ: 12.5

STO: Ph.1.e, Ph.1.m

DIF: 3
147. ANS:
100 N

REF: p. 176

OBJ: 12.5

STO: Ph.1.e, Ph.1.m

DIF: 3
148. ANS:
121 N

REF: p. 176

OBJ: 12.5

STO: Ph.1.e, Ph.1.m

DIF: 3
149. ANS:
8 N/kg

REF: p. 183

OBJ: 13.1

STO: Ph.1.e, Ph.1.m

DIF: 3
150. ANS:
1.9 1011 N/kg

REF: p. 183

OBJ: 13.1

STO: Ph.1.e, Ph.1.m

REF: p. 190

OBJ: 13.4

STO: Ph.1.m

DIF: 3

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Physics_Final_Study Guide
Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____

____

____

____

____

____

____

____

____

____

____

1. Which of the following is a fluid?

a. helium
c. iron
b. ice
d. gold
2. A table-tennis ball has an average density of 0.084 g/cm3 and a diameter of 3.8 cm. What force can
submerge the ball in water? (w = 1.00 g/cm3)
a. 1.0 N
c. 0.52 N
b. 0.79 N
d. 0.26 N
3. A cube of wood with a density of 0.780 g/cm3 is 10.0 cm on each side. When the cube is placed in water,
what buoyant force acts on the wood? (w = 1.00 g/cm3)
a. 7.65 103 N
c. 7.65 N
b. 5.00 N
d. 6.40 N
4. According to legend, to determine whether the kings crown was made of pure gold, Archimedes
measured the crowns volume by determining how much water it displaced. The density of gold is 19.3
g/cm3. If the crowns mass was 6.00 102 g, what volume of water would have been displaced if the
crown was indeed made of pure gold?
a. 31.1 cm3
c. 22.8 103 cm3
b. 114 103 cm3
d. 1.81 103 cm3
5. Which of the following statements about floating objects is correct?
a. The objects density is greater than the density of the fluid on which it floats.
b. The objects density is equal to the density of the fluid on which it floats.
c. The displaced volume of fluid is greater than the volume of the object.
d. The buoyant force equals the objects weight.
6. What is the pressure at a depth of 580 m in a lake?
(w = 1.00 103 kg/m3, P0 = 1.01 105 Pa, and g = 9.81 m/s2.)
a. 3.7 106 Pa
c. 4.2 106 Pa
b. 5.8 106 Pa
d. 8.5 106 Pa
7. How much pressure is exerted on a submarine at a depth of 8.50 km in the Pacific Ocean? (The density of
sea water = 1.025 103 kg/m3, and the atmospheric pressure at sea level = 1.01 105 Pa.)
a. 8.6 105 Pa
c. 8.7 106 Pa
6
b. 9.5 10 Pa
d. 8.6 106 Pa
8. What is 0C on the Kelvin scale?
a. 323 K
c. 273 K
b. 248 K
d. 323 K
9. The flow rate of blood through the average human aorta is about 9.0 101 cm3/s. If the aorta has a radius
of 1.0 cm, what is the velocity of the blood flow?
a. 14 cm/s
c. 37 cm/s
b. 32 cm/s
d. 29 cm/s
10. Water flows in a creek bed that has a diameter of 1.6 m at 25 m/s. In a tiny waterfall, the water drops 2.0
m. If the creek bed below has the same diameter, what would be the velocity of water flow after the
waterfall? (w = 1.00 103 kg/m3)
a. 46 m/s
c. 37 m/s
b. 26 m/s
d. 34 m/s
11. At a constant volume, an ideal gas is heated from 348 K to 423 K. If the original pressure in the tank was
1.51 105 Pa and the volume does not change, what is the new pressure?
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Jerick
a. 1.24 105 Pa
c. 1.84 105 Pa
b. 9.75 104 Pa
d. 4.97 102 Pa
The initial volume, pressure, and temperature of an ideal gas in a tank are 15 L, 2.0 atm, and 310 K,
respectively. If the pressure increases to 3.5 atm and the temperature increases to 430 K, what is the final
volume of the gas?
a. 12 L
c. 3.1 L
b. 6.2 L
d. 9.4 L
An ideal gas is maintained at a constant pressure of 7.0 104 N/m2 during an isobaric process while its
volume decreases by 0.20 m3. What work is done by the system on its environment?
a. 1.4 104 J
c. 1.4 104 J
b. 3.5 105 J
d. 3.5 104 J
If an ideal gas does positive work on its surroundings,
a. the temperature of the gas increases.
b. the volume of the gas increases.
c. the pressure of the gas increases.
d. the internal energy of the gas decreases.
A 2 mol ideal gas system is maintained at a constant volume of 4 L. If the pressure is constant, how much
work is done by the system?
a. 0 J
c. 8 J
b. 5 J
d. 30 J
Sunlight strikes an ice cube at its melting point and causes it to melt. What is this process?
a. adiabatic process
c. isobaric process
b. isothermal process
d. isovolumetric process
Which of the following is a thermodynamic process that takes place at constant volume so that no work is
done on or by the system?
a. adiabatic process
c. isovolumetric process
b. isothermal process
d. isobaric process
In an isovolumetric process by an ideal gas, the systems heat gain is equivalent to a change in which of
the following?
a. temperature
c. pressure
b. volume
d. internal energy
During an isovolumetric process, which of the following does not change?
a. volume
c. internal energy
b. temperature
d. pressure
According to the first law of thermodynamics, the difference between energy transferred to or from a
system as heat and energy transferred to or from a system by work is equivalent to which of the
following?
a. entropy change
c. temperature change
b. internal energy change
d. specific heat
How is conservation of internal energy expressed for an adiabatic system?
a. Q = W = 0, so U = 0 and Ui = Uf
b. Q = 0, so U = W
c. T = 0, so U = 0; therefore, U = Q W = 0, or Q = W
d. V = 0, so PV = 0 and W = 0; therefore, U = Q
How is conservation of internal energy expressed for an isolated system?
a. Q = W = 0, so U = 0 and Ui = Uf
b. Q = 0, so U = W
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Jerick
c. T = 0, so U = 0; therefore, U = Q W = 0, or Q = W
d. V = 0, so PV = 0 and W = 0; therefore, U = Q
A 4 mol ideal gas system undergoes an adiabatic process in which it expands and does 20 J of work on its
environment. What is its change in internal energy?
a. 20 J
c. 0 J
b. 5 J
d. 20 J
The internal energy of a system is initially 63 J. A total of 71 J of energy is added to the system as heat
while the system does 59 J of work. What is the systems final internal energy?
a. 51 J
c. 67 J
b. 75 J
d. 190 J
Over several cycles, a refrigerator does 1.73 104 J of work on the refrigerant. The refrigerant removes
8.11 104 J as heat from the air inside the refrigerator. How much energy is delivered to the outside air?
a. 3.19 104 J
c. 6.38 104 J
b. 4.92 104 J
d. 9.84 104 J
Over several cycles, a refrigerator does 1.73 104 J of work on the refrigerant. The refrigerant, in turn,
removes 8.11 104 J as heat from the air inside the refrigerator. How much work is done on the air inside
the refrigerator?
a. 0.00 J
c. 8.11 104 J
b. 1.73 104 J
d. 9.84 104 J
The requirement that a heat engine must give up some energy at a lower temperature in order to do work
corresponds to which law of thermodynamics?
a. first
c. third
b. second
d. No law of thermodynamics applies.
An electrical power plant manages to transfer 88 percent of the heat produced in the burning of fossil fuel
to convert water to steam. Of the heat carried by the steam, 40 percent is converted to the mechanical
energy of the spinning turbine. Which best describes the overall efficiency of the heat-to-work conversion
in the plant?
a. greater than 88 percent
c. less than 40 percent
b. 64 percent
d. 40 percent
A turbine exhausts 69 400 J of energy added as heat when it puts out 21 300 J of net work. What is the
efficiency of the turbine?
a. 3.26
c. 0.693
b. 0.307
d. 0.235
An engine adds 75 000 J of energy as heat and removes 15 000 J of energy as heat. What is the engines
efficiency?
a. 0.80
c. 0.50
b. 0.20
d. 0.60
Imagine you could observe the individual atoms that make up a piece of matter and that you observe the
motion of the atoms becoming more orderly. What can you assume about the system?
a. Its entropy is increasing.
b. Its entropy is decreasing.
c. It is gaining thermal energy.
d. Positive work is being done on the system.
A chunk of ice with a mass of 1 kg at 0C melts and absorbs 3.35 108 J of heat in the process. Which
best describes what happened to this system?
a. Its entropy increased.
c. Its entropy remained constant.
b. Its entropy decreased.
d. Work was converted to energy.
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Jerick
When a drop of ink mixes with water, the entropy of the system
a. increases, and the total entropy of the universe increases.
b. decreases, and the total entropy of the universe increases.
c. increases, and the total entropy of the universe decreases.
d. decreases, and the total entropy of the universe decreases.
Tripling the displacement from equilibrium of an object in simple harmonic motion will change the
magnitude of the objects maximum acceleration by what factor?
a. one-third
c. 3
b. 1
d. 9
A simple pendulum swings in simple harmonic motion. At maximum displacement,
a. the acceleration reaches a maximum. c. the acceleration reaches zero.
b. the velocity reaches a maximum.
d. the restoring forces reach zero.
A 0.20 kg mass suspended from a spring moves with simple harmonic motion. At the instant the mass is
displaced from equilibrium by 0.05 m, what is its acceleration? (The spring constant is 10.0 N/m.)
a. 1200 m/s2
c. 0.10 m/s2
2
b. 41 m/s
d. 2.5 m/s2
Which of the following is the time it takes to complete a cycle of motion?
a. amplitude
c. frequency
b. period
d. revolution
Imagine that you could transport a simple pendulum from Earth to the moon, where the free-fall
acceleration is one-sixth that on Earth. By what factor would the pendulums frequency be changed?
a. almost 6.0
c. almost 0.4
b. almost 2.5
d. almost 0.17

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____
39.An amusement park ride swings back and forth once
every 40.0 s. What is the rides frequency?
a. 2.50 102 Hz
c. 25.0 102 Hz
b. 5.00 102 Hz
d. 40.0 102 Hz
A car with bad shock absorbers bounces up and down with a period of 1.5 s after hitting a bump. The car
has a mass of 1500 kg and is supported by four springs with a spring constant of 6600 N/m. What is the
period for each spring?
a. 1.5 s
c. 4.4 s
b. 5.8 s
d. 3.6 s
On the planet Xenos, an astronaut observes that a 1.00 m long pendulum has a period of 1.50 s. What is
the free-fall acceleration on Xenos?
a. 4.18 m/s2
c. 17.5 m/s2
b. 10.2 m/s2
d. 26.3 m/s2
Which of the following is a single nonperiodic disturbance?
a. pulse wave
c. sine wave
b. periodic wave
d. transverse wave
Which of the following is a wave whose source is some form of repeating motion?
a. pulse wave
c. sine wave
b. periodic wave
d. transverse wave
One end of a taut rope is fixed to a post. What type of wave is demonstrated if the free end is quickly
raised and lowered?
a. pulse wave
c. sine wave
b. periodic wave
d. transverse wave

____ 45. In the waveform of the longitudinal wave shown above, the stretched regions correspond to
a. the wavelength.
c. troughs.
b. crests.
d. the mass.
8
____ 46. A radio wave has a speed of 3.00 10 m/s and a frequency of 107 MHz. What is the wavelength?
a. 3.21 m
c. 0.100 m
b. 45.0 m
d. 2.79 m
____ 47. Bats can detect small objects, such as insects, that are approximately the size of one wavelength. If a bat
emits a chirp at a frequency of 60.0 kHz and the speed of sound waves in air is 330 m/s, what is the size
of the smallest insect that the bat can detect?
a. 1.5 mm
c. 5.5 mm
b. 3.5 mm
d. 7.5 mm
____ 48. What happens to the energy carried in a given time interval by a mechanical wave when the waves
amplitude is doubled?
a. It increases by a factor of two.
c. It decreases by a factor of two.
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b. It increases by a factor of four.
d. It decreases by a factor of four.
What is the phase difference between two waves that are traveling in the same medium when they
undergo constructive interference?
a. 270
c. 90
b. 180
d. 0
Which of the following is the interference that results when individual displacements on opposite sides of
the equilibrium position are added together to form the resultant wave?
a. constructive
c. complete constructive
b. destructive
d. complete destructive
At a free boundary, waves are
a. neither reflected nor inverted.
c. reflected and inverted.
b. reflected but not inverted.
d. inverted but not reflected.
Standing waves are produced by periodic waves of
a. any amplitude and wavelength traveling in the same direction.
b. the same amplitude and wavelength traveling in the same direction.
c. any amplitude and wavelength traveling in opposite directions.
d. the same frequency, amplitude, and wavelength traveling in opposite directions.
A 2.0 m long stretched rope is fixed at both ends. Which wavelength would NOT produce standing waves
on this rope?
a. 2.0 m
c. 4.0 m
b. 3.0 m
d. 6.0 m
Which of the following wave lengths would produce standing waves on a string approximately 3.5 m
long?
a. 2.33 m
c. 3.75 m
b. 2.85 m
d. 4.55 m
Which of the following wavelengths would NOT produce standing waves on a rope whose length is 1 m?
a. 2/3 m
c. 2 m
b. 1 m
d. m

____ 56. How many nodes and antinodes are shown in the standing wave above?
a. two nodes and three antinodes
c. one-third node and one antinode
b. one node and two antinodes
d. three nodes and two antinodes
____ 57. What is the fewest number of nodes a standing wave can have?
a. 1
c. 3
b. 2
d. 4

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____ 58. In the diagram above, use the superposition principle to find the resultant wave of waves W and Z.
a. a
c. c
b. b
d. d

____ 59. In the diagram above, use the superposition principle to find the resultant wave of waves Q and R.
a. a
c. c
b. b
d. d
____ 60. Which of the following is the region of a longitudinal wave in which the density and pressure are greater
than normal?
a. rarefaction
c. spherical wave
b. compression
d. Doppler effect
____ 61. Which of the following is the number of cycles per unit of time?
a. infrasonic wave
c. ultrasonic wave
b. frequency
d. pitch
____ 62. Which of the following has a higher speed of sound?
a. helium at 0C
c. copper at 0C
b. air at 0C
d. air at 100C
____ 63. Which has a higher speed of sound?
a. water
c. methyl alcohol
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b. oxygen
d. copper
Which of the following are series of compressions in graphical representations of spherical and plane
waves?
a. wavelength
c. rays
b. source
d. wave fronts
The Doppler effect occurs with
a. only sound waves.
c. only water waves.
b. only compressional waves.
d. all waves.
As a sound source approaches and then moves past a stationary observer, the observer will hear
a. a steady rise in pitch.
c. a rise in pitch, then a drop in pitch.
b. a sudden drop in pitch.
d. a drop in pitch, then a rise in pitch.
If you hear the pitch of a siren become lower, you know that
a. neither you nor the siren is moving.
b. you are moving toward the siren or the siren
is moving toward you.
c. you are moving away from the siren or the
siren is moving toward you.
d. the source has just passed you or it is
accelerating away from you.
If you are on a train, how will the pitch of the trains whistle sound to you as the train moves?
a. The pitch will become steadily higher.
b. The pitch will become steadily lower.
c. The pitch will not change.
d. The pitch will become higher then become
lower.
Tripling the distance from a sound source will change the intensity of the sound waves by what factor?
a.
c. 3
b.

d. 9

____ 70. What is the intensity of sound waves produced by a trumpet at a distance of 1.6 m when the power output
of the trumpet is 0.30 W?
a. 5.9 103 W/m2
c. 9.4 103 W/m2
2
2
b. 1.5 10 W/m
d. 3.7 102 W/m2
____ 71. If one end of a pipe is closed,
a. all harmonics are present.
c. only odd harmonics are present.
b. no harmonics are present.
d. only even harmonics are present.
____ 72. If a guitar string has a fundamental frequency of 500 Hz, what is the frequency of its second harmonic?
a. 250 Hz
c. 1000 Hz
b. 750 Hz
d. 1500 Hz
____ 73. Which describes an instruments own characteristic full sound and mixture of harmonics at varying
intensities?
a. timbre
c. pitch
b. harmonics
d. fundamental frequency
____ 74. Two vibrating tuning forks held side by side will create a beat frequency of what value if the individual
frequencies of the two forks are 342 Hz and 345 Hz, respectively?
a. 687 Hz
c. 339 Hz
b. 343.5 Hz
d. 3 Hz
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Two vibrating tuning forks held side by side will create a beat frequency of what value if the individual
frequencies of the two forks are 442 Hz and 449 Hz, respectively?
a. 7 Hz
c. 4 Hz
b. 5 Hz
d. 3 Hz
Two notes have a beat frequency of 6 Hz. The frequency of one note is 570 Hz. What is the frequency of
the other note?
a. 564 Hz or 576 Hz
c. 424 Hz or 416 Hz
b. 5 Hz
d. 8 Hz
Two notes have a beat frequency of 8 Hz. The frequency of one note is 612 Hz. What is the frequency of
the other note?
a. 325 Hz or 318 Hz
c. 604 Hz or 620 Hz
b. 5 Hz
d. 680 Hz
Which portion of the electromagnetic spectrum is used in a television?
a. infrared waves
c. radio waves
b. microwaves
d. gamma waves
Which portion of the electromagnetic spectrum is used in aircraft navigation?
a. infrared waves
c. radio waves
b. microwaves
d. ultraviolet light
Which portion of the electromagnetic spectrum is used to identify fluorescent minerals?
a. ultraviolet light
c. infrared waves
b. X rays
d. gamma rays
What is the wavelength of microwaves of 3.0 109 Hz frequency?
a. 0.060 m
c. 0.050 m
b. 0.10 m
d. 0.20 m
Yellow-green light has wavelength of 560 m. What is its frequency?
a. 5.4 106 Hz
c. 1.8 1014 Hz
6
b. 1.8 10 Hz
d. 5.4 1014 Hz
When red light is compared with violet light,
a. both have the same frequency.
c. both travel at the same speed.
b. both have the same wavelength.
d. red light travels faster than violet light.
The relationship between frequency, wavelength, and speed holds for light waves because
a. light travels slower in a vacuum than in air.
b. all forms of electromagnetic radiation travel at a single speed in a vacuum.
c. light travels in straight lines.
d. different forms of electromagnetic radiation travel at different speeds.
The farther light is from a source,
a. the more spread out light becomes.
c. the more bright light becomes.
b. the more condensed light becomes.
d. the more light is available per unit
area.
Snow reflects almost all of the light incident upon it. However, a single beam of light is not reflected in
the form of parallel rays. This is an example of ____ reflection off of a ____ surface.
a. regular; rough
c. diffuse; specular
b. regular; specular
d. diffuse; rough
When a straight line is drawn perpendicular to a flat mirror at the point where an incoming ray strikes the
mirrors surface, the angles of incidence and reflection are measured from the normal and
a. the angles of incidence and reflection are equal.
b. the angle of incidence is greater than the angle of reflection.
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c. the angle of incidence is less than the angle of reflection.
d. the angle of incidence can be greater than or less than the angle of reflection.
If a light ray strikes a flat mirror at an angle of 27 from the normal, the reflected ray will be
a. 27 from the mirrors surface.
c. 90 from the mirrors surface.
b. 27 from the normal.
d. 63 from the normal.
If a light ray strikes a flat mirror at an angle of 14 from the normal, the reflected ray will be
a. 13 from the mirrors surface.
c. 90 from the mirrors surface.
b. 27 from the normal.
d. 14 from the normal.
If a light ray strikes a flat mirror at an angle of 29 from the normal, the reflected ray will be
a. 29 from the normal.
c. 90 from the mirrors surface.
b. 27 from the normal.
d. 36 from the normal.
The image of an object in a flat mirror is always
a. larger than the object.
c. independent of the size of the object.
b. smaller than the object.
d. the same size as the object.
A concave mirror forms a real image at 14 cm from the mirror surface along the principal axis. If the
corresponding object is at a 29 cm distance, what is the mirrors focal length?
a. 14 cm
c. 12 cm
b. 9.4 cm
d. 36 cm
A concave mirror forms a real image at 17 cm from the mirror surface along the principal axis. If the
corresponding object is at a 36 cm distance, what is the mirrors focal length?
a. 19 cm
c. 12 cm
b. 47 cm
d. 26 cm
A concave mirror forms a real image at 42 cm from the mirror surface along the principal axis. If the
corresponding object is at a 88 cm distance, what is the mirrors focal length?
a. 28 cm
c. 12 cm
b. 17 cm
d. 9 cm
A concave mirror forms a real image at 19 cm from the mirror surface along the principal axis. If the
corresponding object is at a 39 cm distance, what is the mirrors focal length?
a. 13 cm
c. 11 cm
b. 7 cm
d. 9 cm
If a virtual image is formed 10.0 cm along the principal axis from a convex mirror with a focal length of
15.0 cm, what is the objects distance from the mirror?
a. 30.0 cm
c. 6.0 cm
b. 12 cm
d. 3.0 cm
A convex mirror with a focal length of 20.0 cm forms an image 12 cm behind the surface. Where is the
object as measured from the surface?
a. 7.5 cm
c. 22 cm
b. 15 cm
d. 3.0 101 cm

____ 98. In the diagram above, the image of object B would be

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a. real, reduced, and upright.
c. virtual, reduced, and inverted.
b. virtual, enlarged, and upright.
d. virtual, reduced, and upright.
Which best describes the image of a concave mirror when the object is at a distance greater than twice the
focal-point distance from the mirror?
a. virtual, upright, and magnification greater than one
b. real, inverted, and magnification less than one
c. virtual, upright, and magnification less than one
d. real, inverted, and magnification greater than one
When parallel rays that are also parallel to the principal axis strike a spherical mirror, rays that strike the
mirror ____ the principal axis are focused at the focal point. Those rays that strike the mirror ____ the
principal axis are focused at points between the mirror and the focal point.
a. perpendicular to; far from
c. close to; far from
b. close to; perpendicular to
d. far from; close to
What color does blue pigment subtract from white light?
a. blue c. violet
b red
d green
.
.
Which of the following is NOT a primary subtractive color?
a. yello c. magent
w
a
b cyan d blue
.
.
A wave on a rope approaches two gratings in a row. The wave is polarized parallel to grating 1 and
perpendicular to grating 2. The wave passes through
c. both gratings.
a. only grating 1.
only
grating
2.
d. neither grating.
b.
When the transmission axis is perpendicular to the plane of polarization for light,
a. all the light passes through.
c. little of the light passes through.
b. most of the light passes through.
d. no light passes through.
If you looked at a light through the lenses from two polarizing sunglasses that were overlapped at right
angles to one another,
a. all of the light would pass through.
c. little of the light would pass through.
b. most of the light would pass through. d. none of the light would pass through.
Part of a pencil that is placed in a glass of water appears bent in relation to the part of the pencil that
extends out of the water. What is this phenomenon called?
a. interference
c. diffraction
b. refraction
d. reflection
Refraction is the term for the bending of a wave disturbance as it passes at an angle from one ____ into
another.
a glass c area
.
.
b mediu d bounda
. m
. ry
Which is an example of refraction?
a.

A parabolic mirror in a headlight focuses light into a beam.

b.

A fish appears closer to the surface of the water than it really is when observed from a riverbank.

c.

In a mirror, when you lift your right arm, the left arm of your image is raised.

d.

Light is bent slightly around corners.

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____109. When light passes at an angle to the normal from one material into another material in which its speed is
lower,
a. it is bent toward the normal to the surface.
b. it always lies along the normal to the surface.
c. it is unaffected.
d. it is bent away from the normal to the surface.
____110. When a light ray moves from air into glass at an angle of 45, its path is
a. bent toward the normal.
c. parallel to the normal.
b. bent away from the normal.
d. not bent.
____111. A ray of light in air is incident on an air-to-glass boundary at an angle of exactly 3.0 101 with the
normal. If the index of refraction of the glass is 1.65, what is the angle of the refracted ray within the glass
with respect to the normal?
a. 56
c. 29
b. 46
d. 18
____112. A beam of light in air is incident at an angle of 35 to the surface of a rectangular block of clear plastic (n
= 1.49). What is the angle of refraction?
a. 42
c. 55
b. 23
d. 59
____113. An object is placed 20.0 cm from a thin converging lens along the axis of the lens. If a real image forms
behind the lens at a distance of 8.00 cm from the lens, what is the focal length of the lens?
a. 30.0 cm
c. 15.0 cm
b. 10.0 cm
d. 5.71 cm
____114. A candle that is 10.0 cm high is placed 30.0 cm in front of a diverging lens. The lens has a focal length of
20.0 cm. What is the magnification of the image?
a. 2.50
c. 0.400
b. 0.400
d. 2.50
____115. An object that is 18 cm from a converging lens forms a real image 22.5 cm from the lens. What is the
magnification of the image?
a. 1.25
c. 0.80
b. 1.25
d. 0.80
____116. In a double-slit interference pattern the path length from one slit to the first dark fringe of a double-slit
interference pattern is longer than the path length from the other slit to the fringe by
a. three-quarters of a wavelength.
c. one-quarter of a wavelength.
b. one-half of a wavelength.
d. one full wavelength.
____117. In Youngs double-slit experiment, a wave from one slit arrives at a point on a screen one wavelength
behind the wave from the other slit. What is observed at that point?
a. dark fringe
c. multicolored fringe
b. bright fringe
d. gray fringe, neither dark nor bright
____118. In order to produce a sustained interference pattern by light waves from multiple sources, which condition
or conditions must be met?
a. Sources must be coherent.
b. Sources must be monochromatic.
c. Sources must be coherent and monochromatic.
d. Sources must be neither coherent nor monochromatic.
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Two beams of coherent light are shining on the same sheet of white paper. When referring to the crests
and troughs of such waves, where will darkness appear on the paper?
a. where the crest from one wave overlaps the crest from the other
b. where the crest from one wave overlaps the trough from the other
c. where the troughs from both waves overlap
d. Darkness cannot occur because the two waves are coherent.
Light with a wavelength of 400.0 nm passes through a 1.00 104 lines/cm diffraction grating. What is
the second-order angle of diffraction?
a. 21.3
c. 56.5
b. 53.1
d. 72.1
Light with a wavelength of 500.0 nm passes through a 3.39 105 lines/m diffraction grating. What is the
first-order angle of diffraction?
a. 23.5
c. 36.9
b. 9.75
d. 53.1
Which of the following is the process of using a light wave to produce more waves with properties
identical to those of the first wave?
a. stimulated emission
c. hologram
b. active medium
d. bandwidth
Which of the following is a device that produces an intense, nearly parallel beam of coherent light?
a. spectroscope
c. laser
b. telescope.
d. diffraction grating
What happens when a rubber rod is rubbed with a piece of fur, giving it a negative charge?
a. Protons are removed from the rod.
c. The fur is also negatively charged.
b. Electrons are added to the rod.
d. The fur is left neutral.
A repelling force occurs between two charged objects when
a. charges are of unlike signs.
c. charges are of equal magnitude.
b. charges are of like signs.
d. charges are of unequal magnitude.
When a glass rod is rubbed with silk and becomes positively charged,
a. electrons are removed from the rod.
c. protons are added to the silk.
b. protons are removed from the silk.
d. the silk remains neutral.
Electric charge is
a. found only in a conductor.
c. found only in insulators.
b. conserved.
d. not conserved.
If a positively charged glass rod is used to charge a metal bar by induction,
a. the charge on the bar will be equal in magnitude to the charge on the glass rod.
b. the charge on the bar must be negative.
c. the charge on the bar must be positive.
d. the charge on the bar will be greater in magnitude than the charge on the glass rod.
Which sentence best characterizes electric insulators?
a. Charges on their surface do not move. c. Electric charges move freely in them.
b. They have high tensile strength
d. They are good heat conductors.
The process of charging a conductor by bringing it near another charged object and then grounding the
conductor is called
a. charging by contact.
c. charging by polarization
b. induction.
d. neutralization.
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When a charged body is brought close to an uncharged body without touching it, a(n) ____ charge may
result on the uncharged body. When a charged body is brought into contact with an uncharged body and
then is removed, a(n) ____ charge may result on the uncharged body.
a. negative; positive
c. induced; residual
b. positive; negative
d. residual; induced
Consider a thundercloud that has an electric charge of 40.0 C near the top of the cloud and 40.0 C near
the bottom of the cloud. These charges are separated by about 2.0 km. What is the magnitude of the
electric force between these two sets of charges? (kc = 8.99 109 Nm2/C2)
a. 3.6 104 N
c. 3.6 106 N
5
b. 3.6 10 N
d. 3.6 107 N
Charge A and charge B are 2 m apart. Charge A is 1 C and charge B is 2 C. Charge C, which is 2 C, is
located between them, and the force on charge C is zero. How far from charge A is charge C?
a. 1 m
c. 0.8 m
b. 0.7 m
d. 0.5 m
Two charges are located on the positive x-axis of a coordinate system. Charge q1 = 2.00 109C, and it is
0.02 m from the origin. Charge q2 = 3.00 109C, and it is 0.04 m from the origin. What is the electric
force exerted by these two charges on a third charge, q3 = 5.00 109, located at the origin?
a. 2.2 104 N
c. 3.1 104 N
4
b. 1.4 10 N
d. 8.4 104 N
Two point charges are 10.0 cm apart and have charges of 2.0 C and 2.0 C, respectively. What is the
electric field at the midpoint between the two charges?
a. 2.9 107 N/C
b. 1.4 107 N/C
c. 7.2 106 N/C
d. 0 N/C
The relative distribution of charge density on the surface of a conducting solid depends upon which of the
following?
a. the shape of the conductor
b. the mass density of the conductor
c. the type of metal the conductor is made of
d. the strength of Earths gravitational field
If a conductor is in electrostatic equilibrium, the electric field inside the conductor
a. is directed inward.
c. is at its maximum level.
b. is directed outward.
d. is zero.
If a conductor is in electrostatic equilibrium, the electric field just outside a charged conductor
a. is zero.
b. is at its minimum level.
c. is the same as it is in the center of the conductor.
d. is perpendicular to the conductors surface.
If a conductor is in electrostatic equilibrium, any excess charge
a. flows to the ground.
b. resides entirely on the conductors outer surface.
c. resides entirely on the conductors interior.
d. resides entirely in the center of the conductor.

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____140. Two positive point charges are initially separated by a distance of 2 cm. If their separation is increased to
6 cm, the resultant electrical potential energy is equal to what factor times the initial electrical potential
energy?
a. 3
c.
b. 9

d.

____141. A proton (q = 1.60 1019 C) moves 10.0 cm on a path parallel to the direction of a uniform electric field
of strength 3.0 N/C. What is the change in electrical potential energy?
a. 4.8 1020 J
c. 4.8 1020 J
b. 1.6 1020 J
d. 1.6 l020 J
____142. A uniform electric field with a magnitude of 5.0 102 N/C is directed parallel to the positive x-axis
toward the origin. What is the change in electrical energy of a proton (q = 1.60 1019 C) as it moves
from x = 5 m to x = 2 m?
a. 8.0 1017 J
c. 2.0 1021 J
b. 2.0 1016 J
d. 500 J
____143. When an electron (e = 1.6 1019 C) moves 0.10 m along the direction of an electric field with a
strength of 3.0 N/C, what is the magnitude of the potential difference between the electrons initial and
final points?
a. 4.8 1019 V
c. 0.03 V
b. 0.30 V
d. 3.0 101 V
____144. What will be the electric potential at a distance of 0.15 m from a point charge of 6.0 C?
(kc = 8.99 109 Nm2/C2)
a. 5.4 104 V
c. 2.4 106 V
b. 3.6 106 V
d. 1.2 107 V
____145. A point charge of 3.0 C is at the origin of a coordinate system, and a second point charge of 6.0 C is at
x = 1.0 m. What is the electric potential at the point where x = 0.50 m? (kc = 8.99 109 Nm2/C2)
a. 1.62 105 V
c. 1.08 105 V
b. 1.08 105V
d. 5.4 104 V
____146. Increasing the separation of the two charged parallel plates of a capacitor when they are disconnected
from a battery will produce what effect on the capacitor?
a. It will increase the charge.
c. It will increase the capacitance.
b. It will decrease the charge.
d. It will decrease the capacitance.
____147. Increasing the potential difference across the two plates of a capacitor will produce what effect on the
capacitor?
a. It will increase the charge.
c. It will increase the capacitance.
b. It will decrease the charge.
d. It will decrease the capacitance.
____148. A 0.25 F capacitor is connected to a 9.0 V battery. What is the charge on the capacitor?
a. 1.2 1012 C
c. 2.8 108 C
b. 2.2 106 C
d. 3.6 107 C
____149. What is the capacitance of a parallel-plate capacitor made of two square aluminum plates that are 4.0 cm
in length on each side and are separated by 5.0 mm? (0 = 8.85 1012 C2/Nm2)
a. 2.8 1010 F
c. 2.8 1012 F
b. 1.0 106 F
d. 2.0 105 F
____150. A 1.5 F capacitor is connected to a 9.0 V battery. How much energy is stored in the capacitor?
a. 1.7 103 J
c. 7.5 103 J
b. 6.1 105 J
d. 5.4 103 j
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Physics_Final_Study Guide
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE

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A
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A
C
D
C
B
D
B
B
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B
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D
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B
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B
C
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87. ANS:
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B
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B
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B