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SBI (ASSO. BANKS)-2012 CLERKS MODEL GRAND TEST


Max Marks: 200

Total Questions: 200

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
Directions (Q. 1-15) : What will come in place of
the question mark in the following equations?

19. If a minimum of 101 marks in Science subject


is required for opting science stream in the
next academic year, how many students will
not able to opt science stream due to insufficient marks in Science subject?
1) None
2) Two
3) Four
4) Five
5) Three
20. What is the total marks obtained by D in Hindi,
E in Social Studies and C in Mathematics put
together?
1) 258
2) 244
3) 235
4) 210
5) None of these
21. The sum of five consecutive even numbers is
400. What is the half of the sum of the smallest
number and the largest number of the set?
1) 80
2) 81
3) 79
4) 82
5) None of these
22. The ratio of Prashanth's and Chalapathi's present ages is 5:6. Three years hence the ratio of
their ages will be 6:7 respectively. What was
Chalapathi's age eight years ago?
1) 7 Years
2) 10 Years
3) 26 Years
4) 18 Years
5) None of these
23. In how many different ways can the letters of
the word QUOTED be arranged?
1) 720
2) 360
3) 1440
4) 320
5) None of these
24. Anusha scored 33 marks in English, 37 marks
in Science, 28 marks in Maths, 26 marks in
Hindi and 32 marks in Social Studies. The
maximum marks a student can score in each
subject is 60. How much % did Anusha get in
the exam?
1) 52
2) 54
3) 48
4) 53
5) None of these
25. 37% of a number is 114.7. What is 130% of
that number?
1) 406
2) 405
3) 403
4) 407
5) None of these
26. What will be the average of the following set of
scores?
69, 89, 34, 76, 54, 68, 28, 46
1) 53
2) 55
3) 57
4) 56
5) None of these
27. What will be the resultant if the square of 109
is subtracted from the square of 210?
1) 32220 2) 32209
3) 32291
4) 32217 5) None of these
28. What will be the compound interest accrued on
a principal amount of Rs. 32,500 at the rate of
5 p.c.p.a. after a period of 2 years?
1) Rs.3332.78
2) Rs.3335.35
3) Rs.3333.27
4) Rs.3331.25
5) None of these
29. The average of five numbers is 50.8. The average of the first and the second number is 29.
The average of the fourth and the fifth number
is 66.5. What is the third
Social Sanskrit
number?
(Out of (Out of
1) 65 2) 73
3) 61
120)
35)
4) 77 5) None of these
39
84
30. A train covers 430 km in 5
hours. The speed of a bike
57
79
is half the speed of the train.
44
86
How much time will the bike
68
44
take to cover a distance of
301 km?
55
50

1.

8
2
1

+=?
12
5
3
1)

2)

3)

4)

5) None of these
2. 4500 18 122 = ? 4
1) 32
2) 26
3) 28
5) None of these
3
3.
32768 = ?
1) 38
2) 34
3) 36
5) None of these
4. 192 + 282 162 = ?
1) 889
2) 888
3) 883
5) None of these
5. 63 14 + 334 = ? + (12)2
1) 1078
2) 1072
3) 1077
5) None of these
6. [(452 4) + 62] / 5 = ?
1) 48
2) 37
3) 45
5) None of these
7. (14 24) + (27 12) = ?
1) 650
2) 665
3) 660
5) None of these
8. (4.7 12 8) + (6.8 16 10) + ?
1) 1533.9
2) 1539.2
4) 1536.9
5) None of these
9.

4) 34

4) 32

4) 885

4) 7074

4) 35

4) 655

3) 1532.9

2
1
3

of of of 48685 = ?
5
3
5

1) 3287.5
2) 3415.6
3) 3894.8
4) 2967.4
5) None of these
10. 421 38 3543 = ?
1) 15112
2) 10624
3) 12455
4) 13185
5) None of these
11. ? 48 12 = 171
1) 684
2) 566
3) 698
4) 596
5) None of these
12. 1311.2 133.6 = ?
1) 1312.3 2) 137.6
3) 1314.8 4) 1310.3
5) None of these
13. 11.11 + 111.1 + 1111.11 = ?
1) 1323.23
2) 1233.32
3) 1322.33
4) 1232.22
5) None of these
14. 5 ? = 9884 16
1) 123.55 2) 91.25 3) 103.18 4) 115.65
5) None of these
15. 26.5% of 488 = ?
1) 205.65 2) 211.72 3) 145.67 4) 129.32
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 16-20): Study the following graph
carefully which shows percentage of marks
obtained by students in 6 subjects and answer the
questions given below:
Subject

Student

Hindi

English

Science

Maths

(Out of
175)

(Out of
80)

(Out of
125)

(Out of
100)

87

84

91

66

58

68

87

74

63

71

81

94

48

57

70

79

83

83

49

77

74

68

42

63

16. What is the average marks obtained by


Student F in Hindi, English and Science subjects together?
1) 78
2) 82.4
3) 78.8
4) 84
5) None of these
17. What are the average marks obtained by all
the students in Science?
1) 87
2) 86.5
3) 90 4) 87.5 5) None
18. What is the ratio of the marks scored by E in
Science and that in Hindi?
1) 35:83
2) 61:75 3) 83:85 4) 75:61
5) None of these

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61

Time: 135 Minutes

1) 6 hours
3) 8 hours
5) None of these

58

2) 7 hours
4) 9 hours

31. If the following fractions are arranged in


ascending order (from left to right), which of
them will be second from the right end?
2
9

4
7

12
17

7
13

5
11

, , , ,
1)

4
7

2)

12

17

3)

2
9

4)

5
11

5) None of these
32. Last year the total number of students in a
school was 4500. 48% of the total students

-v-- --u-

-v---

were females. This


year 60 males left
the school. What is
the present ratio of
the number of
males to the number of females in the school?
1) 19:17
2) 18:17 3) 23:18 4) 23:17
5) None of these
33. What is the least number that can be added to
2020 to make it a perfect square?
1) 4
2) 6
3) 5
4) 3
5) None
Directions (Q. 34-35): What approximate value
should come in place of question mark in the
following questions?
34.

2
62627 = ?

1) 280
2) 220
3) 250 4) 330 5) 190
35. 44.979 20.011 9.968 = ?
1) 30
2) 60
3) 150
4) 180
5) 90
Directions (Q. 36-40): What should come in place
of the question mark in the following number
series?
36. 600
564
539
523
514
?
1) 500
2) 520 3) 510 4) 540 5) 515
37. 550000
110000
2200
440
88 ?
1) 16.4
2) 18.3
3) 17.6
4) 14.5
5) None of these
38. 2
12
60
240
720
?
1) 1445
2) 1440
3) 1420
4) 1444
5) None of these
39. 80
48
64
56
60
?
1) 57
2) 68
3) 54 4) 62 5) 58
40. 32
38
50
68
92
?
1) 118 2) 128 3) 124
4) 122
5) 116

REASONING
41. 'Players' are related to 'Team' in the same way
'Books' is related to ?
1) Exams 2) Library
3) Reading
4) Writer 5) Chapter
42. Jwala Gutta, winner of Arujuna award, for badminton, started from Point P and walked 2 m
towards west. She then took a right turn and
walked 3 m before taking a left turn and walking 5 m. She finally took a left turn, walked 3 m
and stopped a Point Q. How far is Point Q from
Point P?
1) 2 m
2) 6 m
3) 7 m 4) 8 m 5) 12 m
43. In a certain code 'where have you been' is written as 'been 4 have 3 where 2 you 1' and 'visiting London this summer' is written as 'London
4 summer 3 this 2 visiting 1'. How will 'repair
may computer yesterday' be written ?
1) Computer 4 repair 3 may 2 yesterday 1
2) Yesterday 4 repair 3 may 2 computer 1
3) Computer 1 may 2 repair 3 yesterday 4
4) Yesterday 4 may 3 repair 2 computer 1
5) Computer 4 may 3 repair 2 yesterday 1
44. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
way based on the English alphabetical series
and so form a group. Which is the one that
does not belong to the group?
1) MLJ
2) WVT 3) OMK 4) JIG 5) TSQ
45. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
way and so form a group. Which is the one that
does not belong to the group?
1) Diameter
2) Circumference
3) Centre
4) Circle
5) Radius
Directions (Q. 46-50): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing the centre but not necessarily in
the same order.
G sits third to the right of F. G sits second to the
left of H. H is not an immediate neighbour of E and
C. F and A are immediate neighbours of each
other. Only one person sits between F and B. E
and G sit opposite to each other.
46. Four of the following five are similar in a certain
way based on their position in the seating
arrangement. Which of the following does not
belong to that group?
1) EH
2) CF 3) AG 4) BD 5) HG

\---

--- x----:

47. Who amongst the following represent immediate neighbours of D?


1) EH
2) CG 3) FB 4) HG 5) CB
48. What is the position of A with respect to G in
the above arrangement?
1) Third to the right
2) Second to the left
3) Fifth to the right
4) Immediate right
5) Third to the left
49. What will come in place of question mark
according
to
the
above
seating
arrangement?
EF
CG
HB
FA
?
1) GD
2) CG 3) GH 4) BH 5) CD
50. Who sits to the immediate right of A?
1) E
2) C
3) B
4) F
5) D
Directions (Q. 51-55): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given
below :
642528526413918125863514
947327259
51. How many 4's are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded
by a digit which has a numerical value of more
than four?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
52. Which of the following is seventh to the left of
the twentieth from the left end of the above
arrangement?
1) 3
2) 9
3) 2
4) 7 5) 1
53. If all the even digits are deleted from the above
arrangement, which of the following will be
tenth from the right end of the arrangement?
1) 9
2) 5
3) 1
4) 3 5) 7
54. How many such 5's are there in the above
arrangement each of which is immediately
preceded by an odd digit and immediately
followed by an even digit?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
55. How many such 1's are there in the above
arrangement, each of which is immediately
preceded by a perfect square?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
Directions (Q. 56-60): Study the following information to answer the given questions:
In a certain code 'ring a bell' is written as '582',
'did not ring' is written as '359' and 'not a reason' is
written as '729'.
56. Which of the following represents 'did not'?
1) 23
2) 29
3) 35 4) 52 5) 93
57. What is the code for 'bell'?
1) 5
2) 8
3) 2
4) 7
5) None
58. What does '2' stand for?
1) ring
2) a 3) bell 4) reason
5) not
59. What does '7' stand for?
1) not
2) a
3) ring
4) reason
5) Either 'a' or 'not'
60. What is the code for 'ring'?
1) 8
2) 2
3) 5
4) 3 5) 9
Directions (Q. 61-65): Following questions are
based on the five three-digit numbers given below
219
742
936
587
853
61. If all the numbers are arranged in descending
order from left to right, which of the following
will be the product of the first and the second
digits of the number which is exactly in the middle of the new arrangement?
1) 18
2) 28
3) 54 4) 21
5) 45
62. One is subtracted from the first digit and two is
subtracted from the third digit of each of the
numbers. What will be the difference between
the first digit of the highest number and the
third digit of the lowest number?
1) 3
2) 4
3) 5
4) 2
5)

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SBI (ASSO. BANKS)-2012 CLERKS MODEL GRAND TEST


63. What will be the resultant if the third digit of the
highest number is divided by the first digit of
the lowest number?
1) 3
2) 4
3) 5
4) 2 5) 1
64. If the positions of the first and the third digits of
each of the numbers are interchanged, what
will be sum of all the digits of the second highest number thus formed?
1) 20
2) 16 3) 18
4) 13 5) 12
65. If all the digits in each of the numbers are
arranged in descending order within the number, which of the following will form the lowest
number in the new arrangement of numbers?
1) 219
2) 742
3) 936
4) 587
5) 853
Directions (Q. 66-70): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are sitting in a straight
line facing North not necessarily in the same order.
Q sits third to the right of T. W sits second to the
right of Q. V and R are immediate neighbours of
each other. V is not an immediate neighbour of T.
Only one person sits between S and P. S is not an
immediate neighbour of Q.
66. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
way based on their seating positions in the
above arrangement and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that
group?
1) QW
2) TV 3) RQ 4) VW
5) PS
67. How many persons sit between R and P?
1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) Four
68. Which of the following pairs sits at the extreme
corners of the line?
1) RW
2) ST
3) WQ
4) TR
5) SW
69. What is the position of T with respect to V?
1) Second to the left 2) Third to the right
3) Immediate right
4) Fourth to the left
5) Immediate left
70. If all the persons are made to sit in alphabetical order from right to left, the positions of how
many will remain unchanged as compared to
the original seating positions?
1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) Four
Directions (Q. 71-75): In each question below are
two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given
statements to be true even if they seem to be at
variance with commonly known facts and then
decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer
1) If only Conclusion I follows
2) If only Conclusion II follows
3) If either Conclusion I or Conclusion II follows
4) If neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II
follows
5) If both Conclusion I and Conclusion II follows
71. Statements: No house is an apartment.
Some apartments are bungalows.
Conclusions: I. No house is bungalow
II. All bungalows being houses
is a possibility
72. Statements: All plants are animals.
All insects are plants.
Conclusions : I. All insects being animals is a
possibility
II. There is a possibility that
some animals are neither
insects nor plants
73. Statements: All pens are ink.
No ink is an eraser.
Conclusions: I. No pen is an eraser.
II. Some Erasers are pens
74. Statements: Some trains are buses.
All trains are ships.
Conclusions: I. All ships are buses
II. All those trains if these are
buses are also ships
75. Statements: Some numbers are digits.
All digits are words.
Conclusions: I. All numbers being words is a
possibility

II. All digits being numbers is a possibility


76. Which of the following will come in place of the
question mark according to the English alphabetical series?
CDB
HIG
MNL
RSQ
?
1) UVT
2) WXY
3) VWU
4) TVU
5) WXV
77. The positions of how many alphabets will
remain the same if each of the alphabets in the
word WHILST is rearranged in the alphabetical
order from left to right?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
78. How many meaningful English words can be
formed with the letters MDU, using each letter
only once in each word?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
Directions (Q. 79-80): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which
follow:
Saul Perlmutter starts from Point A, walks 6 m
towards South to reach point B. He then takes a
right turn and walks 4 m to reach Point F before
taking a right turn again and walking 6 m to reach
Point C. From Point C he takes a right turn again,
walks 8 m and stops at Point E.
79. If Saul Perlmutter, winner of Noble Prize, takes
a right turn from Point E and walks 6 m to
reach Point D, how far and towards which
direction will Point D be from Point B?
1) 6 m West
2) 8 m East
3) 4 m East
4) 6 m East
5) Cannot be determined
80. Which of the following three points fall in a
straight line?
1) CAB
2) FBA
3) FAC
4) EAB
5) CAE

GENERAL ENGLISH
Directions (Q. 81 - 88): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given
below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help
you locate them while answering some of the
questions.
Once upon a time, there was a shrewd shopkeeper called Makarand. He had a friend called
Mihir, who had saved a lot of money. Mihir was
keen on going on a pilgrimage, but he did not
know where to leave his precious savings. So he
came to Makarand's shop and said, ''My friend, I
trust you more than anyone. Could you please look
after my life's savings till I return from my pilgrimage?'' Makarand pretended to be deep in thought,
and then said, ''I would rather not. Money spoils
relationships. What if something happens to your
money while you are away? You will no longer be
my friend.''
As Mihir stood there by his shop thinking about
what his friend had just said, an old woman
entered the shop and bought some things. One of
the boys helping Makarand gave her less change
than he should have. Makarand saw this and pretended to scold the boy. He then ordered him to
return the remaining money to the woman. Mihir,
not knowing that this was an act put up by
Makrand to make him believe that he was honest,
was convinced about his decision and said to
Makarand, ''I have decided I will leave the money
only with you.'' Makarand smiled. ''Then, let us do
something. Let us take the bag of coins and bury it
in a place that only you and I will know of. That
way, even if something happens to me while you
are away, you will know where your money is.''
Mihir, simple that he was, thought this was a
good idea and the two went and hid the bag in a
secret place. Mihir left the next day on his pilgrimage, happy that his savings were in safe hands.
Six months later, Mihir returned. He dumped his
luggage at home and went to dig out his bag of
savings. But, even though he searched and
searched for his valuables, there was no sign of
the bag anywhere. In panic, he ran to Makrand,
who was busy in his shop. When Mihir asked him
about the bag, Makrand pretended to be surprised,
''But I did not go that way all these months. Why

don't you search for it


again?'' he said, putting
on his most innocent
look. Mihir had no
choice but to believe
him. Sadly, he went
home.
On his way, as luck would have it, he met the old
woman he had seen in Makarand's shop. Seeing
him sad, she asked him what the matter was. Mihir
told her the whole story. Then, she smiled and
whispered a plan to him. Not long after, the woman
came to Makarand's shop, carrying a big box.
''Brother, I heard you are a good and honest man.
My son went on a pilgrimage many months ago
and has still not returned. I am worried and have
decided to go and look for him. Will you look after
my box of two hundred gold coins while I am
away?''
Makarand could not believe his luck. He was
about to launch into his idea about hiding the box
when an angry Mihir entered the shop, ''Where
is..." but before he could complete his sentence,
Makarand, afraid of being accused in front of the
old woman, said quickly, ''I forgot. I had seen
some pigs digging around there and had removed
the bag just to keep it safe. Here it is.'' And he
handed Mihir the bag he had stolen many months
ago.
Now the old woman pretended she was seeing
Mihir for the first time, ''Son, did you also go on a
pilgrimage? Could you tell me if you met my son
anywhere? His name is Jahangir.'' Mihir, clutching onto his precious bag, said, ''Yes auntie, I met
him on the road a few villages away. He was on his
way home. He should be here in a week.''
The old woman leaned over and took her box
away from Makarand. ''Thank you brother. You
have saved me an unnecessary trip. Now, I will
need some money to prepare for my son's welcome,'' she added and the two left the shop.
Makarand could only stare at them open-mouthed.
81. What incident in the passage convinced Mihir
that Makarand was indeed an honest man?
a) The incident where he scolded his helper
boy for returning less change to the old
woman who was a customer in his shop.
b) The fact that Makarand refused to keep
Mihir's money in the event that it might
destroy their friendship
c) The incident where Makarand told Mihir that
he had kept his bag with him as he saw pigs
digging at the very spot where the treasure
was buried.
1) Only (a)
2) Only (b)
3) Only (c)
4) Only (b) & (c)
5) Only (a) & (c)
82. What was Makarand's real intention for wanting to bury Mihir's bag of valuables?
1) He wanted Mihir to know where the money
would be in case something happened to
him while Mihir was away.
2) He did not feel safe keeping Mihir's bag of
valuables with him.
3) He wanted to steal the money while Mihir
was away.
4) He wanted the pigs to dig out the bag so he
could steal it.
5) He wanted to be a part of a far more adventurous plan.
83. Where did Makarand and Mihir bury the bag of
coins?
1) In a secret place in Mihir's garden
2) In the ground under Makarand's shopkeeper
3) In the old woman's backyard
4) In his shopkeeper
5) Not indicated in the passage
84. Which of the following is true with regard to
Mihir?
1) He accused Makarand of stealing his valuables.
2) He helped the old woman find her son.
3) He left his life's savings with the old woman.
4) He trusted Makarand with his valuables.
5) He strongly believed that keeping others'

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money spoilt relationships.


85. Why did Mihir want to keep his life's savings
with Makarand?
a) Makarand had a locker in his shop.
b) He trusted his friend Makarand more than
anyone else.
c) He was scared that if he buried his savings,
the pigs would dig it out
1) Only (a)
2) Only (b)
3) Only (c)
4) Either (b) or (c)
5) None of these
86. Which of the following statement is false
according to the passage?
1) The old woman's son went on the same
pilgrimage as Mihir.
2) The old woman helped Mihir recover his
savings from Makarand.
3) Makarand was a very shrewd shopkeeper.
4) Mihir had gone away on a pilgrimage.
5) Makarand had stolen Mihir's money.
87. Why was Mihir sad after returning from the pilgrimage?
a) He lost all his valuables while returning from
the pilgrimage.
b) The valuables that he had buried safely had
all disappeared.
c) He had spent far too much of his savings on
the pilgrimage.
1) Only (a)
2) Only (b)
3) Only (c)
4) Only (a) & (c)
5) None of these
88. In the end, why did Makarand return Mihir's
money?
a) He realised that he had done the wrong
thing by pretending to be unaware of Mihir's
misfortune.
b) The old woman offered to give him two hundred gold coins if he returned Mihir's money
back.
c) He did not want to be accused of having
stolen Mihir's money in front of the old
woman.
1) Only (a)
2) Only (b)
3) Only (c)
4) Only (a) & (c)
5) All Of these
Directions (Q. 89-92): Choose the word which is
most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word
printed in bold as used in the passage.
89. Clutching
1) Releasing
2) Fixing
3) Holding
4) Sticking
5) Obtaining
90. Keen
1) Eager
2) Hurried
3) Planning
4) Fortunate
5) Deserving
91. Choice
1) Understanding
2) Regard
3) Value
4) Pick
5) Option
92. Whole
1) Partial
2) Some 3) Entire
4) Total
5) Part
Directions (Q. 93-95): Choose the word which is
most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in
bold as used in the passage.
93. Complete
1) Partial 2) Start
3) Incomplete
4) End
5) Finish
94. Sadly
1) Quietly
2) Dejectedly
3) Happily
4) Disturbingly
5) Lonely
95. Forgot
1) Found
2) Memorised
3) Lost
4) Claimed
5) Remembered

(-N- -v-o-, ' - -@--x)


www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 10 -d- 2012

-- j---

Directions (Q. 1-15): What should come in


place of the question mark (?) in the following
questions?
1. 1136.38 + 47.69 +1363.37 = ?
A) 2639.37 B) 2618.59 C) 2647.29
D) 2547.44 E) None of these
2. 36% of 630 = 42% of ?
A) 460
B) 680
C) 540
D) 620
E) None of these
3. 5655 39 + 35 = ?
A) 180
B) 326
C) 164
D) 185
E) 165
3
4
2
4. 3 4 + 2 = ?
4
5
7
1
2
1
A) 20
B) 20
C) 18
14
7
14
2
E) None of these
D) 19
7
5. ? 34 27 = 3618
A) 4136
B) 4794
C) 4542
D) 4556
E) None of these
6. 3456 36 8 = ?

12. 54% of ? = 2084.4


A) 3460
B) 3250
C) 3860
D) 3720
E) None of these
2
3
13. 8 6 + ? = 62
3
4
1
1

B) 3
A) 3 12
2

2
C) 3
3

1
E) None of these
D) 3
3
5
3
14. of 322 + of 608 = ?3
14
8
A) 343
B) 312
C) 49
D) 7
E) None of these
15. (1649 % of 26) 104 = ?
A) 4.36
B) 4.12
C) 4.27
D) 4.83
E) None of these
16. A train running at speed of 72 km/hour
crosses a platform equal its length in 23
seconds. What is the length of the platform
in metres?
A) 460
B) 240
C) 230
D) Can't be determined

mark (?) in the following


number
series?
5 7.5 15 37.5
112.5 393.75 ?
A) 765
B) 1575
C) 1295 D) 1495
E) None of these
21. 36 percent of first
number is 42 percent of the second number. What is the respective ratio of the first
number to the second number?
A) 5 : 4
B) 7 : 6
C) 2 : 3
D) Can not be determined
E) None of these
22. The present age of a man is 4 times of his
son. He will be three times of his son after
4 years. What is the present age of the
man?
A) 36
B) 32 C) 48 D) 38
E) None
23. In how many different number of ways can
a committee of 3 persons be selected from
8 men and 4 women?

At What Time They Will Again Meet Together?


A) 12
D) 16

B) 768
E) 712

72 8 6
7. = ?
24 4
3
2
A)
B)
14
15
5
D)
24

C) 15552

5
C)
12

E) None of these

8. 15% of 340 + 120% of 65 = ?


A) 78
B) 129
C) 273
D) 51
E) None of these

9. 1764 7 + 43 = ?2
A) 2401
D) 14

B) 49
C) 7
E) None of these

3
7
10. of of of 1395 = ?
9
5
4
A) 617

B) 653

C) 634

D) 651
E) None of these

11. 225 + 441 = ?


A) 36
B) 6
C) 1296
D) 72
E) None of these
EXPLANATIONS
?
3618 34
5. 27 = 3618 ? = = 4556
34
27
1
1
6. 3456 = 12
36
8
72 8 6
72 8
7. = 1
24 4
6 24 4
5
16. Train + platform = 72 23 = 460 m
18
Platform = 230 m
17. 35 26 = 14 ?
35 26
? = = 65 days
14
1704 100
19. Rate of interest = = 6
5680 5
20. 1.5, 2, 2.5, 3, 3.5, 4
22. Let the present age of his son be 'x' years
Then present age of man is 4x years
3 (x + 4) = 4x + 4 x = 8
Son's present age is 8 years and man's
present age is 32 years.

For four periods, there are three free times


i.e., 3 5 = 15 minutes
Total time for 4 periods = 207 15
= 192 minutes
192
Each period = = 48 minutes
4
27. Let the number of cones that can be made
be 'x'
4
1
2
r3 = r h x
3
3
4 (6)3 =
1 (3)2 4 x x = 24

3
3
28. Total marks required to pass = 124 + 36
= 160
40% = 160
100
100% (Total aggregate marks) = 160
40
= 400
100
29. Cost Price = 1100.80 = 1280
86
7!
30. = 1260
2! 2!
31. loser gets 42% means winner gets 58%
Difference = 58 42 = 16%
16% = 480
100
100% (total votes) = 480 = 3000
16
32. LCM of 24, 30 and 45 is 1080 minutes
= 18 hours.

Key: 1-D; 2-C; 3-A; 4-B; 5-D; 6-A; 7-E;


8-B; 9-C; 10-D; 11-A; 12-C; 13-B; 14-D;
15-B; 16-C; 17-B; 18-C; 19-A; 20-B; 21-B;
22-B; 23-D; 24-C; 25-B; 26-D; 27-C; 28-E;
29-C; 30-A; 31-B; 32-E.
(Writer - Director, RACE Institute, Hyderabad)

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For SBI (Associate Banks) Clerks Material, Bit bank, Online exams click on...

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10th
CLASS

Quarterly Exams
Model Papers with
Answers ...

EM English (E/M)
& Physical Sciences
TM
Social Studies
and other papers uploaded...
To download Click on...

12 11 10
23. 12C3 = = 220
321
24. Officer's age = (7 32 6 31) = 38
25. Total time of the class
= 13.27 (12 + 1.27) 10
= 3.27 hours = 207 minutes

A) 110
B) 440 C) 1320
D) 220 E) None of these
24. The average age of six employees in an office is 31 years. If the
age of their officer is added, the
average increased by 1 year.
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
What is the age of officer?
A) 32 years
B) 41 years
G.S. Giridhar
E) None of these
C) 38 years
D) 42 years
17. If 35 men can complete a piece
E) None of these
of work in 26 days, in how many days can
25. A class starts at 10 a.m. and lasts till
14 men complete that work?
1.27 p.m. Four periods are held during this
A) 16 days B) 65 days
C) 38 days
interval. After every period, 5 minutes are
D) 48 days E) None of these
given free to the students. The exact dura18. One-seventh of a number is 384. What will
tion of each period (in minutes) is:
be 42% of that number?
A) 42
B) 48
C) 51
A) 1163.62
B) 1142.61
D) 53
E) None of these
C) 1128.96
D) 1132.24
26. What approximate value should come in
E) None of these
place of the question mark (?) in the following question?
19. The simple interest accrued on an amount
of Rs.5680 at the end of 5 years is
49.996 + 12.002 7.021 = ?
Rs.1704. What is the rate of interest?
A) 140
B) 136
C) 131
A) 6
B) 7
C) 5
D) 134
E) 137
D) 4
E) None of these
20. What should come in place of the question

27. A solid metallic spherical ball of radius 6 cm


is melted and recast into small metallic
cones of 3 cm radius and 4 cm height. Find
the number of cones that can be made.
A) 12
B) 21 C) 24 D) 18 E) None
28. In an examination it is required to get 40% of
the aggregate marks to pass. A student gets
124 marks and is declared failed by 36
marks. What are the maximum aggregate
marks a student can get?
A) 440
B) 600
C) 800
D) Can't be determined
E) None
29. A man sells an article for Rs. 1100.80 at a
loss of 14%. Find for how much did he buy
the article?
A) Rs.1320 B) Rs.1420
C) Rs.1280
D) Rs.1360 E) None of these
30. In how many different number of ways can
the letters of the word 'SWALLOW' be
arranged?
A) 1260
B) 5040
C) 2520
D) 1440
E) None of these
31. At an election contested by two, a candidate who gets 42% of the total votes is
defeated by a majority of 480 votes. Find
the total number of votes recorded.
A) 2000
B) 3000
C) 5000
D) 4000
E) None of these
32. Three persons A, B and C start running
around a circular track and they complete
full round in 24, 30 and 45 minutes respectively. If they start from the same point and
in the same direction, after what time they
will again meet together?
A) 3 hours B) 4 hours
C) 6 hours
D) 12 hours E) None of these

www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 10 -d- 2012


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www.eenadupratibha.net

- 11 -d- 2012

-- j---

1. Which of the following is known as Plastic


Money?
A) Demand Draft
B) Credit Card
C) Debit Card
1) Only A 2) Only B
3) Only C
4) Both B and C
5) All A, B and C
2. KYC guidelines followed by banks have
been framed on the recommendations of
the ...........
1) Ministry of Home Affairs
2) Ministry of Information Technology and
Human Resource Development
3) Indian Banks Association
4) Ministry of Finance
5) Reserve Bank of India
3. Business Correspondents in banking are for:
1) Providing services for the Platinum
Customers
2) Providing services for children
3) Serving the educational institutions
4) Serving the weaker sections of society
5) None of these

3) Cheque which does not need a signature in it.


4) Cheque signed digitally
5) None of these
14. What is the minimum amount for NEFT
transaction?
1) Rs.100000
2) Rs. 200000
3) Rs. 50000
4) There is No minimum limit
5) None of these
15. Expand SHG.
1) Self Help Grameen
2) Self Help Group
3) Self Help Grill
4) Solve Help Groups
5) None of these
16. Which of the following committees has
given its recommendations on 'Financial
Inclusion'
1) Vaghul Committee
2) Rangarajan Committee
3) Rakesh Mohan Committee
4) Kelkar Committee
5) None of these

of rural credit
institutions
5) Review
of
monetary and
credit
policy
23. Banks in India are
required to maintain a portion of
their demand and
time liabilities with the Reserve Bank of
India. This portion is called:
1) Statutory Liquidity Ratio
2) Cash Reserve Ratio
3) Bank Deposit
4) Reverse Repo
5) Government Securities
24. Which of the following organisations /
agencies has specifically been set up to
boost overall rural development in India?
1) RBI
2) SIDBI
3) NABARD
4) SEBI
5) EXIM

What is an Electronic Cheque?


4. What is the full form of FDI?
1) Foreign Development Investment
2) Fiscal Development Investment
3) Foreign Direct Investment
4) Fiscal Direct Investment
5) None of these
5. CMD of a public sector bank is appointed by:
1) Reserve Bank of India
2) Indian Banks Association
3) Central Government
4) Respective Bank's Board of Directors
5) None of these
6. What is the current Statutory Liquidity Ratio?
1) 23 % 2) 24 %
3) 20%
4) 4.5% 5) None of these
7. Expand CTS.
1) Cheque Truncation System
2) Cash Transaction System
3) Current Transaction System
4) Credit Truncation System
5) None of the above
8. Micro finance development equity fund is
managed by:
1) RBI
2) NABARD
3) Indian Banks Association
4) Asian Development Bank
5) None of these
9. What is the full form of LIBOR?
1) London Inter - Bank Offer Rate
2) Liquidity Inter - Bank Offer Rate
3) Liquidity International Bank Offer Rate
4) London International Bank Rate
5) None of these
10. Which of the following does not come
under core sector?
1) Crude Oil
2) Natural Gas
3) Coal
4) Electricity
5) Automobile
11. When banks borrow fund for overnight, it is
called:
1) Borrowing Money 2) Lending Money
3) Push Money
4) Call Money
5) None of these
12. What is ASBA with respect to banking?
1) Application Supported by Blocked
Amount
2) Application Supported by Black Amount
3) Application Sign by Blocked Amount
4) Application Supported by Blocked Array
5) None of these
13. Electronic Cheque means :
1) Cheque which automatically comes from
a machine.
2) Cheque issued online

25. Banks in India are regulated


under:
1) Companies Act, 1956
2) Banking Regulation Act, 1949
3) Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
Banking Terminology
4) Special powers conferred on the
17. Rise in Stock Market is usually
RBI
K.V. Gnana Kumar
referred to as:
5) None of these
1) Bear
2) Bull
3) Tiger
26. A savings bank account opened with a
4) Cat
5) None of these
commercial bank with zero or very minimal
balance is known as:
18. The term 'insider trading' is associated with:
1) Savings Bank Ordinary Account
1) Stock Markets
2) Defence Services
2) Student Savings Bank Account
3) Parliamentary Procedures
3) No Frill Account
4) Book Publishing Business
5) Sports
4) Current Account
5) Call Deposit
19. Which of the following is implemented in
India in all the districts of the country for
27. Banks in their daily business face various
providing employment?
kinds of risks. Which of the following is one
such major risk?
1) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
1) Customer Risk
2) Reputation
2) Bharath Nirman
3) Goodwill Risk
4) Protection Risk
3) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural
Employment Guarantee Act
5) Operational Risk
4) Swarn Jayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana
28. Which of the following schemes was
launched by the RBI in 2004, under which
5) None of these
Govt of India stated that Securities/
20. Which of the following is the purpose of
Treasury Bills could be issued to absorb
introducing 'Know Your Customer' and AML
surplus/ durable liquidity?
norms by the banks?
1) RTGS
1) To bring more and more people under
2) External Commercial Borrowing
the banking net
3) Market Stabilisation Scheme
2) Identifying people who do not pay
income tax
4) High Value Clearing Scheme
3) To Identify the customer and identifying
5) Prepaid payment instrument facility
the source of funds deposited in banks
29. 'Base Rate' in banks is:
4) To ensure whether the money deposited
1) The rate of interest payable on demand
in the bank is of an Indian or a foreign
deposits
national
5) None of these
21. Which of the
following
organisations has been established mainly to promote micro, small and medium industrial
sector in India?
1) NABARD
2) SIDBI
3) IDBI Bank
4) EXIM Bank
5) All of these
22. Which of the following is not one of the
major functions of the National Bank for
Agricultural and Rural Development
(NABARD)?
1) Acting as regulator for cooperative
banks and RRBs
2) Extending assistance to the government and others in matters related to
rural development
ECIL - Zonal Office, Panagal Building,
3) Providing refinance to lending
institutions in rural areas.
ground Floor, IA, Jeenis Road,
4) Acting as a coordinator in the operations
Saidapet, Chennai-15.

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For SBI (Associate Banks) Clerks Material, Bit bank, Online exams click on...

2) The rate of interest payable on fixed


deposits
3) The rate of interest charged by the RBI
on long - term borrowing of public sector
banks
4) The minimum lending rate decided by
the RBI which shall be adopted by all
public sector banks
5) The minimum interest rate fixed by individual banks below which they cannot
lend funds, except cases like government-sponsored schemes.
30. Banking sector falls under .........
1) Agricultural Sector
2) Service Sector
3) Manufacturing Sector
4) Industrial Sector
5) Small Scale Sector
31. Which of the following is NOT a credit rating
agency?
1) Credit Analysis & Research Ltd (CARE)
2) Lintas India Pvt Ltd
3) Moody's Investors Service
4) Standard and Poor
5) Fitch Ratings
32. Which of the following is a payment and
settlement system used by the banks in
India?
1) Liquidity Adjustment Facility
2) Real Time Gross Settlement
3) Forward Rate Agreements
4) Central Depository Service
5) Negotiated Dealing System
KEY: 1-4; 2-5; 3-4; 4-3; 5-3; 6-1; 7-1; 8-2;
9-1; 10-5; 11-4; 12-1; 13-4; 14-4; 15-2; 16-2;
17-2; 18-1; 19-3; 20-3; 21-2; 22-5; 23-2;
24-3; 25-2; 26-3; 27-5; 28-3; 29-5; 30-2;
31-2; 32-2.

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C: Division of Microbiology,
Indian Agricultural Research Institute,
Pusa Campus, New Delhi- 110012

-j: www.iari.res.in
www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 2 -dd 2012

-- j---

SBI (ASSO. BANKS)-2012 CLERKS MODEL GRAND TEST


Max Marks: 200

Total Questions: 200

(-E-o- --)
Directions (Q. 96-100): Read each sentence to
find out whether there is any grammatical error in
it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence, the number of that part is the answer. If
there is no error the answer is 5), i.e., ''No Error''.
(Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
96. The more enlightened (1)/ factory owners (2)/
build homes for their (3)/ workers in Britain in
the 19th century (4)/ No error (5).
97. Most criminals (1)/ realises that they may be
caught, (2)/ but, nevertheless, (3)/ they are
prepared to take the risk.(4)/ No error (5).
98. Strictly speaking, (1)/ spiders are not insects,
(2)/ although most people (3)/ think them
are (4)./ No error. (5)
99. The actress is also (1)/ widely respected in (2)/
the music world (3)/ and deserving so. (4)/ No
error (5).
100. The story was (1)/ inspired by (2)/ a chance
meeting (3)/ with an old Russian duke.(4)/ No
error (5).
Directions (Q. 101-105): Which of the phrases 1),
2), 3), 4) given below each sentence should
replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence
to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is
correct as it is given and no correction is required,
mark 5) as the answer.
101. He is held regard as the Chief's right-hand
man.
1) regarded to
2) to regard as
3) regarded as
4) being regarded for
5) No correction
102. The inquiry has to bring to light some startling facts.
1) bring light to
2) brought to the lights
3) brings to light
4) brought to light
5) No correction
103. My friend went his way out to oblige me.
1) out on his way
2) out of his way
3) so out of the way 4) little way out
5) No correction
104. They are determined to stand up for their
rights.
1) be standing up
2) for standing up
3) stand up to
4) stand on
5) No correction
105. Recently, my expenses have gone run up
considerably.
1) run up
2) to rise up
3) had to run up
4) got upwards
5) No correction
Directions (Q. 106-110): Each question below has
two blanks. Each blank indicates that something
has been omitted.
Choose the set of words which best fits the
meaning of the sentence as a whole.
106. Rachana saw me ____ for a bus; she
stopped and ____ me a lift.
1) standing, took
2) stopped, gave
3) walking, sat
4) testing, signalled
5) waiting, offered
107. During winter, we can ___ ourselves from the
cold by wearing ____ clothes.
1) protect, warm
2) establish, light
3) save, good
4) stop, thick
5) escape, cotton
108. The school refused to ____ acts of ____
behaviour.
1) overcome, spoilt
2) tolerate, violent
3) overlook, sudden
4) appreciate, bravery
5) comment, deserving
109. The actor was not ____ by public criticism
and paid no____ even to the poor reviews in
the media.
1) affected, attention 2) troubled, mind
3) effected, regard
4) bothered, justification
5) shocked, notices

110. The ____ words of the teacher comforted the


____ student
1) harsh, sorrowful
2) encouraging, anxious
3) reality, nervous
4) wise, happy
5) distractered, confused
Directions (Q. 111-115): In each question below,
four words printed in bold are given. These are
numbered 1), 2), 3), and 4). One of these words
printed in bold may either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out
the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if
any. The number of that word is your answer. If all
the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and
appropriate in the context of the sentence then
mark 5) as your answer.
111. A overly (1)/ obsessed (2)/ mother from
Banaras wrote (3)/ into tell me of her
trajedy (4)./ All correct (5).
112. The cat is sitting in front of (1)/ the
television (2)/ with its tail, stretched (3)/ out
strait (4)./ All correct (5).
113. It would (1)/ be wrong to infer (2)/ that people who are overweight (3)/ are always
sickly (4)/. All correct (5).
114. The witness (1)/ stated (2)/ that he had not
sean (3)/ the woman before (4)/.
All correct (5).
115. Her giggles (1)/ were infecsious (2)/ and
soon (3)/ we were all laughing (4)/. All
correct (5).
Directions (Q. 116-120): Rearrange the following
five sentences in the proper sequence to form a
meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions
given below.
(A) The owner of the house was furious.
(B) After it had gone, a donkey who craved
popularity climbed the roof and tried to perform the same tricks.
(C) His servants went up, drove the donkey
down, and beat him black and blue.
(D) A monkey climbed the roof of a house and
entertained the people who had gathered
below to watch him at his antics.
(E) In the process, the donkey dislodged and
broke several tiles.
116. Which of the following should be the FIRST
sentence after rearrangement?
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D 5) E
117. Which of the following should be the FIFTH
(LAST) sentence?
1) E
2) D
3) C
4) B 5) A
118. Which of the following should be FOURTH
sentence after rearrangement?
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D 5) E
119. Which of the following should be the
SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D 5) E
120. Which of the following should be the THIRD
sentence after rearrangement?
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D 5) E

COMPUTER & MARKETING APTITUDE


121. Which of the following is another name for a
chip?
1) Silicon Chip
2) Integrated Circuit
3) Semi conductor
4) All of these
5) None of these
122. Decreasing the amount of space required to
store data and programs is accomplished by1) Pressing
2) Disk caching
3) RAID
4) Crashing
5) File Compression
123. Data on floppy disk is recorded in rings called
1) Sectors 2) Ringers
3) Rounders
4) Tracks 5) Segments
124. Documents on web are called ___.
1) Web Pages
2) Web Sites
3) Web Communities 4) Web Tags
5) Home Pages

Time: 135 Minutes


125. Which type of
memory
holds
only that program
and data that
CPU is presently
processing?
1) CMOS 2) ROM
3) RAM
4) ASCII
5) CD
126. The ____ is an information system that must
be reliable and capable of handling the
expected workload.
1) Hardware
2) Software
3) Data Input
4) People
5) Mobiles
127. Which of the following is part of the system
unit?
1) Keyboard
2) Floppy disks
3) Monitor
4) Memory
5) CD
128. Specialised programs that allow particular
input or output devices to communicate with
the rest of the computer system are
called____
1) Operating systems
2) Utilities
3) Device Drivers
4) Language Translators
5) Connectors
129. The primary purpose of a software is to turn
data into ____
1) Web sites
2) Graphs
3) Programs
4) Objects
5) Information
130. Storage that retains its data after the power is
turned off is referred to as ____.
1) Volatile Storage
2) Sequential Storage
3) Direct Storage
4) Non-Volatile Storage
5) Mobile Storage
131. An essential ingredient for effective multimedia presentations incorporates user participation or ___.
1) Links
2) Buttons
3) Interactivity
4) Integration 5) Speed
132. A device that copies or reproduces text and
images is also called a(n) ____.
1) Optical scanner
2) Barcode reader
3) Character device
4) Digital camera
5) Printer
133. A CD-RW disk____.
1) has a faster access than an internal disk
2) can be erased and rewritten
3) is a form of optical disk, so it can only be
written once
4) holds less data than a floppy disk
5) is not easily available in the market.
134. Which of the following is a secondary storage
device?
1) Optical Disks
2) RAM
3) Micro Processor
4) All of these
5) None of these
135. A website containing stories and articles
relating to current events, life , money, sports,
and the weather is considered a(n) ____
website.
1) Business/ Marketing
2) Portal
3) Informational
4) News
5) Retailing
136. You can have a live conversation with another connected user via ____.
1) e-mail
2) Instant Massaging
3) e-commerce
4) Distance learning
5) Word Package
137. The rectangular area of the screen that displays a program, data and/or information
is ____.
1) Title Bar
2) Button
3) Dialog Box
4) Window
5) Interaction Box
138. Video-conferencing requires a microphone,
speakers, and a ........... attached to your
computer.
1) Mouse
2) Keyboard

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3) Video Camera
4) Scanner
5) Mobile Phone
139. The process of a computer receiving
information from a server on the internet is
known as ........
1) Acquisition
2) Pulling
3) Transferring
4) Pushing
5) Downloading
140. Any hardware component that allows you to
enter data or instructions into a computer is
called a(n) ___.
1) Printer
2) Storage device
3) Output device
4) System unit
5) Input device
141. The life cycle of a product consist of :
1) Lifespan of products is limited
2) Quantum of Sales passes through distinct
stages
3) Different challenges, opportunities, threats
will be experienced during this cycle
4) Rise and fall of profits takes place at different stages
5) All the above
142. The stages of product development includes:
1) Idea screening
2) Concept testing
3) Product development
4) Testing the market and Commercial launch
5) All the above
143. SIP stands for
1) System Driven Investment Plan
2) Systematic Individual Plan
3) Systematic Investment Policy
4) Systematic Investment Plan
5) None of the above
144. DSA in sales represent:
1) Detective Service Agency
2) District wise Sales Agent
3) Divisional Sales Agent
4) Direct Sales Agent
5) All the above
145. Planning for post retirement savings is called:
1) Economic Planning
2) Mutual fund planning
3) SIP
4) Financial Planning
5) None
146. One of the following is not a pre-sales
activity:
1) Generating a lead
2) Feed back from customer
3) Product design
4) Promotion
5) All
147. Which one of the following is a need/want
mentioned in Moslows's Theory of
Motivation?
1) physiological needs
2) safety needs
3) social needs
4) esteem needs and self actualisation needs
5) All
148. Which of the following is consumer product?
1) ATM machine
2) Milk and Tea
3) Railway Station
4) Transport Service
5) None
149. Which of the following is a durable product?
1) Refrigerator
2) Bread 3) Tomato
4) Butter
5) All
150. In Introduction stage the product will have:
1) Low Profit
2) Low demand
3) Low growth rate
4) Only 1 & 2
5) All 1, 2 and 3
151. Test Marketing means:
1) Testing the product before commercial
production
2) Assessing the product value
3) Developing a concept
4) Giving products at free of cost
5) None

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--- 2 -dd 2012

-- j---

SBI (ASSO. BANKS)-2012 CLERKS MODEL GRAND TEST


152. What aspects are to be considered before a
Final Launch of product in the Market?
1) Timing of launch
2) Geographical reach
3) Prospect consumer groups
4) Market strategy
5) All of the above
153. BEP Stands for:
1) Breaking Equity Point
2) Breaking Every Point of Sales
3) Beak Even Point
4) 1 & 2
5) None
154. Good packaging should be:
1) Attractive
2) Memorable
3) Interesting
4) Convenient 5) All
155. This is what a sales person need to build with
the customer:
1) Good Company
2) Trust
3) Power
4) Dignity
5) None
156. A probable customer is called:
1) Suspect
2) Prospect
3) Retrospect
4) HNI
5) All of the above
157. Features of financial products are:
1) Intangible
2) Perishable
3) Heterogeneity
4) Only 1 & 2
5) All 1, 2, 3
158. Which of the following aspects are considered before investment by a knowledgeable
investor?
1) References
2) Read and compare
3) Contact Expertise 4) Dynamic needs
5) None
159. Which of the following features of financial
products distinguishes from the non-financial
products?
1) Separable
2) Tangible
3) Homogeneity
4) Perishable
5) None
160. What is professional ethics?
1) Marketing persons should read ethics
2) To keep ethics first and customer next
3) Interest and benefit of customer should be at
forefront
4) Only 1 & 2
5) None

GENERAL AW
AWARENESS
161. In which of the following countries Non
Alignment Movement was held in August
2012?
1) Iran
2) Iraq
3) Syria
4) Russia
5) France
162. Who among the following is the Current Vice
President of India?
1) Pranab Mukherjee
2) P.A. Sangma
3) Mohammad Hamid Ansari
4) L.K.Advani
5) None of the above
163. Sushil Kumar Shinde, who is the current
Minister for Home Affairs was earlier the cabinet minister of ........?
1) Defence
2) Information and Broadcasting
3) Irrigation
4) Food and Agriculture
5) Power
164. Who among the following is the Afghanistan
Counter-Part of S.M. Krishna who visited
India recently?
1) Hamid Karzai
2) Zalmai Rassaul
3) Raza Parvez Ashraf
4) Sheikh Hasina
5) Ansari-Al-Asad-Al-Hassan
165. Who among the following was crowned Miss
Asia Pacific in Busan, South Korea?
1) Vanya Mishra
2) Yu-Wenxia
3) Divya Mishra
4) Himangini Singh Yadu
5) Sravani Gogoi

166. Mehdi Hassan who Expired Recently is a


famous ......
1) Actor
2) Politician
3) Ghazal Singer
4) Boxer
5) Tennis Player
167. What is the current Cash Reserve Ratio?
1) 8%
2) 4.75% 3) 9%
4) 4.50%
5) 7%
168. Maria Sharapova of Russia defeated who
among the following to clinch French Open
Women's Singles Title?
1) Serena Williams, USA
2) Venus Williams, USA
3) Agnieszka Radwanska, Poland
4) Victoria Azarenka, Belarus
5) Sara Errani, Italy
169. Who is the first South African Cricket player to
score a triple century?
1) Hashim Amla
2) Jaques Kallis
3) Mark Boucher
4) Herschelle Gibbs
5) Graeme Smith
170. Swavalamban, a scheme launched by India
is related to:
1) Pension to employees in the unorganised
sector
2) Financial Inclusion
3) Child Health
4) Primary Education to all
5) None of these
171. Common Wealth games in 2018 will be held
in which of the following places?
1) Rio de janerio (Brazil)
2) Queensland (Australia)
3) Maryland (US)
4) Cannes (France)
5) Bali (Indonesia)
172. What is the Currency of Afghanistan?
1) Afghanistan Rupee 2) Afghani
3) Rial
4) Afghanistan Dinar
5) Taka
173. Which of the following the Capital of Bahrain?
1) Manama
2) Panama
3) Bahuddir City
4) Tehran
5) Abu Dhabi
174. Who appoints the Chief Justice of India?
1) President
2) Prime Minister
3) Governor of the Capital City of the
country
4) Ex-Chief Justice 5) None of the above
175. Which of the following is/are not a part of
United Nations Organisation (UNO)?
1) International Civil Aviation Organisation
2) Universal Postal Union
3) World Intellectual Property Organisation
4) Both 2 & 3
5) All 1, 2, 3 are part of UNO
176. Who among the following has not won a
medal in Olympics from India?
1) Saina Nehwal
2) Vijendar Singh
3) Gagan Narang
4) Vijay Kumar
5) Mary Kom
177. Who is the chairman of IRDA?
1) J. Harinarayan
2) U.K. Sinha
3) Subir Gokaran
4) Rahul Khullar
5) Malegaon
178. Who has taken over the chairman of Indian
Space Research Organisation recently?
1) G.Madhavan Nair
2) Dr. K. Radhakrishnan
3) Debabrata Sarkar
4) D.K.Mehrotra
5) Prashanth Singh
179. RTGS Stands for
1) Real Time Gross Settlement
2) Right Time Gross Settlement
3) Real Time Gross Transfer
4) Real Time Green Settlement
5) None of these

180. Who among the


following is the
winner of National
Snooker Title?
1) Ashuthosh
Khanna
2) Pankaj Advani
3) Dipika Pallikal
4) Bobby Ganapati
5) Aditya Mehta
181. The Present National Security Adviser to
Government of India is:
1) Ranjan Mathai
2) Shiva Shankar Menon
3) Nirupama Rao
4) Bimal Jalan
5) None of these
182. Mahanandi Coal fields is located in:
1) Madhya Pradesh 2) Odisha
3) Maharashtra
4) Andhra Pradesh
5) None of these
183. Which of the following is not a core sector
industry?
1) Crude Oil
2) Petroleum refined products
3) Fertilizer
4) Natural Gas
5) All are core sector industries
184. Who is the chief economic adviser to the
Government of India?
1) Ranjan Mathai
2) Nirupama Rao
3) Dr. C. Rangarajan
4) Raghuram Rajan
5) Shiva Shankar Menon
185. Which of the following is the Rating Index
launched by India recently?
1) CIBIL
2) Fitch Rating
3) CRIS
4) IIP
5) None of these
186. Which of the following states has been
regarded as the best performer in implementation of MGNREGA?
1) Tamil Nadu
2) Maharashtra
3) New Delhi
4) Andhra Pradesh
5) None of these
187. Find the odd one out.
1) Malawi - Joyce Banda
2) Ghana - John Dramani Mahama
3) Mauritius - Rajkeshwur Purryag
4) Mexico - Felipe Calderon
5) Singapore - Lee Hsien Loong
188. World Gold Council has its Head Quarters in:
1) France
2) South Africa
3) Tanzania
4) London
5) None of these
189. What is the capital city of Canada?
1) Ottawa
2) Toronto
3) Edmonton
4) Quebec City
5) None of these
190. Which of the following places in India is
famous for its woollen products
1) Satara
2) Bhadohi
3) Nagpur
4) Ambala
5) Bhagalpur
191. Which of the following cups/trophies is NOT
associated with the game of Lawn Tennis?
1) Davis Cup
2) Merdeka Cup
3) Wimbledon
4) ATP Open
5) Dubai Open
192. Prithvi Nath Dhar who expired recently is an
eminent ____
1) Economist
2) Peace Activist
3) Actor
4) Director
5) Musician
193. Which of the following is NOT decided by
Reserve Bank of India?
1) Rate of Repo and Reverse Repo
2) Marginal Standing Facility Rates
3) Bank Rate
4) Rate of Dearness Allowance to Govt
Employees
5) Statutory Liquidity Ratio

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194. India signed Social Security Agreement with


which of the following countries in June
2012?
1) France
2) Russia
3) Finland
4) USA
5) China
195. ''India's First River-lake link Project launched
in Bundelkhand '' was the news recently.
Larger portion of Bundelkhand (This region is
divided between two states) is in which of the
following states?
1) Madhya Pradesh 2) Uttar Pradesh
3) Maharashtra
4) Chattisgarh
5) None of these
196. 12th SCO Summit was held recently in
Beijing, China. Who was the representative
from India?
1) Ranjan Mathai
2) Dr. Manmohan Singh
3) Prathibha Patil
4) Pranab Mukherjee
5) S.M. Krishna
197. Who among the following is the Indian
Ambassador to China, who was on a visit to
Tibet recently?
1) S. Jaishankar
2) Nirupama Rao
3) Nancy Powell
4) Rajashekhar Chintapally
5) None of these
198. Which of the following countries is hosting 9th
World Hindi Conference, which aims at making Hindi one of the Official UN languages?
1) India
2) Pakistan
3) South Africa
4) Australia
5) Japan
199. Which of the following countries has secured
highest number of medals (104) in Olympics
2012?
1) China
2) USA
3) Korea
4) Japan
5) India
200. International Youth Day is observed on:
2) 12th August
1) 12th January
3) 24th June
4) 24th August
5) None of these

(- --- -v-o-v-Eo j-----E DBS


-P~- n -E-- -%- ---C--*-C.)
KEY:

15; 21; 34; 41; 52; 64; 73; 82;


93; 103; 111; 123; 132; 141; 154; 165;
174; 181; 195; 202; 211; 222; 231; 241;
253; 265; 275; 284; 295; 302; 311; 325;
333; 343; 355; 363; 373; 382; 395; 404;
412; 423; 435; 443; 454; 463; 474; 482;
491; 502; 514; 522; 532; 541; 553; 565;
572; 582; 594; 603; 612; 625; 631; 641;
652; 664; 673; 682; 691; 701; 714; 725;
731; 742; 755; 765; 771; 782; 793; 805;
811; 823; 835; 844; 852; 861; 872; 883;
893; 901; 915; 923; 932; 943; 955; 963;
972; 984; 994; 1005; 1013; 1024; 1032;
1045; 1051; 1065; 1071; 1082; 1091;
1102; 1114; 1124; 1135; 1143; 1152;
1164; 1173; 1181; 1192; 1205; 1212;
1225; 1234; 1241; 1253; 1262; 1274;
1281; 1295; 1304; 1313; 1321; 1332;
1341; 1353; 1362; 1374; 1383; 1395;
1405; 1415; 1425; 1434; 1444; 1454;
1462; 1475; 1482; 1491; 1505; 1511;
1525; 1533; 1545; 1552; 1562; 1575;
1582; 1594; 1603; 1611; 1623; 1635;
1642; 1654; 1663; 1674; 1685; 1691;
1701; 1712; 1722; 1731; 1741; 1755;
1762; 1771; 1782; 1791; 1805; 1812;
1822; 1835; 1844; 1853; 1861; 1875;
1884; 1891; 1902; 1912; 1921; 1934;
1943; 1951; 1965; 1971; 1983; 1992;
2002.

www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 3 -d- 2012


1. From 1 October 2012, the chairman of Indian
Banks' Association (IBA) is....
1) K.R. Kamath, Chairman
and Managing Director,
Punjab National Bank
2) T.M. Bhasin, Chairman
and Managing Director ,
Indian Bank
3) Bhaskar Sen, Chairman and Managing
Director , United Bank of India
4) Pratip Chaudhuri, Chairman, State Bank
of India
5) None of above
2. Which bank has launched "Sanjeevan", a
savings bank scheme catering to the needs
of pensioners?
1) ICICI
2) Bank of Baroda
3) State Bank of Patiala
4) State Bank of India
5) Syndicate Bank
3. Scheduled Bank means it is a bank....

-- j---
1) State Bank of Indore merged with State
Bank of India in 2010
2) State Bank of Saurashtra merged with
State Bank of India in 2008
3) New Bank of India merged with Bank of
India in 1993
4) Bank of Maduhra Limited merged with
ICICI in 2001
5) Global Trust Bank Limited merged with
Oriental Bank of Commerce in 2004
12. 'With You - All The Way', "The Banker To
Every Indian', "Pure Banking, Nothing Else"
are the slogans of .....
1) ICICI
2) HDFC
3) SBI
4) YES bank
5) Indian Bank
13. India's First Dedicated Education Loan
Company CREDILA is the associate body
of ......
1) SBI
2) Andhra Bank
3) United Bank of India
4) HDFC
5) SBH

Development
(EBRD)?
1) Onno Ruhl
2) K.C.Chakrabarty
3) Suma
Chakrabarti
4) Mrs. V.R.Iyer
5) Shrinath Bolloju
22. On 2nd September
2012, Small Industries Development Bank
of India (SIDBI) signed a 53 million loan
agreement
with
Kreditanstalt
fur
Wiederaufbau (KfW) of....
1) France
2) Italy
3) Japan
4) South Korea
5) Germany
23. EXIM bank details are given. Which one is
the wrong option.
1) Export-Import Bank of India established
in 1982
2) It is established to integrate the country's
foreign trade and investment with the

'Surface' is the tablet released by?


1) in which 51% of share hold by the
Government of India
2) recognized by the state government also
3) not permitted to open the branch in any
foreign country
4) included in the second schedule of RBI
Act, 1934
5) included in the first schedule of RBI Act,
1934
4. RBI was started with a share capital of
Rs ......... crores on 1 April 1935.
1) 15
2) 10
3) 5 4) 20 5) 500
5. Banking industry will need to hire 9-11 lakh
employees over the next five years, according to a report by 1) CRISIL
2) Boston Consulting Group
3) Karvy Consultancy
4) NABARD
5) IBPS
6. Agricultural Census taken for every ... years.
1) 5
2) 10
3) 20 4) 2
5) 11
7. To increase the flow of Foreign Direct
Investment into the country, FIPB established. FIPB means' 1) Foreign Investment Proposal Board
2) Foreign Investment Preliminary Board
3) Foreign Investment Primary Board
4) Foreign Investment Prize Board
5) Foreign Investment Promotion Board
8. List of National Parks given. Pick the incorrect combination.
1) Bandipur National Park - Karnataka
2) Kanha National Park - Andhra Pradesh
3) Corbett National Park - Uttarakhand
4) Dudhwa National Park - Uttar Pradesh
5) Manas National Park - Assam
9. The Award List given. Pick the correct one.
1) US Congressional Gold Medal conferred
on Aung San Suu Kyi
2) Saraswati
Samman
received
by
AA Manavalan, a Tamil Writer
3) Gruber Cosmology Prize 2012 received
by Charles L Bennett, an American
observational astrophysicist.
4) Gopi Chand Narang, the Urdu Poet conferred with Sitara-i-Imtiaz, the third highest civilian honour of Pakistan
5) All of above
10. Trophies and Cups list given. Pick up
correct one.
1) Wimbledon - Tennis
2) Durand Cup - Football
3) Thomas Cup - Badminton
4) Moinuddaula Gold Cup - Cricket
5) All of above
11. Which merger is wrong?

overall economic growth


3) T.C.A. Ranganathan is the
Present Chairman
4) Head office is at Mumbai
5) None
24. An Indian bank raised $ 500
GENERAL AWARENESS
million through Medium Term
Notes (MTN) through its branch
A.Veeraswamy
14. CER was established to prevent
in Hong Kong on 14th August
frauds in loan cases involving
2012. It is....
multiple lending from different banks on the
1) Indian Overseas Bank
same immovable property. CER means....
2) State Bank of India
1) Central Electronic Recognition
3) Union Bank of India
2) Central Ethics Registry
4) South Indian Bank Limited
3) Central Electronic Registry
5) Canara Bank
4) Central Election Registry
25. Which scheme introduced to encourage
5) Central Entry Registry
and enable overseas Indian Workers to
15. International Day for the Preservation of the
save for their return and resettlement?
Ozone Layer is celebrated on...
1) Mahatma Gandhi Pravasi Samraksha
1) 7 September
2) 4 September
Yojana
3) 20 September
4) 16 September
2) Pradhanmanthri Swasthy Abhiyan
5) None
3) Mahatma Gandhi Pravasi Suraksha
16. MCA21 is the e-governance initiative of theYojana
1) Ministry of Commerce and Trade
4) Nirmal Pravasi Bharath Abhiyan
2) Ministry of Home Affairs
5) NRI Pack
3) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
26. Which committee set up by the finance min4) Ministry of External Affairs
istry to improve the credit flow for the cor5) President of India Office
porate sector?
17. 6th International Hybrid Rice Symposium
1) Sachar
2) Kailash Manohar
held from 10-12 September 2012 at....
3) Diwakar Gupta
4) Veerappa Moily
1) Hyderabad
2) Mysore
5) Ratna Tata
3) Cuttack
4) Manila 5) Hanoi
27. On 14th September 2012, the Union
18. Head of National Commissions list given.
Government approved sale of its minority
Select the wrong option.
stakes in four public sector firms to raise up
1) Mamatha
Sharma
National
to Rs. 15,000 crore. Which one is not
Commission for women
among them?
2) Dr.Shantha
Sinha
National
1) Hindustan Copper
2) Oil India
Commission for Children
3) MMTC
4) NALCO
5) BHEL
3) M.N.Rao - National Commission for
28. Typhoon Haikui recently attacked....
Physically Handicapped
1) Philippines
2) India 3) Thailand
4) Rameshwar
Oraon
National
4) Japan
5) China
Commission for Scheduled Tribes
29. Where
the
exclusive
Information
5) Sh. Wajahat Habibullah - National
Technology Investment Region (ITIR) will
Commission for Minorities
be set up?
19. Lakshya-1 is the .......
1) Goa
2) Maharashtra
1) Air to Air Missile
3) Andhra Pradesh 4) Bihar
2) Micro-light pilot-less target aircraft
5) Karnataka
3) War Tank
30. Which committee submitted the recommen4) Multiple launching Missile
dations on Customer service in Banks?
5) Navy war ship
1) Shyamala Gopinath
20. 'Surface' is the tablet released by.....
2) C.Ranga Rajan
1) Google
2) Samsung
3) M. Damodaran
3) Apple
4) Microsoft
4) K. C. Chakrabarty
5) Nokia
5) Vyas
21. Which Indian appointed as the President of
31. The most Liquid form among the following
the European Bank for Reconstruction and
one is....

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1) Demand Draft
2) Land & Building
3) Cash in Fixed Deposit
4) Cash in Savings Account
5) Cash
32. In the Newspapers we read the soft loans
granted by World Bank to India. Few state
governments and Central government give
the soft loans to beneficiaries also. What is
meant by soft loan?
1) Short period and more rate of Interest
2) Long Period and more rate of interest
3) Long period, more rate of Interest with
grace periods
4) Long period, less rate of Interest with
grace periods
5) Long period, more rate of Interest with
no grace periods
33. 'Smart Women' is the first Unit-linked plan
platform of ....
1) SBI Life Insurance
2) LIC
3) SEBI
4) HDFC Standard Life 5) Bajaj-Allianz
34. Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant is in the
state of......
1) Tamilnadu
2) Karnataka
3) Uttar Pradesh
4) Assam
5) Delhi
KEY: 1-1; 2-3; 3-4; 4-3; 5-2; 6-1; 7-5; 8-2;
9-5; 10-5; 11-3; 12-3; 13-4; 14-3; 15-4;
16-3; 17-1; 18-3; 19-2; 20-4; 21-3; 22-5;
23-5; 24-1; 25-3; 26-3; 27-5; 28-5; 29-3;
30-3; 31-5; 32-4; 33-4; 34-1.

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--- 3 -d- 2012

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1Oth
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Quarterly Exams
Model Papers with
Answers (EM & TM) ...
Click on

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200

www.eenadupratibha.net

- 4 -d- 2012
1. In a certain code 'BACK' 'is written as' 5914'
and 'KITE' is written as '4876'. How is
'BEAT' written in that code?
1) 5697
2) 5967
3) 4697
4) 5687
5) None of these
2. If 'M' denotes '' ; 'R' denotes '' ; 'K'
denotes '+' and 'B' denotes '', then
24B4M8K6R4 = ?
1) 3
2) 3
3) 52
4) 50
5) None of these
3. How many meaningful English words can be
made with the letters ALEP using each letter
only once in each word?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
way and so form a group. Which is the one
that does not belong to that group?
1) 39
2) 48
3) 56
4) 31
5) 72
5. In a certain code language , 'go and come' is

-- j---
within the number?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
9. How many such pairs of letters are there in
the word MODERATE each of which has as
many letters between them in the word as in
the English alphabet?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
10. In a certain code ABSENT is written as
TCBSMD. How is CABLES written in that
code?
1) CBDTFM
2) CBDRDK 3) DBCRDK
4) CBDKDR
5) None of these
Directions (Q.11 - 13):
(i) 'P Q' means 'P is brother of Q.'
(ii) 'P Q' means 'P is sister of Q.'
(iii) 'P + Q' means 'P is mother of Q.'
(iv) 'P Q' means 'P is father of Q.'
11. Which of the following means 'M is nephew
of R'?

May whereas his


sister
correctly
remembers that
their father's birthday is after 24th
May but before
30th May. On
which day in May
was definitely their
father's birthday?
1) 25th
2) 24th
3) 26th
4) 25th or 26th 5) None of these
15. What should come next in the following
series of numbers?
223234234523456234567234567
1) 2
2) 3
3) 4
4) 7
5) None of these
Directions (Q.16-20): Study the following
information carefully and answer the questions
given below:
M, P, J, B, R, T and F are sitting around a

The Colour of Sunflower is?


written as 'na ta ka' and ' black and white' is
written as 'pa ma ta'. How is 'go' written in
that code language?
1) na
2) ka
3) pa
4) na or ka
5) None of these
6. If 'red' means 'white', 'white' means 'black',
'black' means 'yellow', 'yellow' means 'green',
'green' means 'blue' and 'blue' means
'indigo' ; then which of the following will
represent the colour of sunflower?
1) green
2) indigo
3) white
4) blue
5) black
7. If each of the odd digits in the number
6234518 is changed to the next even digit
and the even digits are kept unchanged,
how many digits will appear only once in the
new number?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
8. How many such digits are in the number
8243691 each of which is as far away from
the beginning of the number as when the
digits are rearranged in ascending order
EXPLANATIONS

circle facing at the centre. B is third to


the left of J who is second to the left
of M. P is third to the left of B and second to the right of R. T is not an
immediate neighbour of M.
16. Who is fourth to the right of M?
REASONING
1) B
2) T
3) J
4)
Data
inadequate
S. ARUNMOHAN
1) M T + J R
5) None of these
2) R K M T
17. Who is second to the left of T?
3) R K M
4) R K+ M T
1) F
2) M
3) P
4) J
5) None of these
5)
Data
inadequate
12. Which of the following means 'D is maternal
18. In which of the following pairs the second
uncle of T'?
person is sitting to the immediate right of
1) D J + T
2) D J T 3) D J + T
the first person?
4) D J T
5) None of these
1) JR
2) PJ
3) TR
13. Which of the following means 'R is grand4) MP
5) None of these
daughter of B'?
19. What is F's position with respect to R?
1) R M + K B
2) K + M R B
(A) Third to the left
3) B T + R D
4) B T + R
(B) Fourth to the right
5) None of these
(C) Third to the right
14. Pravin correctly remembers that his father's
1) Only (A)
2) Only (B)
3) Only (C)
birthday is after 21st May but before 27th

and

K I T E
+1

T
5 9 1 4

4 8 7 6
C

Similarly,

+1

+1

1 1

C+1 B S M
D
Similarly,
A B L E S

B E A T
+1

M
T
(+)
Therefore, M is the nephew of R.
12. 1; D J + T: Draw the family tree
D ....... J
(+)
()
T
Therefore, D is maternal uncle of T.
13. 3; BT+RD : Draw the family tree
B
(+)
T
()

>

>
>

M O D E R A T E
DE, DA, OR, OT and RT

C
B+1 D R D K
Therefore, Required answer = CBDRDK
11. 2; RKMT : Draw the family tree
R ....... K
(+)
(+)

<

<

5 6 9 7
2. 4;
24B4M8K6R4 24 4 8 + 6 4
= 6 8 + 6 4 = 48 + 6 4 = 50
3. 5; Required words are LEAP, PLEA, PALE
and PEAL.
4. 4; All others are composite numbers.
5. 4; 'go and come' 'na ta ka'
'black and white' 'pa ma ta'
and = ta
go = na or ka
6. 5; The colour of sunflower is yellow. Here
black means yellow. So black is our answer.
7. 2; 6 2 3 4 5 1 8
6 2 4 4 6 2 8
Only 8 is the required digit.
8. 3; 8 2 4 3 6 9 1
1 2 3 4 6 8 9
9. 5;

KEY
1-1; 2-4; 3-5; 4-4; 5-4; 6-5; 7-2; 8-3;
9-5; 10-2; 11-2; 12-1; 13-3; 14-4; 15-5;
16-5; 17-1; 18-3; 19-4; 20-2; 21-4; 22-1;
23-2; 24-5; 25-2.
(Writer - Director, Banking Service Chronicle, Hyderabad)

10. 2;
A

1. 1;
B A C K

4) Both (A) and (B)


5) None of these
20. Who is third to the right of B?
1) R
2) J
3) M
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
Directions (Q.21-25): In the following questions, the symbol @, , %, $ and # are used
with the following meaning as illustrated below:
'P%Q' means 'P is either smaller than or
equal to Q.'
'PQ' means 'P is greater than Q.'
'P#Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor
smaller than Q.'
'P$Q' means 'P smaller than Q.'
'P@Q' means 'P is either greater than or
equal to Q.'
Now in each of the following questions
assuming the given statements to be true, for
conclusions I and II given below them is /are
definitely true ? Give answer
1) if only Conclusion I is true.
2) if only Conclusion II is true.
3) if either Conclusion I or II is true.
4) if neither Conclusion I nor II is true.
5) if both Conclusions I and II are true.
21. Statements : B#F, F$H, HK
Conclusions: I) H@B
II) K$B
22. Statements : H@T, TN, N$W
Conclusions: I) N$H
II) W$H
23. Statements: H$F, F%M, MJ
Conclusions: I) J$F
II) MH
24. Statements: M$T, T%R, MN
Conclusions: I) M$R II) N$T
25. Statements:
D$T, T%B, B@F
Conclusions: I) D#T
II) D@F

R
()

Therefore, R is granddaughter of B.
14. 4; According to Pravin his father's birthday
= 22 or 23 or 24 or 25 or 26 May and
according to his sister his father's birthday =25 or 26 or 27 or 28 or 29 May.
Therefore father's birthday is 25 or 26 May.
15. 5;
2, 23, 234, 2345, 23456, 234567, 2345678
(16-20):
J
P
R
Right

22. 1;

23. 2;

Left

B
24. 5;

16. 5; R is fourth to the right of M.


17. 1; F is second to the left of T
18. 3; R is sitting to the immediate right of T.
20. 2; J is third to the right of B.
(21-25) :
P % Q means P Q
P Q means P > Q
P # Q means P = Q
P $ Q means P < Q
P @ Q means P Q
21. 4; B # F B = F
F$HF<H
HKH>K
Hence, B = F < H > K

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25. 2;

Conclusions :
I. H @ B H B (Not true)
II. K $ B K < B (Not true)
H@THT
TNT>N
N$WN<W
Hence, H T > N < W
Conclusions :
I. N $ H N < H (True)
II. W $ H W < H (Not true)
H$FH<F
F%MFM
MJM>J
Hence, H < F M > J
Conclusions :
I. J $ F J < F (Not true)
II. M H M > H (True)
M$TM<T
T%RTR
MNM>N
Hence, N < M < T R
Conclusions :
I. M $ R M < R (True)
II. N $ T N < T (True)
D$TD<T
T%BTB
B@FBF
Hence, D < T B F
Conclusions :
I. D # T D = T (Not true)
II. D @ F D F (True)

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MENSURRATION
L et us discuss about plane figures first.
Triangle: If a, b and c are the lengths of the
sides of a triangle,

Area = s(s a)(s b)(s c)


a+b+c
Where s =
2

3
Area of equilateral triangle = (side)2
4
b
Area of an isosceles triangle = 4a2 b2
4
Area of a right angled triangle
1
= base height
2
Square: Area = side2
Perimeter = 4 side
Rectangle: Area = length breadth
Perimeter = 2 (length + breadth)
Rhombus:
1
Area = d1 d2
2

-- j---
10 decimeter
= 1 meter
10 meter
= 1decameter
10 decameter
= 1 hectometer
10 hectometer
= 1 kilometer
1. The area of a rectangular plate is 231.25
sq.cm. If the length of the plate is 18.5 cm,
find the perimeter of the plate.
231.25
Sol: Width of the field = = 12.5 cm
18.5
Perimeter = 2(length + width)
2 (18.5 + 12.5) = 62 cm
2. How many tiles of 20 cm length and 10 cm
width are required to pave the floor of a room
8 m long and 5 m wide?
Sol: Area of the floor of the room = 800 500
= 400000 cm2
Area of theTile = 20 10 cm2
400000
Number of Tiles required = = 2000
20 10

3. A square field has an area of 50625 sq. m.

and 8 m high.
Sol: Length of the
stick = length of
the diagonal of
the room

122 + 92 + 82

=
289 = 17 m
6. A rectangular field
of 60 meter length and 40 meters wide is to
be surrounded by a road 5 meter wide. If the
cost of making 1 square meter road is
Rs.500, what would be the cost of the entire
road?
Sol: Area of the road = Area of outside
rectangle Area of inside rectangle
= 70 50 60 40
= 3500 2400 = 1100 m2

The cost of making 1100 m = 500 1100


= Rs.550000
7. What will be the area of a triangle with base

What would be the cost of the entire road?

Perimeter =
4(d12 + d22)
d1, d2 = diagonals
Parallelogram: Area = b h
b = base
h = perpendicular height
Trapezium:
1
Area = h (a + b)
2
h = perpendicular height
a, b = parallel sides
Circle: Area = r2
r = radius
Circumference = 2 r

Area of sector = r2
360

Length of the arc = 2 r


360

10.2 cm and height 3.5 cm?

r2
Semi Circle: Area =
2
36
Circumference = radius
7

Solid Figures

Find the cost of fencing around it


G.S. Giridhar
at Rs.15 per meter.

Sol: Side of the square field = 50625 = 225 m


Length of the wire required = 4 225 = 900 m
Total cost = Rs.15 900 = Rs.13500
4. A horse is tied with a 14 m long rope. How
much ground will it be able to graze?
Sol: Length of the rope will be the radius of the
circle = 14 m
22
Area of the cicrle = r2 = 14 14
7
= 616 sq.m

Area of the ground that can be grazed


= 616 sq.m
5. Find the length of the longest stick that can
be placed in a room of 12 m long, 9 m broad

EXPLANATIONS
1. Let the length of the plot be x m
75
3x
Breadth = x = m
100
4
3x
1050 = 2 x +
4
x = 300 m

3 300
Area of the plot = 300
4
= 67500 m2
2. Area of four walls = 2 5 (7.5 + 5.5)
= 130 m2
Area of required paper = 130 m2
Breadth of the paper = 40 cm = 0.4 m
130
Length of the paper = = 325 m
0.4
Cost of paper at 75 paise per meter
= 325 0.75 = Rs.243.75
3. a13 : a23 = 8 : 27 a1: a2 = 2 : 3
Surface areas ratio = 6a12 : 6a22
= (2)2 : (3)2 = 4:9
4. Let the length and breadth be10 and 10
Area = 10 10 =100
New length = 12 (20% increase)
New breadth = 11(10% increase)
New area = 12 11= 132
Increment in area =132 100 = 32%
5. Let the number of spherical balls be 'x'
Volume of cylinder = x Volume of sphere
4
72 28 = x 73
3
x=3

1. The breadth of a rectangular plot is


75% of its length. If the perimeter of
the plot be 1050 m, what is its area?

ANSWERS
1-D; 2-B; 3-B; 4-D; 5-C.
(Writer - Director, RACE Institute, Hyderabad)

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Cube: Total surface area = 6 a2


a = side
Volume = a3

Diagonal = 3 a
Cuboid: If 'l' is length, 'b' is breadth and 'h' is
height, then
Total surface area = 2 (lb + bh + lh)
Volume = l b h

2
2
2
Diagonal = l + b + h
Cylinder: Lateral surface area = 2 r h
r = radius
h = height
Total surface area = 2 r (h + r)
Volume = r2 h
Cone: Lateral surface area = r l
r = radius
l = slant height
h = perpendicular height
Total surface area = r (l + r)
1
Volume = r2 h
3
Sphere: Total surface area = 4 r2
r = radius
4
Volume = r3
3
Hemi Sphere:
Lateral surface area = 3 r2
r = radius
Total surface area = 4 r2
2
Volume = r3
3
Units of Measuring Length
10 millimeter
= 1 centimeter
10 centimeter
= 1 decimeter

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

Sol: Area of triangle


1
= base height
2
1
= 10.2 3.5
2
= 17.85 cm2

A) 12500 B) 57500
C) 62500
D) 67500 E) None of these
2. A room is 7.5 m long, 5.5 m broad and 5 m
high. What will be the expenditure in covering the walls by paper 40 cm broad at the
rate of 75 paise per meter?
A) Rs.245.25
B) Rs.243.75
C) Rs.275.50
D) Rs.275.45
E) None of these
3. Two cubes have their volumes in the ratio
8 : 27. Find the ratio of their surface areas.
A) 2:3
B) 4:9
C) 16:81 D) 8:9
E) None of these
4. The length and breadth of a rectangle
increased by 20% and 10% respectively.
How much
percent will its area be
increased?
A) 25%
B) 30% C) 40% D) 32%
E) None of these
5. 7 cm radius and 28 cm height solid metallic
cylinder is melted and recast into small
spherical balls of 7 cm radius. Find the
number of cubes that can be made.
A) 12
B) 5
C) 3
D) 6
E) None of these

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1. Head office of various banks given. Pick up
incorrect one.
1) Allahabad Bank - Kolkatta
2) Andhra Bank - Hyderabad
3) Bank of Baroda - Pune
4) Bank of India - Mumbai
5) Syndicate Bank - Manipal
2. Which among the following is not the
function of Reserve Bank of India?
1) Deciding Key rates like SLR, CRR
2) Issuing the Paper Currency above the
denomination Rs. 2
3) Giving loans to individuals
4) Supervision of banks
5) None
3. Amortized loan means .................
1) Loan with scheduled periodic payments
of both principal and interest
2) Government finance the banks to
refinance the local money lenders
3) Giving huge loans to customers by taking

-- j---
1) UNESCO
2) AIIMS
3) WHO
4) MCI 5) None
12. Banks Punch lines are given. Pick up
wrong one.
1) Allahabad Bank - A tradition of trust
2) Andhra Bank - This is your Bank only
3) Bank of Baroda - India's International
Bank
4) Bank of India - Relationship beyond
Banking
5) All of the above
13. Asian Development Bank recently funded
Kaliganga hydro power project in the state
of.............
1) Uttarakhand
2) West Bengal
3) Odisha
4) Andhra Pradesh
5) Tamilnadu
14. Which committee submitted its report in
1952 to setup State Bank of India?
1) All India SBI Committee
2) All India Banking Committee

23. What is meant by


Open
Market
Operations?
1) RBI gives the
license to organizations to do
the
foreign
exchange business to make
foreign market in the balance mood
2) RBI gives the loans to individuals at
higher rate of interest, after taking the
funds from the public for lower rate of
interest
3) RBI buys and sells the government
securities in the open market. By buying
the securities, it increases the
circulation of money and by selling it
decreases the circulation of money.
4) RBI having tied up with SEBI, issue IPO
and take deposits from public
5) All of above

Golden R evolution R efers to...?


the security
4) Not providing cash to customers but
providing loan in the form of goods
5) Loan given by RBI
4. Whether all banks accept coins, though
coins mint by government of India1) Accept the coins but they ask the customer to give the undertaking
2) Never accept
3) Accept
4) Accept the coins, telling customer that
the bank return any time
5) Accept the coins at the lower value
5. Golden revolution refers to ...............
1) the production of Gold
2) Horticulture
3) Production of Imitation Jewellry
4) Fisheries
5) Coal
6. Abbreviation list given. Pick the wrong one.
1) TRAI - Telecom Rules Authority of India
2) RGESS - Rajiv Gandhi Equity Savings
Scheme
3) LIBOR - London Inter Bank Offered Rate
4) AMFI-Association of Mutual Fund in India
5) FCNRA
- Foreign Currency Non
Resident Account
7. First East Asia Summit Education Ministers
meeting was convened on 5th July 2012 at
Yogyakarta in ..................
1) Indonesia
2) Malaysia
3) Vietnam
4) Singapore
5) None
8. Recent Award list given. Pick the wrong
combination
1) PEN Open Book Award - Siddhartha
Deb
2) Siksha ratna - Dr. AN Purohit
3) Lata Mangeshkar award 2012 - Jesudas
4) People's Choice Gold Medal AwardSudarshan Pattnaik
5) Chameli
Devi
Jain Award
for
Outstanding Woman Media Person,
2012 - Tushita Mittal
9. Sally Pearson won the 100 mts gold medal in
London Olympics 2012. She belongs
to ............
1) Jamaica
2) Kenya
3) USA
4) Australia
5) France
10. Babur is the nuclear-capable cruise missile
of ...............
1) Iraq
2) Pakistan
3) Saudi Arabia
4) UAE
5) Afghanistan
11. ............has termed dengue as 'the most
important mosquito-borne viral disease in
the world'.

24. The statements relating to Banks


in the Union Budget 2012 - 13
given. Pick the correct one.
1) Short term RRB Credit Refinance
Fund was proposed to be set up
GENERAL AWARENESS
to enhance the capacity of
Regional Rural Banks to disburse
A.Veeraswamy
3) All India Credit Survey
short term crop loans to the small
Committee
and marginal farmers
4) All India Public Sector Banking
2) Kisan Credit Card Scheme is to be modCommittee
ified to make it a smart card which can
5) None
be used at ATMs
15. Nirmal Bharat Yatra started to make the
3) Rs. 15,888 crore to be provided for capcountry free from .............
italization of public sector banks and
financial Institutions
1) AIDS
2) Dengue Fever
4) Financial Inclusion gets the support of
3) Fraud in Banks
4) Open defecation
Central government
5) All of above
5) All of above
16. Verghese Kurien died on 9th September
2012. He is father of.............
25. The appointments list given. Pick the
correct one.
1) Blue Revolution
2) White Revolution
3) Brown Revolution 4) Black Revolution
1) Chairman Economic Advisory Council to
5) Grey Revolution
the Prime Minister - Dr. C.Rangarajan
17. Leaf is the largest-selling car in the world
2) National Security Advisor to the Prime
that runs on battery. It is manufactured by
minister - Shivshankar Menon
.........
3) Advisor to Prime Minister on Skill
1) Toyota
2) Nissan
Development - S.Ramadorai
3) Volkswagen
4) Maruti
5) Fiat
4) Advisor to the Prime Minister on Public
18. ..........is the head the Group of Ministers
Information Infrastructure & Innovations
(GoM) on pricing of bioethanol for blending
- Sam Pitroda
with petrol and other related issues.
5) All of above
1) Manmohan Singh
2) Chidambaram
26. Which of the following is a bio-diesel seed?
3) Jaipal Reddy
4) Sharad Pawar
1) Rose
2) pomegranate
5) Chaturvedi
3) Jatropha
4) mango
5) Wall nut
19. Supreme Court directed which Group to
27. News makers list given. Pick the wrong
refund Rs. 17400 crore to their Investors?
1) Tata
2) Zindal
3) GMR
4) Sahara
5) Jaypee
20. GNP means ...........
1) Gross National Price
2) Gross National Product
3) Gross Notional Produce
4) Goal National Product
5) Gross National Premium
21. In the news papers we read M - Banking
offering by many banks. M - banking
means........
1) Moral Banking
2) More Banking
3) Model Banking
4) Mobile Banking
5) Mercy Banking
22. On 2nd October 2012, which bank celebrated 100 years of its inauguration?
1) State Bank of India
2) Central Bank of India
3) Allahabad Bank
4) ICICI Bank
5) State Bank of Mysore

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combination.
1) Mahmoud Abbas - President of Palestine
2) Emomali Rahmon - President of
Tajikistan
3) Ebrahim Alkazi - Indian theatre Artist
4) Altamas Kabir - Chief Justice of Delhi
High Court
5) Lance Armstrong - Famous Cyclist
caught in doping
28. World Environment Day was observed on
5th June 2012. Theme for the World
Environment Day 2012 was .........
1) You and Your Environment
2) It is Your World: Are you taking Care?
3) Green Economy: Does it include you?
4) Do not kill the Environment! It kills you !!
5) None
29. Which among the following book not written
by Vikram Seth?
1) The Golden Gate
2) A Suitable Boy
3) Shame
4) Arion and The Dolphin
5) Two Lives
30. G - 20 summit details are given. Pick the
wrong one.
1) G - 20 formed in 1999. From 2008 the
Heads of state summits started
2) India is not a member
3) The first summit held in 2008 in
Washington DC
4) On 18 - 19th June 2012 the summit held
in Los Cabos, Mexico
5) Manmohan Singh represented India in
this summit
31. Currency note issuing dept of RBI should
always possess a minimum gold stock
worth of..............
1) Rs.1000 crore
2) Rs. 500 crore
3) Rs.115 crore
4) Rs.1200 crore
5) Rs. 5 crore
32. Automated Teller Machines (ATM) are.....
1) Unmanned, Cash Dispensers
2) Unmanned, Non-Cash Dispensers
3) Manned, Non - Cash Dispensers
4) Manned, Non - Financial Transactions
Machines
5) None of Above
KEY: 1-3; 2-3; 3-1; 4-3; 5-2; 6-1; 7-1; 8-3;
9-4; 10-2; 11-3; 12-2; 13-1; 14-3; 15-4;
16-2; 17-2; 18-4; 19-4; 20-2; 21-4; 22-5;
23-3; 24-5; 25-5; 26-3; 27-4; 28-3; 29-3;
30-2; 31-3; 32-1.

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10th
CLASS

Quarterly Exams
Model Papers with
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EM English (E/M)
& Physical Sciences
TM
Social Studies
and other papers uploaded...
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~-h--:

www.eenadupratibha.net

--C- 7 -d- 2012

-- j---

Priyanjali Suxena, Rajahmundry


Q: What are your hobbies/ habits?
- Which one is correct?
A: Both are correct with different
meanings. Hobbies (Plural of
hobby) are things that we do
just for pleasure.
e.g.: Coin collection, CD collections, taking
longwalks in the evening, watching certain programmes on the TV etc.

( N)

Habit
is a thing that we do often
and almost without thinking, and difficult to
stop doing. Habits can be good/ bad - like
taking coffee, drinking, etc., and getting up
early in the morning etc.

(-)

Q: As your wish/ like


correct?

(O d)

- Which is

A: Both are correct.


Q: Explain about commercial movie/ hit.

anyone wants to give speech infront of huge


crowd?
A: You can get rid of stage fear by practice. It
gives you confidence. Even if you make mistakes and others laugh at you, you continue
to speak. After three or four attempts like
that, you can speak well.
Q: Explain the difference between People and
Public.

Lay on.
A: Such as = like, Men
such as Gandhi =
Men like Gandhi.
Lay on = Lay something on somebody =
To ask somebody to do
something unpleasant.
Q:

A: People = More than 2 or 3 persons, a group


of persons.
Public = The whole group of people in a society/ under a government.

A: People thought/ He thought he would travel


-

v -LqC, F -.

please excuse me.

-
certificates y- Ap----o
Translate into English.

A: Intentionally

(y-)

he is with hold up
my certificates making me go
Y. Gayathri, Asifabad

Q: Explain whether the following translations


are correct or not.

Q:

t--~ C E-E t--o.

A: By my soul, I believe it is true.


Q: "Hath"

(-)

round him.

Sneha Agarwal, Manchirial


Q: Pakistan refused a visa to Praveen who was
to have travelled with the media delegation What is the meaning of the underlined part.

--J E { - .
C = Owing to downpour

What have I said to make you feel so?

- -.

A: Hath is the old form of "have"


nowadays.
Q:

Not used

*a u Et j-?
N-J-.

He is only a ostentatious man, he has


nothing.
A: "... an ostentatious man.." is correct.
He is a stubborn, he never hears what others
say.
A: He is stubborn and never listens to what
others say.
Plagiarism is not a good habit.
A: ... is not a good practice (Habit - wrong)

A: A movie which becomes very popular, and is


seen by a large number of people, and gets
a lot of money for the producer - commercially (as business) it is a success. (Hit =
Success)
Q: He is seeing the doctor - Translate into
Telugu.
A:
Q: Explain about the words that are not used in
present continuous tense like seeing, tasting, etc.

-j-u--E ----o/ -h-o.

A: Verbs expressing feelings and emotions


verbs) - like, dislike, love, hate, hope, etc. Verbs of actions
of the mind: know, understand, suppose,
etc. 'Have' to mean 'owning' something.
'Have' in the present continues means am/
is/ are having = eating/ drinking. Verbs of
sense perception (see, hear, smell -

(-, v-- L

-x--- 703
Q: Explain whether the following
sentences are correct or not and
explain the meaning of it in
Telugu.

M. SURESAN

He is to have told
A:

p-LqC.

He is to have been here


A:

\ LqC.

repair E -LqC.
- -o v, F JT --a. All the sentences are correct.

It is not good to get somebody's nerves.

A: ... the whole work was spoiled.

E--u y? F-Eo-x
pL. E E. (N_ p)
= What a man you are. How many
times have to tell you this work can
not be done.

A: Correct (... have I to tell you Q:

He is to have his car repaired


A:

none of my work has completed. I am


very painful.
A: Owing to incessant rain/ downpour
my work has not been completed at
all.

----L.)
v L-----o?
^E --o? C , h
u- - Translate into English.

A: Do you think that I don't know that much?


Do you think I am a fool? Enough. Have
some respect.
Q:

'h
a n ( n
). Taste = -*-i- n, *
n ).

Q: The citizens will remain subject to the same


tough restrictions - What is the meaning of
the underlined word?
A: Subject to = Under the power of/ ruled by/
controlled by.

Q: Is there any way to get rid of stage fear if

Q: Explain the meaning of the words: Such as,

A: This kind of ill feeling isn't good. What have


I said to make you feel so? I have spoken
the truth - If I have done anything wrong,

x E . --o-E. oC
od p. -i p o ~N. - Translate into English.

You must not breathe a word about it!


Prathap: One thing
you must know. It's
not possible unless
we try hard.

2) You need not say it again and again


3) You must not breathe a word about it to any
one - (breathe a word about something =

(
N y n
-L.
d v-Aoh p
C u )

u E d)
4) When have we to start it?

(p - , F
a ---E p- yL.)

Ramana: I have told them they have to pay


the money now.

(s p d-E

x p)
Kumar: No, they need not.

(. - )

Need not = Don't/ Doesn't need.

Santosh: Who denies


it? You need not
say it again and again.

( --C?
y Sx Sx p-\-x)

Prathap: Ok. The second thing. You must not


breathe a word about this to anyone.

Must/ (I, we, you and they) have to/ (He, she,
it) has to used for
i) Obligations

(NC u-Lq-N) & Orders


E --J -

ii) Duties iii) necessity

-o.
(, N. DEo J* y-J
O p--)
Santosh: That's OK. When have we to start it?
Tomorrow itself?

(. DEo
p v-G-L?)

Prathap: We need not hurry. We must wait till


we get an assurance about the money.

Must/ have/ has to need not

must
F, have
to/ has to
F opposite,
not

( . s J*
O a-- L)
Santosh: That's OK.
Look at the following expressions from the
dialogue above:

need

You must/ have to go now you need not go now

(Ny-p xL)

(x--- )

Sunil: Must I submit the certificates now?


certificates

(p

j forms
j -a.
Gunavanth: Have
I to take these
medicines?

(
Ep B-?)

Doctor: You need


not/
don't
have to, if you
give up smoking.

(--- )

1) One thing you must know

next weekend.

y?)

A: ... get on somebody's nerves.. - Correct.


Owing to his stupidity all the work conduced
to spoil.
Krishna done the homework in a hand over
fist.
A: "Hand over fist" meaning "very quickly" is
used for only "money and selling"
He made money hand over fist = He earned a
lot of money quickly.
Moreover, "Krishna done" - Wrong. Krishna has
done/ did - Correct.
The construction of building work with in
three months is not plausible due to shortage
of labour.
A: ... of the building is not possible.
(Plausible - wrong here) owing to (not due to) ...
His playing of guitar is as good as his friend
Krishna.
A: ... Krishna's (Correct)
To mutate the property of this man, please
give genealogical details.
A: Correct.
Your report is tout court it is not possible to
take further action.
A: Your report is tout court, so it is not
possible..
Pigout is not good for health.
A: To pig out ...
Giridhar Sahani, Kothagudem
Q: "Let's go there" said my friend - Change into
IDS (Indirect Speech).
A: My friend suggested that we (should) go
there.
Q: "How about Rs.500/- for the whole job", said
Subba Rao to Appa Rao.
In one of the previous lessons you have
given the Indirect Speech form for above sentence as - "Subba Rao asked Appa Rao if he
would do the whole job for Rs.500." - Here "he"
refers to Who?
A: Here Apparao is "he", isn't he?
Q: The phonetic form of the letter 'H'
is /e It /. Are all the words begin with "H"
pronounced as silent?
e.g.: Hotel -

(y h - -)

Srinath: Has he to carry all these things?


Jagannath: He need not/ doesn't have to, if
taxi
we can get a taxi.

T - ).

House -

E a---L-

. Clarify.
te \ 'h'

l -L. ' .
--p- Hotel, house '
-. ' . hotel
'ho' L N-Eo L----E
j ~ .
h(e It )

( O-Eo-F B-x?)

Ganesh: You need not, now, but you must by

-;

A: Hotel - pronunciation h

Spoken English - - - u- -x ---... www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 8 -d- 2012


1. Pick the odd one out:
1) Interpreter
2) Operating System
3) Compiler
4) Assembler
5) None of these
2. When a particular object or an image is
copied, in which of the following places it is
stored?
1) Notice Board
2) Interim Board
3) Notepad
4) Clipboard
5) None of these
3. The Term 'BIT' is the short form for:
1) Mega Byte
2) Binary Language
3) Binary Digit
4) Binary Number
5) None of these
4. Servers are computers that provide
resources to other computers connected
to a 1) Network
2) Super Computer
3) Micro Computer 4) Client
5) None of these

-- j---
header, appear.
1) Draft
2) Full screen reading
3) Outline
4) Page layout
5) None of these
16. What is the symbol for inbox in mail?
1) BOX
2) Envelope
3) Upper Case 'I'
4) Lower case 'I'
5) None of these
17. '' symbol in computers refers to:
1) Copy
2) Circled 'C'
3) Copyright
4) Italicized C
5) None of these
18. Which of the following is a professional
social networking site?
1) Facebook
2) Orkut 3) Twitter
4) LinkedIn
5) None of these
19. File ....... shrinks the size of a file so that it
requires less storage space.
1) Scanning
2) Synthesizing
3) Defragmenting
4) Compression

4) Internet
5) None of these
30. CRT stands for:
1) Copper
Rod
Tube
2) Campus Report
Truncation
3) Completely
Ready Tube
4) Cathode Ray Tube
5) None of these
31. To prevent a slide from being displayed
during the slide show one should:
1) delete the slide
2) hide the slide by using animation button
3) hide the slide by using the slide show
menu
4) Any of the above
5) None of the above
32. The ALU of a computer usually contains a

What is the Symbol for Inbox in Mail?


5. A bar which is seen at the bottom of the
screen (usually) when the computer is turned
on is known as:
1) Address Bar
2) Task Bar
3) Windows Bar
4) Line bar
5) None of these
6. Something which has easily understood
instructions is said to be:
1) User friendly
2) Information
3) Word Processing 4) Icon
5) None of these
7. To save an existing file with a new name or
to a new location, you should use the .....
command.
1) Save
2) Save and Replace
3) Save as
4) New file
5) None of these
8. Peripheral devices such as printers and
monitors are considered to be:
1) Hardware
2) Software
3) Data
4) Information
5) None of these
9. In a database, ....... fields store numbers
used to perform calculations.
1) Next
2) Key
3) Alpha Numeric
4) Numeric
5) None of these
10. Where is data saved permanently?
1) RAM 2) ROM
3) CPU
4) Printer 5) None of these
11. Which of the following describes relational
database?
1) It provides relationship between integers
2) It consists of separate tables of related
data
3) It retrieves data related to its queries
4) It provides the relationship between
floats
5) None of these
12. Find the odd one out:
1) Projector
2) Speakers
3) Monitor
4) Microphone
5) Printer
13. A program for viewing webpages is called:
1) Word Processor 2) Spread sheet
3) Protocol
4) Browser
5) Database
14. Domain name Extension '.nic.in' is
generally used for which of the following:
1) Organization websites
2) Educational Websites in india
3) Companies in india
4) e-governance websites
5) None of these
15. ........... view shows how the content on
printed page, along with footer and margin

number of high speed storage elements called ........


1) Semiconductor memory
2) Registers 3) Hard disk
4) Magnetic Disk
5) None of these
COMPUTER AWARENESS
33. A connection from one HTML
5) None of these
document to another HTML docuKVN Prashanth Kumar
ment is called:
20. Ctrl, shift, alt are called .......
keys.
1) Hyper Link
2) Connecting Link
1) Adjustment
2) Function
3) Icon
4) All of these
3) Modifier
4) Alphanumeric
5) None of these
5) None of these
34. Which of the following is true about RAM?
21. An email address typically consists of user
A) It is an acronym for Random Access
id followed by ........ and the domain name.
Memory
1) @
2) #
3) &
4)
B) It is memory built from silicon chips that
is used to store programs and data tem5) None of these
porarily while they are being processed
22. The name, a user assigns to a document is
C) RAM stores the data permanently like
called:
Hard Disks
1) File name
2) Program
1) Only A and C
2) Only B and C
3) Record
4) Data
3) Only A and B
4) All the three
5) None of these
5) None of these
23. ........... is processed by the computer into
35. Capability of computer to perform more
information.
than one tasks at the same time is:
1) Numbers
2) Processor
3) Input
4) Data 5) None of these
24. A menu contains a list of ........
1) commands
2) data
3) objects
4) reports
5) None of these
25. The internet allows you to:
1) Send electronic mail
2) View web pages
3) Connect to servers all around the world
4) All the above
5) None of these
26. Which of the following is a function of UPS?
1) It limits damage caused by fluctuating
levels of electricity
2) It provides battery back up for limited
time
3) It delivers electronic messages via a bus
4) It conducts a power-on self test or POST
5) None of these
27. Youtube, which provides a service of
streaming videos online is provided by ....
1) Google
2) Microsoft
3) IBM
4) Apple 5) Sony
28. ...... is known as unauthorized access to
others system.
1) Hacking
2) Encryption
3) Decryption
4) Trafficking
5) None of these
29. The vast network of computers that
connects millions of people all over the
world is called.......
1) LAN
2) Web
3) Hypertext

,
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1) Batch Processing
2) Real Time Processing
3) Multitasking
4) Scheduled Processing
5) None of these
36. Computer Virus is:
1) A hardware
2) Windows tool
3) A computer program
4) Combination of 1 and 2
5) None of these
37. Firewall is used in communication network /
system to save:
1) Unauthorized attack
2) Virus attack
3) Data driven attack
4) Fire attack
5) None of these
38. Which of the following can hold maximum
data?
1) Optical disk
2) Floppy disk
3) Magnetic disk inside computer
4) Magnetic tape
5) None of these
39. ........ is a process of sending documents to
a storage where they are temporarily stored
and remain there until printer prints them.
1) Printing
2) Queuing
3) Waiting Queue
4) Print Spooling
5) None of these
40. The feature to customize the desktop to display information that can be updated from
internet is:
1) Active desktop
2) Online desktop
3) E-mail
4) Resource Sharing
5) None of these
KEY
1-2; 2-4; 3-3; 4-1; 5-2; 6-1; 7-3; 8-1; 9-4;
10-2; 11-2; 12-4; 13-4; 14-4; 15-4; 16-2;
17-3; 18-4; 19-4; 20-3; 21-1; 22-1; 23-4;
24-1; 25-4; 26-2; 27-1; 28-1; 29-4; 30-4;
31-1; 32-2; 33-1; 34-3; 35-3; 36-3; 37-1;
38-4; 39-4; 40-1.
(Writer - Director, DBS, Hyderabad)

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www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 8 -d- 2012


1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

--- Jn- vu- --o N?


1) -
2) j p -
3) x-A -
4) g-- --- a -
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37.

1)

B O NEo
p
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1) 1948
3) 1952

2) 1950
4) 1954

38.

---

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1) -J
2) -
3) -
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39. 'h d v- Fq (NEFA) E
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40. , X u o DN C?
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55.

C- 100 * 200 .O. -qJ {- v C?


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www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 9 -d- 2012


Directions (Q.1-7): In each of the questions
below are given three statements followed by
two conclusions numbered I and II. You have
to take the given statements to be true even
if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and
then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the given statements
disregarding commonly known facts. Give
answer
1) if only Conclusion I follows.
2) if only Conclusion II follows.
3) if either Conclusion I or II follows.
4) if neither Conclusion I nor II follows.
5) if both Conclusions I and II follow.
1. Statements: Some rings are bangles.
Some bangles are hands.
Some hands are fingers.
Conclusions: I. Some fingers are bangles.
II. Some hands are rings.
2. Statements: Some trees are jungles.

-- j---
Conclusions: I. All bricks are houses.
II. Some stores are tents.
7. Statements: All maps are flowers.
No flower is table.
All tables are chairs.
Conclusions: I. Some chairs are maps.
II. No chair is map.
Directions (Q. 8-14): Study the following
information carefully
and answer the
questions given below:
M5R3I8D% J2EPONL9F QA4W
@J6UZ$7HKQ
8. If all the symbols is from the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following
will be the eleventh from the right end?
1) Q
2) 1
3) F
4) 4
5) None of these
9. How many such numbers are there in the
above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a vowel?
1) None
2) One 3) Two
4) Three

1) None 2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
13. Four of the following five are alike in
a certain way
based
of their
positions in the
above arrangement and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to
that group?
1) 2PJ
2) AWQ
3) T6@
4) 7K$
5) %8J
14. What should come in place of question
mark (?) in the following series based on
the above arrangement?
53I
DJ2
PNL
?
1) FA4
2) FAW
3) FQ4
4) FA@ 5) None of these
15. How many numbers would remain if the

How is HURT written in the code?


3.

4.

5.

6.

All jungles are stones.


All stones are buildings.
Conclusions: I. Some buildings are trees.
II. Some stones are trees.
Statements: All pins are hammers.
Some hammers are rods.
Some rods are desks.
Conclusions: I. Some desks are pins.
II. Some rods are hammers.
Statements: All poles are sticks.
Some sticks are boxes.
All boxes are rivers.
Conclusions: I. Some rivers are sticks.
II. Some rivers are poles.
Statements: Some benches are roads.
No road is mountain.
Some mountains are jungles.
Conclusions: I. Some jungles are roads.
II. Some jungles are benches.
Statements: All tents are houses.
All houses are bricks.
All bricks are stores.

numbers which are divisible by 5 and


also those having '5' as only one of
the digits are dropped from the
numbers 35 to 70?
1) 23
2) 21
3) 20
4) 24
5) None of these
REASONING
16. What will come in the place of the
5) More than three
question mark (?) in the following
S. ARUNMOHAN
alphabet series?
10. How many such symbols are
there in the above arrangement; each of
AC
DC
EF
IG ?
which is immediately followed by a letter?
1) MI
2) IL
3) IM
4) LI
1) None 2) One 3) Two
4) Three
5) None of these
5) More than three
17. In a certain code language FIVE is written
11. Which of the following is the sixth to the
as GHWD. How is HURT written in the
right of the fourteenth from the left end of
same code language?
the above arrangement?
1) ITSS
2) ITST
3) GTSS
1)
2) %
3) P
4) 4
4) ITQU
5) None of these
5) None of these
18. In a certain code language 'La Ke Ta'
12. How many such consonants are there in
means 'go and swim' and 'Ne La Se' means
the above arrangement, each of which is
'you swim here' and 'Pe Ke Ne Ta' means
immediately preceded by a number and not
'he and you go'. Which of the following is
immediately
followed
by
another
the code for 'here' in that code language?
consonant?
1) Cannot be determined
2) La

EXPLANATIONS
2- 5; Some trees are jungles. (I-Type)

9-3; I 8 and A 4
10-3; % J and @ T
12-5; 5 R 3, 8 D % and 4 W @

+2

+5

+5

+5

+5

+5

3 J N A

+2

+5

14-1; 5 D P F

+5

T 6 @

+5

+5

I 2 L 4

+2

7 $
2

+3

% 8 J
15-3; The numbers which are divisible by and also those having '5' as
only one of the digits From 35 to 70:
35, 40, 45, 50, 51, 52, 53, 54, 55, 56, 57, 58, 59, 60, 65 and 70 = 16
Remaining numbers = 36 16 = 20
17-1;
Since,
Hence,
F I
V E
H U
R T

+1 1 +1 1

+1 1 +1 1

18-5; La

Ke Ta

Se

go

and swim

Ne

La

Pe

Ke Ne Ta he and you

you

swim here
go

The code for 'here' is 'Se'.


19-4; Suman ranks third among the girls.
Amit ranks fifth among the boys, Suman comes after Amit in the
class. It means two girls and four boys Rank higher than Amit in the
class. Therefore, Amit Ranks 7th in the class
20-2; First Friday will be two days after Wednesday.
Total number of days = 2 + (7 4) = 30 days.

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KEY
1-4; 2-5; 3-2; 4-1; 5-4; 6-2; 7-3; 8-1;
9-3; 10-3; 11-4; 12-5; 13-5; 14-1; 15-3;
16-5; 17-1; 18-5; 19-4; 20-2.
(Writer - Director, Banking Service Chronicle,
Hyderabad)

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10th
CLASS

Quarterly Exams
Model Papers with
Answers ...

EM English (E/M)
& Physical Sciences
TM
Social Studies
and other papers uploaded...
To download Click on...

All jungles are buildings. (A-Type)


I+A=I
conversion
Some trees are buildings. Some buildings are trees.
This is Conclusion I.
conversion
3- 2; Some hammers are rods. Some rods are hammers.
This is Conclusion II
4-1; Some sticks are boxes. (I-Type)
All boxes are rivers. (A-Type)
I+A=I
conversion
Some sticks are rivers Some rivers are sticks.
This is Conclusion I.
8-1; After removing all symbols
M5R3I8DJ2EPONL9FQA4WT6UZ7HK
In the above arrangement, Q is the eleventh from the right end.

A W Q

All jungles are stones.(A-Type)


I+A=I
conversion
Some trees are stones. Some stones are trees.
This is Conclusion II.
All jungles are stones. (A-Type)

All stones are buildings. (A-Type)


A + A = A All jungles are buildings.
Again some trees are jungles. (I-Type)

+2

2 P J

13-5;

3) Ne
4) La or Se
5) None of these
19. There are thirty five students in a class.
Suman ranks third among the girls in the
class. Amit ranks 5th among the boys in the
class. Suman is one rank below Amit in the
class. No two students hold the same rank
in the class. What is Amit's rank in the
class?
1) Cannot be determined
2) 5th
3) 8th
4) 7th
5) None of these
20. This year, Balu's birthday is on 27th
January i.e. Wednesday. Balu remembers
that Mohan's birthday is exactly on the fifth
Friday after his birthday. How much
younger is Mohan than Balu?
1) Data inadequate 2) By 30 days
3) By 31 days
4) By 29 days
5) None of these

www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 9 -d- 2012

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--h- *-J-C: 2013 31
-j: www.iirmworld.org.in
www.eenadupratibha.net

--E- 1 d- 2012
1. EMI can be marketing tool when
1) EMI is very low
2) EMI is very high
3) EMI is fluctuating 4) EMI is constant
5) EMI is ballooning
2. Advertisements are necessary for
1) only old products
2) launching new products
3) only costly products
4) only obsolete products
5) advertisements are wasteful expenses
3. Publicity is required for 1) generating more number of leads
2) better training of sales persons
3) market survey
4) product designing
5) OTC Marketing
4. NAV is the price of
1) Entire fund value 2) one unit of a fund
3) surrender value
4) average value of shares
5) dividends paid in a year

-- j---
5) Persons below a specified income level
10. Effective retail banking presupposes 1) Large premises 2) Huge kiosks
3) big sales force
4) coordination between marketing and
front office staff
5) More products
11. Which of the following is not included in the
7 P's of Marketing
1) Placement
2) Price
3) Production
4) Promotion
5) Product
12. Analysis of marketing problem helps in
1) Evaluating marketing opportunities
2) Reducing marketing staff
3) Reducing profits
4) Motivation
5) None of the above
13. Innovation in marketing is same as
1) Motivation
2) Perspiration
3) Aspiration
4) Creativity

1) Duties determined as a certain percentage of prices of


the product.
2) Advertisement
costs
3) Selling price cost price
4) Either 2 or 3
5) All the above
23. Expand ALCO:
1) Asset-Liability Management Committee
2) Asset Liability Company
3) All India Locomotives
4) Asset Liability Company Organisation
5) None of the above
24. What is Asset Liability Manager (ALM)?
1) Asset/ liability management involves a
set of techniques to create value and
manage risks in a bank.
2) To maintain profitable CD ratio

What do you mean by Augmented brand?


5. A master policy in the case of Life insurance
indicates
1) policy is sale
2) policy is in the name of servant
3) only one life is assured
4) there are several beneficiaries
5) life assured should be a male
6. Customer database is useful for 1) advertisements
2) word-of-mouth publicity
3) CRM Functions
4) PR functions
5) sales persons training
7. CRM (Customer Relationship Management)
is 1) A pre-sales activity
2) A tool for lead generation
3) an ongoing daily activity
4) the task of a DSA
5) back office duty
8. Find the incorrect answer.
1) cross-selling is an expensive way of
marketing
2) market segmentation can boost lead
generations
3) customer lifetime value is a marketing
tool
4) surrogate marketing is a type of viral
marketing
5) internet banking can replace ATMs
9. Financial inclusion needs canvassing the
accounts of
1) Financial Institutions
2) NRIs
3) HNIs
4) Housewives

www.eenadupratibha.net

--j- -K~-

SBI IBPS SSC

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vo v- Nx- - -
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3) Liquidity maintenance of banks


4) Only 1 & 2 5) None of the above
25. Product design is a function:
1) Front office staff
2)
Back
office staff
3) Management
MARKETING
4) Marketing and Research Team
5) Team work
K.V. Gnana Kumar 5) Loans department
26. What do you mean by Augmented
14. Market Segmentation is required
brand?
for
1) preferential market
2) OTC Marketing
1) Value addition to the customer services
and benefits that are built around the
3) Internal Marketing
core product or service offering
4) Identifying sales persons
2) Combining with two or more company
5) Identifying prospects
products
15. Bank ATMs are
3) To increase the number of products
1) Alternate Delivery channels
4) To increase the number of branches
2) Market plans
3) Personalized Products
5) None of the above
4) Tools for overcoming buyers resistance
27. What are the elements of consumer
5) Motivating tools
behaviour?
16. A DSA helps in ....
1) Attitude of customer
1) Boosting Direct Sales
2) Necessities of customer
2) Contacting Customers on Net
3) Tentative problems
3) Indirect Marketing
4) Benefits
5) All the above
4) Direct Telemarketing
5) None of these
28. Which of the following does not include in
17. Successful marketing aims at:
personal factors while purchasing a
1) Increasing the sales volume
product?
2) Increasing the profits
1) Age
2) Standard of living
3) Increasing the outputs of the sales
3) Self image
4) Nationality
persons
5) All the above
4) All of these
5) None of these
29. Which of the following psychological factors
18. Internet marketing means:
does not influence consumer behaviour?
1) Marketing to oneself
1) Perception
2) Self-esteem
2) Marketing to core self
3) Self-confidence 4) Income level
3) Marketing to the employees
5) None of the above
4) All of these
5) None of these
30. Buying process involves the following
19. Delivery channel means....
process:
1) Maternity wards
1) Identification of need
2) Handing over the products to the buyers
2) Priority of the need
3) Place where products are made
3) Affordability
4) Type of market
available to the buyers
5)
Only
1,
2,
3
4) All of these
5) None of these
31. Motives of buying does not involve :
20. Marketing Expansion means....
1) Satisfaction
1) Hiring more staff
2) Firing more staff
2) Rest and recuperation
3) Social life
3) Buying more products
4) Consulting all users
5) Only 1, 2, 3
4) Buying more companies
32. Today marketing is:
5) Growth in sales through existing and
new products
1) Product driven
2) Services driven
21. Negotiation skills help in
3) Improvement of bottom line (Profitability)
1) Arriving at consensus
4) Cost conscious
2) Breaking the ice
5) Customer driven market
3) Carrying marketing further
33. Ultimate decision of Consumer depends on:
4) Mutual win-win result of bargaining
1) Cost
2) Quality
5) All of these
3) Benefits
4) Guarantee and warranty
22. What is Ad-Valorem Duties?
5) All the above

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34. In marketing, attitude can best be described


as a:
1) Erratic behaviour of sales person
2) Erratic behaviour of customer
3) Mental status of consumer
4) Behaviour of the company
5) None of the above
35. The level of satisfaction a consumer keeps
towards a brand name is called:
1) Brand equity
2) Brand Name
3) Brand utility
4) Branch loyalty
5) All the above
36. Just in time is a technique first used in
which country?
1) India 2) USA
3) Japan
4) UK
5) Germany
37. Marketing of internet banking product
banks means:
1) All bankers can discuss their issues
through net
2) Creating awareness to do transaction in
forex
3) Transacting with different countries
4) Marketing of bank transactions through
internet as it is cheaper to customer and
bank
5) None of the above
KEY: 1-1; 2-2; 3-1; 4-2; 5-4; 6-3; 7-2; 8-5;
9-5; 10-4; 11-1; 12-1; 13-4; 14-5; 15-1; 16-4;
17-4; 18-5; 19-3; 20-5; 21-5; 22-1; 23-1; 24-1;
25-4; 26-1; 27-4; 28-4; 29-4; 30-5; 31-4; 32-5;
33-5; 34-3; 35-4; 36-3; 37-4

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*-: Sr. Administrative Officer,
National Institute of Nutrition,
Jamia - Osmania, OU Road,
Hyderabad- 500 007

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www.ninindia.org

--E- 1 d- 2012

-- j---

APPSC GROUP - I MAINS 2012 MODEL PAPER


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--- 10 d- 2012
1. Which bank is called 'Bankers bank'?
1) SBI
2) National Housing Bank
3) RBI
4) NABARD
5) Exim Bank
2. Reserve Bank of India was Nationalised on 1
January .......
1) 1947
2) 1955 3) 1949
4) 1969
5) 1980
3. Largest Private Sector bank in India is......?
1) HDFC
2) ICICI 3) KVB
4) City Union Bank 5) Axis bank
4. MSF means............?
1) Main Standing Facility
2) Marginal Scoring Facility
3) Marginal Standing Facility
4) Moral Standing Facility
5) More Standing Facility
5. Which Indian chosen for the Ramon
Magsaysay Award for the year 2012, for economic empowerment of thousands of women
and their families in rural areas?
1) Anna Hazare
2) Sundarlal Bahuguna

-- j---
ment bodies only but not to others
3) Putting two lines across the top left of the
cheque ordering the bank to pay cash to
payee through account only
4) The cheque issued by RBI in favour of
State governments and Central governments to give loans
5) None
10. 11th Meeting of Conference of the Parties
(CoP-11) to the convention on Biological
Diversity will be held at ........ in October
2012?
1) Hyderabad
2) Pune 3) Mumbai
4) New Delhi
5) Chennai
11. The Reserve Bank of India asked the
banks not to levy any penalty on pre-payment of .........?
1) Commercial Loans
2) Vehicle Loans
3) Loans given to Infrastructure
4) NRI loans
5) Housing loans
12. In the banking, we use the acronym PIN.

Minister
of
Greece
4) Enrique
Pena
Nieto elected as
next president of
Mexico in the
recent elections
5) Devendra Kumar
Joshi is the new
Navy Chief
21. ......is the intermediate rung in the three-tier
Cooperative Credit structure?
1) Primary Co-operative Banks
2) State Co-operative Banks
3) National Co-operative Banks
4) District Central Co-operative Banks
5) None
22. Pratip Chaudhuri is the Chairman of ....?
1) SBI
2) NABARD
3) NHB
4) PFRDA
5) TRAI
23. CVV means...........

World Population Day is celebrated on...


3) Kulandei Francis 4) Baba Ramdev
5) C.Ranga Rajan
6. The abbreviation list given. Pick the correct
one.
1) NELP - New Exploration Licensing Policy
2) RGCCI - Registrar General and Census
Commissioner of India
3) ABM - Anti Ballistic Missile
4) CAG - Comptroller and Auditor General
5) All of above
7. Which book is not written by Arundhati Roy?
1) The God of Small Things
2) The Cost of Living
3) Malgudi Days
4) The Shape of the Beast
5) The Algebra of Infinite Justice
8. Which committee recommended for the
amalgamation of RRBs?
1) K.C.Chakravarthy 2) Usha Thorat
3) Vyas
4) C.V. Anand Bose
5) Ajay Kumar Seth
9. Crossed Cheque means .....
1) Two lines put across the cheque to
invalidate it
2) Ordering the bank to pay cash to govern-

EM&
TM

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www.eenadupratibha.net

1) Circular Verification Value


2) Certificate Value Voice
3) Card Verification Value
4) Core Verification Value
5) Cancel Verification Value
GENERAL AWARENESS
24. Effective from 11th August 2012,
RBI reduced SLR (Standard
Liquidity Ratio) by.....
A.Veeraswamy
PIN means .........
1) 2%
2) 3% 3) 0.5%
1) Pure Identification Number
4)
1.5%
5)
1%
2) Personal Identification Noise
25. G-20 Finance Ministers and Central Bank
3) Personal Ignorance Number
Governors Meet 2014 will be held in .........
4) Personal Identification Number
1) USA
2) Australia
3) England
5) Phone Indemnity Number
4) India
5) France
13. How many banks were nationalised by
26. NTPC means....
Indira Gandhi in 1969 ..........?
1) National Thermal Post Corporation
1) 20
2) 25
3) 14 4) 11
5) 6
2) Notional Thermal Power Corporation
14. Rs. 10 paper currency signed by ........?
3) National Thermal Power Coalition
1) Finance Secretary
4) National Thermal Power Corporation
2) President of India 3) Governor of RBI
5) National Thread Power Corporation
4) SBI Chairman
5) Finance Minister
27. National Sports Day celebrated on 29th
15. Which among the following players did not
August on the eve of birth day of .......
get any medal in Olympics 2012, from
1)
C.K.Nayudu
2) Lala Amarnath
India?
3)
Mansur
Ali
Khan
Patudi
1) Sushil Kumar
2) Saina Nehwal
4) Dhyanchand
5) Rajiv Gandhi
3) Abhinav Bindra
4) Yogeshwar Dutt
28. Which among the following term not related
5) Gagan Narang
to Banking?
16. Planning Commission sanctioned Rs. .......
1) Certificate of Deposit
crores for sanitation in the 12th Five Year
2) Cash Reserve Ratio
Plan on 7th June 2012.
3) Law of Demand
4) Clearing House
1) 36,000
2) 34,000
3) 56,000
4) 74,000
5) 15,000
5) Basel
17. SEBI details are given. Pick the wrong one.
29. Nations Capital and Currency list given.
Pick the incorrect combination.
1) SEBI means Securities and Exchange
Board of India
1) Pakistan - Islamabad - Pakistan Rupee
2) SEBI was established on April 12, 1992
2) Australia - Canberra - Australian Dollar
3) Its headquarters is in Mumbai
3) Russia - Moscow - Ruble
4) Its present chairman is C.S. Bhave
4) South Africa - Cape Town - South African
Dollar
5) It is the controller of both Primary market
and secondary Stock markets
5) Italy - Rome - Euro
18. Sunitha Williams is an ........
30. India is not a member in .........
1) Indo-Russian Painter
1) G-15
2) G-20 3) UNO
2) Indo-American Political Leader
4) G-8
5) SAARC
3) Indian origin governor of South Carolina
31. Asian Development Bank (ADB) headquarters is in .......?
4) Indo-American Astronaut
1) Manila (Philippines) 2) Tokyo (Japan)
5) Indo-Srilankan Business tycoon
3) Mumbai (India)
19. India's Air- to -Air missile is ..........
4) Colombo (Sri Lanka) 5) Beijing ( China)
1) Agni
2) Prithvi
3) Shaurya
32. Which International Monetary Organisation
4) Astra
5) Trishul
extended $ 150 million loan for 1st tranche
20. Appointments and newsmakers list given.
of
Railway Sector Investment Program in
Pick the wrong one.
India
on 10th July 2012?
1) Syed Nasim Ahmad Zaidi is the new
1) IMF
2) World Bank
3) ADB
Army Chief
4) IDA
5) ODA
2) Raja Parvez Ashraf is the Prime Minister
33. Which among the following one is not a
of Pakistan
Private Sector bank?
3) Antonis Samaras is the new Prime

1) ING Vysya Bank


2) HDFC
3) Punjab & Sind Bank
4) ICICI
5) Yes Bank
34. Salboni has Currency Note Printing Press.
It is in the state of .......
1) Andhra Pradesh 2) Odisha
3) Tamilnadu
4) West Bengal
5) Karnataka
35. Duleep Trophy belongs to ..........
1) Foot Ball
2) Hand Ball
3) Kabaddi
4) Cricket
5) Wrestling
36. As per 2012-13 budget, to improve productivity in the dairy sector, Rs. 2,242 crore
project is being launched with the assistance of .........
1) World Bank
2) IMF
3) US AID
4) ODA
5) ADB
37. Which bank launched its online application
service for Credit Card - Click2Card on 28th
August 2012?
1) Bank of Baroda
2) Union Bank of India
3) State Bank of India 4) ICICI
5) Axis Bank
38. Green Revolution brings the revolution in
the production of.........
1) Milk
2) Food Grains
3) Meat
4) Fish
5) Onion
39. Who was declared as the most powerful
woman in the world by Forbes magazine on
22nd August 2012?
1) Sonia Gandhi
2) Michelle Obama
3) Angela Merkel
4) Hillary Clinton
5) Dilma Rousseff
40. World Population Day is celebrated on .....
1) 10 February
2) 25 November
3) 11 July
4) 8 November
5) 1 January
41. International donors meeting that pledged
$16 billion contribution for development aid
to Afghanistan until 2015, held in........
1) New Delhi
2) Washington
3) Tel Aviv
4) Tokyo 5) Paris
42. Which two of the following credit cards
HDFC launched recently for Doctors?
1) Prescription & Doctor
2) Platinum & Titanium
3) Superia & Platinum
4) Stethoscope & Me
5) Call & Me
43. Which renowned Assamese Poet died
recently?
1) Rahul Bhattacharya
2) Madan Mohan
3) Hiren Bhattacharyya
4) Rahul Sharma
5) None
44. New Controller General of Accounts (CGA)
of India is .........
1) Vinod Rai
2) Rahul Kullar
3) C.Ranga Rajan
4) Jawahar Thakur
5) Rameshwar Oran
45. Pakistan and India held talks on Siachen
during the month of July 2012 at ....
1) Rawalpindi
2) New Delhi
3) Mumbai
4) Tokyo
5) Washington
KEY: 1-3; 2-3; 3-2; 4-3; 5-3; 6-5; 7-3; 8-3;
9-3; 10-1; 11-5; 12-4; 13-3; 14-3; 15-3;
16-1; 17-4; 18-4; 19-4; 20-1; 21-4; 22-1;
23-3; 24-5; 25-2; 26-4; 27-4; 28-3; 29-4;
30-4; 31-1; 32-3; 33-3; 34-4; 35-4; 36-1;
37-3; 38-2; 39-3; 40-3; 41-4; 42-3; 43-3;
44-4; 45-1.

For SBI (Associate Banks), IBPS (Rural Banks) Clerks Material, Bit bank, Online exams click on...

www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 10 d- 2012
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23-1; 24-2; 25-4; 26-3; 27-2; 28-3; 29-1;
30-3; 31-3; 32-2; 33-1; 34-3; 35-1; 36-1;
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---- 11 d- 2012
PRICING A PRODUCT
1. Which of the following explains the term
MARKET?
1) Where the goods are sold

-- j---
11. Current account opened by a customer A
with national bank that offers unlimited
cheque use facility, clearing services and
anywhere banking facility constitute -

2) Where the services are sold

1) One product

3) Where the buyers and sellers of products


interact and decide to sell and purchase

3) Three Products

4) Where the sellers dictate terms


5) Where the buyers dictate terms
2. Which of the following statement is not a
part of definition of MARKETING?
1) It is the process of determining consumer
demand for goods and services
2) It is a process of creation of goods and
services as per consumer requirement

2) Two Products
4) Four Products

5) Not a Product

1) Mark up pricing
2) Target
pricing

return

3) Marginal cost
pricing
4) Value pricing
5) Group pricing

12. Kitchens of India ready to eat food, is the


product of which of the following?
1) Hamdard

2) ITC Limited

3) Britannia

4) MTR

21. A firm has fixed its


price at 1999 rather than 2000, for its
product. Such pricing strategy is called:

5) None

1) Psychological pricing

13. Where a manufacturer carries improvement


in quality and performance, to augment the
sales of a product, this is called :

2) Discrimination pricing

1) Product Introduction

3) It is a process of selling goods and


services which a firm produces

2) Product Improvement

4) It is a process of satisfying consumer

4) Product Enhancement

5) None of the above

5) None of the above

1) Marketing system

3) Promotional pricing

2) Management information system

4) Value pricing

3) Management system

5) Product mix pricing


22. Goods reach the consumers from the
producers through a chain of entities. This
chain is called:

3) Product Modification

1) Intermediaries

2) Retailers

Focus of a marketing exercise is?


4) Marketing channels

1) Identification of business opportunities

5) Selling entities

2) Understanding the customer needs

23. Producers
chose
different
channels for product distribution,
on the basis of which of the
following factors:

3) Producing according to customer needs


4) Delivering as per customer convenience
5) All the above
4. What is meant by search goods and
products?
1) Which are tangible
2) Which can be packaged
3) Which can be touched
4) Which can be seen
5) All the above
5. In order to take care of the element of
INSEPARABILITY in case of certain services,
which
of
the
following
becomes essential?
1) Advertisement
2) Interaction between seller and buyer
3) Mass production of services to reduce
costs
4) 1, 2 and 3

5) None of the above

6. The implicit responsibility which the banks


undertake in relation to management of
funds of the customer is called :
1) Fiduciary responsibility
2) Financial obligation 3) Intangible feature
4) All the above
5) None
7. A set of marketing tools that a business
organisation uses to pursue its marketing
objectives in the target market is called :
1) Marketing mix
2) Marketing of products
3) Marketing tools
4) Marketing strategies

5) All the above

8. Which of the following is included under 4 C


corresponding to 4 P for product mix?
1) Customer needs and wants
2) Cost to the customer

3) Convenience

4) Communication

5) All the above

9. FMCG stands for


1) Fast moving consumer goods

MARKETING

14. There are five stages of product K.V. Gnana Kumar


1) Product characteristics
development. Which of the following is the
2) Market characteristics
first stage?
3) Customer characteristics
1) Idea screening
2) Concept testing
4) Resources 5) All the above
3) Product development 4) Test marketing
24. Banks offer products such as Current
5) Commercial launch
Account, Savings Bank Account and Term
15. Under packing of product, where the
Deposit which are different in their features
product is placed in a cover and cover is
and use. The characteristics of these
kept in a cardboard box, this packaging is
products is called:
called:
1) Intangibility
2) Inseparability
1) Primary package
3) Variability
4) Perishability
2) Secondary package
5) All the above
3) Shipping package
25. Banks facilitate payment services at
4) Total package
merchant establishments through which of
5) None of the above
the following?
16. The sum value of all the values that
1) ATMs
2) Branches
consumer exchanges for the benefits of
3) Debit cards
4) Credit cards 5) 4 & 5
having or using the product or service is
26. The process of communicating the
called:
properties of different elements of
1) Revenue
2) Sale
3) Price
marketing mix to the customers with the
4) Spread
5) Pricing strategy
objective of influencing them is called:
17. Which of the following is affected by the
1) Marketing
2) Promotion Mix
pricing, in case of a business concern ?
3) Promotion
4) Advertising
1) Profits
2) Growth 3) Sustainability
5) Reinforcing
4) 1 & 2
5) 1, 2 and 3
27. A customer gives a telephone call to a bank
18. Which of the following is not an Internal
asking for details of housing loan
factor in pricing by a business firm?
availability. Bank representative calls on the
1) Corporate and Marketing objectives of
customer concerned to explain the details.
the firm
This is called:
2) Characteristics of the product
1) Direct marketing 2) Personal selling
3) Life Cycle stage of the product

3) Advertising

4) Manufacturing and Marketing cost of the


product

5) None

5) None of the above


19. Three main inputs (Called 3C's) are taken
into account while fixing price. Which of the
following is not a part of 3C's ?

4) Public relation

28. A promotion strategy which is directed at


channel members to induce them to
purchase the product and sell them to the
final consumer is called:
1) Promotion strategy

2) Frequently moving corporate goods

1) Customer's demand schedule

2) Marketing strategy

3) Selling strategy

3) Forcibly moving consumer goods

2) Cost function

4) Push strategy

5) Pull strategy

4) Fast moving corporate goods 5) None

4) Carrying cost of the product

10. A seller offering to the buyers a range of


products is called :
1) Market Mix

2) Product Mix

3) Product Lines

4) Product Item

5) None of the above

3) Competitors price
5) None

20. If an Organisation fixes price of a loan


product by offering a product value to the
customers at a relatively lower price (say a
personal loan at 14%, Compared with a
credit card at 30% interest), it is called:

29. When a bank wants to inform its customers


about change in interest rates to attract
new business, the strategy used is called :
1) Advertisement

2) Personal selling

3) Cross selling

4) Public relations

5) 1 & 2

For SBI (Associate Banks) Clerks Material, Bit bank, Online exams click on...

4) Marketing information system


5) All the above
31. What kind of information is required by a
bank under MIS, so far as market forces
are concerned?
1) Information about customers
2) Information about competitors
3) Information about technology
4) Information about government
5) All the above

3) Wholesalers

3. Which of the following is not a part of


marketing management?

30. The process of providing accurate information for use by marketing decision makers to
improve their marketing plan, execution and
control is known as:

www.eenadupratibha.net

32. Marketing Information System is concerned


with information relating to which of the
following:
1) Customers
2) Channel intermediaries
3) Sales persons
4) 1,2 & 3

5) None

33. Out of the items mentioned below which is


not a physical product ?
1) Pilgrimage tour to Badrinath
2) Dosa and Chapathi
3) Clothes
4) Drinking water

5) None of the above

34. Focus of a marketing exercise is:


1) Consumer and consumer requirements
2) Market demand
3) Goods and services
4) Sale of products
5) All the above
35. The process of planning and executing the
conception, Pricing, Promotion and
Distribution to the target group is called:
1) Marketing

2) Selling

3) Management of business
4) Marketing management
5) Any of the above
KEY: 1-3; 2-3; 3-5; 4-5; 5-2; 6-1; 7-2; 8-5;
9-1; 10-2; 11-1; 12-4; 13-3; 14-1; 15-2; 16-3;
17-5; 18-5; 19-4; 20-4; 21-1; 22-4; 23-5; 24-3;
25-5; 26-3; 27-2; 28-4; 29-1; 30-4; 31-5; 32-4;
33-1; 34-1; 35-4.

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-- 11 d- 2012
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--- 12 d- 2012
Ratio and Proportion
R atio means comparison. The number of times
one quantity contains another quantity of the
same kind.
Thus the ratio between 5 litres of oil and 15
litres of oil can be possible, but not between 10
apples and 25 kg of rice.
The ratio between one quantity to another
a
is denoted by a : b or .
b
e.g: 5: 6 or 12 : 9 etc.
The two quantities in the ratio are called its
terms. The first term is called the antecedent
and the second term is called consequent.
The terms of the ratio can be multiplied or
divided by the same number.
Types of Ratios:
Duplicate ratio: The ratio of the squares of
the two numbers.
e.g: 16 : 9 is the duplicate ratio of 4 : 3.

-- j---
Continued Proportion: In the proportion
3
12
= , 3, 12, 48 are in the continued
12
48
proportion.
Fourth proportion: If a : b = c : x, then x is
the fourth proportion of a, b and c.
bc
Fourth proportion of a, b and c =
a
e.g: Find the fourth proportion of 9, 12 and 21.
Sol: Here, a = 9, b = 12 and c = 21
bc 12 21
= = 28
a

Third Proportion: If a : b = b : x, then x is


the third proportion of a and b.
b2
Third proportion of a & b =
a
e.g: What is third proportion of 36 and 48?
Sol: Here, a = 36 and b = 48
b2
48 48
= = 64
a
36

x:y=7:9
4. Two numbers are
in 4:7 ratio. The
difference
between them is
27. What is the
bigger number?
Sol: Let the numbers
be 4x and 7x.
7x 4x = 27
3x = 27 x = 9

Bigger number is 7x = 7 9 = 63
Short cut: The difference of the terms of the
ratio = 7 4 = 3.
But the actual difference between the numbers is 27
3 parts is equal to 27
7
7 parts (Bigger number) = 27 = 63
3
5. The ratio of the ages of a man and his son is

Equal ratios make a proportion!


Triplicate Ratio: The ratio of the cubes of
the two numbers.
e.g: 125 : 64 is the triplicate ratio of 5 : 4.

7 : 3. The average of their ages is 30


years. What will be the ratio of their
ages after 4 years?

Sub-duplicate Ratio: The ratio between the


square roots of the two numbers.
e.g: 3 : 5 is the sub-duplicate ratio of 9 : 25.

Sol: Average age = 30 years

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

Sub-triplicate Ratio: The ratio between the


cube roots of the two numbers.
e.g: 7:5 is the sub-triplicate ratio of 343:125.

Second or Mean Proportion: If


a : x = x : b, then x is Second or
Mean proportion of a and b.

Inverse ratio: If the two terms in the ratio


interchange their places, then the new ratio
is inverse ratio of the first.
e.g: 6 :5 is the inverse ratio of 5 : 6.
Compound ratio: The ratio of the product of
the first terms to that of the second terms of
two or more ratios.
e.g: The compound ratio of
4 7 5
2
4 7 5 2
7
, , and is =
5 8 6
3
5 8 6 3 18

PROPORTION
If two ratios are equal, then they make a
proportion.
3
9
Thus = or 3:5 = 9:15
5
15
3
9
Each term of the ratios and is called
5
15
proportional.
The middle terms 5 and 9 are called means
and the end terms 3 and 15 are called
extremes.
Product of Means = Product of Extremes
1. If a sum of Rs.3150 were distributed among
Ravi, Vijay and Suresh in the ratio of
12:9:14 respectively, then find the share of
Vijay.
A) Rs.1080
B) Rs.1260 C) Rs.810
D) Rs.1620
E) None of these
2. The total number of students in a school is
2850. If the number of boys in the school is
1650, then what is the respective ratio of
the total number of boys to the total number
of girls in the school?
A) 33: 25
B) 11:8
C) 34 : 23
D) 12 : 11
E) None of these
3. A sum of money is divided among A, B, C
and D in the ratio of 5 : 6 : 12 : 15 respectively. If the share of C is Rs. 4092, then
what is the total amount of money?
A) Rs.12960

B) Rs.12828 C) Rs.12450

D) Rs. 12958 E) None of these


4. A sum of Rs.2820 has been distributed
1 1 1
among A, B and C in the ratio : :
3 4 5
respectively. What is the share of B?

Total age = 2 30 = 60 years.


Let their present ages be 7x and
3x years

G.S. Giridhar
60
7x + 3x = 60 x = = 6
10
Their present ages are

Mean proportion of a and b = ab


7 6 and 3 6 = 42 and 18.
e.g: Find the mean proportion of 18 and 32.
Their ages after 4 years
Sol: Mean proportion is

ab = 18 32 = 24
1. a : b = 3: 4; b : c = 6 : 7. Find a : b : c.
Sol:
a
b
c
3
4
6
7
a : b : c = 3 6 : 6 4 : 4 7 = 9 : 12 : 14
2. A sum of Rs.4960 has been divided among
A, B and C in the ratio of 5:4:7. Find the
share of B.
4
Sol: B's share = 4960
5+4+7
= Rs.1240
3. 36% of first number is 28% of the second
number. What is the respective ratio of the
first number to the second number?
Sol: Let the numbers be x and y.
36% of x = 28% of y
x
28
7

=
y =
36
9
A) Rs.900 B) Rs.1200
C) Rs.800
D) Rs.600 E) None of these
5. A, B and C divide an amount of Rs. 6300
amongst themselves in the ratio of 7:6:8
respectively. If an amount of Rs.300 is
added to each of their shares, what will be
the new respective ratio of their shares of
amount?
A) 8 : 7 : 9
B) 7 : 9 : 8
C) 7 : 8 : 6
D) 8 : 9 : 7
E) None of these
ANSWERS: 1-C; 2-B; 3-D; 4-A; 5-A.

EXPLANATIONS
9
1. Vijay's Share = 3150 = Rs.810
35
2. Total number of students = 2850
Number of boys = 1650
Number of girls = 2850 1650 = 1200
Ratio between boys and girls
= 1650 : 1200 = 11 : 8.
3. Let the shares of A, B, C and D be Rs.5x,
6x,12x and 15x respectively. C's share is
Rs.4092

= 42 + 4 and 18 + 4 = 46 and 22 years

ratio = 46 : 22 = 23 : 11
6. Two numbers are in the ratio of 3:4. If 4 is
subtracted from each, the remainders are
in the ratio of 5:7. What are the numbers?
Sol: Let the numbers be 3x and 4x.
If 4 is subtracted from each, the numbers
will be (3x 4) and (4x 4).

Sol: Milk quantity in the mixture


7
= 30 = 21litres
10
Water = 30 21= 9 litres
New ratio = 3:7
3 parts of milk is 21 litres (There is no difference in the milk quantity of new mixture)
Water quantity in the new mixture
7
= 21 = 49 litres
3
49 9 = 40 litres water is to be added in the
new mixture
8. A bag contains of one rupee, 50 paise and
25 paise coins. If these coins are in the ratio
of 5:6:8, and the total amount of coins is
Rs.210, find the number of 50 paise coins in
the bag.
Sol: Let the the number of one rupee, 50 paise
and 25 paise coins be 5, 6 and 8 respectively.
The value of one rupee coins
= Rs.1 5 = Rs.5
The value of fifty paise coins
= Rs.0.50 6 = Rs.3
The value of twenty five paise coins
= Rs.0.25 8 = Rs.2
Total value = 5 + 3 + 2 = Rs.10
If the total value is Rs.10,
there are 6 coins of 50 paise
If the total value is Rs.210, then the number
210
of 50 coins = 6 = 126
10
(Writer - Director, RACE Institute, Hyderabad)

(3x 4) : (4x 4) = 5: 7
Product of means = Product of extremes
(3x 4) 7 = (4x 4) 5
21x 28 = 20x 20

x=8
The numbers are 3 8 and 4 8
= 24 and 32
7. In a bowl there is 30 litre mixture of milk and
water. The ratio of milk and water is 7:3. How
much water must be added to it so that the
ratio of milk to the water be 3:7?
4092
12

12x = 4092 x = = 341


Total money = 38x = 38 341= Rs.12958
4. LCM of 3, 4 and 5 is 60
60 60
60
3
4
5
15
B's share = 2820
20 + 15 + 12

ratio = : : : 20:15:12

15
= 2820 = Rs.900
47
5. Total shares = 7 + 6 + 8 = 21
21 parts = 6300
6300
each part = = 300
21

Their shares are


7 300, 6 300 and 8 300
2100, 1800 and 2400
If 300 is added to each of them then their
shares are 2400, 2100 and 2700
Their ratio = 2400 : 2100 : 2700
=8:7:9

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www.eenadupratibha.net

- 13 d- 2012

-- j---

Directions (Q.1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below:
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around
a circle facing at the centre. F is third to the right
of B who is third to the right of H. A is third to the
left of H. C is fourth to the left of A. E is third to
the right of D, who is not a neighbour of A?
1. In which of the following pairs the second
person is to the immediate right of the first
person?
1) HC
2) BE
3) GB
4) FA
5) None of these
2. Who is second to the right of D?
1) F
2) G
3) A
4) Data Inadequate
5) None of these
3. Who is third to the left of G?
1) H
2) D
3) C
4) F
5) None of these

i.e., 'None of these' as the answer.


Letters:
P MA K T I J E R N D FU W B
Digits/Symbols: 7 # 8 % 1 9 2 @ 3 $ 4 5 6
Conditions:
i. If both the first and the last letters of the
group are Consonants, both are to be
coded as the code for the last letter.
ii. If the first letter is a consonant and the last
letter is a vowel, the code are to be interchanged.
6. BDATFE
1) 6$8146
2) 6$814@
3) @$814@
4) @$8146 5) None of these
7. AWBRND
1) $5638 2) 8563$
3) 8365$
4) 8536$ 5) None of these
8. EMNTKU
1) # 1%@ 2) @# 14 3) @# 1%

1) #@%
2) # $%@
3) #@$%
4) #$%
5) None of these
12. In a certain code
DETAIL is written
as BJMUFE. How
is SUBMIT written
in that code?
1) UJWCVT 2) NJUCVT 3) NJUTVC
4) UJNTVC 5) None of these
13. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word from the second, the fourth, the
sixth and the ninth letters of the word
PROACTIVE, using each letter only once,
second letter of that Word is your answer. If
more than one word can be formed your
answer is M and if no such Word can be

Who is second to the right of D?


4. Who is fourth to the left of C?
1) F
2) A
3) E
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
5. What is Bs position with respect to D?
A. Fourth to the right B. Fourth to the left
C. Fifth to the left
D. Fifth to the right
1) (A) only
2) (B) only
3) (A) and (B) only
4) (C) and (D) only
5) None of these
Directions (Q.6-10): In each question below is
given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digits/symbol's numbered (1), (2),
(3), (4). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the following coding system and
mark the number of that combination as the
answer. If none of the four combinations correctly represents the group of letters, mark (5)

EXPLANATIONS

formed your answer is N.


1) A
2) E
3) T 4) M
5) N
14. How many such pairs of letters
are there in the word FOREHAND, each of which have as
REASONING
many letters between them in the
word as they have in the English
4) #@ 1%
5) None of these
S. Arun Mohan
alphabet?
9. MDEAJI
1) None
2) One
3) Two
1) 1$@82#
2) #$@821
4) Three 5) More than three
3) 1$@821
4) #$@82#
15. Four of the following five are alike in a cer5) None of these
tain way and so form a group. Which is the
10. RKUMFP
one that does not belong to the group?
1) 7%#43 2) 3%#47
3) 3%#43
1) 17
2) 31 3) 23 4) 13
5) 21
4) 3%#47 5) None of these
Directions (Q.16-20): These questions are
11. In a certain code DATE is written as #%$@
based on the following arrangement. Study it
and STYLE is written as $@. How is
carefully and answer the questions that follow.
DELAY written in that code?
T 6 # I J 1 % L E 3 K 9 @ A H 7 B D 2 U $ R 4 8
10-1;

11-1;

Condition (ii) applies

+1
B

9-5;

+1
M

+1
U

+1
F

+1
E

similarly

+1
N

+1
+1
+1
+1
+1
J
U
C
V
T
Hence, Required Code = NJUCVT

13-4; The second, fourth, sixth and ninth letters of the word PROACTIVE are R, A,
T&E
Meaningful words are: RATE, TEAR
14-3;

2
8
#
Condition (ii) applies

>

8-3;

+1
J

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Key
1-1; 2-5; 3-3; 4-2; 5-3; 6-4; 7-2; 8-3; 9-5; 10-1;
11-1; 12-2; 13-4; 14-3; 15-5; 16-5; 17-4; 18-1;
19-5; 20-5.
(Writer - Director, Banking Services Chronicle, Hyderabad)

X---y -

20-5; Fifth to the right of eleventh from the right


end ( 11 5 =) 6th from the right i.e. U.

similarly

>

7-2;

$ @

% $ @

12-2;
B

T Y L E

and

D
1-1;
2-5; C is second to the right of D
3-3; C is third to the left of G
4-2; A is fourth to the left of C
5-3; Bs position with respect to D is Fourth to
the right and Fourth to the left
6-4;

15-5; 16-5; R 4 $ ; 17-4;


+5
+5
+5
6 % 9 B
+5
+5
+5
I E A D
+5
+5
+5
J 3 H 2
18-1; 19-5;
Number
Symbol : 6#,1%, 9@, 4

16. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their positions in
the above arrangement and so form a
group. Which is the one that does not
belong to the group?
1) JI 1
2) EL3
3) @9A
4) 7HB
5) R4$
17. What will come in the place of the question
mark(?) in the following series based on the
above arrangement?
6I J
%E3
9AH
?
1) B2
2) 7D
3) 7BD
4) BD2
5) None of these
18. If all the vowels are removed from the
above arrangement which element will be
the sixth to the right of fourth element from
the left?
1) 9
2) K
3) 3
4) @
5) None of these
19. How many such symbols are there in the
above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a number?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
20. Which element is fifth to the right of
eleventh from the right end?
1) $
2) U
3) 1
4) 3
5) None of these

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Dharmagiri, Tirumala
Chittoor, Andhra Pradesh

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1
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--C- 16 d- 2012

-- j---

Joshi Pallavi, Nirmal


Q: What can you compare
with/ to? - Which one is
correct?
A: What can you compare it
with?/ what can you compare
it to? - Both are correct with
slightly different meanings.
Compare to = Similar to

Compare with = Study the similarity =

(x)

are

Dear me.

A: He is better than any other boy = He is


better than all other boys.

Is there no such
thing
as
a
gentleman.

Sanjay Singhania, Vanasthalipuram

La

2) You should not compare Indian movies

A: Oh God!

E n

Q: Translate into English.

A:

You do sir Charles injustice.

e.g.: 1) A beautiful woman's face is often


compared to the moon =

-i Y Eo
v- -h. ( / -
E C)

, o
x u
(L) .

Q: He is better than any other boys/ than all


other boys.

(L )

and my father -

Q: Stones are cracked following the heat Explain the meaning of the underlined word.
A: Because of the heat, cracks
formed in the stones.

Z E @ * -- - o u
\ -- B- - - -Z L- h, Z - v vA- - _ --o v h- o-E vP o-.

A: What are the central ministers from the state


doing when the gas from the K.G. Basin is

A:

words. They can be used with words like is,


was, were, the, a, an etc., which are structure
words.

l-- T x ?
O/ y u h-o/ ho.

However I didn't keep the appointment.


A:

x-Lq - x-Lq

He is not honest as such!


with English movies =

B- *v-, x
*v- a-- (, O C)

(appointment)

being diverted to Maharashtra


without meeting the needs of the
state, he questioned.

D@, d X- vh --
Lh, L .

A:

Q: No one knows where he goes every day - Is


this correct?

A: Correct.

A: Keep up the name of your father/ live up to


the name of your father.

Q: They don't know who I am? - Is this correct?

Raghupathi Naidu, Desaipet

A: Correct.
Q:

M. SURESAN

q N-*-d J Rx
P~ C = I got this punishment as

Q: Translate the following sentences into


Telugu.

I had left my parents and went to the town Is this correct?

There is nothing common between my father


and me

A: This is the punishment I got for leaving my


parents here and going to the town.

A: There is nothing in common between me

Q: They are so rich that they own five cars - Is


this correct?
A: Correct.
Q: We couldn't sleep even though/ quite we
were tired - Is this correct?
A: We couldn't sleep even though we were
tired - Correct.
Q: How much he earns per month?/ How much
does he earn per month? - Which one is correct?
A: How much does he earn per month? Correct?

K. Srinu, Warangal
Q: "call sb's bluff" -

Idiom

j n,

sEo -.
A: Call somebody's bluff = To ask someone to
prove their claim/ what they say they can do
=

p--o p E----E
-/ .

He always claimed that he helped the poor


and she called his bluff when she asked him to
donate a thousand rupees to an orphanage =

--p H h-E p---;


u - N v--E
- A ---C.

Rohit: Have I to go all the way now and get the


files for you?

( Rx F jx
B?)

Mallik: Don't worry.


Who said you
have to? You
don't have to get
them. Just turn
on the net and
download them.

(--.
-E -o? y B- .
,
jx - u.)
Rohit: Wait for a while. I need to get my
laptop. Once I get it, there will be no stopping me. I'll fire away.

(-. a--L. C a- -o -x . h E -h.)

Mallik: You need not get it. I have got one with
me. You can use it.

(C y a---\-. _- - C. yC
a.)

Rohit: Don't we have to get some paper for


taking the print-outs?

Soumya Patekar, Balharsha

Mallik: Just don't worry. I have my pen drive.


We can take all the files and download
them when we need them.

Q: I am a student - Can this sentence be


changed into complex and compound
sentences?
A: You can change, but it will be an awkward
(ugly) sentence. (I am one who is a student)
- Isn't this around about way of saying something. Always remember - our sentences
should be short, plain and direct - whether
they are simple, complex or compound.

Spoken English

--E h h Eo --.

O -
---.

A: He fears.
Q: If I joined here as a teacher, would I be
guided - Explain in Telugu.
A:

E-\ J, ?
Vijay Sahani, Rajolu

A: No meaning - The sentence is wrong.


If I joined here would I be guided.

Q: What is the meaning of "as such"?

A:

A: As such = As a word is usually understood.

E-\ J-T (-),


?

Add Words
A: Add Words = Content Words.
Take for example words like pen, paper,
book, apple etc. These are "add/ content"

He is not honest as such = He is not as honest as the word 'honest' means (Honest
honest
as people
usually understand 'honest' -

E-, -- E n)
n N.

Need I tell you again?

Uttara Kumara's bluff was called when he


faced the Kourava army =

juEo
\Lq *a--p h - vs
Ah-E L--C.

There is a pen/ pencil/ book/ paper etc. We


can go on changing the add words and arrange
them in these places in a group of structure
words. usually structure words are short, 'add'
words are long.

x-.

Taking his father dinner.

O o E--dL.

I have a pen, I have a pencil, ... a book, ....


paper. etc., similarly we can also say.

Structure words are essential for framing


sentences.

I sent the coach home with a message that I would be home for dinner.

-x--- 700

Compare the present leaders with Gandhi


and Potti Sreeramulu. The similarity is little =

Structure words remaining the same, we can


go on changing the add words.

(v q
BE a---- ?)

( --.
_ wj C. jxFo
\*, p --- p
Ba.)

Rohit: I don't know how to use the pen drive.


You should do it yourself.

( -wj -T- . y --L.)

Mallik: I undersand. I'll do it. Hurry up. We


must leave before 6.30.
6.30

2) I need to get my laptop.

Rohit: OK.

Have to be/ Have to + 1st RDW, (Have to


go/ have to work) has to be/ has to + 1st RDW
(Has to go, has to work) Don't have to/ need not/ don't need to / doesn't
need to.

(n-iC. h.
xL.)

y .

Note: 1) Download -

u- * -

B--
vh
3) Fire away - E-- E-- x

4) Don't we have to get some paper?

O uA-

2) No stopping -

3) You need not get

(j -----)

Praneeth: He has to pay the amount.

lesson Have to/ Has to - --o.


1) Obligation (NC -Lq E)/ Order (c
a-.

(- - -h-Eo Lx-L.)
Sunanda: Why has he to? No, he has not
taken it, so he doesn't have to/ he need
not/ he doesn't need to pay it.

(-- Lx-L? .
s B--. Lx---\--.)
(don't = do not; doesn't = does not)
2) Duty -

hu and
3) Necessity ( --Eo ---E)
Have to/ Has to Th-E --o.

Sumanth: When do you want me to be here,


sir?

(o \ p ---?)

Rama Rao: You have to be here by 9. You


have to pay the money into the bank by
10.
Order.)

(y Nt-C--x \--L.
C---x u s d-L.

He has to be at office from 10 to 6.

10

- L

Duty).
She has to go home. Her old mother is
alone.
- Necessity).

( xL. xt -J

Now look at the following from the


conversation above:
1) You don't have to go (.... do not have to go)

Need not = Doesn't/ don't need to =


Look at the following

\--.

Has he to do it? = Does he have to do it?


He need not do it/ He
doesn't
(does
not) need to it

(-C u?) $
(-C -- .)
-C
--? =
Need he do it?/
Does he need to
do it?
Need I tell you
again? =

F Sx
pLq - ?/ Have I to tell you
again? = F Sx p? N
.
Need to, need not , Have to/ has to
opposite --Th.

Spoken English - - - u- -x ---... www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 17 -d- 2012


Directions (Q.1-5): In each of the questions
below are given three statements followed by
two conclusions numbered I and II. You have
to take the three given statements to be true
even if they seem to be at variance from the
commonly known facts and then decide which
of the given conclusions logically follows from
the three statements disregarding commonly
known facts.
Give answer 1) if only conclusion I follows
Give answer 2) if only conclusion II follows.
Give answer 3) if either conclusion I or
conclusion II follows.
Give answer 4) if neither conclusion I nor
conclusion II follows

-- j---
All gems are diamonds
All corals are gems
Conclusions: I. All pearls are diamonds
II. All corals are diamonds
Directions (Q.6-10): In the following questions
symbols @, #, %, $, and are used with different meanings as follows:
A @B means A is not smaller than B
A # B means A is neither smaller than nor
equal to B
A % B means A is neither smaller than nor
greater than B
A $ B means A is not greater than B
A B means A is neither greater than nor
equal to B

Conclusions:
I. F#R
II. R$N
8. Statements: H # I,
I@J, J $ P
Conclusions: I. H#J
II. H#P
9. Statements: L D,
D#K,
K$J
Conclusions: I. LK
II. D$J
10. Statements: Q$W, W%E,
E@K
Conclusions: I. Q$K
II. W@K
Directions (Q.11-15): In each of these questions a group of letters is given followed by
four combinations of digits and symbols num-

Some W ells are R ivers!


Give answer 5) if both conclusions I and II
follow.
1. Statements: All taps are wells
Some wells are canals
All canals are rivers
Conclusions: I. Some rivers are taps
II. Some wells are rivers
2. Statements:
Some files are papers
Some papers are books
All books are journals.
Conclusions: I. Some papers are journals
II. Some files are journals
3. Statements: Some apples are grapes
Some grapes are mangoes
No mango is guava
Conclusions: I. Some guavas are apples.
II. No guava is apple
4. Statements: Some computers are screens
Some screens are movies
Some movies are scripts
Conclusions: I. Some computers are movies
II. Some screens are scripts
5. Statements: All pearls are gems
EXPLANATIONS
1-2; All taps are wells. (A type)

Some wells are canals. (I type)


A + I = ''. No conclusion
Some wells are canals (I type)

All canals are rivers. (A type).


I + A = I Type conclusion.
Hence Some wells are rivers.
This is conclusion II.
2-1; Some papers are books. (I type)

All books are journals.(A type)


I + A = I Type conclusion.
Hence Some papers are journals.
This is conclusion I.
5-5; All pearls are gems. (A type)

All gems are diamonds. (A type)


A + A = A Type conclusion.
Hence All pearls are diamonds.
This is conclusion I
All corals are gems. (A type)

All gems are diamonds. (A type)


A + A = A type conclusion.
Hence All corals are diamonds.
This is conclusion II
(6-10): A@B means A B
A# B means A > B

bered (1), (2), (3) & (4). The letters


are to be coded as per the scheme
and conditions given below. The serial number of the combination that
correctly represents the group of letREASONING
ters is your answer. If none of the
combination is correct your answer is
In each of the following quesS. Arun Mohan
(5). i.e , None of these.
tions assuming the given statements
Letter:
H I T KR F A L E M JBQ U
to be true, find out which of the two conclusions
Digit/Symbol:
3 7% # 4 $ 6 9@ 25 8
I and II given below them is/are definitely true.
Conditions:
Give answer 1) If only conclusion I is true.
i) If the first letter in the group is a vowel and
Give answer 2) If only conclusion II is true
the last letter is a consonant their codes
Give answer 3) If either conclusion I or conare to be interchanged
clusion II is true
ii) If the first letter in the group is a consonant
Give answer 4) If neither conclusion I nor
and the last letter is a vowel both are to be
conclusion II is true.
Coded by the code for vowel
Give answer 5) If both the conclusions I and
iii) If the first as well as the last letter is a
II are true
vowel both are to be coded by the code
for the first Letter
6. Statements: T@V, V # M,
M%F
11.
I
RHMEJ
Conclusions:
1) 743@2
2) 243@2
I. T # M
II. T@F
3) 743@7
4) 243@7
7. Statements:
L$N,
N F, R % L
5) None of these
A % B means A = B
A $ B means A B
A B means A < B
6-1; T@V T V
V#M V > M
M%F M = F
Hence, T V > M = F
Conclusions:
I. T#M T > M (True)
II. T@F T F (True)
7-5; L$N L N
NF N < F
R%L R = L
Hence, R = L N < F
Conclusions:
I. F#R F > R (True)
II. R$N R N (True)
8-1; H#1 H > 1
I@J I J
J$P J P
Hence, H > I J P
Conclusions:
I. H#J H > J (True)
II. H#P H > P (True)
9-4; LD L < D
D#K D > K
K$J K J
Hence, L < D > K J
Conclusions:
I. L K L < K (Not True)
II. D$J D J (Not True)
10-2; Q$W Q W
W%E W = E
E@K E K
Hence, Q W = E K

Conclusions:
I. Q$K Q K (Not True)
II. W@K W K (True)
11-4;
I R H M E J

2 4 3 @ 7 Condition (i) applies


12-5;
T F I K A R

% $

13-3;
M H

E J K

@ 2 #

F I

K L R U

14-3;

8 7 # 9 4 8 Condition (ii) applies


15-2;
A L F J H E


6 9
(16-20):


2 3 6 Condition (iii) applies

H
D

K
16-2;
17-5;
18-1;
19-3;
20-4;

KEY: 1-2; 2-1; 3-4; 4-4; 5-5; 6-1; 7-5; 8-1;


9-4; 10-2; 11-4; 12-5; 13-3; 14-3; 15-2;
16-2; 17-5; 18-1; 19-3; 20-4.
(Writer - Director, Banking Services Chronicle, Hyderabad)

uuf jq p--

12. TFIKAR
1) 4$7#6%
2) 4$7#64
3) %$7#6%
4) %$6#74 5) None
13. MHEJKQ
1) 3@2#
2) 3@2#
3) 3@2#
4) 3@2#@
5) None
14. FIKLRU
1) $7#948
2) $7#94$
3) 87#948
4) 87#94$
5) None
15. ALFJHE
1) @9$236
2) 69$236
3) @9$23@
4) 69$23@ 5) None
Directions (Q.16-20): Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.
Seven friends K, M, L, H, F, D & C are sitting
around a circle facing the centre. L is second to
the right of H who is to the immediate right of C.
M is third to the left of D and to the immediate
right of F.
16. Who is third to the left of C?
1) L 2) K 3) F 4) K or F
5) None
17. Which of the following pair of persons represent the neighbours of K?
1) LD
2) FM 3) ML 4) CH 5) None
18. Who is to the immediate right of L?
1) K
2) D 3) H 4) M
5) None
19. Who is second to the right of C?
1) M 2) L 3) D
4) F
5) None
20. Which of the following pair of persons has
the first person sitting to the immediate right
of second person?
1) DL 2) KF 3) CH 4) DH 5) None

K is third to the left of C


LF
K is to the immediate right of L.
D is second to the right of C
D is to the immediate right of H.

For SBI (Associate Banks) Clerks Material, Bit bank, Online exams click on... www.eenadupratibha.net

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--- 17 -d- 2012

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www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 18 -d- 2012


1. Which of the following is most essential for
effective multimedia presentations incorporates user participation or ....
1) Links
2) Buttons
3) Interactivity
4) Integration
5) None
2. Most of the websites have moving graphics,
which are called as:
1) animations
2) vectors
3) links
4) morphs
5) None
3. Which of the following is the term used to
enlarge a window to its maximum area so
that it fills the entire desktop?
1) Maximize
2) Zoom 3) Enlarge
4) Extend
5) None of these
4. Microsoft Windows and Apple Mac are
widely used Operating systems in today's
world. Which of the following feature makes
them so popular?
1) Multitasking Capacity
2) Calligraphy

-- j---
9. During the boot process, which of the
following looks for the system files?
1) CD
2) BIOS
3) CPU
4) DVD
5) None of these
10. DNS is the abbreviation of:
1) Domain Name Service
2) Domain Name System
3) Direct Network Service
4) Direct Network System
5) None of these
11. File transfer protocol is used for:
1) Transferring email
2) Uploading files
3) Downloading files
4) Both 1 and 2
5) Both 2 and 3
12. Which of the following keys is used in combination with another key to perform a specific task?
1) Function
2) Space Bar 3) Del
4) Alt
5) Arrow
13. Which of the following command is used to

2) Horizontal
Market
Software
3) Vertical Market
Software
4) Firmware
5) None of these
17. Hyperlink in a
web
document
usually appears:
1) Bold and Coloured
2) Bold and Italicized
3) Underlined and coloured
4) Bold and underlined
5) Italicized and underlined
18. Which of the following allows users to
upload files to an online site so that they
can be viewed and edited from another
location?
1) Office Live
2) Microsoft Outlook
3) Common-Purpose applications

File transfer protocol is used for...?


3) User-friendly GUI
4) Being Inexpensive
5) None of these
5. Physical components of a computer are
called:
1) Hardware
2) Software
3) Viruses
4) Internet
5) None of these
6. Which of the following is an object oriented
feature:
1) Structured Programming
2) Multi-Tasking
3) Linking
4) Inheritance
5) None of these
7. In Windows XP, which of the following views
is the best to see the file size and modified
dates of all files in a folder.
1) List
2) Icon 3) Thumbnails
4) Details 5) None of these
8. Which of the following keys is used to
remove a character on the right of the cursor
in a word document?
1) Home
2) End
3) Delete
4) Backspace
5) None of these

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4) Web-hosted Technology
5) None of these
19. The letter and the number of the
intersecting column and row is
the ........
COMPUTER AWARENESS
1) Cell location
2) Cell position
start MS Word from the Run com3) Cell address 4) Cell coordinates
KVN Prashanth Kumar
mand in the Start Menu?
5) Cell contents
1) Msword
2) Winword
20. In Power-point, the Footer and Header but3) Winms
4) Worddoc
ton can be found on the Insert tab in which
of the following groups?
5) None of these
1) Illustrations Group
14. Windows Explorer is a .........
1) Personal Computer
2) Drive
2) Object Group
3) Text Group
3) Browser
4) Network
4) Tables Group
5) None of these
5) File manager
21. In the basic computer processing cycle
which of the following are present?
15. Which of the following shows all the
websites and pages that are already visited
1) Input processing and output
over a period of time?
2) System and application
1) Status Bar
2) Task Bar
3) Data information and application
3) History List
4) Tool Bar 5) None
4) Hardware, software and storage
16. A Web browser is an example of:
5) None of these
1) Open Source Software
22. Which of the following defines a Firmware?
1) The physical Component used in a
computer system.
2) A set of instructions through which a
computer does one or more work.
3) People involved in the computing
process.
4) A set of programs that are pre-installed
in read-only memory of computer during
www.drysrhu.edu.in
manufacturing.
5) None of these
23. Which of the following can be used instead
of remembering e-mail addresses?
1) Phone book
2) Address Book
3) Search Engine
4) Browser software
5) None of these
24. Which of the following is considered as both
input and output device?
1) Printer
2) Scanner
3) Monitor
4) Speaker
5) Modem
25. '.exe', '.html', '.mp3', '.doc' etc, are examples of which of the following?
1) Databases
2) Extensions
3) Domains
4) Protocols
5) Websites
26. Computers that are portable and convenient for users who travel are known as:
1) Super Computers
2) Laptops
3) Mini Computers
4) Mainframe Computers
5) None of these
27. Which of the following menu is selected to
go to print preview?
1) Edit
2) File
3) Insert
www.navodaya.nic.in

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For SBI (Associate Banks) Clerks Material, Bit bank, Online exams click on...

www.eenadupratibha.net

4) View
5) None of these
28. Which of the following is a popular programming language for developing multimedia web pages, websites and web-based
applications?
1) COBOL
2) Java
3) BASIC
4) FORTRAN
5) None of these
29. Which of the following will be the common
file extension for an installation file?
1) .mpeg
2) .doc
3) .ppt
4) .pdf
5) .exe
30. Windows XP, Mac, Linux are examples of:
1) Processors
2) Domain names
3) Modems
4) Operating systems
5) None of these
31. Any letter, number or symbol found on the
keyboard that you can type into the computer is called:
1) Output
2) Character
3) Type
4) Print
5) None of these
32. A technology for using the Internet or
another intermediate network to connect
computers to isolated remote computer networks that would otherwise be inaccessible
is known as:
1) Local Area Network (LAN)
2) File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
3) Campus Area Network (CAN)
4) Virtual Private Network (VPN)
5) None of these
33. Pick the odd one out.
1) Mouse
2) Keyboard
3) Printer
4) Windows
5) Speaker
34. When sending an e-mail, the ..... line
describes the contents of the message.
1) To
2) Subject
3) Contents
4) CC
5) None of these
35. Which of the following is not a graphic file
format that allows animation to be viewed
on a computer?
1) GIF
2) MNG 3) MP8
4) SVG
5) SWF
36. Which of the following is true about Blu-ray
Disc?
1) It is an optical storage medium
2) Its size is same as CD and DVD
3) Single Layer Blu-ray Disc contains 25
GB and Dual Layer discs Contain 50 GB
4) Blu-ray Disc uses blue-laser light unlike
red laser used in DVDs
5) All are correct
37. '.rtf' is a file extension for documents. RTF
stands for?
1) Real Time Formatting
2) Rich Text Format
3) Real Time Fonts
4) Real Text format
5) None of these
38. Android is a / an:
1) Application Software
2) Web Browser
3) Mobile Operating System
4) International Standard Organization
5) Social Networking Site
KEY: 1-3; 2-1; 3-1; 4-3; 5-1; 6-4; 7-4; 8-3;
9-2; 10-2; 11-5; 12-4; 13-2; 14-5; 15-3;
16-2; 17-3; 18-4; 19-3; 20-3; 21-1; 22-4;
23-2; 24-5; 25-2; 26-2; 27-2; 28-2; 29-5;
30-4; 31-2; 32-4; 33-4; 34-2; 35-3; 36-5;
37-2; 38-3.
(Writer - Director, DBS, Hyderabad)

--- 18 -d- 2012


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www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 19 -d- 2012


1. Expand BRBNMPL ......
1) Bharatiya Reserve Borrow Note Mudran
Private Limited
2) Bangalore Reserve Bank Note Mudran
Private Limited
3) Bharatiya Resale Bank Note Mudran
Private Limited
4) Bharatiya Reserve Bank Negotiable
Mudran Private Limited
5) Bharatiya Reserve Bank Note Mudran
Private Limited
2. From 1 April 2012, the validity of cheque is...
1) 3 months
2) 6 months
3) 9 months
4) 12 months
5) 18 months
3. On 8th August 2012, which bank introduced
the First Financial Super market at Jaipur?
1) Syndicate Bank
2) Andhra Bank
3) Canara Bank
4) ICICI
5) State Bank of Bikaner & Jaipur
4. SWIFT is an internationally-recognized iden-

-- j---
14. RTGS stands for ......
1) Real Time Gross Stipulations
2) Role Time Gross Settlement
3) Real Time Gross Settlement
4) Real Tag Gross Settlement 5) None
15. Reserve Bank Staff college is at ....
1) Hyderabad
2) Pune 3) Chennai
4) New Delhi
5) Kanpur
16. Banking Regulation Act was passed in .....
1) 1947
2) 1949 3) 1991
4) 2000
5) 1935
17. GAAR means .....
1) General Advantage-Avoidance Rules
2) General Anti-Avoidance Rules
3) Government Anti-Avoidance Rules
4) General Anti-Advantage Rules
5) None
18. Miss World 2012 is .......
1) Sophie Moulds (Wales)
2) Jessica Kahawaty (Australia)

3) used
Atom
Bomb
4) to walk on the
Moon
5) visited the north
pole by foot
29. Dr.
Poonam
Kishore Saxena is
the Chairman of....
1) National Commission for Woman
2) Insurance Regulatory Authority of India
3) Competition Commission of India
4) Central Board of Direct Taxes
5) None of above
30. The list of Revolution given. Pick the
correct one.
1) White - Milk
2) Green - Food Grains
3) Blue - Fish
4) Yellow - Oil Seeds
5) All of above
31. Foreign Exchange Reserves are kept in the
custody of.....

Buy now and Pay later!


tification code for banks around the world,
which has 8 or 11 alphanumeric characters.
SWIFT means ......
1) Stand for Worldwide Interbank Financial
Telecommunication
2) Society for Worldwide Internal bank
Financial Telecommunication
3) Society for World Interbank Financial
Telecommunication
4) Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial
Telecommunication
5) None
5. As per the RBI Governor statement, how
much fund needed by the Indian Banking
Sector to fulfil the Basel -III norms by 31st
March 2018?
1) Rs.5 Lakh Crore 2) Rs.4 Lakh Crore
3) Rs.8 Lakh Crore 4) Rs.15 Lakh Crore
5) Rs.3.5 Lakh Crore
6. How much percent of Foreign Direct
Investment (FDI) in insurance and pension
sector proposed to allow by the Finance
Ministry on 22nd August 2012?
1) 100
2) 51
3) 49 4) 74 5) 41
7. Which is not a Maharatna Company?
1) IOC
2) ONGC
3) HAL
4) NTPC 5) SAIL
8. Recently Delhi and Rajasthan extended the
age bar on child labour from 14 years to....
1) 16 years
2) 21 years 3) 18 years
4) 25 years
5) 30 years
9. Which Delhi based scientist, won the prestigious Norman Borlaug Award for her work in
transforming access to water for thousands
of farmers in West Bengal?
1) R.Srinivasan
2) Panchala Gore
3) Aditi Mukherjee
4) Aditya Mukherjee
5) Kala Singham
10. 'Lasting Peace through Joint Global
Governance' is the theme of which summit
recently held in Teheran on 30-31 August
2012?
1) ASEAN
2) NAM
3) SAARC
4) SCO
5) G-7
11. Chief Minister of Meghalaya is ....
1) Okram Ibobi Singh 2) Pu Lalthanhawla
3) Mukul Sangma
4) Tarun Gogoi
5) Neiphiu Rio
12. ......... became the fastest player to score
3000 runs in one-day internationals in 57
Innings.
1) Virat Kohli
2) Hashim Amla
3) Sachin Tendulkar 4) Yuvraj Singh
5) Ricky Ponting
13. 'Buy now and Pay later' is the principle of...
1) Debit Card
2) Credit Card
3) Now card
4) ABM card
5) AADHAR Card

1) RBI
2) SEBI
3) NABARD
4) Ministry of External Affairs
5) None
32. ISO 27001: 2005 given to banks
GENERAL AWARENESS
in the recognition of ....
1) having best telephone service
3) Yu Wenxia (China)
A.Veeraswamy
2) having good infrastructure
4) Vanya Mishra (India)
3) having best managers
5) Mariana Notarangelo (Brazil)
4) having best security practice
19. Which book not written by Robin Sharma?
5) having Air-conditioned branches
1) Top 200 Secret of Success
33. RBI does not mint ...... paper currency.
2) Mega Living: 30 Days to A Perfect Life
1) Rs. 5
2) Rs. 10
3) Rs. 1
3) The Luminous Sparks
4)
Rs.100
5)
Rs.
20
4) The Lead without A Title Manifesto
34. Bank note Press Dewas is in the state of...
5) Family Wisdom
1) Uttar Pradesh
2) Madhya Pradesh
20. International Youth Day Celebrates on ......
3) Goa
4) Tamilnadu
1) August 15
2) September 18
5)
Karnataka
3) December 9
4) August 12
35. Which of the following statement is wrong
5) January 18
regarding the banking systems?
21. On 22nd August 2012, Supreme Court
1) Group banking means the banks regubanned the tourism in the core areas of...
lated by a group or association
1) Crocodile Parks 2) Lion Reserves
2)
Investment banking means the bank
3) Western Ghats
4) Rhino Parks
assists
companies raising capital by
5) Tiger Reserves
underwriting and acting as the agent in
22. Where the Confederation of Indian Industry
the issuance of securities
(CII) held the 'Eleventh Energy Efficient
3) Universal banking means the banks run
Summit' recently between 22 August 2012
by universities
to 25 August 2012?
4)
Virtual banking means the bank offers
1) Pune
2) Kolkata
services predominately or exclusively
3) Hyderabad
4) Chennai
through the Internet, telephone etc.
5) Kanpur
5) All of above
23. India won Nehru Cup football tournament
36. India and which country signed an agreebeating......
ment to avoid double taxation and prevent
1) Israel
2) Sri Lanka
3) China
fiscal evasion with respect to taxes on
4) Cameroon
5) France
income on 27th July 2012?
24. Indian
Institute
of
Agricultural
1) Iran
2) USA 3) UK
Biotechnology will be established in.....
4) Indonesia
5) Japan
1) Jalandhar
2) Amritsar 3) Mysore
37. Which Stock Exchange became the world's
4) Ranchi
5) Nagpur
largest bourse in terms of the number of
25. ...... launching is 100th mission of ISRO
trades in equity segment for the first six
(Indian Space Research Organization).
months of 2012?
1) PSLV C-20
2) PSLV C-21
1) BSE
2) MSE
3) NSE
4) SEBI
5) MCX-SX
3) SLV C-21
4) PSLV -21
38. Empowered Group of Ministers (EGoM) on
5) ASLV C-21
drought headed by .....?
26. Vanuatu is the 157th member of ......
1) Sharad Yadav
2) Chidambaram
1) UNO
2) WTO
3) World Bank
3) Man Mohan Singh
4) SAARC
5) NATO
4) Sushma Swaraj 5) Sharad Pawar
27. 'Kerosene-free' scheme recently launched
39. Uttarakhand Chief Minister is.....
by....
1) Vijay Bahuguna 2) Raman Singh
1) Delhi
2) Andrha Pradesh
3) Nitesh Kumar
4) N.D.Tiwari
3) Madhya Pradesh 4) West Bengal
5) Margaret Alwa
5) Gujrat
40. Leon Panetta visited India in the month of
28. Neil Armstrong is the first person .....
June 2012. He is ....
1) to walk on the Mars
1) US Ambassador to India
2) to make journey in the space

2) US Defence Secretary
3) US Special Envoy on Kashmir
4) US Ambassador for Nutrition in India
5) None
41. Who was appointed as the head of Rajiv
Gandhi Khel Ratna Awards Committee?
1) Sachin Tendulkar
2) P.T.Usha
3) Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore
4) Sushil Kumar
5) Abhinav Bhindra
42. Khandelwal committee report deals with....
1) Banking sector human resource management
2) Poverty in rural areas
3) Railway Traffic
4) Human Trafficking
5) None
43. .....became the first bank to offer 'RuPay
Kisan Card' with 'Aadhaar' authentication?
1) SBI
2) OBC
3) Syndicate bank 4) Andhra Bank
5) ICICI
44. Which co-operative bank applied for the
license with RBI to join the group of commercial banks on 12th June 2012?
1) APGVB
2) DGB 3) REPCO
4) CGGB
5) SGB
45. Institute for Development and Research in
Banking Technology (IDRBT) at.....
1) Gurgoan
2) Jalandhar
3) Chennai
4) Hyderabad
5) Pune
Key: 1-5; 2-1; 3-5; 4-4; 5-1; 6-3; 7-3; 8-3; 9-3;
10-2;
18-3;
26-2;
34-2;
42-1;

11-3; 12-2; 13-2; 14-3; 15-3; 16-2;


19-3; 20-4; 21-5; 22-3; 23-4; 24-4;
27-1; 28-4; 29-4; 30-5; 31-1; 32-4;
35-3; 36-4; 37-3; 38-5; 39-1; 40-2;
43-2; 44-3; 45-4.

17-2;
25-2;
33-3;
41-3;

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For SBI (Associate Banks) Clerks Material, Bit bank, Online exams click on...

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--- 19 -d- 2012


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www.eenadupratibha.net

--C- 2 d- 2012

-- j---

R. Rajavalli, Himakuntla,
Kadapa
Q: The time now is 5 O' Clock.
'O'

\ j -Z
L? N-J-.

A: 5 O' clock; O' clock = Of the


clock (O' = Of) =

v.
Mayuri Govind, Gandhipur
Q: 1) While the Earth moves around its axis,
only half portion of it receives Sun's rays.

j u had ----N?
J--C !

Past doing

word

A: Ram had lost his bicycle yesterday - Wrong.


Had lost - Had + past participle (PP) of lose
- Past Perfect tense. Past doing word
correct.

He lost his bicycle yesterday - Past perfect


(had + PP)
past action at a definite time
(yesterday)

Q: Did she quarrel with you?

d- (h
* d-
p LC)

2) Dry (up) = To
change from a wet
state into a state
without water =

* nA .
uid state =

Had she quarrelled with you? -

O u
N? Eo -s --T-L.
A: j -- Had she quarrelled ....? -

A: .... only half the portion of the Sun's rays Correct ('Sun' is wrong)

Q: She has a car, She had a car -

Wrong. Did she quarrel with you - Correct.

.
A: She had a car -

eg.: 1) Harden =

3) Melt = To change from a solid state into a liq-

2) The fixed and regular path through which


Earth revolves round the sun is called orbit.
Here ''the" should come before the underlined words - Clarify.

.... through which the earth revolves - Correct

-p C.

nA * v-n-A .

4) Ripen = To change from a raw state into a


ripe (fruit) state =

J--y--.
Verb \- Preposition,
Adverb L ! Idioms, Phrasal verb
N?

Q: Phrasal Verbs

A: Phrasal verbs are all verbs, but not all

The lesser of the two evils!


(Earth - wrong)
Q: Explain the difference among emphatic,
reflexive, material, uncountable nouns.
A: He himself has told me that he has
cheated me (himself here - emphatic).
He looked at himself in the mirror (himself reflexive).
These have been explained in earlier
lessons. Refer to them.
B. Vani Ganapathi, Addanki
Q: Ram had lost his bicycle yesterday.
Ram lost his bicycle yesterday.

idioms are verbs. Idioms


verbs
'The lesser of
the two evils'
idiom.

Fo
-\--. ---,
C
DE n:
o -, \ fC.

-x--- 698
She has a car -

Between cheating and stealing,


stealing is the lesser evil =

\
Q: Inchoative verbs N-~ n
M. SURESAN
Verb

! -N

C.
C
C. OE -s By
hook
or
by
crook

idiom
(

-T- L--.
Verb

.
N

*
j

)
A: Inchoative verbs: Verbs which indicate
Q: Delexical verbs p --T- L?
progress from one state to another -
A: Delexical verbs: -N English grammar
* p L Verbs.
j J-- (research) J v
(vh).

How might finding that out help us?


Srimukha: Mihir is disappointed. He thought
he might get the job,
but he didn't. (

N
E---f.
u -a---o,
F .)

Observe the use of 'might' in the sentences


above:
1) He might be here any moment from now

J 'may' present/ future


-a/ --a n probability E
L---E --E --o.
may -Eo --C !

Nagaraja: The competition might have been


tough. He had hardly the time to prepare.
(

\- ---a. - v---E J-.)


Srimukha: He might be here any time from
now, and we'll know what has exactly happened. (

~-j- \ a.
--p -hC \ J-T.)

Nagaraja: You know one of the selectors. You


might try to find out from her what has exactly happened. (

--xx O
! _ * O ---a, J-T?)

Srimukha: How might finding that out help


us? They can't reverse the selection, can
they? How about one of us meeting Mihir and
finding out? (

C -\- x J--?
- x a- !
N L -\-?)

Nagaraja: By the time we go there, he might


be here. (

\- x--J --\ -

a.)
Look at the following expressions from the
dialogue above:
He might be here any time from now
He thought he might get the job
You might try to find out from her what has
happened
How might finding that out help us?

1) 'Might'

Present/
Eo L----E .

a) He

may

future

b) He might pass

( Bh-g--a d p)
c) It may rain ({ a)
It might rain (h- \- a n pJ-hC).
This is the first use of 'Might'
2) 'Might' is the past form of 'May' (Present/
future
'may'
(past)
'might'

-a/ a/ --a ! N-
E
--a/ -a n
)

Devanand: Prakash says he may buy a flat in


this area.
flat

(-- v
v -o)

Sashank: She may know what exactly happened that day.

( V J-T

L--a)
Abhiram: I doubt. Somebody told me that she
might not know anything because she was
not there

( -. \ -x O L-aE
o)
N- (Past) -Eo L---hC,
might, may past form.
3) 'Might present Polite suggestions (j
u----i --
Present)
(

h -\-, j--- v-Ao-a.)
Sameer: What are we to do next? (
y L?)

( Bh-g-a. C/
)

--aE

Damodar: But he told me that he might buy


one in Hyderabad.
flat
Past)

(F, j---
-aE p

P. Ramanujam, Pydipalli
Q: If a student/ pupil has to request his
teacher/principal which of the following is
correct request form?
a) Shall I go there, sir? (Orally)
b) May you please give me leave for one day?
(Written)
A: Sir (If the teacher is a man)/ Madam (If the
teacher is woman) please
a) shall I go there, sir? (Correct)
b) May you please ... (Wrong)
Please give me/ sir, please give me/ could
you give me leave for one day? (Correct)
Q: Explain whether the following sentences are
correct or not?

If you cannot find the book in that shop, you


shop
might try in Hyderabad.

pass

h LT . English get, have,


take, make, give verbs dictionary
*a n- NN prepositions
L n- .
Get = ; n- get ill,
get going etc. -. N- take,
have verbs .
Q: -C vO v- Tx-j h
o, j guidance ----.
---J OJa N?
A: English ni, -- English news
paper, English stories -L. Oj--px
English x-L. English TV news
N y English x
hF, -- -C---a.

Tarun: That beats me, sir. You might consult


some expert, sir.
(Polite
suggestion)

( n .
* EE v-C---a--)

Kesav: How do we know the results, boy?


What were you suggesting?

( L--
-h? y -o?)
Narayan: I was saying you might
phone the Deputy
Registrar, and ask
him at least about
the date, sir)

(-o-- O
Deputy Registrar
phone

D
---aE.) Might phone
- Polite suggestion.

Spoken English - - - u- -x ---... www.eenadupratibha.net

You should have raised your doubts when


the question papers were being given.
A: Correct.
Having been given the class/ taken the class,
he went away.
A: Having taken the class, he went away Correct
Don't make noise/ a noise.
A: Don't make a noise - Correct.
The largest chord of a circle is called as/
called ....
A: The largest chord of circle is called ... Correct (Called as - wrong)
I hope my brother will get a job/ my brother
gets a job.
A: Both are correct.
P. Ramji Singhania, Vijayawada
Q: He was burnt following the incident - underline

-E n--N?
(E L-)
Q: Clause, Predicate u N?
A: Following = as a result of

A: Clause - a group of words with a subject and


a verb.
Predicate - Part of a sentence talking about
the subject.
Though he is rich, he spends little money.
In the sentence above,
1) Though he is rich - one clause (He: subject,
is: verb)
2) He spends little - Another clause (He: subject, spends: verb)
In the sentence above, there are two predicates
i.e. "is rich", "spends little"
In any sentence, the number of clauses =
the number of verbs.
For all practical purposes, we can say that
a group of words with a verb is a clause.

- 20 d- 2012
1. Which of the following cannot be a market
situation?
1) One seller, many buyers
2) Many sellers and many buyers
3) Few sellers and many buyers
4) Many sellers and few buyers
5) None of the above
2. On the basis of geographical area, this kind
of market does not exist.
1) Retail Market
2) Local Market
3) Regional Market 4) National Market
5) Global Market
3. Importance of marketing has increased in
the recent years due to which of the following
1) Consumer experiencing wide choices of
goods and services
2) Availability of information to consumer
about goods and services
3) Customised and target communications
and offerings
4) All the above
5) None

-- j---
thrust is on:
1) Need to develop market
2) Expand the market by penetration
3) Protect the market share by retaining
the existing customers
4) Cut cost and reposition the product
5) Any of the above
13. Which of the following is a reason for product elimination?
1) Sales keep declining continuously without any possibility for improvement
2) Profit keeps declining continuously without any possibility for improvement
3) Product prices are declining continuously without any possibility for improvement
4) Emergence and growth of substitute
products
5) All the above
14. When a firm adds attractive business that is
unrelated to the existing business, such
growth strategy is called:

3) Study
on
Frequency of
occurring
things.
4) All the above
5) None of the
above
21. Under marginal
cost
pricing,
which of the following is generally ensured
by a bank or firm
1) Fixed cost is fully recovered
2) Fixed costs and variable costs are fully
recovered
3) Variable cost is fully recovered but fixed
cost is not covered
4) Variable cost is fully recovered and fixed
cost is partial recovered
5) All the above
22. A news paper has fixed different prices for
different locations, regions of countries, it
is called:

What is 'casual research'?


4. Services offered by the banks fall under category of goods
1) Inseparable
2) Which can be touched
3) Intangible
4) Which can be evaluated only after use
5) All the above
5. It is difficult to standardize the output of certain services, as these are delivered by
human beings. This element is reflected in
which of the following terms.
1) Intangible
2) Inseparable
3) Heterogeneous
4) Perishable
5)All the above
6. The process of production and consumption
of services take place simultaneously is
called
1) Market
2) Marketing
3) Services
4) Products
5) All the above
7. Which of the following additional tools are
included in the marketing mix for services?
1) People
2) Physical evidence
3) Process
4) 1, 2 & 3
5) 1 & 2
8. Under the concept of marketing, anything
that can be offered to satisfy a want or need
is called:
1) Goods
2) Services
3) Product
4) Any of the above
5) None
9. Successful firms make efforts to reach
which of the following level of a product hierarchy for customer attraction:
1) Core benefit
2) Expected product
3) Augmented product
4) Potential product
5) None of the above
10. ............. comprises the process of developing and maintaining a portfolio of products
that satisfy the needs of the customers from
different segments:
1) Product mix
2) Product planning
3) Product marketing
4) Product manufacturing
5) None of the above
11. Different products remain in existence for a
different limited period. This is called:
1) Product life cycle
2) Product life
3) Product maturity
4) Product decline
5) Product growth cycle
12. At growth stage of a product, the strategic

MARKETING

1) Geographical pricing
2) Discrimination pricing
3) Marginal cost pricing
4) Value pricing
5) Product-mix pricing
23. Which of the following pricing
strategy is not suitable for new
products?

K.V. Gnana Kumar


1) Intensive growth
2) Integrative growth
1) Market skimming
3) Diversification growth
2) Discriminatory pricing
4) Any of the above
3) Market penetration
5) None of the above
4) Promotional pricing
15. Zero level channel implies:
5) None of the above
1) Retail Trades selling through salesmen
24. Which of the following actions on the part
2) Direct selling by manufacturer to the
of the marketing channels is a part of
consumer
market information?
3) Retailer selling to consumer directly
1) Gather information about current
4) All the above
customers
5) None of the above
2) Gather information about potential
16. When single price is charged for all concustomers
sumers without any discrimination, it is
3) Gather information about competitors
known as:
4) Disseminate the information to producer
1) Pricing strategy 2) Single price
5) All the above
3) Fixed price
4) Dynamic price
25. What do you mean by Brand Rejuvenation?
5) Variable price
1) It is like up-selling in credit card
17. What among the following purposes, for
2) Cross selling a product to the existing
the consumer, is served by the price?
customer
1) Allocation of purchasing power among
3) Attracting/refocusing the attention of
various products according to need
customer
2) Information about the quality or value of
4) None of the above
5) All the above
the product
26. A bank makes use of certain other persons
3) Details about availability of the product
on hire basis for marketing of bank
4) 1 & 2
5) 1, 2 & 3
services. This process is called:
18. Business of a bank is increasing, but
1) Direct sale agents
increase of business of other banks is high2) Direct marketing agents
er than the increase in the business of the
3) Direct representatives
concerned bank. The result would be:
4) Outsourcing of financial services
1) Lowering of profits
5) All the above
2) Lowering of business turnover
27. Which of the following is not a part of the
3) Lowering of market price
promotion process in marketing?
4) Increase in market share
1) Persuasion
2) Information
5) All the above
3) Reminding
4) Reinforcing
19. In India which among the following deter5) Manufacturing quality product
mines the prices of banking products:
28. A paid form of non-personal presentation
1) Government of India
and promotion is called:
2) Reserve Bank of India
1) Direct Marketing
2) Personal selling
3) Policy formulation by IBA
3) Advertising
4) Public relation
4) Policy formulation by Boards of con5) Product modification
cerned banks
29. A bank offers discount coupons to the
5) All the above
customers availing consumer loans from
20. What do you mean by 'casual research'?
the bank. Which of the following kinds of
1) Establishment of Cause and effect
marketing mix is it?
relationship
1) Direct marketing 2) Personal selling
2) Research which lacks purpose/serious3) Advertising
4) Public relation
ness
5) Sales promotion

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30. While taking a decision on 'brand extension


decision' main factor to be considered are:
1) Value perception from the point of view
of customer
2) Advantage of the product over the nearest competitors
3) Quantity of sales
4) None of the above
5) Only 1 & 2
31. Major functions of a bank marketing
management are to systematically manage
the process of which of the following:
1) Collection of information
2) Evaluation of information
3) Disseminating market information
4) All the above
5) 2 & 3
32. Which of the following is not a factor makes
the MIS important in the present day environment?
1) Information explosion
2) Communication gap
3) Prompt decision making
4) Non-price competition
5) None of the above
33. Which of the following is not a component
of MIS?
1) Internal records system
2) Marketing research system
3) Market intelligence system
4) Marketing Management and science
system
5) None
34. Marketing Information System is concerned
with information relating to which of the
following?
1) The computer hardware system used in
handling the data base
2) The set of input and output reports to
collate and purvey information
3) The structure of people, equipment and
procedures for generating and processing the information
4) The software used for collecting and processing the information
5) All the above
KEY
1-5; 2-1; 3-4; 4-3; 5-3; 6-3; 7-4; 8-3;
9-4; 10-2; 11-1; 12-2; 13-5; 14-3; 15-2; 16-3;
17-4; 18-3; 19-4; 20-1; 21-4; 22-1; 23-2;
24-5; 25-3; 26-4; 27-5; 28-3; 29-5; 30-5;
31-4; 32-5; 33-5; 34-1.

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--v- 21 d- 2012

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Time and Work


Work means doing a job like constructing a

wall, painting a building etc.


Work is always taken as one unit.
If a man can do a piece of work in n days,

1
then his one day's work is
n .
1 , then he can
If a man's one day's work is
n
complete the entire work in n days.
If a man can do a piece of work in A days and
another man can do the same work in B
days, then they together can complete
AB
the work in days.
A+B
Three persons A, B and C together can
ABC
complete it in days
AB + BC + AC
If A is 3 times as good workman as B, then he
takes one third time taken by B for the same
work.

are required to complete the remaining


work in 12 days?
Sol: M1 D1 W2 = M2 D2 W1
2
3 = M 12
10 8
2
5
5
M2 = 10 days
Pipes and Cisterns
The problems in pipes and cisterns require

the application of the same basic concepts


of those of Time and Work.
Negative work also will be there due to leak-

age or drain pipes in the questions.


e.g: A pipe fills a tank in 8 hours and a leak in
the bottom empties it in 12 hours. In what
time can the tank be filled when both function simultaneously?
1
Sol: Pipe's one hour's work = hours
8
1
Leak's one hour's work = hours
12
(... negative work)

what time can the


tank be filled when
all the three are
open simultaneously?
Sol: A = 12 minutes
(+),
B = 15 minutes (+),
C = 10 minutes ()
All three together can fill the tank in
ABC
minutes
AB + BC + AC
(+12) (+15) (10)

(+12) (+15) + (+15) (10) + (+12)(10)
1800

+180 150 120


1800
= 20 minute
90
3. A and B can complete a piece of work in 24

How many more men are required?


e.g: A can complete a piece of work in 4 hours
and B in 6 hours. In what time will they
complete it if they work together?
Sol: A can complete in 4 hours and B in 6 hours
if they work together they finish in
46
24
= = 2.4 hours
4+6
10
If 'm' persons complete a work in 'n' days
then the number of days required for one
person to complete that work will be m n
days.
For example, if 3 people complete a work in
4 days, then number of days required for 1 person to complete that work will be 3 4 = 12
MAN DAYS: If 5 men can complete a work in
6 days, then the number of man days required
to complete that work is 5 6 = 30.
e.g: 16 men together can complete a work in
3 days. In how many days 12 men finish
that work?
Sol: 16 men complete in 3 days.
16
12 men take 3 = 4 days.
12
Short cut: The work which 16 men finish in
3 days, will be finished by 12 men in 'x' days

16 3 = 12 x
x = 4 days
If M1 persons can do W1 work in time D1 and

M2 persons can do W2 work in time D2, then


the relation between these quantities is
M1 D1 W2 = M2 D2 W1
e.g: If 10 persons can complete two-fifth of a
work in 8 days, then how many persons

EXPLANATIONS
18 12
1. = 36 days
18 12
25 50
2. = 50 min
50 25
3. 26 12 = 39 ?
?=8
1
4. Work of A for 1 day =
20

1
6. In the first minute A fills
of the tank
4

1
in the second minute B fills
of the tank.
6
5
1
1
In the first 2 minutes, +
= of
4
6
12

1
20

1
Work of A for 10 days = 10 =
2

1
1
Remaining work = 1
=
2

days. B and C can complete it in 30


days and A and C in 40 days. In what
time A, B and C together can complete
that work?
1
Sol: One day's work of A and B =
24
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
1
One day's work of B and C =
Pipe and leak's one hour work
30
G.S. Giridhar
1
1
1
1
= = hour
One day's work of A and C =
8 12 24
40
2 days work of A, B and C
As net work is positive, tank will be filled in
1
1
1
1
24 hours
= + + =
24
30
40
10
1. A can do a piece of work in 24 days. A and
1
B together can complete the same work in
One day's work of A, B and C =
20
14.4 days. In what time does B alone com A, B and C can complete that work in
plete that work?
1
20 days
Sol: A and B together's one day's work =
14.4
4. A can do a piece of work in 30 days. He
1
A's one day's work =
worked for 6 days and then he was joined by
24
B and the remaining work was completed by
1
1
1
them in 12 days. In how many days can B
B's one day's work = =
14.4
24
36
alone do the whole work?
1
B can complete the work in 36 days.
Sol: A's one day's work =
30
Shortcut: When two persons together can
1
1
complete a work in 'x' days and one of the
A's 6 days work = 6 =
30
5
persons can complete in 'y' days, then the
other person can complete that work in
1
4
Remaining work = 1 =
xy
5
5

days.

y x
4
A and B can do the work in 12 days
5
14.4 24
= 36 days

A
&
B
can
do
the
whole
work in
24 14.4
2. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 30 min5
12 = 15 days
utes and 15 minutes respectively. A drain
4
pipe C can empty a full tank in 10 minutes. In
1
1
1
B's one day's work = = days
15 30
30
20
B can complete in 150 = 30 days
B alone can complete in 30 days.
100
5. 16 men can do a piece of work in 16 days. 4
A and B together can complete in
days after they started the work, 8 more men
20 30
joined them. In how many days will they take
= 12 days
20 + 30
to complete the remaining work?

... Work is done by A and B in 2 days


2

Total work is done by A and B in 2 2


= 4 days
5. A is150% efficient than B
If A takes 100 days then B takes 150 days
to complete that work.
But A can complete in 20 days

the tank is full.

5
5
and in 4 minutes 2 = tank is full
12 6
1
Now the remaining tank A can fill in
6
2
1
4 = minutes
6
3

The time taken to fill the tank


2
=4
3
1
7. Ratio of their oneday's work = :
15
5
B's Share = 5400 = Rs.3000
9

minutes
1
12

= 4:5

Sol: Work done by 16 men in 16 days = 1


4
1
Work done by 16 men in 4 days =
=
1
3
Remaining work = 1
=
4

16

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-- d -- - j q

Total number of men now = 16 + 8 = 24


16 men do 1 work in 16 days
16 16 3
3
24 men do
work in =
4
24 4
= 8 days
Shortcut: Total mandays required for the work
= 16 16 = 256
Number of mandays completed in 4 days
= 4 16 = 64
Remaining mandays = 256 64 = 192
Number of men available now = 16 + 8 = 24
192
Number of days required = = 8
24

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6. 25 men to complete a work in 20 days. But


after 15 days only 60% work has been finished. In order to finish the work in the stipulated time, how many more men are
required?
M1D1
M2D2
Sol: =
W1
W2
25 15
M2 5
=
M2 = 50
60
40
To complete the remaining work,
(50 25) = 25 men are required.
1. Ganesh can complete a piece of work in 18
days while Ganesh and Laxman together can
do the same work in 12 days. In how many
days will Laxman alone can do that work?
A) 30
B) 16
C) 20
D) 36
E) None of these
2. A tap can fill a tank in 25 minutes and another can empty it in 50 minutes. If both are
opened simultaneously, in what time the tank
is filled?
A) 25 min B) 50 min
C) 44 min
D) 40 min E) 24 min
3. 26 men can do a piece of work in 12 days. In
how many days can 39 men do that work?
A) 8 days B) 12 days C) 15 days
D) 20 days E) None of these
4. A can do a work in 20 days. He worked alone
for 10 days and the remaining work was
completed with the help of B in 2 days. In
how many days will the total work be completed if they work together?
A) 15 days B) 10 days C) 4 days
D) 8 days
E) None of these
5. A is 150% as good work man as B. If A can
complete a work in 20 days, in what time
both A and B together can complete that
work?
A) 16 days B) 9 days
C) 8 days
D) 6 days
E) 12 days
6. A can fill a tank in 4 minutes and B can fill it
in 6 minutes. If both are opened alternatively
for one minute each starting with A, find in
what time the tank is filled.
2
A) 5 minutes
B) 4 minutes
5
2
C) 4 minutes
D) 10 minutes
3
E) None of these
7. A and B can complete a piece of work in 15
days and 12 days respectively. They started
working together and received an amount of
Rs.5400. Find the share of B.
A) Rs.2400
B) Rs.1800 C) Rs.1200
D) Rs.3000
E) None of these
ANSWERS
1-D; 2-B; 3-A; 4-C; 5-E; 6-C; 7-D.

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--E- 22 -d- 2012

-- j---

Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully to answer these questions:
Seven friends P, Q, R, S, T, U & V are teaching different subjects Maths, Physics, Biology,
English, History, Psychology and French not
necessarily in the same order. Each one of
them has liking for a different colour Pink,
Green, Blue, Red, Yellow, White, and Orange
again not necessarily in the same order.
T teaches Biology and likes Green colour. Q
teaches History and he does not like Yellow or
Orange. The one who likes Red teaches
Physics teaches French and likes Blue. The
one who teaches English likes Pink. R teaches
Maths and V teaches Psychology does not like

and then all the vowels are replaced by the


previous letter and all the consonants are
replaced by the next letter from English
alphabet, which letter will be third from the
right end?
1) I

2) S

3) M

4) V

5) None of these
8. If 'AB' means 'B is father of A', 'A +B' means
'A is wife of B' and 'AB' means 'A is brother of
B', then what is the relation of J with L in
'J+HRL'?
1) Daughter

2) Daughter-in-law

3) Sister-in-law

4) Cannot be determined

5) None of these

they have in the


English alphabet
?
1) None 2) One
3) Two 4) Three
5) More than three
13. In the following
set of numbers, if
'1' is added to the
last digit and then the order of digits is
reversed, which number will be fourth if
arranged in ascending order ?
567

284

1) 567

2) 284

696

865

3) 696

738
4) 865

Which colour is liked by V?

Give answer 1) if only Conclusion I is true.


Give answer 2) if only Conclusion II is true.
Give answer 3) if either Conclusion I or II is
true.
Give answer 4) if neither Conclusion I nor II is
true.
Give answer 5) if both Conclusions I and II are
true.
16. Statements :

V $ W, W @ T, T # H

Conclusions: I. V T
Red. Maths teacher does not like Yellow.
1. Which colour is liked by V?
1) Pink

2) White

14. In a certain code RAIL is written


as 5796 and TAPE is written as
3748. How is PAIR written in
that code ?

3) Orange

4) Yellow 5) None of these

REASONING

2. Who teaches English?


1) U

2) S

1) 4796 2) 4785 3) 3795


4) 8795 5) None of these

3) R

9. In a row of children facing North,


S. Arun Mohan
Ritesh is twelfth from the left end.
15. Four of the following five are alike in a cerSudhir who is twenty second from the right
tain way and so form a group. Which is the
end is fourth to the right of Ritesh. Total how
one that does not belong to that group?
many children are there in the row?
1)
Rose
2) Jasmine
1) 35 2) 36
3) 37
4) 34

4) Cannot be determined
5) None of these
3. Who likes White?
1) R

2) S

3) U

4) V

5) None of these
2) S

10. In a certain code DUPLICATE is written as


MRVFJFVBE. How is CARTOUCHE written
in that code?

3) R

4) Cannot be determined
5) None of these
5. Which of the following combinations is
definitely correct?
1) Red-T-Physics

2) Pink-U-English

3) Red-S-Psychology 4) Yellow-U-Biology
5) None of these
6. How many meaningful English words can
be formed from the letters 'ACER' using
each letter only once in each word?
1) None

2) One

3) Hibiscus

5) None of these

4. Who likes Orange?


1) V

3) Two

4) Three

1) UTBEPWDJF

2) UTBFQFJDW

3) UTBEQFJDW
5) None of these

4) UTBEPFJDW

1) HJG

7. If in the word FLOURISH, all the vowels are


first arranged alphabetically and then all the
consonants are arranged alphabetically
ANSWER WITH EXPLANATION
(1-5) 1.4; V likes yellow.
2.1; U teaches English.
3.5; Q likes White
4.3; R likes Orange
5.2; Pink-U-English is definitely true.
(6-10) 6. 3; Meaningful words: RACE, CARE.
7. 3;
8. 2; J + H
R L : Drawing family tree

4) Marigold

2) PQN 3) DEB

4) TUR

12, How many such pairs of letters are there in


the word PHYSICAL each of which has as
many letters between them in the word as
Hence, Required Code is UTBEPFJDW
11. 1;
12. 3;

Directions (Q.16-20): In the following questions, the symbols @,#, and % are used
with different meanings as follows:
'P @ Q' means 'P is not smaller than Q'.
'P $ Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor
equal to Q'.

Now in each of the following questions


assuming the given statements to be true, find
which of the two conclusions I and II given
below them is/are definitely true ?
Hence, V < W

TH

Conclusions: I. V T V > T (Not true)


II. H % W H = W (Not true)
M@E M

E $ C E<C
Hence, H > M

E<C

Conclusions: I. C M C > M (Not true)

II. H E H > E (True)

RH R>H
Hence, N

Reversing the arrangement

Reversing the arrangement

(16-20):
P @ Q means P Q

P # Q means P Q

Similarly,

P $ Q means P < Q

Reversing the arrangement

Reversing the arrangement

J=R>H

Conclusions: I. R # N R

Required Code is 4795


15. 5

P Q means P > Q
P % Q means P = Q
16. 4; V $ W V < W
W @T W T
T# HT H

J % R,

RH

Conclusions: I. R # N
II. N H
19. Statements : L @ K, K A, A $ W
Conclusions: I. W $ L
II. L # W
20. Statements: J # R, R D, D @ F
Conclusions: I. F $ R

KEY: 1-4; 2-1; 3-5; 4-3; 5-2; 6-3; 7-3; 8-2;


9-2; 10-4; 11-1; 12-3; 13-1; 14-1; 15-5;
16-4; 17-2; 18-5; 19-4; 20-1.
(Writer - Director, Banking Services Chronicle, Hyderabad)

'P % Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor


smaller than Q'.

J%R J=R
Hence,

II. H E
18. Statements: N @ J,

'P Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor


equal to Q'.

18. 5; N @ J N

Hence, J is Daughter-in-law of L
9. 2;
10. 4;

Conclusions: I. C M

II. F % R

17.2; H M H > M
13. 1 ; Given Numbers : : 765 482 696 568 937
Ascending Order: 482 569 696 765 937
Fourth Number = 765 567
(Original number)
14. 1;

17. Statements: H M, M @ E, E $ C

5) Lotus

'P # Q' means 'P is not greater than Q'.

11. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their positions in
English alphabet and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to
that group?
5) KLI

5) More than three

II. H % W

5) 738

N (True)

II. N H N > H(True)


19. 4; L @ K L K
K A K>A
A$W A<W

Hence, L K > A < W

Conclusions: I. W $ L W

L (Not true )

II. L # W L W (Not true)


20.1; J # R J R
RDR>D
D@FDF
Hence, J

R>DF

Conclusions: I. F $ R F < R (True)

II. F % R F = R (Not True)

For SBI (Associate Banks) Clerks Material, Bit bank, Online exams click on... www.eenadupratibha.net

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1-2; 2-2; 3-4; 4-3; 5-3; 6-4; 7-4; 8-2; 9-4;
10-2; 11-2; 12-3; 13-3; 14-2; 15-2; 16-3;
17-4; 18-2; 19-1; 20-4; 21-4; 22-3; 23-3;
24-2; 25-3; 26-1; 27-2; 28-3; 29-4; 30-4;
31-3; 32-4; 33-2; 34-2; 35-2; 36-3; 37-2;
38-4; 39-3; 40-3.

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--h- *-J-C: d- 15
-j: www.imu.tn.nic.in
x ---.. www.eenadupratibha.net

--C- 23 -d- 2012

-- j---

Pooja Pallavi, Secunderabad


Q: The child ran
road/ across
Please clarify.
'over',

over/ on the
the road 'road'
'on', 'across'

Other - additional/ remaining. May be singular or plural.

-E

Only one boy has come. The other


(Remaining) boy hasn't (singular).

One boy is here. The other boys haven't


come yet. (The remaining boys - plural).

--Th E
h N-J-.

A: The child ran over the road


- Wrong.

One boy has came. Other (Some more) boys


will be coming.

Sarvarayudu, Bhaimsa

The child ran on the road = The child ran in


any direction on the road.

Q: squelch sound -

The child ran across the road = The child ran


from one side of the road to the other - It
crossed the road, running.

A: Squelch = make a wet, sucking sound, as


when you walk in mud -

n N? Make a wet sucking


- --C-.

- o
---p a l x -- CT-p, S} j *p, p-J*x a l.

Q: A hawk flew over the heads of the people/ A


hawk flew above the heads of the

Justice
is
no
longer. The Chief
Justice - He was in
the past.
Q: 'H'

-u
-Fo ' l
---?
'? eg:
haste = d, hotel =
etc.

A: H is pronounced as
But sometimes
it is pronounced,
as in History, and
sometimes as
as in hour, and honest.
In 'hasty', 'h' is pronounced as
(hasty =
and not as
Hotel

.
'
'/

d)
'd.

l ' ' . p ',
p ' L --E E-- .

The child ran on the road!


people -

- d v ---.

n -?

A: They give the same meaning.

A: Raju very (much) certain of his success Correct

Q:

A: Another = One more - always singular.

A: Baskerville

A: Milk, coffee, tea, solution, environment common nouns.


Population - collective noun
The words above do not begin with capital
letters, if they are not used at the beginning of
a sentence.
They are common nouns because they are
the names of objects/ things/ persons, in general, and not the names of particular
thing, object or person.

()

King - common noun - name of any man


who rules a country. Ashoka - name of a particular
king - proper noun.

()

K. Srinu, K.P

Dheeraj Singhania, Vijayawada


M. SURESAN

A: The first chief Justice of India was - correct,


because, the person who was the Chief

'Another boy came with you yesterday'.

--E/ -E o

v d v uJh = The first Chief justice of


supreme court was/is - Which one
is correct? Please explain.

Q: Another/Other - Clarify the difference.

Q: The curse of the Baskervilles Please say in Telugu.

-x--- 701

Q: Raju is very much certain of/ in his success


- Which is correct?

nouns? If we are dictated the words like


milk, coffee, tea, population, solution, environment etc., will we have to write the first
letter of the above words as capital? As they
are said to be common nouns. How are the
above words said to be common nouns?

Q: Milk is sold by litres/in litres - Which


is right?

Q:

A: Milk is sold by the litre.

'He
must have been held up by traffic'. He, she,
it
'has'
3rd person 'have'

h- C u C-.

Q: Are the words milk, coffee, tea etc. common

v L ?--

a?

-sx?
A: He/she/ it

You must not park the car here!


Sarathi: When are they expected here?

(x

\ p--E ---o?)
Venkat: They must be here by six. That's the
order.

(Rx-\ J--x L. C

c.)
Sarathi: If they are late?

L.)
2) They must not be late

(x u --

.)
3) Must you do it at once?

(C

?)
(x -u-

i?)
Venkat: They must not be late and if they are,
they have to miss a good opportunity).

(x
u . -u-i * --Eo
p-.)

4) Well, do it if you must.

( F -E

E-h u.)
lessons Have to/ has to
(O have/has ), don't have
to/ doesn't have to, don't need to/ need not
-s --o:

Sarathi: It's raining


heavily. They can't
(can not) but be late.

( { hC.
u p.)
can't but = p.
He can't but go =

x p.
Venkat: Let's (let us)
see if we can help them. I'll (I will) talk to the
officer and see if she can make some
allowance for their late coming because of
the rain.
officer

( x ---
x, { x Jl.
T x -uEo Eo-h- --E -.)
Make allowance for = Eo-.
Sarathi: Must you do it at once? Wait. There's
still an hour to go. If the rain stops, they
must be able to make it.

( p
C? . C.
{ T, x --E J_ a.)

Venkat: Shall I call them and remind them of


the time?
phone

(x
h ?)

Sarathi: Do it if you must.

J*

I/ We/ You/ They have to be/have to + 1st


RDW (go, do, work, etc), and He/ she/ it has to
be/has to + 1st RDW (has to go, has to do, has
to work, etc.)
orders
obligation
duty
necessity

OE
(c-)/
(NC -Lq -),
(hu),
(---) --E --Th.
p
j
- - -E
u the

use of 'must'- as
in 'must be'/ must
+ 1st RDW (must
go, must do, must
work etc) -

DE
- -
Have to/ has to - o
o. , must 1) orders/ obligations,
2) Duty and 3) Necessity J* -
- -C.
1) They must be here by six = Rx-\ J-x L. (order - c)
Sadanand: When are the files to be ready?
files

p l L?)

Vijai: They must be ready by 10 tomorrow.

(-Lq -
( C- N l L.)

u.)

Sadanand: Can I have a little more time

Venkat: OK.

Look at the following expressions from the


conversation above:
1) They must be here by six

(x J---\

(h B--a?)
Vijai: I'm (I am) afraid no. You must finish them
by tomorrow.

(-. - Jh L.)

j -- must L, L E
c (order)/ obligation -NC)- --C ?
must not be/ must not go/ do/ work
etc- --E E (prohibition) J*
-C.
Gopal: This place is vacant. I think we can
park our car here.
park

( \

a -).
Eswar: Look at the 'No parking' board there. It
means you must not park the car here.
board
car

(\ 'x E---
,
Ny-\ E-- --E n.)
El Prohibition --E
must - not --Th.
Sunanda: Can you
wait for five more
minutes?

(
EN- -?)

Haritha: No, I must


be at office in five
minutes. I am
going.

v hC.

Zeeshan, Yellandu
Q: Original - is commonly pronounced in India
as '
' but in Oxford Advanced
Learner's Dictionary of Current English - the
word 'Original' is pronounced as
Which one is right? Similarly, positive as

J->-

J-o

, -L N -d?
A: Original - The 'o' here is pronounced neither
as
nor as
but as a sound between
and
as in 'above' - We do not have this
sound in Telugu. Same is the case with the
sound of the second syllable in positive.

'
'

',

'

l-, ~x p. O
pronunciation CDs (EFLU xN) E,
practice -a.
Q: Article, simple, little etc.. _
-
* , , E -?
A: Article - ()-- .
Rashmi Pallavi, Vizayanagaram

A: He is physically present - Correct

I must be at office office


'must'
duty

h, y

hC.

Q: He is physically present/ He is materially


present - Translate into Telugu.

(-.
ENx office
L.)

\
T-ho.

'has'
correct.
am, is, are, was, were,
do, does, did, shall, will, should, would,
auxiliary
could, may, might, must
verbs
'have'

y
, y

L.
(h-u-E) --

She must work from 10 to 5 to earn her pay


=

@-E | - 10 * 5
E --L.

Keerthana: If I file a request to the RTI (Right


to Information) Officer, will he give me the
information?

(--\ C--J
u-n , - h?)

Vanitha: He must give it. You can proceed


against him, if he doesn't.
(duty)

( yL
. O u
NC
vN--a.)
Proceed against - d v u B--.
JEo N- a-.

(
\ o, , \ ---o-O
-E- .)

He is materially present - wrong.


Q: The students should be prohibited from/ on
seeing the films - Which is correct?
A: .... prohibited from seeing - Correct.
Q: We take great pride in offering the best service in town - Please translate this.
A:

x u-h --C-h-o-,
Jyho.
Q: Student/ stju:dnt/- DEo -L?
A: Student pronunciation: d u- (British);
d- (American).
Q: i) We would have been able to be here if he
had asked us.
ii) We would have got our own house
painted -

u -d?

A: Correct.

Spoken English - - - u- -x ---... www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 24 -d- 2012


1. Banks usually share the information of CIBIL
at the time of giving loans to the borrowers.
CIBIL stands for.....
1) Credit Inform Bureau (India) Limited
2) Credit Information Bureau (India) Limited
3) Consumer Information Bureau (India)
Limited
4) Credit Information Board (India) Limited
5) Collective Information Bureau (India)
Limited
2. Which paper currency note has more
circulation?
1) Rs.100
2) Rs.50
3) Rs.10
4) Rs.1000
5) Rs.5
3. Till 1969, which sector is the major beneficiary of Co-operative banking system?
1) Industrial
2) Service
3) Education
4) Export
5) Agriculture
4. Aim to establish the proposed Post Bank of
India (PBI) by the Department of Posts (DoP)
is.....
1) To provide banking services with special

-- j---
13. As per the statement given by Finance
Minister on 25th August 2012, Public sector
banks should disburse Rs. ...... agriculture
loan during the current fiscal year 2012-13.
1) 6 Lakh Crore
2) 5 Lakh Crore
3) 7 Lakh Crore
4) 2 Lakh Crore
5) 1.5 Lakh Crore
14. A bill of Exchange drawn in a local
language as per the custom of the place1) Hundi
2) Handi
3) Parole
4) Clot
5) Post
15. Which account in India is called the
common man account?
1) Recurring account 2) Fixed deposit
3) Savings account
4) Current account
5) Kiddy account
16. In the prestigious Yale University's
Environmental Performance Index, India
holds......
1) 140th rank
2) 15th rank
th
3) 170 rank
4) 125th rank
th
5) 128 rank
17. Which state celebrating 2012 as 'Yuva

23. Micro
Finance
Companies provide loans to1) Rich people
2) Government
employees
3) Poor
class
people
4) Billionaires
5) RBI
24. Best example for demand deposit is..
1) Current Account and Fixed Deposit
2) Savings Account and Current Account
3) Savings Account and Fixed Deposit
4) Fixed Deposit and Recurring Deposit
5) Fixed Deposit
25. Which Stock Exchange and United Bank of
India has signed a Memorandum of
Understanding with for offering an internetbased equity trading platform?
1) National Stock Exchange
2) Bombay Stock Exchange
3) Calcutta Stock Exchange Ltd

From Deliberation to Transformation!


focus on rural areas
2) To say Post Offices are not inferior to
banks
3) To resist the dominance of Reserve Bank
of India
4) To get the profits more than Banks
5) None
5. Punjab National Bank and Central Bank of
India will jointly set up a bank in......
1) Mozambique
2) Somalia
3) Sri Lanka
4) Australia
5) South Africa
6. Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) has
made electronic filing of tax returns mandatory for individuals with income above Rs....
1) 50 Lakh 2) 100 Lakh
3) 10 Lakh
4) 15 Lakh 5) 1 Lakh
7. TAPI gas pipeline passes through. .....
1) Turkmenistan, Azerbaijan, Panama and
Iran
2) Turkmenistan, Afghanistan, Pakistan and
Indonesia
3) Turkey, Australia, Paraguay and India
4) Thailand, Andorra, Pakistan and Iran
5) Turkmenistan, Afghanistan, Pakistan and
India
8. World Sepsis day observed for the first time
on....
1) August 13
2) September 7
3) September 13
4) August 31
5) September 1
9. Expert Committee on GAAR (General AntiAvoidance Rules) headed by .....
1) K.C.Chakravarthy
2) Vijay C. Kelkar
3) Montek Singh Ahluwalia
4) C.V. Anand Bose
5) Parthasarathi Shome
10. The Formula -1 Grand Prix winner list
given. Pick the correct one.
1) Italy Grand Prix - Lewis Hamilton
2) Belgium Grand Prix - Jenson Button
3) Monaco Grand Prix - Mark Webber
4) Germany Grand Prix - Fernando Alonso
5) All of above
11. If a cheque bearing date prior to the date,
when it was actually drawn, it is called...
1) No date cheque 2) Every date cheque
3) Last date cheque 4) Anti-dated cheque
5) Stale cheque
12. Which among the following is not a foreign
bank working in India?
1) Standard Charted Bank
2) HSBC
3) Yes Bank
4) Royal Bank of Scotland
5) CITI bank

4) Madras Stock Exchange


5) None
26. The awards list given. Pick the
correct one.
1) ICC Cricketer of the Year is
Sangakkara and ODI Cricketer of
GENERAL AWARENESS
the Year is Virat Kohli.
2)
Nisan-i-Imtiaz, the Pak highest
A.Veeraswamy
Shakti Varsh' or the 'Year of
civilian honour given to Pakistani
Youth Power' to commemorate
writer Saadat Hasan Manto.
Swami Vivekananda's 150th birth anniver3) Damien-Dutton Award given to people
sary?
who make significant contribution in the
1) West Bengal
2) Tamilnadu
fight against Leprosy, Orissa's state
3) Gujarat
4) Tripura
Leprosy Officer P.K.B. Pattnaik got for
5) Andhra Pradesh
the year 2012.
18. The book written by R.K.Narayan 4) Rajiv Gandhi National Sadbhavana
1) Swami and Friends
Award received by D.R. Mehatha, for
2) The Guide
popularizing Jaipur Foot.
3) Malgudi Days
5) All of above
4) Grandmother's Tale
27. Important International summits and their
5) All of above
venues given. Pick the wrong combination.
19. Disinvestment means....
1) Recent APEC summit held in
Vladivostok of Russia
1) Government put investment in Private
Sector
2) Recent ASEAN summit held in Phnom
Penh of Cambodia
2) Private Share holders buy the shares in
PSU
3) Recent BRICS summit held in New
Delhi, India
3) Government buys the shares in Banks
4) Recent Earth Summit held in Brasilia of
4) Government withdraws its share in PSU
Brazil
5) Foreign banks buy all the shares in PSU
5) Recent NATO summit held in Chicago of
20. Finance Minister proposed to set up
USA
National Investment Board (NIB) under the
28. Theme of 'World Economic Forum on India'
chairmanship of . .....
to be held between 6th and 8th November
1) Prime Minister
2) Ministry of Finance
2012 is ....
3) RBI Governor
4) CBDT
1) Crisis to Revival
5) President of India
2) From Weakness to Strength
21. 'www.paisaboltahai.rbi.org.in' is a ...
3) From Damage to Repair
1) Website of RBI to collect the donations
from public
4) From Debilitation to Rise
2) Website of RBI to bring the awareness
5) From Deliberation to Transformation
among public about Base Rate of Banks
29. In the 59th National Film Awards, the Best
3) Website of RBI to bring the awareness
Actress Award recipient is .....
among the public about detection of fake
1) Nisha Shetty
2) Kajal Aggarwal
currency notes
3) Rekha Ganesan 4) Vidya Balan
4) Website of Government of India to tell
5) Anushka Sharma
the people to save money to counter
30. Kaushik Basu is recently appointed as the
Inflation
Chief Economist of...
5) None
1) World Bank
2) IMF
3) ADB
22. Which committee submitted recommenda4) AFD
5) RBI
tions to review the guidelines on restruc31. The policy rates/Reserve ratios declared by
tured advances of banks and financial
RBI from time to time given. Pick the wrong
institutions?
combination.
1) Janaki Raman
2) Upadhyaya
1) SLR - 23%
2) CRR - 4.5%
3) Mahapatra
4) Tarapore
3) RR - 8%
4) RRR - 7%
5) C.Ranga Rajan
5) Bank Rate - 10%

For SBI (Associate Banks) Clerks Material, Bit bank, Online exams click on...

www.eenadupratibha.net

32. National Housing Bank (NHB) granted


Rs. ...... crore under rural housing Fund on
13th September 2012.
1) 2500 2) 1500
3) 6000
4) 4000 5) 8000
33. World Bank appointed whom as the country
director of India on 10th September 2012?
1) Vineeth Verman 2) Raghuram Rajan
3) Onno Ruhl
4) C.Ranga Rajan
5) Y.V.Reddy
34. If an account opened by Account holder
and written nominee name, if nominee dies
first then.. .........
1) Account holder loose the amount in the
account
2) Account holder is not allowed to write
another's name as nominee
3) Account holder must open other account
4) Account holder is allowed to write another's name as nominee
5) Account holder must close the account
35. SX-40 is the new flagship index of the....
1) NSE
2) BSE
3) KSE
4) MCX-SX
5) HSE
36. Present Heads of State/ Government
given. Pick the wrong option.
1) Australia - Kevin Rudd
2) USA - Barack Obama
3) Canada - Stephen Harper
4) Bhutan - Jigme Khesar Namgyel
Wangchuck
5) Afghanistan - Hamid Karzai

KEY
1-2; 2-3; 3-5; 4-1; 5-1; 6-3; 7-5; 8-3; 9-5;
10-5; 11-4; 12-3; 13-1; 14-1; 15-3;
16-4; 17-3; 18-5; 19-4; 20-1; 21-3; 22-3;
23-3; 24-2; 25-3; 26-5; 27-4; 28-5; 29-4;
30-1; 31-5; 32-4; 33-3; 34-4; 35-4; 36-1.

F (@)2013
- f b-N-- '- L->-G-L
vq d (F) d vu- 2013
--- N- C. DE y -E
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-- 24 -d- 2012

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--Eo -- - -K~- --- - -jq, -N-N- -K~- -L--, -N-u --u -- x ---..

www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 25 -d- 2012


1. Internet Protocol Version 4, Consists of how
many bits?
1) 16 bits
2) 8 bits
3) 30 bits
4) 32 bits
5) 64 bits
2. A computer virus is a software program
which has the essential ability to1) Clone itself
2) Hide itself
3) Damage Program
4) Damage Data
5) None of these
3. Which of the following is the short cut for
opening Task Manager?
1) Ctrl + Shift + Del
2) Alt + Shift + Del
3) Ctrl + Alt + Del
4) Alt + Windows + Del
5) None of these
4. A ....... is approximately equal to one billion
bytes.
1) Kilobyte
2) Bit
3) Gigabyte
4) Megabyte
5) None of these

-- j---
11. Which of the following is not an example of
hardware?
1) Word
2) Printer
3) Monitor
4) Mouse
5) Scanner
12. Peripheral Devices such as Printers and
Plotters are considered to be:
1) Hardware
2) Software
3) Data
4) Information
5) None of these
13. Find the odd one out.
1) Hard Disk
2) Flash Drive
3) DVD
4) CD
5) Monitor
14. To move the data from one part of the document to another, which of the following is
used?
1) Cut and Paste
2) Copy and Paste
3) Cut and Delete
4) Copy and Undo
5) Cut and Insert
15. Which of the following is the full form of
LSI?

1) Asymmetric
Digital
Subscriber Line
2) Anti
Dot
Subscriber Line
3) Asymmetric
Digital System
Line
4) Anti
Digital
System Line
5) None of these
20. 'FIND' option is available under which of the
following menu?
1) Tools
2) View
3) File
4) Edit
5) None
21. Which of the following keys launches 'Start'
button?
1) Windows
2) Shift 3) Shortcut
4) Esc
5) None of these
22. Which of the following is not a type of error?
1) Logical Error
2) Runtime Error
3) Syntax Error
4) All the above

What is the full form of USB?


5. Which of the following operations is not performed by Computer?
1) Taking the input
2) Processing
3) Controlling
4) Understanding
5) None of these
6. ....... is a set of computer programs used on
a computer to help perform tasks.
1) An instruction
2) Software
3) Memory
4) Processor
5) None of these
7. What is the capacity of a standard 3.5'' floppy disk?
1) 1.44 GB
2) 1.44 MB
3) 1.44 KB
4) 1.44 B
5) None of these
8. Which of the following Operating Systems
does not have a Graphical User Interface?
1) UNIX
2) LINUX
3) Microsoft Windows
4) Mac OS
5) None of these
9. Which of the following shortcut keys is used
to check spelling in Microsoft Word?
1) F1
2) F5
3) F4
4) F7
5) None of these
10. A collection of programs that controls how
the computer runs and processes information is called:
1) Operating System
2) Computer
3) Office
4) Compiler
5) Interpreter

p, N--

5) None of these
23. '.bmp' extension is used by which
of the following software?
1) MS- Powerpoint 2) MS- Word
3) MS-Excel
4) Paint
5) All the above
COMPUTER AWARENESS
24. Which of the following is the min1) Low Scale Information
imum zoom percentage supportKVN Prashanth Kumar
2) Large Scale Information
ed by MS Word?
3) Low Scale Integration
1) 10%
2) 15%
3) 25%
4) Large Scale Integration
4) 4%5) None of these
5) Local Scale Integration
25. DSL is an example of ............ connection.
16. Which of the following is an active cell in
1) Network
2) Wireless
Excel?
3) Slow
4) Broadband
1) Current Cell
2) Formula
5) None of these
3) Range
4) Cell Address
26. The number of pixels displayed on a screen
5) None of these
is known as the screen .....
17. Which of the following is the short cut key to
1) Resolution
2) Colour Depth
center a paragraph?
3) Refresh Rate
4) Viewing Size
1) Ctrl + C
2) Ctrl + E
5) None of these
3) Alt + P
4) Alt + C
27. Which of the following is the correct order of
5) None of these
the four major functions of a computer?
18. In windows XP, what does 'XP' stand for?
1) Process, Output, Input, Storage
1) XTRA Programming
2) Input, Output, Process, Storage
2) XTREME Programming
3) Process, Storage, Input, Output
3) XTRA Processing
4) Input, Process, Output, Storage
4) XTREME Power
5) None of these
5) None of these
28. ....... servers store and manage files for net19. ADSL is the abbreviation of:
work users.

q L. --J-NA: 40 x.
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Delhi

.1500 L.
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For SBI (Associate Banks) Clerks Material, Bit bank, Online exams click on...

www.eenadupratibha.net

1) Authentication
2) Main
3) Web
4) File
5) None of these
29. Which of the following keys is used to move
to the bottom of the document?
1) Insert key
2) Home Key
3) Ctrl + End
4) End
5) None of these
30. Which of the following folder retains copies
of mails that are started but are not yet
ready to send?
1) Inbox
2) Outbox
3) Drafts
4) Sent Items 5) Address Box
31. Date and time are available on the desktop
are available at which of the following
places?
1) TaskBar
2) My Computer
3) Recycle Bin
4) Only 2 and 3
5) None of these
32. What is the full form of USB?
1) Universal Security Block
2) Universal Security Bus
3) Under Security Block
4) Universal Serial Block
5) Universal Serial Bus
33. Before beginning to use e-mail, one must
have a(n)
1) Printer
2) Mouse
3) Server
4) Scanner
5) e-mail Account
34. Which of the following is the slowest
Internet connection?
1) Digital Subscriber Line 2) T1
3) Cable Modem
4) Leased Line
5) Dial-Up
35. What happens when Ctrl + V is pressed?
1) A capital V letter is typed into your document at the cursor point
2) The selected item is pasted from the
clipboard
3) The selected item is pasted to the
Clipboard.
4) The selected drawing objects are distributed vertically on the page.
5) None of these
36. The speed of the clock frequency of a
micro-processor is measured in ....
1) Hertz
2) Baud Rate
3) CPS
4) Bits
5) Bytes/sec
37. Which among the following has the smallest storage capacity?
1) Hard Disk
2) Floppy Disk
3) CD
4) DVD 5) Zip Disk
38. How many types of views are present in
Power point?
1) 3
2) 4
3) 5
4) 6 5) None
39. Which of the following Computer languages
is used for Artificial Intelligence?
1) FORTRAN 2) PROLOG
3) C
4) COBOL
5) None of these
40. What is the full form of SQL, related to
Database?
1) Structured Queue Language
2) Systematic Queue Language
3) Structured Query Language
4) Systematic Query Language
5) None of these
KEY
1-4; 2-1; 3-3; 4-3; 5-4; 6-2; 7-2; 8-1; 9-4;
10-1; 11-1; 12-1; 13-5; 14-1; 15-4; 16-1;
17-2; 18-2; 19-1; 20-4; 21-1; 22-5; 23-4;
24-1; 25-4; 26-1; 27-4; 28-3; 29-3; 30-3;
31-1; 32-5; 33-5; 34-5; 35-2; 36-1; 37-2;
38-2; 39-2; 40-3.
(Writer - Director, DBS, Hyderabad)

--- 25 -d- 2012


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www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 26 -d- 2012

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SBI (ASSO. BANKS)-2012 CLERKS MODEL GRAND TEST


Marketing Aptitude/ Computer Knowledge
1. A person who used his or her expertise to gain
access to other people's computers to get information illegally or do damage is a
A) hacker
B) analyst C) instant messenger
D) programmer
E) spammer
2. The simultaneous processing of two or more programs by multiple processors isA) multi programming
B) multi tasking
C) time-sharing
D) multi processing
E) None of these
3. A central computer that holds collections of data
and programs for many PCs, workstations, and
other computers is a(n)A) super computer B) mini computer
C) laptop
D) server E) None of these
4. The basic unit of a worksheet into which you enter
data in Excel is called aA) tab
B) cell
C) box
D) range
E) None of these
5. The piece of hardware that converts your computer's digital signal to an analog signal that can travel
over telephone lines is called
A) red wire B) blue cord
C) tower
D) modem E) None of these
6. Also called laptop computers, ..... are lightweight,
portable computers with built-in monitors, keyboards, hard disk drives, batteries, and AC
adapters.
A) desktop computers
B) micro computers
C) notebook computers D) workstations
E) None of these
7. Total memory of system can be known using
A) DIR commands
B) MEM commands
C) Warm boot
D) TOT MEM commands E) None of these
8. Tiny, specialized microprocessors installed in
'smart' appliances and automobiles are called
A) micro computers
B) micro controllers
C) servers
D) workstations
E) None of these
9. A system that connects, usually by special cables,
a group of desktop PCs and other devices such as
printers in an office or a building is called .......
A) local area network
B) client
C) internet
D) World Wide Web
E) None of these
10. An input device that converts letters, numbers,
and other characters into electrical signals readable by a processor is called a .........
A) keyboard B) mouse
C) printer
D) speaker
E) None of these
11. Semi Conductor Memory is known as
A) RAM
B) ROM
C) PROM
D) EPROM E) None of these
12. Banks and other big organizations requiring large
data storage use:
A) Micro Computers
B) Nano Computers
C) Mainframe Computer D) Workstation
E) None of these
13. Users access mainframes by means of a ......,
which has a display screen and a keyboard.
A) client
B) server
C) terminal
D) local area network
E) None of these
14. The cut, copy, and paste buttons are normally
located on which toolbar?
A) Status
B) Menu C) Standard
D) Formatting
E) Title
15. Which of the following is NOT an example of a
download?
A) Saving pictures from the internet to your hard
drive.
B) Storing a map for your vacation from the internet to your hard drive.
C) Saving a presentation to a CD.
D) Saving a program from an internet site to your
hard drive.
E) None of these
16. The .gov, .com, .net and .edu extensions are
examples of ........
A) emoticons B) FAQs C) top-level domains
D) URLs
E) None of these
17. .......tags, when placed on an animal, can be used
to record and track in a database all of the animals
movements.
A) POS
B) RFID
C) PPS
D) GPS
E) None of these

-v--y --u-

TIME: 135 Minutes

MAX. MARKS: 200

No. of Questions: 200

18. Which of the following is an example of an input


device?
A) scanner B) speaker
C) monitor
D) printer
E) None of these
19. The OSI model is divided into....... processes
called layers.
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8
E) None of these
20. Which of the following is world's fastest super
computer?
A) TOI Tech B) K-computer
C) Tianhe-1A
D) Param
E) None of these
21. Calling on the prospective customers is known
as........
A) Call
B) Communicating C) Prospecting
D) Courtesy E) None of these
22. Business demand which finally comes from the
demand for consumer goods is called....
A) Demand
B) Consumer Demand
C) Derived Demand
D) Sales Demand
E) None of these
23. Consumer behaviour, 'Perception' is a process
through which
A) A consumer make ultimate purchasing
B) A consumer's mind receives, organizes and
interprets physical stimuli
C) A consumer is repeated
D) A consumer is satisfied
E) None of these
24. Reducing the business portfolio by eliminating
products or business units that are not profitable
or that no longer fit the company's overall strategy
is called .....
A) Downsizing B) Eliminating
C) Selling
D) Closing
E) None of these
25. During pricing, the factors customers' demand,
cost function and the competitors' prices are collectively known as
A) 3Cs
B) Consumer Cs
C) Competitions Cs
D) C factors
E) None of these
26. A strategy for company growth through starting up
or acquiring business outside the company's current product and markets is.....
A) Upsizing
B) Acquiring
C) Diversification
D) Centralisation E) None of these
27. A formalized means of obtaining information that is
to be used making marketing decisions is known
as
A) Marketing Research B) Business Research
C) Project Report
D) Market Mix
E) None of these
28. The collection of business and products that make
up the company is ..........
A) marketing
B) business
C) business portfolio
D) market portfolio
E) None of these
29. The method of sending promotional items to
clients is called
A) Drip Marketing
B) Direct Marketing
C) Retailing
D) Advertisement
E) None of these
30. A ........ is a formalized set of questions for collecting information for research.
A) Data collation
B) Information gathering
C) Questionnaire
D) Data collection
E) None of these
31. Any paid form of non-personal presentation and
promotion of ideas, goods or services by an identified sponsor is .......
A) Positioning
B) Advertising
C) Direct Marketing
D) Selling
E) None of these
32. Demonstration is an exercise to .......
A) attractively pack and display the goods
B) understand the customers

or sale of a product or
service is called ......
A) Sales
B) Advertising
C) Sales Promotion
D) Dividend
E) None of these
35. The extant to which a product's perceived performance matches a buyer expectations is known as
A) Customer Perceived Value
B) Customer Satisfaction C) Customer Value
D) Customer Demand
E) None of these
36. In marketing, 'Initiator' is a term which describes
A) Who determines that some need is not being
met and authorities a purchase to rectify the
situation
B) Who most directly involved in the consumption
of the product
C) Both (A) and (B)
D) Only A
E) Neither (A) nor (B)
37. A persuading communication between the
Company's representative and a prospective
buyer lies under the class of............
A) Personal Selling
B) Direct Marketing
C) Function Selling
D) Target Marketing
E) None of these
38. Human wants that are backed by buying power is
known as .........
A) Demand
B) Derived demand
C) Consumer demand
D) Buying power
E) None of these
39. Which among the following is not an example of
Direct marketing ......
A) Departmental stores B) Catalog Marketing
C) Mail order sales
D) Online Marketing
E) None of these
40. The process of evaluating each market segment
attractiveness and selecting one or more segments to enter is known as ....
A) Segmentation
B) Market Positioning
C) Target Marketing
D) Market Mix
E) None of these

Quantitative Aptitude
Directions (Q. 41-50): What should come in place of
the question mark (?) in the following questions?
41. 188.34 + 42.97 + 7228.34 = ?
A) 7395.09
B) 7637.28
C) 7643.73
D) 7459.65
E) None of these
42. 4941 27 + 17 = ?
A) 183
B) 200
C) 164
D) 181
E) 112.2
1
43. 7
3

4
1
4
+3=?
5
4

7
1
1
B) 4
C) 4
A) 4
9
11
14
E) None of these
44. 16% of 350 + 75% of 280 = ?
A) 263
B) 236
D) 266
E) None of these
45.

A) 14
B) 256
E) None of these

C) 4

49. 2.5% of 8501.6% of 320 = ?


A) 16.13

B) 16.96

D) 16.25

E) None of these

B) Pull Strategy
D) IMC Mix

E) None of these
34. A short term incentives to encourage the purchase

-v-- --u-

-v---

50.

4+28

72 3 4
26

E) None of these

C) Promotion Mix

D) 16

42.25
?
46. =
?
25
A) 65
B) 13
C) 1056.25
D) 32.5
E) None of these
47. 47% of ? = 1403.42
A) 2176
B) 2986
C) 2870
D) 2726
E) None of these
5
3
48. of 351 + of 328 = ?
13
8
A) 16
B) 124
C) 258
D) 256
E) None of these

D) knowing the buying power of the customers

A) Push Strategy

C) 216

5476 37 + 14 = ?2

C) prove the characteristic of the product

33. A promotion strategy that calls for spending a lot


on advertising and consumer promotion to build
up consumer demand is called .......

1
D) 5
9

C) 19.25

=?

4
2
B)
A)
5
7
E) None of these

2
C) 1
5

3
D)
5

Directions (Q. 51-55): What should come in place of


question mark (?) in the following number series
questions?

\---

51. 258 275 294 ? 338 363


A) 316
B) 315
C) 318
D) 298
E) None of these
52. 17 37 77 157 317 ?
A) 516
B) 537
C) 637
D) 427
E) None of these
53. 728 ? 342 215 124 63
A) 512
B) 545
C) 618
D) 511
E) None of these
54. ?
1653
546
177
54
13
A) 4974
B) 2314
C) 2348 D) 3291
E) None of these
55. 134
255
?
568
764
989
A) 426
B) 385
C) 399
D) 409
E) None of these
56. How many solid spherical balls each of radius
1 cm can be made out of solid metallic cube of
edge 22 cm?
A) 22
B) 120
C) 121
D) 2541
E) None of these
57. The average dividend paid during 7 years by a
company is 17.5%. The dividend paid for the first
6 years were 12.5, 15, 18, 12.5, 20 and 18 percent
respectively. What is the dividend for the 7th year?
A) 17.5%
B) 18.5%
C) 26.5%
D) 25%
E) None of these
58. There are 26 students in a class and one of them
who is 14 years old leaves the class and his place
is filled up by a newcomer, if the average age is
thereby lowered by one month, what is the age of
the newcomer?
A) 11 years 11 months
B) 12 years
C) 13 years 11 months
D) 16 years
E) None of these
59. The ratio between the ages of P and Q four years
ago was 6 : 7. If the total of their ages at present
is 60 years, what is the ratio of their present ages?
A) 4 : 5
B) 8 : 9
C) 7 : 8
D) 6 : 7
E) None of these
60. Sixteen men can complete a work in fifteen days.
Twenty four children can do the same work in
twenty days. In how many days will eight men and
eight children together complete the same work?
A) 16
B) 15
C) 20
D) 18
E) None
Directions (Q. 61-65): Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions accordingly.
Following graph gives the demand and production
of refrigerators of five companies A, B, C, D and E (in
thousands)

--- x----:

61. The production of company B is what percent of its


demand?
A) 88.8%
B) 45%
C) 112.5%
D) 75%
E) 40%
62. What is the average production of refrigerators by
all the companies?
A) 3600
B) 25000
C) 36000
D) 31000
E) 24000
63. The production of company E is what percent of
the production of company A?
A) 30%
B) 180%
C) 85%
D) 40%
E) 55.56%
64. The production of refrigerators by company E is
the same as the production of which of the following pairs of the companies?
A) A and D B) B And A C) D And B
D) C and A E) None of these
65. The difference between the average production of
the companies B & D and the average productions
of the companies A & C is
A) 3500
B) 15000
C) 2500
D) 2000
E) None of these

www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 26 -d- 2012

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SBI (ASSO. BANKS) -2012 CLERKS MODEL GRAND TEST


66. A puts

1
1

of the capital for of the time,


2
2

B puts

1 rd
2

of the capital for rd of the


3
3

time and C puts rest of the capital for the whole


time. Then the ratio of their profits is A) 8 : 6 : 7
B) 6 : 7 : 9
C) 9 : 8 : 6
D) 2 : 4 : 8
E) None of these
67. In a tournament, every team plays one match
each with the other teams. What is the total number of matches played if 10 teams participated in
the tournament?
A) 55
B) 45
C) 90
D) 110
E) None
68. The circumference of two circles is 88 metres and
132 metres respectively. What is the difference
between the area of the larger circle and the smaller circle?
A) 440 sq.m
B) 510 sq.m
C) 770 sq.m
D) 225 sq.m
E) None of these
Directions (Q. 69-70): What should come in place of
question mark (?) in the following questions?
69.

63 225 25? = 9

A) 2
B) 3
C) 5
D) 4
E) None of these
70. 362.3 61.4 60.8 = 36?
A) 2.6
B) 1.6
C) 4.2
D) 2.8
E) None
Directions (Q. 71-73): What approximate value should
come in place of the question mark(?) in the following
questions? (Note: You are not expected to calculate the
exact value)
71. 7331 46.93 + 19.08 = ?
A) 165
B) 153
C) 185
D) 175
E) 169
72.

3
11988 = ?

A) 23
B) 32
C) 25
D) 28
E) 19
73. 134.039 + 24.869 + 98.181 = ?
A) 265
B) 252
C) 257
D) 275
E) 269
74. The ratio between the length and the breadth of a
rectangular garden is 5 : 3. If the perimeter of the
garden is 160 meters, what will be the area of a 5
meter wide road around it's outside?
A) 600 sq.meters
B) 1,200 sq.meters
C) 900 sq. meters
D) Data inadequate
E) None of these
75. A man buys an article with 30 percent concession
on the labelled price. He sold it for Rs.1,820 with
30 percent profit on the labelled price. At what
price did he buy the article?
A) Rs.1,274
B) Rs.980
C) Rs.1,456
D) Rs.1,092
E) None of these
76. In an examination it is required to get 40% of the
aggregate marks to pass. A student gets 224
marks and is declared failed by 16 marks. What
are the maximum aggregate marks a student can
get?
A) 800

B) 860

C) 600

D) Cannot be determined

E) None of these

77. A 415 m long train running at 64 kmph speed


crosses a bridge in 36 seconds. Find the length of
the bridge.
A) 250 m
E) 350 m

B) 200 m

C) 300 m D) 225 m

78. The difference between 62% of a number and


49% of the same number is 5130. What is 35% of
that number?
A) 4795
D) 4450

B) 4630
E) None of these

C) 4156

79. The population of a city increases by 10% in one


year and decreases by 10% the next year. If at the
end of second year, the population is 99000, what
was it in the beginning of first year?
A) 120000 B) 110000
D) 95000 E) 105000

C) 100000

1
80. A pipe can fill a tank in 4 hours. Because of
2
1
leakage it takes hour more time. If the tank is
2
full, how long would be leakage empty the full
cistern?
A) 30 hours

B) 45 hours

C) 35 hours

D) 15 hours

E) 22 hours

GENERAL ENGLISH
Directions(Qs. 81-95): Read the following passage
carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Certain words/phrases are printed in bold to help
you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
In India, a certain amount of crop (transgenic)
biotechnology is being put to use. Major efforts are
being undertaken to make cotton pest-resistant. Most
people would be aware of the spate of suicides by cotton farmers recently. Let us hope there will be scientific and technological breakthroughs in pest-resistant
transgenic cotton seeds. Till we achieve success in
this on a commercial scale we cannot be sure that we
will have enough supplies to plan large-scale operations. No doubt, such researches should be encouraged, but we should look at other fronts too. It is necessary for research on crop biotechnology in India to
be focused on our important crops, especially those
related to food security.
We have to bear in mind that the application of
biotechnology may not have any major impact on food
security in India in the next five years, though crops of
industrial value and vegetables may benefit to some
extent. Therefore, we will still need to depend upon
conventional agricultural technologies even while we
target biotechnology for future-oriented applications.
Internationally, no major breakthrough in improvement
of wheat strains has occurred lately. Hybrid rice is
more productive. China had a few major initial successes in increasing the yield through large-scale use
of hybrid rice. India has begun use of hybrid rice
recently and there are plans to increase it. But it may
be noted that in recent years there has been no further
improvement in Chinese production of rice. Still,
hybrid rice will play an important role in India, as we
are yet to introduce it on a large scale.
There are a number of improvements in agricultural implements, machinery, plastics, water technologies, agrochemicals and fertilizers which are possible
and are well within the country's reach. There is an
urgent need to conserve water in a number of ways :
ranging from water harvesting to drip irrigation. There
are a number of good examples in India of water harvesting though these are in isolated pockets. Israel
has made water conservation a national policy and
has achieved remarkable results. India with its size
and with better endowments in water resources can
make miracles happen. A major industry can grow
around such agriculture support systems. There are
also technologies which can contribute a great deal to
agriculture. We need to use all available methods
because the coming years are not going to be easy on
the food front. Let us look at one, space technology.
Remote sensing or taking electronic pictures of the
earth from space is extensively used for assessing
natural resources, land degradation and water
resources as well as to predict crop yield and snow
melt, among other things. Some developed countries
monitor crop yields of other countries to help their own
exports. India is strong in the area of remote sensing
technologies. We have our own high resolution remote
sensing satellites whose pictures are used all over the
world commercially. We also have excellent capabilities in utilizing remotely sensed data for various applications; groundwater targeting, soil salinity assessment, crop yield estimates, and so on. In addition,
space technology can be used very effectively to
assist extension work, disseminate success stories to
farmers, educate them on do's and don'ts, and to help
them ask questions through talk-back facilities that
can be made available through satellite. A number of
experiments conducted by ISRO in this regard in
Haryana and Madhya Pradesh have to be taken up by
other States in a major way. Our farmers should and
can be given facilities to keep pace with advances in
agricultural technology. Yes, it is a lot of effort. But we
have plenty of talent and also the resources. Providing
these facilities in different languages, partly with public support and partly through various business houses and private bodies, can become a good source of
employment generation by itself.
81. According to the passage, the farmers' suicides
were triggered because of:
A) tremendous loss to their cotton crop due to
pest
B) misuse of transgenic biotechnology for breeding cotton
C) intake of pest-affected transgenic seeds
D) reason not mentioned in the passage
E) None of these
82. During the next five years, India will have to:
A) discard the traditional agricultural technology

B) use a judicious
blend of conventional and modern
technologies
C) equip itself to continue with the conventional technologies
D) make people aware of the futility of modern
technology
E) None of these
83. Which of the following is TRUE about the ISRO
experiments carried out in Haryana and Madhya
Pradesh?
(1) Other States have taken up these experiments
in a major way.
(2) Good achievements made by farmers were
publicized through these channels.
(3) Two-way satellite communication between
farmers and expert consultants was possible.
A) Only 1 and 2
B) Only 2 and 3
C) Only 1 and 3
D) All the three, 1, 2 and 3
E) None of these
84. Which of the following is NOT the implied meaning
of the word AVAILABLE as used in the passage?
A) Affordable
B) Existing
C) Accessible
D) Obtainable
E) Usable
85. Author's optimism, about employment generation,
can be transformed into reality if:
(1) our abundant talent and resources are used to
their fullest extent.
(2) information to farmers is made available to
them in their own language.
(3) private bodies, business houses and general
public extend their help.
A) Only 1 and 2
B) Only 2 and 3
C) Only 1 and 3 D) Only 1 E) None of these
86. Remote sensing technology is extensively useful
for all the following EXCEPT:
A) judging the extent of availability of natural
resources.
B) foretelling the production of agro products.
C) estimating extent of land degradation.
D) enhancing the yield of crops.
E) exploring water resources.
87. Hybrid rice, according to the author, will be useful
for India because:
A) China's success story inspires us.
B) India has begun use of hybrid rice recently.
C) India does not require to use it on a large scale.
D) Indians are aware of its better nutritive value.
E) None of these
88. Which area does the author suggest to shift the
emphasis on?
A) Commercial scale operations B) Other fronts
C) Food grains and related crops
D) Crop-biotechnology
E) None of these
89. What results of biotechnology applications does
the author envisage in the next half a decade?
(1) No substantial improvement in food yield
(2) marginal improvement in crops of industrial
value
(3) Slightly better yield of vegetables
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) All the three 1, 2 and 3
E) None of these
90. Some countries keep a close watch on the crop
yield of other countries in order to:
A) plan to make up their own deficit of particular
crops
B) look for a better prospect to find a needy market for their surplus yield
C) utilize their remote-sensing technology
D) export the remote-sensing technology to other
countries
E) None of these
Directions (Qs.91-93): Choose the word which is
most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word given
in bold as used in the passage.
91. Conservation:
A) Preservation
B) Generation
C) Irrigation
D) Prevention E) Application
92. Spate:
A) Epidemic of
B) Status of C) Increase in
D) Wave of
E) Arrival of
93. Improvement:
A) Magnification
B) Exaggeration

For SI of Police Material, Bit bank, Online exams click on...

C) Progress
E) Perfection

D) Improvisation

Directions (Qs.94-95): Choose the word which is


most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word given in bold
as used in the passage.
94. Remarkable:
A) Wonderful
B) Graceful
C) Miraculous
D) Inexplicable
E) Insignificant
95. Extensively:
A) Briefly
B) Widely
C) Miserly
D) Rarely
E) Economically
Directions (Q.96-105): Read each sentence to find
out if there is any error in it. The error, if any will be in
one part of the sentence. The number of that part is
the answer. If there is no error the answer is (E).
(Ignore errors in punctuation if any).
96. The company has launched/ (A) a creative
marketing campaign/ (B) to reach for/ (C) its rural
customers/ (D) No error/ (E).
97. After her retiring/ (A) she established many/ (B)
institutions to train/ (C) underprivileged but
talented children/ (D). No error/ (E).
98. Against his family's wishes/ (A) Rajesh plans
to/(B) take up a job/ (C) as a journalist./ (D) No
error/.(E)
99. The candidate has appealed/ (A) for donations
from younger voters,/ (B) who will be used/ (C) to
defray campaign expenses./ (D) No error./ (E)
100. Most of that country/ (A) hilly land is not only/ (B)
unsuitable for building/ (C) but also for agriculture./ (D) No error./ (E)
101. It is now/ (A) possible for customers/ (B) to handle nearly all/ (C) their transactions online./ (D)
No error/.(E)
102. The minister has/ (A) recently announced/ (B) a
detail insurance plan to/ (C) meet the needs of
the poor./ (D) No error./(E)
103. In the circumstance/ (A) the manager has/ (B) no
option/ (C) except to resign./ (D) No error./ (E)
104. On account of/ (A) its new investment rules/ (B)
more companies are planning/ (C) for open its
business in China./ (D) No error./ (E)
105. He deserves a lot/ (A) of praise for all/ (B) the
records he achieves/ (C) during his career./ (D)
No error./ (E)
Directions (Q.106-110): Which of the phrases (A),
(B), (C), (D) given below each sentence should
replace the phrase printed in bold type to make the
sentence grammatically correct? If the sentence is
correct mark (E) i.e. 'No correction required' as the
answer.
106. The crowd which has gather to protest against
the decision slowly returned to their homes.
A) which has gathered
B) which have gather
C) gathering up
D) which gathers around
E) No correction required
107. The bridge in connection with the two cities will
remain closed for security reasons.
A) connects between
B) in connection to
C) being connected from
D) connecting
E) No correction required
108. Newspapers have great power because their
enormous circulation.
A) on account
B) because of
C) as a result
D) owing
E) No correction required
109. Besides criticism of some supervisors the
Chairman still commands respect from the
employees.
A) Despite criticism from
B) Without criticism of
C) Except the criticism from
D) Unless criticism of
E) No correction required
110. He will be handling the next project since he has
vastly experience in this business.
A) vast experience
B) vastly experienced
C) a vast experiencing
D) the vast experience
E) No correction required

(-N- -v-o- '- - -@-x)


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-- 27 -d- 2012

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SBI (ASSO. BANKS) -2012 CLERKS MODEL GRAND TEST


No. of Questions: 200

(-E-o- --)
Directions (Qs.111 - 115): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F)
in the proper sequence to form a meaningful
paragraph; then answer the questions given
below them.
(A) His friend, however, used to lose his temper
at the slightest excuse.
(B) Socrates however quietly said, ''I was
expecting this, after thunder comes rain.''
(C) One day this friend decided to test
Socrates' self-control.
(D) Since Socrates paid no attention to the
insults he emptied a bucket of water over
him.
(E) Socrates, the Greek philosopher tried hard
to control himself and never lost his temper.
(F) He began to shout at the philosopher and
even insulted him.
111. Which of the following is the FIRST
sentence after rearrangement?
A) A B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
112. Which of the following is the SECOND
sentence after rearrangement?
A) A
B) B
C) C D) D
E) E
113. Which of the following is the THIRD
sentence after rearrangement?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) F
114. Which of the following is the FIFTH
sentence after rearrangement?
A) B
B) C
C) D
D) E
E) F
115. Which of the following is the SIXTH
(LAST) sentence after rearrangement?
A) F
B) E
C) D
D) C
E) B
Directions (Qs.116 - 120): In the following
passage there are blanks, each of which has
been numbered. These numbers are printed
below the passage and against each, five
words are suggested, one of which fits the
blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate
word in each case.
India can be truly proud of having made at
(116) costs some very demanding biomedical
products: blood bags, heart valves and KalamRaju stents, to name a few. However, the (117)
in biomedical R and D or industry has (118)
fully kept pace with the ever-growing demands.
Therefore, several industries will be set up in
the country with (119) technology for the (120)
of medical devices. Polymers, ceramics and
metal alloy industries would help themselves to
produce the required biomaterials.
116. A) affordable
B) expensive
C) trivial
D) significant E) high
117. A) treatment
B) extension
C) implementation D) advancement
E) degradation
118. A) indeed
B) miraculously
C) hopefully
D) definitely E) not
119. A) known
B) imported
C) prudential
D) old
E) traditional
120. A) disposal
B) use
C) manufacture D) utilization
E) sale
REASONING
121. In a certain code DATE is written as
# % $ @ and STYLE is written as
$ @. How is DELAY written in that
code?
A) # @ %
B) # $ % @
C) # @ $ %
D) # $ %
E) None of these
122. In a certain code COMPANY is written as
ZOBQNPD. How is EDUCATE written in
that code?
A) FEVDBUF
B) FUBDVEF
C) FUBDUEF
D) FUADVEF
E) None of these
123. How many such pairs of the letters are

MAX. MARKS: 200

there in the word 'COMPETITION' each of


which have as many letters between them
in the word as they have in the English
alphabets?
A) None
B) One
C) Two
D) Three
E) More than three
124. Four of the following five are alike in a
certain way and so form a group. Which is
the one that does not belong to the group?
A) 19
B) 27
C) 29 D) 31 E) 37
125. If 'water' is called 'black', 'black' is called
'tree', 'tree' is called 'blue', 'blue' is called
'rain', 'rain' is called 'pen', and 'pen' is
called 'pencil'. Which of the following will
give fruits?
A) blue B) rain
C) black
D) pen E) pencil
126. How many meaningful three letter English
words can be formed with the letters DAN,
using each letter only once in each word?
A) None
B) One
C) Two
D) Three
E) More than three
127. Four of the follwoing five are alike in a
certain way so form a group. Which is the
one that does not belongs to the group?
A) Ginger
B) Garlic C) Brinjal
D) Carrot
E) Radish
128. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, second, third and
fifth letters of the word 'TECHNOLOGY'.
Which of the following would be the third
letter of that word? If no such word can be
made, give 'X' as your answer and if more
than one such words can be formed, give
your answer as 'Y'.
A) C
B) T
C) N D) X E) Y
129. In a certain code 1 2 3 4 means "He is an
Engineer", 3 4 5 6 means "Her husband is
an Engineer", 2 7 8 means. "He likes
banana". Which of the following means
"Banana"?
A) 3
B) 4
C) 8 D) 6 E) 7 or 8
130. Introducing a man a woman said "He is
the son of my mother's mother's son".
How is the man related to the woman?
A) Cousin
B) Brother
C) Maternal Uncle D) Paternal Uncle
E) None of these
Directions (Qs.131 - 135): Study the following
arrangement carefully and answer the
questions given below:
MJ%4TEKI9#PA$Q38N5U7W
B@DF1Z6H
131. How many such symbols are there in the
above arrangement, each of which is
immediately preceded by a number and
immediately allowed by a consonant?
A) None
B) One
C) Two
D) Three
E) More than three
132. How many such consonants are there in
the above arrangement, each of which is
immediately preceded by a number and
also immediately followed by a number?
A) None B) One
C) Two D) Three
E) More than three
133. If all the symbols are deleted from the
above arrangement, which of the following
will be the sixth to the right of the
thirteenth from the right end?
A) B
B) 9
C) D
D) I E) None
134. If all the digits are removed from the
above arrangement, which of the following
will be the fourth to the left of the twentieth
from the left end?
A) H
B) 4
C) B D) E) None
135. Four of the following five are alike in a
certain way so form a group. Which is the
one that does not belongs to that group?
A) I9E
B) 7W5
C) 1D
D) QA3 E) EK4

TIME: 135 Minutes

Directions (Qs.136140): In each of the


questions below are
given three statements are followed
by two conclusions numbered I and II. You
have to take the given statements to be true
even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read both of the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Read the statements and conclusions
which follow it andGive answer (A) if only conclusion I follows
Give answer (B) if only conclusion II follows
Give answer (C) if either conclusion I or II follows
Give answer (D) if neither conclusion I nor
conclusion II follows
Give answer (E) if both conclusion I and II follow
136. Statements: Some cats are dogs
All dogs are elephants
Some elephants are animals
Conclusions: I) Some cats are animals
II) No animal is cat
137. Statements: All pens are pencils
All pencils are papers
No paper is book
Conclusions: I) Some papers are pens
II) No book is pencil
138. Statements: Some houses are roads
No road is table
Some tables are chairs
Conclusions: I) Some houses are tables
II) No table is house
139. Statements: All monkeys are dogs
No dog is rabbit
Some rabbits are owls
Conclusions: I) Some monkeys are rabbits
II) No monkey is rabbit
140. Statements: Some books are pens
Some pens are papers
No paper is fan
Conclusions: I) All pens are being books is
a possibility
II) Some pens are not fans
Directions (141-145): In the following questions
symbols @ # % $ and are used with different
meaning as follows.
A @ B means A is not greater than B
A B means A is not smaller than B
A $ B means A is neither greater than nor equal to B
A # B means A is neither less than nor equal to B
A % B means A is neither greater than nor less
than B
In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out
which of the two conclusions I and II given
below them is/ are definitely true.
Give answer (A) if only conclusion I is true
Give answer (B) if only conclusion II is true
Give Answer (C) if either conclusion I or II is true
Give Answer (D) if neither conclusion I nor II is true
Give Answer (E) if both conclusion I and II are
true
141. Statements: A @ B, B C, C # D
Conclusions: I) A $ D
II) B # D
142. Statements: A @ B, B $ C, C # D
Conclusions: I) A $ C
II) B # D
143. Statements: A $ B,
B # C,
C@D
Conclusions: I) A # D
II) A $ D
144. Statements: A B,
B @ C,
C$D
Conclusions: I) A D
II) A $ D
145. Statements: A B,
B % C,
CD
Conclusions: I) A # D
II) A % D
Directions: (146 - 150): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below.

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A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a


circle facing the centre. D Who is second to the
right of C is not to the immediate right of G. F is
not between G and E. A is between B and C.
146. Who is to the immediate right of C?
A) D
B) A
C) F
D) Data Inadequate E) None
147. Who is to the immediate left of G?
A) A
B) F
C) D
D) Data Inadequate E) None
148. Who is sitting between A and F?
A) C B) G
C) D
D) E E) None
149. Who is fourth to the immediate left of D?
A) E
B) B
C) G
D) Data Inadequate E) None
150. Who is opposite to G?
A) C
B) D
C) E
D) Data Inadequate E) None
Directions: (151 - 155): In each of the questions
below, a group of letters followed by four combinations of digit and symbols numbered 1, 2,
3, 4 are given. You have to find out which of the
combinations correctly represents the group of
letters based on the digits/ symbol code of each
letter given below and the conditions those follow and mark the number of that combinations
as your answer. If none of these combinations
correctly represents the group of letters, give
(E) i.e. 'None of these' as the answer.
Letter

P K A R E T I M N U J F V

Digit/
Symbol 6 1 H $ 8 3 @ 4 # 7 5 9
Conditions: (i) If both the first and the last
letters in the group are vowels
both are to be coded as '?'
(ii) If the first letter is vowel and the last letter is
a consonant, the codes for these two letters
are to be reversed.
151. TMAPKI
A) 32 61 B) 2613 C) $613
D) 2913
E) None of these
152. IJFNVE
A) 375498
B) 875493
C) ?75498
D) ?7549?
E) None of these
153. UATEMK
A) 18@# B) #8@1 C) ?8@?
D) #8@1 E) None of these
154. MUEVTR
A) #@89$ B) $#89@ C) @#89$
D) @#89$ E) None of these
155. VNTRKI
A) 49$13
B) 34$19
C) 95$13
D) ?4$1?
E) None of these
Directions: (156 - 160): In each of the
questions given below which one of the five
answer figure should come after the problum
figures, if the sequence were continued.

156.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

157.

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SBI (ASSO. BANKS) -2012 CLERKS MODEL GRAND TEST


158.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

159.

160.

161. Which of the following types of accounts


are known as demat accounts?
A) accounts which are zero balance
accounts
B) accounts which are opened to facilitated repayment of a loan taken from the
bank. No other business can be
conducted from there
C) accounts in which share of various
companies are traded in electronic form
D) accounts which are operated through
internet banking facility
E) None of these
162. Kaushik Basu has been appointed as the
chief economist of ....
A) World bank
B) IMF
C) Asian Development Bank
D) Asian Development Bank Institute
E) None of these
163. P V Sindhu who was in news recently
is a ....
A) Badminton Player B) Tennis Player
C) Chess Player D) Table Tennis Player
E) None of these
164. Which among the following city is the host
for 13th International conference on
Mobility and transport for elderly and disabled persons (Transed ) 2012?
A) New Delhi
B) Mumbai
C) Kolkatta
D) Hyderabad
E) None of these
165. Recently in which of the following country,
the Senahiya military hospital was
inaugurated by Indian Defence Minister
AK Antony ?
A) Japan
B) Bhutan
C) Nepal
D) Maldives
E) None of these
166. A term loan is classified as a non-performing asset, if interest or installment is
overdue for period exceeding how many
days?
A) 90
B) 91
C) 180
D) 182
E) None of these
167. Which of the following is an interest
bearing demand deposit?
A) Time Deposit
B) Re-investment deposits
C) Cash Certificates
D) Savings Bank account
E) None of these
168. Ideal Credit deposit ratio for a bank is A) 60%
B) 40% C) 90%
D) 30%
E) None of these

169. Which among the following ministry


conducts Census in India ?
A) Home affairs
B) Human Resource Development
C) Planning Commission
D) Statistics and Planning
E) None of these
170. Who is regarded as father of Indias White
Revolution ?
A) M S Swaminathan
B) Verghese Kurian
C) O P Murugappa
D) Gadgil Shetter
E) None of these
171. Recently the Union Cabinet has allowed
.... % of FDI in the civil aviation sector ?
A) 49%
B) 50% C) 51%
D) 75 %
E) 65%
172. Who was recently honoured with
''Cricketer of the year'' by the ICC?
A) Virat Kohli
B) Kumara Sangakara
C) M S Dhoni
D) Hashim Amla
E) Sachin Tendulkar
173. Recently which among the following bank
became the first bank in the country to
offer ''RuPay kisan card'' with Aadhar
Authentication?
A) Andhra Bank
B) SBI
C) Oriental Bank of Commerce (OBC)
D) Vijaya Bank
E) Bank of Maharashtra
174. What is the annual average economic
growth rate target revised by the planning
commission for the 12th five year plan
from 9% envisaged earlier?
A) 8.00%
B) 8.1 %
C) 8.2%
D) 8.3 %
E) 7.9%
175. Who among the following will be the next
Chief Justice of India after S H Kapadia ?
A) Altamas Kabir
B) Dheer Madura
C) G S Singhvi
D) Rakesh Mathur
E) None of these
176. The 52nd national open athletics
championship was recently held in?
A) New Delhi
B) Chennai
C) Kolkatta
D) Mumbai
E) Hyderabad
177. Who among the following has been
elected as the new Prime Minister of Libya ?
A) Mustafa abbu Shagour
B) Mohd Gilani
C) Mehmoud Ul Khannum
D) Mohd Gadaffi
E) None of these
178. Which of the following is not one of the
RBI directives on clean note policy?
A) Currency note packets are not to be
stapled and secured with paper bands
B) Soiled notes are to be stapled before
they are remitted to Currency Chest
C) Water mark window of bank notes
shall not contain any writings
D) Currency notes are to be sorted into
Issuable and non-issuable notes
E) None of these
179. Trade control in India is regulated by?
A) RBI
B) SEBI C) EXIM Bank
D) DGFT
E) None of these
180. Which of the following is a public sector
Bank?
A) IDBI
B) ICICI C) AXIS
D) HDFC
E) None of these
181. When the customer withdraws cash from
ATM, the banker and customer relation
ship is A) Debtor and Creditor
B) Creditor and Debtor
C) Lessor and Lessee

D) Agent
and
principal
E) None of these
182. Recently
the
government has
increased
the
number of guaranteed work days under
MGNREGS from 100 days to .... days.
A) 120
B) 150
C) 175
D) 200 E) 160
183. Which of the following statements is true?
A) Reserve Bank of India empowers the
banks to open branches according to
their will and pleasure
B) Reserve Bank of India is a central
bank which monitors only lending
activities pertaining to export credit
C) Banks have authority to establish the
ATMs at their convenience
D) Rural banks of commercial banks do
not have freedom to issue credit cards
E) None of these
184. Who won the US open 2012 recently?
A) Novak Djokovic
B) Roger Federer
C) Andy Murray
D) Rafael Nadal
E) None of these
185. Which among the following state government
has
recently
launched
unemployment allowance scheme?
A) Andhra Pradesh B) Uttar Pradesh
C) Punjab
D) Goa E) Gujarat
186. Which bank has recently announced to
launch the non cash transactions through
social networking site Facebook ?
A) SBI
B) Andhra Bank
C) Bank of Baroda
D) ICICI
E) Axis Bank
187. Service Area Approach is associated with?
A) Industrial finance B) Micro finance
C) Rural finance D) Consortium finance
E) None of these
188. The Nayak Committee has suggested the
turnover method for assessing the
working capital and pegged it at A) 15% of the projected annual turnover,
as working capital limit
B) 20% of the projected annual turnover,
as working capital limit
C) 25% of the projected annual turnover,
as working capital limit
D) 30% of the projected annual turnover,
as working capital limit
E) None of these
189. The central bank of the United States:
A) Citi Group B) Bank of America Chase
C) JP Morgan D) Federal Reserve
E) None of these
190. The New Capital Adequacy Framework
prescribed for the banks is commonly
known as .
A) KYC norms
B) Credit Policy
C) Basel Accord
D) Fiscal Policy
E) None of these
191. Which of the following is the Apex level
institution for housing?
A) EXIM Bank
B) NABARD
C) NHB
D) SIDBI
E) None of these
192. The largest bank in Pakistan:
A) State Bank of Pakistan
B) Habib Bank Limited C) Sonali Bank
D) DBS Bank
E) None of these
193. In the recently concluded Olympics, what
was India's position ?
A) 50
B) 55
C) 60
D) 75
E) 58

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194. Recently AIR India got its first Dreamliner


aircraft which is ?
A) Advanced Boeing 787
B) Advanced boeing 789
C) Advanced boeing 798
D) Advanced boeing 765
E) None of these
195. What is India's rank in the global competitiveness report 2012 - 13 of the world
economic forum ?
A) 50 B) 59 C) 60 D) 75 E) 53
196. In which sport did India get its first medal
in the para Olympics ?
A) High Jump
B) Shot put
C) Swimming
D) Javelin throw
E) Long jump
197. Who of the following is not a party to the
IPO?
A) Registrar of Issue
B) Investment Banker
C) Advertisement Agency
D) Registrar of Companies
E) None of these
198. The credit policy of a bank does not consist of A) Lending policies B) Quality control
C) Loan product mix
D) advertising of loan products
E) None of these
199. Service Area Approach (SAA) is
associated with?
A) Rural and Semi-urban branches of
commercial banks
B) Urban branches of commercial banks
C) Branches of commercial banks situated in metro cities
D) Development banks
E) None of these
200. Recently the 16th NAM summit was held
in A) Iran
B) Iraq
C) China
D) India
E) Bangladesh

(- --- -v-o-v-Eo j-----E RACE -d-u- -E-- -%- ---C--*-C.)


KEY:

1-A; 2-D; 3-D; 4-B; 5-D; 6-C; 7-B; 8-B;


9-A; 10-A; 11-A; 12-C; 13-C; 14-C; 15-C; 16-C;
17-B; 18-A; 19-C; 20-B; 21-A; 22-C; 23-B; 24-A;
25-A; 26-C; 27-A; 28-C; 29-A; 30-C; 31-B; 32-C;
33-B; 34-C; 35-B; 36-A; 37-A; 38-A; 39-A; 40-C;
41-D; 42-B; 43-A; 44-D; 45-C; 46-D; 47-B; 48-C;
49-A; 50-E; 51-B; 52-C; 53-D; 54-A; 55-C; 56-D;
57-C; 58-A; 59-C; 60-C; 61-D; 62-C; 63-B; 64-E;
65-C; 66-C; 67-B; 68-C; 69-B; 70-A; 71-D; 72-A;
73-C; 74-C; 75-B; 76-C; 77-D; 78-A; 79-C; 80-B;
81-D; 82-B; 83-B; 84-A; 85-C; 86-D; 87-B; 88-B;
89-A; 90-B; 91-A; 92-C; 93-C; 94-E; 95-E; 96-C;
97-A; 98-E; 99-C; 100-A; 101-E; 102-C; 103-A;
104-D; 105-C; 106-A; 107-D; 108-B; 109-A;
110-A; 111-E; 112-A; 113-C; 114-C; 115-E; 116-A;
117-D; 118-E; 119-B; 120-C; 121-A; 122-B;
123-E; 124-B; 125-A; 126-D; 127-C; 128-C;
129-E; 130-A; 131-B; 132-C; 133-A; 134-D;
135-D; 136-C; 137-E; 138-C; 139-B; 140-E;
141-B; 142-A; 143-D; 144-C; 145-C; 146-C;
147-D; 148-A; 149-B; 150-D; 151-E; 152-D;
153-A; 154-C; 155-E; 156-E; 157-C; 158-B;
159-B; 160-A; 161-C; 162-C; 163-A; 164-D;
165-D; 166-A; 167-D; 168-A; 169-A; 170-D;
171-A; 172-B; 173-C; 174-C; 175-A; 176-B;
177-A; 178-B; 179-D; 180-A; 181-A; 182-B;
183-C; 184-C; 185-B; 186-D; 187-C; 188-B;
189-D; 190-C; 191-C; 192-B; 193-B; 194-A;
195-B; 196-A; 197-D; 198-D; 199-A; 200-A.

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TIME AND DISTANCE


The speed of a moving object is the distance
travelled by it in a certain time.
Distance
Speed =
Time
Similarly,
Distance = Speed Time. or
Distance
Time =
Speed
Speed is usually measured in kmph or mps.
If a train covers 50 kilo metres in each hour
then the speed of the train is 50 kmph.
If a man travels 5 metres in one second's
time then the speed of the man is 5 mps.
e.g.: A car covers a distance of 1656 kilo
metres in 23 hours. What is the speed of
the car?
Distance
Sol: Speed =
Time
1656 km
= 72 kmph
23 hours

speed of 60 kmph and comes back from


B to A at an average speed of 90 kmph.
What is the average speed of the man for
the entire distance?
2xy
Sol: average speed =
x+y
2 60 90
= 72 kmph
60 + 90
TRAINS
When a train crosses a pole or a man or
any point, then it covers a distance equal
to its own length.
When a train crosses a platform or bridge
or tunnel or any length then it covers a
distance equal to its length and platform/
bridge/ tunnel or any length together.
Relative speed
When two bodies are moving in the opposite direction with speeds x and y, then the
relative speed = x + y (Sum of the speeds).
When two bodies are moving in the same
direction with speeds x and y ( x > y), then

Stream/ Current:
Flow of the water
with some speed.
Down stream:
Speed of the boat
along with the
flow = Speed of
the Boat + Speed
of the current.
Upstream: Speed of the boat against the
water flow = Speed of the Boat Speed
of the current.
If the speed of the boat in still water is 'b'
kmph and speed of the current is 'c' kmph
respectively, then
Downstream (DS) = b + c
Upstream (US) = b c
DS + US
Speed of the boat (b) =
2
DS US
Speed of the current (c) =
2
e.g.: A boat covers 76 km downstream in 4

Find the Speed of the Boat?


Conversion of speeds

hours. If the speed of the current is


3 kmph, find the speed of the boat.
76 km
Sol: Speed = = 19 kmph
4 hrs

KMPH to MPS
5
18

x kmph = x mps
MPS to KMPH

Boat + Current = 19

18
5
e.g.: 72 kmph is how many mps?

x mps = x kmph

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

5
Sol: 72 = 20 mps
18
e.g.: In what time can a car cover 315 metres
at a speed of 54 kmph?
Sol: Distance = 315 m,
5
Speed = 54 kmph = 54 = 15 mps
18
Distance
315 m
Time = = = 21 sec.
Speed
15 mps
When two equal distances are covered
with two different speeds x, y, then the
2xy
average speed =
x+y
e.g.: A man goes from A to B at an average
1. A car covers a distance of
190 km at 80 km/hr and next
190 km at 120 km/hr. What is the
average speed of the car whole
journey?
A) 100 kmph
B) 78 kmph
C) 96 kmph
D) 90 kmph
E) None of these
2. In what time a 350 m long train
running at 108 kmph speed can
overtake a 175 m long train
running at 36 kmph speed?
A) 26.25 sec
B) 12.5 sec
C) 21.75 sec
D) 32.15 sec
E) None of these
3. A car takes 5 hours to cover a
distance of 300 km. How much
should the speed in km/hr be
maintained to cover the same
4 th of the previous
distance in __
5
time?
A) 50 kmph
B) 60 kmph
C) 45 kmph
D) 75 kmph
E) None of these
4. A boat covers 189 km upstream
in 7 hours. If the speed of the
current of the stream is 4 kmph,
find the speed of the boat.
A) 23 kmph
B) 27 kmph
C) 32 kmph
D) 21 kmph
E) None of these

Boat = 19 3 = 16 kmph
1. A 150 m long train running at
G.S. Giridhar
36 kmph speed crosses a bridge in
the relative speed = x y
27 sec. Find the length of the
(Difference of the speeds).
bridge.
e.g.: A 360 m long train crosses a signal pole in
Sol: Let the length of the platform be 'x' metres
18 seconds. Find the speed of the train in
kmph?
Distance = (150 + x) m,
Sol: Distance = 360 m, Time = 18 sec
Distance
Speed =
time
360 m
18
= 20 mps = 20 = 72 kmph
18 sec
5
BOATS AND STREAMS
Still water: water without motion. A boat
can travel or a man can swim in that water
with their original speeds.

5. A boat covers 78 km down


stream or 30 km upstream in the
same time. If the speed of the
current is 4 kmph, find the speed
of the boat.
A) 18 kmph
B) 13 kmph
C) 5 kmph
D) 9 kmph
E) None of these
ANSWERS
1) C

2) A

3) D

4) E

5) D

EXPLANATIONS
2xy
1. Average speed =
x+y
2 80 120

80 + 120
= 96 kmph
2. Distance = 350 + 175
Speed

= 525 m
=108 36
= 72 kmph

5
= 72 = 20 mps
18
( ... overtaking is same direction)
525 m
time =
20 mps
= 26.25 sec

5
Speed = 36 kmph = 36 = 10 mps,
18
Time = 27 sec; Distance = Speed Time
150 + x = 10 mps 27 sec
150 + x = 270 m x = 120 m
2. Two trains 125 m and 95 m long are running
in opposite directions with speeds of
40 kmph and 32 kmph respectively. In what
time will they completely clear each other
from the moment they meet?

3. Distance = 300 km
4 of 5 = 4 hours
Time =
5
Distance
Required speed =
Time
300
= 75 kmph
4
189 km
4. Speed =
7 hrs
= 27 kmph
... Upstream = 27 kmph
Boat Current = 27 kmph
Boat 4 = 27
Boat = 31 kmph
5. Let the speed of the boat be 'x'
kmph
Time to cover 78 km down stream
78 km

=
(x + 4) kmph

Time to cover 30 km upstream


30 km
=
(x 4) kmph
But the time to cover both the distances is same
78
x+4

30
x4

=
x = 9 kmph

For SBI (Associate Banks) Clerks Material, Bit bank, Online exams click on... www.eenadupratibha.net

Sol: Total Distance = (125 + 95) = 220 m,


Relative Speed = 40 + 32 = 72 kmph
5
= 72 = 20 mps
18
220
Required Time = = 11 sec
20
3. Two cars start from A and B respectively
and moves in opposite directions towards B
and A at average speeds 44 kmph and
40 kmph respectively. After what time will
they be 294 km apart?
Sol: As they are moving opposite direction,
they can be 44 + 40 = 84 km in one hour.
294
to be 294 km apart it takes =
84
= 3.5 hours.
4. A person reaches his office 5 minutes late if
he drives at 30 kmph speed. However if he
drives at 40 kmph speed he reaches his
office 10 minutes early. How far is the office
from his house?
Sol: Let the distance between his house and
office be 'x' km
Difference in the time taken with two speeds
15
1
= 5 + 10 = 15 mins = = hour.
60
4
x
x
1
= x = 30 km.
30
40
4
5. A thief steals a car at 2 pm and runs away
at a speed of 60 kmph. The theft was
noticed at 3 pm and the policeman started
chasing in another car at a speed of
75 kmph. At what time can the policeman
catch the thief?
Sol: In one hour's time thief can go 60 km.
Relative speed = 75 60 = 15 kmph
(Same direction)
60
Time to cover the distance = = 4 hours
15
Policeman catches the thief at 3 + 4 = 7 pm.
(Writer - Director, RACE Institute, Hyderabad)

*-J-C: d- 19
-j: jnafau.ac.in

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www.eenadupratibha.net

--E 29 -d- 2012

-- j---

Directions (Q. 1-5): Study the following information carefully to answer these questions:
Eight friends J, K, L, M, N, O, P and Q are
sitting around a circle facing the centre. J is not
the neighbour of N. L is third to the right of K.
Q is second to the left of N, who is next to the
right of L. O is not the neighbour of N or K and
is to the immediate left of P.
1. Which of the following is the correct position
of L?
1) To the immediate right of N
2) To the immediate right of Q
3) To the immediate left of J
4) To the immediate left of Q
5) None of these
2. Which of the following pair of persons represents O's neighbours?
1) L & N
2) P & K
3) M & P
4) N & P
5) None of these
3. Which of the following groups has the first person sitting between the other two persons?

5) All follow
7. Statements: Some keys are locks.
Some locks are numbers.
All numbers are letters.
All letters are words.
Conclusions: I. Some locks are letters.
II. Some words are numbers.
III. All numbers are words.
1) Only I & II follow
2) Only II & III follow
3) Only I & III follow
4) Only I & either II or III follow 5) All follow
8. Statements: Some windows are doors.
All doors are walls.
No wall is roof.
All roofs are shelters
Conclusions: I. Some windows are walls
II. No wall is shelter.
III. No door is shelter.
1) None follows
2) Only II & III follow
3) Only I & III follow
4) Only I follows

1) None follows
2) Only I & II follow
3) Only II & III follow
4) Only I & III follow
5) None of these
Directions (Q.11-15): In
each of these questions, a group of digits
is given followed by
four combinations of letters and symbols numbered (1), (2), (3), and (4). The group of digits
is to be coded as per the scheme and conditions given below. The serial number of the
combination which correctly represents the
group of digits is your answer. If none of the
four combinations is correct, your answer is (5)
i.e. 'None of these'.
Digit
: 5 8 4 3 6 2 9 0 7 1
Letter/Symbol: T J $ # H Q @ L % K
Conditions:
(i) If the first as well as the last digit is

Some windows are walls!


1) PKJ
2) JQL 3) QNL
4) LMN
5) None of these
4. Who is to the immediate right of K?
1) J
2) P
3) Q
4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these
5. Who is to the immediate left of O?
1) P
2) L
3) Q
4) J
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 6 - 10): In each of the questions
below are given four statements followed by
three conclusions numbered I, II & III. You
have to take the given statements to be true
even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions
and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
6. Statements: All chillies are garlics.
Some garlics are onions.
All onions are potatoes.
No potato is ginger.
Conclusions: I. No onion is ginger.
II. Some garlics are potatoes.
III. Some chillies are potatoes.
1) Only I follows
2) Only II follows
3) Only I & II follow
4) Only I & III follow

ANSWER WITH EXPLANATION


L
(1-5) :
N
Q
M

K
P
1-2; L is to the immediate right of Q.
2-1; L & N is not neighbours of O.
3-5; None of these
4-1; J is to the immediate right of K.
5-5; M is to the immediate left of O.
(6-10):
6-3; All onions are potatoes.( A - Type)
No potato is ginger. ( E - Type)
A + E = E Type Conclusion
''No onion is ginger.'' This is Conclusion I.
Some garlics are onions. ( I - Type )
All onions are potatoes. ( A - Type)
I + A = I Type Conclusion.
''Some garlics are potatoes.'' This is
Conclusion II.
7-4; Some locks are numbers. (I - Type)
All numbers are letters. ( A - Type)
I + A = I Type Conclusion.
''Some locks are letters.'' This is Conclusion I.
O

odd, both are to be coded as .


(ii) If the first as well as the last digit
is even, their codes are to be
swapped.
(iii) If '0' is the last digit, it is to be
Reasoning
coded as .
11. 270514
S. ARUNMOHAN 1) %LTK
5) None of these
2) $%LTKQ
9. Statements: All bottles are jars.
3) Q%LTK$
4) $% TKQ
Some jars are pots.
5) None of these
All pots are taps.
12. 364279
No tap is tank.
1) H$Q%
2) #H$Q%@
Conclusions: I. No pot is tank
3) @H$Q%#
4) #H$Q%
II. Some jars are tanks.
5) None of these
III. Some bottles are pots.
13. 875306
1) Only I & III follow
2) Only I & II follow
1) J%T#LH
2) H%T#LH
3) Only II & III follow
4) All follow
3) H%T#LJ
4) J%T#LJ
5) None of these
5) None of these
10. Statements: Some fish are crocodiles
14. 592476
Some crocodiles are snakes.
1) H@Q$%T
2) @Q$%T
No snake is tortoise
3) H@Q$% 4) @Q$%
5) None of these
All tortoises are frogs.
15. 468910
Conclusions:
I. No snake is frog
1) $HJ@KL
2) LHJ@K$ 3) HJ@K$
II. Some snakes are fish.
III. Some fish are frogs.
4) $HJ@K
5) None of these
All numbers are letters. (A - Type)
All letters are words. ( A - Type )
A + A = A - Type Conclusion
''All numbers are words.'' This is
Conclusion III .
After reversing ''All numbers are words'',
we get
Some words are numbers. This is
Conclusion II.
8-4; Some windows are doors. ( I Type )
All doors are walls. ( A Type )
I + A = I Type Conclusion
''Some windows are walls.'' This is
Conclusion I.
No wall is roof. ( E Type )
All roofs are shelters ( A Type )
E + A = O Type Conclusion
''Some shelters are walls .''
9-5; All pots are taps. ( A Type )
No tap is tank. ( E Type )
A + E = E Type Conclusion
''No pot is tank.'' This is Conclusion I.
Some jars are pots . ( I Type )
All pots are taps. ( A- Type )
I + A = I Type Conclusion.
Hence ''Some jars are taps.''
Some jars are taps.( I - Type)
No tap is tank. ( E Type )

I + E = O Type Conclusion
''Some jars are no tanks.''
This conclusion is not given in question.
All bottles are jars. ( A Type )
Some jars are pots. ( I Type )
A + I = ' ' No Conclusion.
Hence only Conclusion I follows.
(11 15) :
11-2;
2 7 0 5 1 4

12-1;

$ % L T K Q
Condition ( ii ) applies.
3 6 4 2 7 9

13-3;

H $ Q %
Condition ( ii ) applies.
8 7 5 3 0 6

14-5;

H % T # L J
Condition ( ii ) applies.
5 9 2 4 7 6

15-4;

T @ Q $ % H
4 6 8 9 1 0

$ H J @ K
20) :
(16
A@BA+B

Directions (Q. 16-20): These questions are


based on the following information :
'A @ B' means 'A is added to B'.
'A B' means 'A is multiplied by B'.
'A # B' means 'A is divided by B'.
'A $ B' means 'B is subtracted from A'.
In each question, some information is
given. You have to find out which expression
correctly represents the statements:
16. Total age of 12 boys is 'X' and the total age
of 13 girls is Y. What is the average of (A)
of all the boys and girls together?
1) A = (X@Y) # 25
2) A = (X$Y) # 25
3) A = (X@Y) 25
4) Cannot be determined
5) None
17. Population of state M (P1) is less than half
of population of state N (P2) by 1,50,000.
1) P2 = (P1 # 2) $1,50,000
2) P1 = (P2 # 2) @1,50,000
3) P1 = (P2 # 2) $1,50,000
4) P2 = (P1 # 2) 1,50,000
5) None
18. Number of boys (B) in a class is equal to
one-fourth of three times the number of girls
(G) in the class.
1) B = (3 # G) 4
2) B = (3 G) @ 4
3) B = (3 G) # 4
4) B = (3 $ G) # 4
5) None of these
19. Salary of Mr. X (S1) is more than 40% of
Mr. Y's salary (S2) by Rs 8,000/-.
1) S1 = [S2 (40 @ 100)] # 8000
2) S1 = [S2 (40 # 100)] @ 8000
3) S2 = [S1 (40 # 100)] @ 8000
4) S2 = [S1 (40 @ 100)] # 8000
5) None of these
20. Marks obtained by Sujit in History (H) are
85% of his marks obtained in Science (M).
1) H = (100# 85) M 2) H = 85100 M
3) H = 85#100#M
4) H = (85#100) M
5) None of these
KEY: 1-2; 2-1; 3-5; 4-1; 5-5; 6-3; 7-4; 8-4;
9-5;10-1; 11-2; 12-1; 13-3; 14-5; 15-4; 16-1;
17-3; 18-3; 19-2; 20-4.

A BAB
A # BAB
A $ BAB
16-1;

17-3;

18-3;

19-2;

20-4;

X+Y
Required Average age =
12 + 13
or, A = ( X + Y ) 25
or, A = ( X @ Y ) # 25
P2
P1 = 150000
2
P2
or, P1 = 150000
2
= (P2 # 2) $ 150000
3G
B=
4
or, B = ( 3 G ) # 4
S1 = 40% of S2 + 8000
S2 40
S1 = + 8000
100
S1 = [(S2 40) # 100 ] @ 8000
S1 = [S2 (40 # 100 ) ] @ 8000
H = 85% of M
85
or , H = M
100
or , H = M (85 # 100 )
= (8 # 100) M.

For SBI (Associate Banks) Clerks Material, Bit bank, Online exams click on...

(Writer - Director, Banking Service


Chronicle, Hyderabad)

www.eenadupratibha.net

--E 29 -d- 2012


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www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 3 d- 2012
1. Among the following banks, which one is
called 'Lender of the last resort'?
1) RBI
2) SBI 3) EXIM bank
4) NABARD
5) NHB
2. Reserve Bank of India formed on the recommendations of .... as it submitted report in
1926.
1) Keynes Commission
2) Royal Commission on Indian Banks and
purchases
3) Hilton-Young Commission
4) Kelkar Committee
5) O.V.Smith Committee
3. Which among the following one is not the
subsidiary of SBI?
1) SBI DFHI Ltd.
2) SBI Life Insurance Company Ltd.
3) SBI Real Estate Brokers
4) SBI Capital Markets Ltd.
5) SBI Cards & Payments Services Pvt. Ltd.

-- j---
14. Bharat Nirman introduced for the development of ......
1) education
2) to build rural infrastructure
3) air ports in the Tier II cities
4) banking in town areas
5) small scale industries
15. Regulator of Stock Market in India is.......
1) RBI
2) Bombay Stock Exchange
3) SEBI 4) SBI
5) UTI
16. The award list given. Pick the wrong one.
1) Spelling
Bee
competition-Snigdha
Nandipati.
2) Gandhi Foundation International Peace
Award 2011 received by Dr. Binayak Sen
and Bulu Imam.
3) For conceiving and implementing microirrigation in arid and dry land regions,
Daniel Hillel of Israel got World Food
Prize 2012.

1) Japan -Tokyo-Yen
2) Canada - Ottawa
- Canadian dollar
3) Syria -Damascus
- Dinar
4) Mexico - Mexico
City - Peso
5) Brazil - Brasilia Real
26. Financial inclusion means.......
1) providing banking services in rural areas
with affordable cost
2) providing corporate accounts in industrial
area
3) giving many joint accounts to save the
money of banks
4) not to allow the banks to open the
branches in village area
5) All of the above
27. Which term not used in the banking?

What is the E arlier N ame of State Bank of India?


4. The second largest Public Sector bank in
India is........
1) SBI
2) Bank of Baroda
3) ICICI
4) Andhra Bank
5) Punjab National Bank
5. Chairman of Insurance Regulatory Authority
of India (IRDA) is........
1) U.K.Sinha
2) Yogesh Agarwal
3) J.Hari Narayan
4) D.Subba Rao
5) Rahul Kullar
6. Abbreviations list given. Pick the wrong one.
1) CBS-Core Booking Solutions
2) KYC-Know Your Customer
3) IARI-Indian
Agricultural
Research
Institute
4) NHB-National Housing Bank
5) CII-Confederation of Indian Industry
7. Which book is not written by Chetan Bhagat?
1) Revolution 2020: Love, Corruption,
Ambition
2) 2 States
3) The God of Small Things
4) The 3 Mistakes of My Life
5) One Night @ the Call Center
8. Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs
(CCEA) approved ........ percent disinvestment in Steel Authority of India (SAIL) on 19
July 2012.
1) 8.01 2) 18.92 3) 10.82 4) 9.25 5) 0.5
9. Public Sector Banks should disburse .........
percent of their total loans to Priority Sector.
1) 40
2) 32
3) 65
4) 100 5) 20
10. On 7th June 2012, Central government
approved a capital infusion of Rs.632
Crores in to the...........
1) Public Sector Banks
2) Private Sector Banks
3) Co-operative Banks
4) Land Area Development Banks
5) Regional Rural Banks
11. In Regional Rural Banks, Central
Government holds the share capital of 50
percent, a sponsored bank hold 35 percent
and who holds 15 percent share?
1) RBI
2) Ministry of Finance
3) Ministry of Banks 4) State Governments
5) SEBI
12. On 20 June 2012, RBI framed the guidelines on setting up of WLA by Non-banking
entities. What is meant by WLA?
1) White Legal ATM
2) Whole Label ATM
3) Wonder Label ATM
4) Wrong Label ATM 5) White Label ATM
13. 12th Five Year Plan period is ..........
1) 2012 - 17 2) 2007 - 12
3) 2002 - 07
4) 2017 - 22 5)1951 - 56

1) ATM 2) Open Market Operations


3) Deuce 4) LIBOR
5) PLR
28. What is meant by money
laundering?
1) a process of conversion of money
obtained from foreign country to
GENERAL AWARENESS
appear to have originated from the
4) Vandana Shiva, an Indian
banking loans.
A.Veeraswamy
environmental philosopher and
2) money obtained in the business
activist received Fukuoka Prize.
and putting in the lotteries to earn
5) None
more money.
17. Which Indian neighbour country has Sheikh
3) a process of conversion of money
Hasina as the prime minister?
obtained illegally to appear to have originated from the legitimate sources.
1) Pakistan
2) Sri Lanka
4) doing two or three businesses at a time
3) Bangladesh
4) Nepal
which is not allowed as per law in India.
5) Bhutan
5) None
18. 19th International AIDS conference 2012
29. Dadasaheb Phalke Award is India's highest
held at ........ from July 22 to 27.
award in.......
1) Washington D.C
2) Moscow
1) Sports
2) Hockey
3) IT
3) Paris
4) Canberra
5) Sao Paulo
4) Cinema
5) Education
19. Citius, Altius, Fortius is the motto of .........
30. On 15th August, which country also cele1) Under 19-World Cricket Cup
brates Independence Day like India?
2) Common Wealth Games
3) Olympics
1) USA
2) Pakistan
3) Russia
4) FIFA World Cup 5) EURO cup
4)
Australia
5)
South
Korea
20. 'E-Yantra challenge' is the competition
31. The earlier name of State Bank of India is ...
conducted by .............
1) State Bank of British India
1) Ministry of Industries
2) Royal Bank of India
2) Osmania University
3) ASSOCHAM
3) National Bank of India
4) IIT Trichy
5) IIT Bombay
4) Good Will Bank of India
21. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural
5) Imperial Bank of India
Development (NABARD) head office is at...
32. Largest Associate of State Bank of India is..
1) Pune
2) Chennai
3) Lucknow
4) Mumbai
5) Hyderabad
1) State Bank of Mysore
22. Who among the following one is not the
2) State Bank of Hyderabad
Deputy Governor of RBI?
3) State Bank of Patiala
1) K.C. Chakrabarty 2) Subir Gokarn
4) State Bank of Bikaner & Jaipur
3) Raghuram Rajan 4) Anand Sinha
5) State Bank of Travancore
5) H.R. Khan
33. KYC stands for.....
23. Banks barrow funds from RBI and pay.....
1) Know Your Customer
1) Base Rate
2) Repo Rate
2) Know Youth Customer
3) Reverse Repo Rate
3) Know Your Cancellation
4) Zero Rate
5) Whole Rate
4) Kick Your Capital
5) None
24. Chairman of Committees/ Panel list given.
34. A loan allows the person to pursue higher
Pick the wrong combination.
studies is .....
1) Usha Thorat - Financial Inclusion
1) Education Loan 2) Housing Loan
2) K.C. Chakrabarty - Recapitalization of
3) Admission Loan 4) Passing Loan
RRB
5) Purse and Mess Loan
3) C.Ranga Rajan - High denomination of
35. Per capita income is equal to ........
coins
1) National Income/ Population
4) V.K. Shunglu - Commonwealth Games
2) Population/ National Income
Scam
3) International Income/ Indian Income
5) C.V. Ananda Bose - Supervise the
4) Indian Income/ States Income
unearthing and preservation of the gold
5) None
treasure in Anantha Padmanabhaswamy
Temple
36. SENSEX, India's first equity sensitive index
25. Capital and currency options are given.
launched on 2 January 1986 by .......
Pick the wrong combination.
1) MSE
2) OSE
3) PSE

For SBI (Associate Banks), IBPS (Rural Banks) Clerks Material, Bit bank, Online exams click on...

4) BSE
5) RSE
37. Population Census taken for every .....
years in India.
1) 10
2) 5
3) 15
4) 7 5) 20
38. National Commission for Scheduled Castes
(NCSC) headed by .......
1) Rameshwar Oraon
2) M.N.Rao
3) Mamatha Sharma
4) P.L.Punia
5) Dr. Shantha Sinha
39. In the acronym BRICS, 'B' stands for .....
1) Bhutan
2) Burma
3) Bangladesh
4) Brazil
5) Burundi
40. Statements relating to Bharat Ratna given.
Pick the wrong one.
1) Bharat Ratna is the highest Civilian
Award in India.
2) First
three
recipients
are
Rajagopalachari, C.V. Raman and
Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan.
3) Jawaharlal Nehru is the first prime
minister to receive Bharat Ratna.
4) Gorbachev is the first foreign national
received Bharat Ratna.
5) Latest Recipient of Bharat Ratna is
Bhimsen Joshi, the Hindustani classical
singer.
41. Shangai Cooperation Summit (SCO)
recently concluded on 7th June 2012 at....
1) Hongkong
2) Shangai
3) Moscow
4) Bejing 5) Hanoi
42. INS Vikramaditya is India's ...........
1) War Tank
2) Ballistic Missile
3) First Atom Bomb 4) Aircraft Carrier
5) War Sea Port
KEY
1-1; 2-3; 3-3; 4-5; 5-3; 6-1; 7-3; 8-3; 9-1; 10-5;
11-4; 12-5; 13-1; 14-2; 15-3; 16-5; 17-3; 18-1;
19-3; 20-5; 21-4; 22-3; 23-2; 24-3; 25-3; 26-1;
27-3; 28-3; 29-4; 30-5; 31-5; 32-2; 33-1; 34-1;
35-1; 36-4; 37-1; 38-4; 39-4; 40-4; 41-4; 42-4.

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--- 3 d- 2012

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2) -N
3) p-N
4) -N
4. --J H-G-%Cl --, Y -
s-v - N-N x
?
1)
2) G
3)
4)

3) j
4) D-
18. -x ' uC
1) ud-J
2) j
3) PMv
4) v- - @N
19. 'jv--Eq N?
1) %Ah - - %~-
2) --, F - - %~-
lA
3) yE -- FE Cl
4) F --- ~
20. - h - v----
p % p-?
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2) 5 x
3) 15 20 x 4) 5 EN-
21. u-- u N- --T
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1) 2) l --{
3) d 4) p--

3) t-
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29. 'L E
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31. C- C Nh- y
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32. h vN-p o h
1) \- vN-hC
2) vN T--C

'j-v--Eq -- --N-?
5. H \- J- ?
1) 40 50%

2) 15 40%

3) 10 14%

4) 4 7%

6. -x -E-J -- a uC
1) -y
2) vG--
3) L--
4) i-
7. uCE ' E -h?
1) v
2) G
3) -
4) v
8. B.O.D. N?
1) J @
2) @-v-v x ---
3) @ - vv x C v--
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9. x-- C?
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10. -E \ T-
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3) -N
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11. C u vq-O- x
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1) -j---L
2) --E
3) i
4) GABA
12. -
p x pf?
1) j -E
-
2) j -E
-
3) C -E -E-
4) j --E v y--
13. ~-o -
1) -J 2) wj-x --vU-
3) v -vJ 4) J-u-
14. --- -s- --pE

1) -D- p Nu-~ -T
- a
2) -D--
3) p p
4) -E F -G-%-Cl p
15. C-- L El- v- C?
1) YY 2) XY
3) XX
4) D
16. ya -i F pH N ?
1) 0

2) 6

3) 7

4) 9

17. C-- * s -j q
C?
1) J-v
2)

3) h -C 4) D-
33. ' C
*q?
1) s-Ao ---
2) s-Ao v-
22. '-- q Ja -d-u
3) s-Ao h-- 4) sAo -x
\ C?
. -- -v-Dl- 34. -u- C
1) uMx
2) p
1) C4H10
2) C9H20
3) o
4) -
3) q
4) C6H6
23. K-- E -_ - 35. %vA s-p-Ah --T '-q x
E --T-C
v---h?
1) q
2) yE -
1) v v-E
2) -f
3) -q 4) o- J-q
3) v q-
4) v s j j q
24. ' d bK u- -JE 36. E El- ' d h?
\-?
1) -y
2) h-J
1) o
2) L
3) j-
4) J _
3) x
4) Ld
37. Eu --T 'x \-E ?
25. 'jq f E Eo h?
1) 2) v 3) 4) o
1) v@
2) -@
38. 'Md d x E--hC?
3) -@
4) v@
1) -O
2) v ~v
26. Q h @NE Jh-.
3) jv
4) j
1) p 2)
39. 'q u--J vC C?
3) 4) Gs
1) x
2) j-
27. K-E 'd- >
3)

C
4)
d
C?
AB J O h _
40.

L
x

1) 2) -J-A-h 3) B 4) \
, d- P h_
28. ..-. ju K~ E -C-*C?
- C?
2) a--x
1) HIV/ q

----@

1) A

B
2) O
B O 4) AB O
41. uCE 'x E ?
1) x
2)
3) uE
4) jv--G
42. K-x L--J E Jp
J-TC?
1) -J-AAh
2)
3) 4) v-
43. - P pAh v
@-N?
1) \
2) x
3) -
4) pF
44. @q l-Eo vA--C-*C
1)
2)- .-._
3) s x 4) q, v
45. K--E 't-d- E- vC C?
1) j-
2) v-
3) uK
4) j-
46. \ @N--C
1) -L 2) j- 3) - 4)
47. @, EKb ~-- v-JzC C?
1) ud-J
2) -O
3) j
4) FL -a j-
48. vx q- p-Ah NE--T
\ C?
1) jvx 2) xx 3) d 4) -J-
49. - y L-j
@N --C?
1) *> 2) Jx
3) Lp
4) AN-
50. v--- s
t- C?
1) J
2) - x
3) O
4) C-L
-: 14; 22; 31; 41; 52; 63; 73; 83;
94; 104; 113; 121; 132; 141; 152; 163; 173;
182; 191; 202; 211; 224; 234; 244; 253;
261; 273; 281; 292; 302; 314; 322;
331; 341; 351; 362; 371; 383; 392;
401; 411; 422; 431; 443; 454; 463;
473; 481; 493; 501.
3) A

(- -- >-x --- -v--y --o- --- ---u--)

vq d: -J 13
v-yu, q- yu: Ja 720
-j: www.admission.tiss.edu

Gq-\ -v- vv

-F-E Gx -d-u o-@


--E -d-u jq (Gq) -u- \ -v- Jo
jq () @ vv---x v--E --h
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vv-x v--E --h -C.


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|: Hq/ o- x--- -C
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u vU vv: (u-u-a-J
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: --N J, \ q--J-q
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-j: www.bits-pilani.ac.in

>-- 71 E- -x
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(>) 71 E- - d Kh
d 8 -- Ey--hC.
N-: -h- 14, -O 4, --NZ 1,
--- 1, f 11, - 2, iv---@ 2,
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|: -C N / vU
L. --J-NA: 33 x.
: K~, yu y.
C: Charakka Theatre, Ground Floor,
Administration Block, JIPMER, Puducherry - 605 006

-- - --M d- ---J--, -G- -u, ---j- --K~- x ---...

-j: www.jipmer.edu
www.eenadupratibha.net

--C- 30 -d- 2012

-- j---

Yeshpal Chopra,
Secunderabad
Q: We drunk to his health Explain the meaning.

something (qualifies) the noun


food.

correct.
 There is a person and his son/ his children.
A: There are a man and his son - Correct.
 I dont know myself/ I myself dont know.

A: We drank (not drunk) to his


health - This is a custom in the
Western Country. In a party,
when they have drinks (wine,
whisky etc), one of the guests, raises the cup of
drink and proposes the toast, that is, thanks the
host (one who gives the party)/ wishes the host
good luck/ good health etc. We drink to his
health = We drink to wish our host good health.

A: I dont know myself = I dont understand


myself - Correct.

Q: I have observed in some sentences a


comma (,) is kept after the word so and not
kept in another sentences - Clarify.

He came to know that he had lost his money


- Correct.

I myself dont know = Even I dont know Correct too.


 He had been crying since he come to know/
He had come to know that he had lost his
money.
A: He has been crying since he came to
know... - Correct.

 He told his experience with goddess to his wife.

Vishal Singhal,
Khammam
Q: But if I must go, I
will go the battle
field as a plain soldier - Is this correct?
A: ''...... go to the battle field'' is correct.
Q: Let no one know that old Rustum had to be
called to fight a beardless boy - Here Fearless
should have been write - Explain.
A: ''..... beardless boy'' here is correct with the
meaning, a young boy, so young that he
has no beard growing.

I think he will come tomorrow!


A: When you begin a sentence with so, you
place a comma after so.
Q: Popular,
Environment,
Restaurant,
Population, Solution - Whether these are
common nouns? Explain.
A: Popular - Adjective, not a noun
Environment, Restaurant,
Common nouns

Solution

Population - Collective noun


The words above begin with a capital letter,
only if they are the first words in a sentence.
Otherwise, they begin with only a small letter.
Common nouns are the name of any thing, any
person, any animal, any place, etc. and not the
name of a particular person, place, thing or
animal.
City - Common noun (name of any city).
Hyderabad - Name of a particular city - Proper
noun.

Q: Chiranjeevis
son/
son
of
Chiranjeevi - Which one is correct?
Once I heard that the word of is
702
used and said before the stationary
things i.e. which are not alive. A: He told his wife of his experience
Explain.
with the goddess - Correct.
A:
Chiranjeevis
son/
Son
of
 While he was praying to the sun/
Chiranjeevi
Both
are
correct
M.
SURESAN
to sun
Both s (the apostrophe and s)
A: ...... to the sun - Correct.
and of are used with living beings and abstract
The must be used before sun, moon,
nouns, but of is used only with the non-living.
earth, world, universe etc.

-x---

Q: I would like to talk to you/ to speak to you Explain the difference.

Sri Vani Maruthi Krishna Gitarjuna, Nidadavolu

Q:

A: Both are correct, with a slight difference in


meaning.
I would like to talk to you - Informal
I would like to speak to you - Formal.

Sheetal Koushik, Warangal

Q: He has had little food - Whether the underlined word an adjective? or an adverb? Clarify.

Q: Explain which of the following sentences is

A: Little here is an adjective because it tells us

l- -- -C-
v-. DE-- x Honble.,
Respected --o. l, v-v-AE-, J---, C- O j o
--T--a? \- Resp. Madam
-C, Honble Madam E N ! NJ-. N- Your Excellency -J
--T- -. l-
C---E j --
L.

A: Honble Madam
(MLAs/ MPs),
Governors, Judges
of High/Supreme Court, President
Honble Sir,
Honble Madam

. v vA-E,
v,
,
--x-
--x-,
.
Respected -J-j/ o--xj -a ( u--x-N --p). Respected y / a-a.
Letters Respected Sir/ Madam J-. Sir/
Madam -- -Lq- Respect C
d.
Your Excellency Governor .
MK Rao, Visakhapatnam
Q:

1) It means ... 2) It Could mean ...


3) It probably means ... 4) It can also mean ...
A: It means = It has the meaning.
He did not attend classes the whole of last
week. It means that he is irregular.
It could mean = It probably means =

He has not asked me again about the car. It


could mean/ It probably means he is not interested
( o car J* - Sx --.
h .)
It can also mean = There is a possibility of this
meaning

( n a - C)

e.g.: The police havent arrested him. It can


mean he is innocent. It can also mean he has
bribed them.

M E d -.
El a. x
*a -a-- -- C.




( - J L.
--E \ -E -*aC.)
Sampath: Its getting time. Dont you see?
Wait for her if you must. But I am going.

( _---*aC. n-- ?
-Lq - ,
y h a. -o.)
Likhith: We must be grateful to her for all that
she has done for us, mustnt we? Why are
you in a hurry?

(- --
%-Vc-
L ! -
--o?)

(hu)
 Necessity (-)
p J-Eo must -- l.
Look at the following sentences from the
dialogues above
1) She must be on her way now - Certainly.
2) Wait for her if you must - Allowed to do
something, but you dont like it.

f. N-
~ pL)

Likhith: We must give her a beautiful present


for all that she has done to us.

(
i yL)
lessons must
Eo-E . N:
 Obligation - (NC -LqN)/ c

- n.
b) Mukund: How cool and pleasant the
weather is!

(-- x, C!)
Sukumar: Hear those peals of thunder and
see the flashes of lighting! It must be raining heavily somewhere nearby.

3) We must be grateful to her - Obligation


4) I must say sorry to her - Obligation

( - , - -Eh-o? _--\ { --L)


'-d -, y Lq
n .

a) Subodh: Mom, shall I


watch cricket on
the TV?

u-i --x :
*a
p L/ --L --.

(Sorry.

a) Pranav: He wants
to buy the latest
model car of that
company.

( company x A
-----o)

h---.
h-E ---o.

A: I think he will come tomorrow

 Duties

Must
Certainly =

Sampath: I am sorry. I
have been in a hurry.
I must say sorry to
her for this.

a/ n a.

Q: Translate the following sentences into


English.

Do it if you must
Likhith: She must be on her way now. She
promised to be here about this time.

*a Phrases u L--,
J* N-J-.

(t,
O
v
?)

Sourabha: Do it if you
must, but let me go
to office first.

(
---
d . o - x-Ey)

model car

b) Nandan: I want to go with you to the sports


meet.

(F v -E --

C)

Ramesh: He must be having a quite a lot of


money to change cars so frequently.

Shanmukh: Do come along if you must, but


dont expect me to buy you the ticket.

( - x a-E _
s-L) Certainly - L----, C/ J

(, y --- , F F
\ -E v -.)

( u- n). --, --o F English I think


. '-- n, am/ is/ are
thinking . C p.

www.eenadupratibha.net

-N-u, --u
--

N-x ju Nu
N-x ju Nu ------o?
- \ -o?
q, V N-?
E-, \ C-N Nun --o?

--E--Jq-- ---q

- E--Jq- Eg B--o?
Jd q --f?
K-~ p ---?
---- -N-u---
O x- - - Nu--x

a-E -o?
kx L, \--\ \x o?
\x a x v- N?
- ---o -N--- ... x ...
www.eenadupratibha.net

Spoken English - - - u- -x ---... www.eenadupratibha.net

-- 4 d- 2012
Directions (Q.1-5): In the following questions, the symbols @, , #, $ and % are used
with the following meaning as illustrated
below:
P Q means P is either greater than or
equal to Q
P % Q means P is either smaller than or
equal to Q
P @ Q means P is neither greater than nor
smaller than Q
P#Q means P is smaller than Q
P$Q means P is greater than Q
Now in each of the following questions
assuming the given statements to be true, find
which of the two conclusions I and II given
below them is/are definitely true.
Give answer 1) if only Conclusion I is true.
Give answer 2) if only Conclusion II is true
Give answer 3) if either Conclusion I or II is
true
Give answer 4) if neither Conclusion I nor II
is true.

-- j---
changed with the alternate letter, number or
symbol. Then which element will be fourth to
the left to A?
1) P
2) 4
3) D
4) @ 5) T
7. Which of the following is exactly midway
between the seventh from the left and the
eighth from the right?
1) A
2) Z
3) #
4) N 5) D
8. Shirt is related to Button in the same way
as Shoes is related to
1) Stitch
2) Leg
3) Sleeper
4) Socks
5) None of these
9. Which of the following pairs of words bears
the same relationship as that of the pair of
words given at the question place?
Victory : Defeat :: ?
1) King : Poor
2) King : Queen
3) Father : Brother 4) Mother : Sister
5) None of these
10. There are 43 students in a class. If the rank
of Raja from the beginning is 21st, then

1) 32
2) 34
3) 36
4) 30
5) None of these
13. Which of the
following is odd
one?
1) XYZ1 2) PQR2
3) STU3 4) DCB5
5) None of these
14. Garden is related to Gardener. In the
same way as Agriculture is related to
1) Plant
2) Field 3) Farmer
4) Produce
5) None of these
15. According to Manju the birthday of her sister is after January 15 but before January
20. According to Manjus father the birthday
of Manjus sister is after January 18 but
before January 22. What is the birthday of
Manjus sister?
1) January 18
2) January 19
3) January 20
4) January 21
5) None of these

W ho is the youngest among them?


Give answer 5) if both Conclusions I and II
are true.
1. Statements: D $ N,
N # F,
FT
Conclusions: I. T # N
II. D $ F
2. Statements: K R,
R $ F,
F#B
Conclusions: I. B $ R
II. F # K
3. Statements: J $ M,
M K, K # N
Conclusions: I. J $ K
II. N $ M
4. Statements: F # T,
T @ W, W $ H
Conclusions: I. F # H
II. F H
5. Statements: M % T,
T#R,
R@ D
Conclusions: I. D $ T
II. R $ T
Directions (Q.6 - 7): Study the following
letter - number - symbol sequence and
answer the questions given below it.
SMP2LT@ND45#ZAQ98OFG
73EH
6. If in the above sequence from the beginning
each letter, number or symbol is inter-

EXPLANATIONS

means ; % means ; @ means = ;


# means < ; $ means >
1-4; D $ N D > N;
N#FN<F
F T F T. Therefore, D > N < F T
Conclusions:
I. T # N T < N : Not True
II. D $ F D > F : Not True
2-2; K R K R;
R$FR>F
F # B F < B. Therefore, K R > F > B
Conclusions:
I. B $ R B > R: Not True
II. F # K F < K: True
3-1; J $ M J > M; M K M K
K # N K < N. Therefore, J > M K < N
Conclusions:
I. J $ K J < K : True
II. N $ M N > M : Not True
4-3; F # T F < T; T @ W T = W
W $ H W > H. Therefore, F < T = W > H
Conclusions:
I. F # H F < H: Not True
II. F H F H: Not True
5-5; M % T M < R;
T#R T<R
R @ D R = D. Therefore, M T < R = D
Conclusions:
I. D $ T D > T : True
II. R $ T R > T : True
6-2; According to the question,S is interchanged with P, M with , 2 T, L @,
N 4 and so on. New sequence
PSMT@2L45NDAQ#ZOF98
4th to left of A is 4.
7-3; 7th from left T;
8th from right O

16. Onkara says that his brother


leaves home half an hour before
he reaches home. If Onkara
observes that it is 11.00 AM 45
minutes after he entered home,
then at what time his brother did
Reasoning
leave the home?
1) 10.30 AM
2) 9.45 AM
S. Arun Mohan
what
will
be
his
3) 9.30 AM
4) 10.00 AM
position from the last?
5) None
1) 21
2) 22
3) 23
4) 24
17. Rahul is elder than Vipul but as old as
5) None of these
Saketh. Saketh is younger than Jeetu but
11. In a certain code language COACHING is
elder than Ramu. If Ramu is elder than Vipul,
written as ENCBJHPF. How will the word
then who is the youngest among them?
SCHOOL be written in that code language?
1) Rahul
2) Vipul
3) Saketh
1) KQNJBU
2) UBNQKJ
4) Ramu
5) None of these
3) NQKJBU
4) UBJNQK
18. If the first and second letters of the word
5) None of these
PRGMATISM are interchanged, similarly
the third and the fourth letters are inter12. Complete the following number series:
changed, and so on, then which of the
1, 2, 4, 8, 16, ?
T @ N D 4 5 # Z A Q 9 8 O

Middle
8-5; We put on shirt and place the button to
wear it firmly. Similarly, in shoes laces are
used.
9-1; Victory and Defeat are antonymous to
each other. Similarly, King and Poor are
antonymous to each other .
10-3; The rank of Raja from the last
= 43 - 21 +1 = 23
11-4;
C
O A C
H
I
N
G

+2 1 +2 1 +2 1 +2 1
E
N
C
B
J
similarly
S
C
H
O

H
O

P
L

+2 1 +2

1 +2 1

12-1; 1 2 2 2 4 2 8 2 16 2 32
13-4; Except in DCB5, in all others, the letters
are given in the proper order.
14- 3; Gardener maintains garden. Similarly,
farms works are done by farmer.
15-2; According to Manju, the birthday of her
sister will be on 16 or 17 or 18 or 19 or 20
or 21 January. According to the father of
Manju, the birthday of her sister will be on
19 or 20 or 21 January. Common date is
19th January.
16-2;
11 AM 0.45 = 10.15 AM
10.15 AM 0.30 = 9.45 AM
17-2; Saketh = Rahul > Vipul
Jeetu > Saketh > Ramu; Ramu > Vipul
Clearly, Vipul is the youngest.
18-1; According to the question, the new word
is

+1
Z

Similarly
S

A
R

Key : 1-4; 2-2; 3-1; 4-3; 5-5; 6-2; 7-3; 8-5;


9-1; 10-3; 11-4; 12-1; 13-4; 14-3; 15-2;
16-2; 17-2; 18-1; 19-2; 20-2; 21-2; 22-5.

(-- j-----E
-u -Ky -v-E- -P~- n -jd)

I M

7th from right


19-2; Third to the right of eight from the left
means 11th from left. Since English
alphabetical series is reversed, hence we
can calculate the letter at 11th position in
reversed English alphabet series as
given below: 11th position from left (in
reversed English alphabet)
= (26 +1 - 11) 16th from the right i.e. P.
20-2; Starting from the left two consecutive
letters are interchanged and the remaining letter becomes the following letter.
M

following will be seventh from the right?


1) M
2) G
3) A
4) T
5) None of these
19. If all the letters of English alphabet are
written in reverse order which of the
following will be third to the right of eighth
from the left?
1) Q
2) P
3) R
4) T
5) None of these
20. In a certain code language MATRIMONY is
written as AMRTMINOZ. How will the word
STRATAGIC be written in that code
language?
1) TSARTAGIC
2) TSARATIGD
3) TSARATGID
4) TSARTAIGD
5) None of these
21. In a certain code language Po Cho To
means who came yesterday', Ho No To
means who play there' and Bo Po No
means 'beauty come there. How will the
word yesterday be written in that code
language?
1) Po
2) Cho
3) To
4) Cho or To
5) None of these
22. If the second half of the following alphabets
is written in the reverse order, then which of
the following will be the tenth letter to the
left of 17th from the left?
ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRST
UVWXYZ
1) S
2) R 3) T 4) V 5) None

+1
D

21-2; 'Po Cho To' means


'who came yesterday' (i)
'Ho No To' means 'who play there' (ii)
'Bo Po No' means 'Beauty came there' ... (iii)
From (i) and (ii),
'To' is the code for 'who', ... (iv)
From (i) and (iii),
'Po' is the code for 'came' (v)
From (iv) and (v), 'Yesterday' is coded as 'Cho'
22-5; From the pre-calculation rule, 10th letter
to the left of 17th from the left means
(1710) 7th letter from the left.
But the order of the letters of the second
half has been reversed. So, the required letter
would remain unaffected. 7th from the left is G.

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--- 5 d- 2012
SIMPLE AND COMPOUND INTEREST
Interest is the money that paid for the use of

a certain amount.
The amount borrowed is called the Principal.
The sum of interest and principal is called

the Amount.

SIMPLE INTEREST
If the interest is calculated on original
Principal for a certain period is called the
Simple Interest (S.I.). Simple Interest will be the
same for all the years.
If P is the principal, R is the rate of interest,
T is the time and S.I. the simple interest, then
PTR
Simple Interest =
100
TR
Amount = P 1+
100
e.g: Find the Simple Interest obtained on an

1
amount of Rs.16800 at the rate of 4
2
p.c.p.a. for a period of 3 years

-- j---
the principal for the next period, then the money
is said to be lent at Compound Interest. Thus
the amount at the end of period becomes the
principal for the next period.
If A is the amount, C.I. is the Compound
Interest, P is the principal, R is the rate, and T
is the time, then
R T
A = P 1+
100

R T
C.I. = P 1 +
P
100
e.g: What is the Compound Interest accrued on
an amount of Rs. 8000 at the rate of
5 p.c.p.a. at the end of 3 years?

R T
C.I. = P 1 +
P
100

Sol:

5 3
C.I. = 8000 1 + 8000
100
105
105
105
8000 8000
100
100
100

Difference
61
= P
8000
@ 10% Difference =
31
P
1000
e.g: What is the difference
between
Simple and Compound Interest on
Rs.42800 for two years at 5% rate?
P R2 42800 25
Difference = = Rs.107
1002
10000
e.g: On what sum does the difference between
Simple and Compound Interest for 3 years
at 10% rate will be Rs.403?
P 31
P 31
Sol: Difference = 403 =
1000
1000
403 1000
P = Rs. 13000
31
1. A certain sum of money becomes Rs.1250

= Rs.1261

Principal = 1488 - 288 = Rs.1200


288 100
Rate = = 8%
1200 3

How much does he get as interest?


Sol: Here P = Rs.16800, T = 3 years
1
9
R = 4 % = %
2
2
16800 3 9
Simple Interest = = Rs. 2268
2 100
e.g: What principal will amount to Rs.5700 at
1
4% per annum in 3 years?
2
TR
Sol: Amount = P 1 +
100

74
P 1 + = 5700
2 100
5700 2 100
P = = Rs. 5000

228
Shortcut: For one year, rate of interest is 4%
1
1
and for 3 years it is 4 3 = 14%
2
2
The amount will become 114%.
If 114% money = 5700,
100
then 100% money = 5700
114
= Rs. 5000
COMPOUND INTEREST

When the interest that has become due at


the end of a period is not paid to the lender, but
is added to the sum lent which then becomes
1. What would be the Simple Interest obtained
on an amount of Rs. 52580 at the rate of 4
p.c.p.a. after 3 years?
A) Rs.6209.60
B) Rs.6102.70
C) Rs.6309.60
D) Rs.5986.40
E) None of these
2. The Simple Interest accrued on an amount
of Rs.12450 at the end of 6 years is
Rs. 8964. What is the rate of interest?
A) 9
B) 12
C) 14
D) 10
E) None of these
3. Find the Simple Interest on Rs.8000 at 3%
per annum from August 2nd to October 14th
in the same year.
A) Rs.36 B) Rs.42 C) Rs.56 D) Rs.48
E) None of these
4. On what sum does the difference between
Simple Interest and Compound Interest for
3 years at 5% rate be Rs.427?
A) Rs.12000
B) Rs.24000
C) Rs.56000
D) Rs.32000
E) None of these
5. A man deposits Rs.5600 in a bank at 5%
annual interest. After 6 months he
withdraws Rs.4400 together with interest
and after 6 months the remaining money.

in a span of 5 years and further to


Rs.1700 in the span of 8 years at the
same rate of Simple Interest. What
would be the amount at the end of 12
years?
Sol: Interest for 3 years (8 - 5 years)
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
= 1700 - 1250 = Rs.450
5
G.S.
Giridhar
Interest
for 5 years = 450
Shortcut: Amount = 105% of 105%
3
of 105% of 8000 = Rs. 9261
= Rs.750
C.I. = 9261 8000 = Rs.1261
Principal = 1250 - 750 = Rs.500
Note: If the Interest is paid half yearly, time
12
Interest for 12 years = 450 = Rs.1800
is doubled and the rate is halved.
3
If the Interest is paid quarterly, time
Amount after 12 years = 500 + 1800
becomes 4 times and the rate becomes
= Rs.2300
one -fourth
2. An amount of Rs.15600 is to be divided into
Difference between Simple
two parts such that the Simple Interest on
and Compound Interest
the first part at 8% p.a. for 3 years is equal to
It can be calculated by the following
the Simple Interest on the second part at 6%
formulae.
p.a. for 4 years. What is the difference
between the two parts?
For one year: There is no difference.
Sol:
Let the first part be Rs.x and 2nd will be
2
PR
Rs.(15600 - x)
For 2 years: Difference =
1002
x8 3
(15600 - x) 6 4
(300 + R) P R2
=
100
100
For 3 years: Difference =
2x = 15600
1003
15600
If the rate of interests are 5% and 10%, the
x = = Rs.7800
2
following formulae can be used
Both parts are equal so there is no difference
@ 5%
How much does he get as interest?
A) Rs.140
B) Rs.210
C) Rs.170
D) Rs.190 E) None
6. A sum of money will become Rs.4600 in 5
years and Rs.4960 in 8 years at a certain
rate of Simple Interest. Find the rate of
Interest.
A) 3%
B) 5%
C) 8%
D) 4%
E) None of these
ANSWERS: 1-C; 2-B; 3-D; 4-C; 5-C; 6-A.

EXPLANATIONS
S.I. 100
2. R =
PT
8964 100
R = = 12 %
12450 6
3. Time from August 2nd to October 14th
= 29 days of August + 30 days of
September and 14 days of October
73
= 73 days = years
365
1
= years
5
1
8000 3
5
S.I. = = Rs.48
100

Short cut: If we can observe 8% for 3 years on


1st part is 24% and 6% for 4 years on 2nd part
is also 24%. Interest on both parts are equal
means both 1st and 2nd parts are equal.
3. A sum of money amounts to Rs.1488 in 3
years at a Simple Interest. If the rate of
interest is raised by 25%, the sum amounts
to Rs.1560 during the same period. Find the
sum and the rate of interest.
Sol: Rs.1560 - Rs.1488 = Rs.72.
25% of interest = Rs.36
100
100% interest = 72 = Rs.288
25
The interest for 3 years = Rs.288.

4. A sum of money invested at Compound


Interest amounts to Rs.650 at the end of first
year and Rs.676 at the end of second year.
Find the rate of interest.
Sol: Interest in 2nd year = 676 - 650 = Rs.26
As this is Compound Interest, 2nd year
interest is calculated on1st year amount
26
Rate of interest =
100 = 4%
650
(Writer - Director, RACE Institute, Hyderabad)

P 61
4. D = P = Rs.56000
8000
5. S.I. on Rs.5600 for 6 months =
1
5600 5
2

= = Rs.140
100

He withdrew Rs.4400 together with interest,


the remaining amount
= 5600 - 4400 = Rs.1200

1
S.I. on Rs.1200 at the rate of 5% for year
2
1
1200 5
2

= = Rs.30
100

Total interest = 140 + 30 = Rs.170


6. Amount after 5 years = Rs.4600
Amount after 8 years = Rs.4960
Difference = 360, which is interest for 3 years
5
Interest for 5 years = 360 = 600
3
Principal = 4600 - 600 = 4000
S.I. 100
600 100
R = = = 3%.
4000 5
PT

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www.eenadupratibha.net

- 6 d- 2012
1. Which of the following powerpoint view displays each slide of the presentation as a
thumbnail and is useful for rearranging
slides?
1) Slide show
2) Slide master
3) Slide sorter
4) Notes Page
5) Design Slide
2. A set of rules for telling the computer what
operations to perform is / are called:
1) Structures
2) Procedural Language
3) Command Language
4) Natural Language
5) Programming Language
3. Devices that enter information and let you
communicate with the computer are called:
1) Software
2) Hardware
3) Output Devices
4) Input / Output devices 5) Input Devices

-- j---
2) A software to protect from computer
hacker intrusions
3) A software to destroy computer
4) A wall to make partitions in computer
5) None of these
15. Chiranjeevi sent a mail to Pavan Kalyan by
putting his email address in 'Cc' and to
Nagababu by putting his email address in
'Bcc'. Which of the following is true based
on the given scenario?
1) Pavan Kalyan can view the email
address of Chiranjeevi and Nagababu
2) Nagababu can view the email address of
Pavan Kalyan & Chiranjeevi
3) Pavan Kalyan can view the email
address of Nagababu only
4) Both 1 and 2 5) None of them is true
16. When data changes in multiple lists and all
lists are not updated, this causes:
1) Data Population Problem

1) Status Bar
2) Formatting
Toolbar
3) Standard
Toolbar
4) Titlebar
5) Status
and
Title bars
27. SMPS in a computer stands for?
1) Switched-Mode Power Supply
2) Simple-Mode Power Supply
3) Simple-Mode Power System
4) Switched-Menu Power Supply
5) None of these
28. The process of transforming information
using an algorithm to make it unreadable by
anyone is usually referred to as:
1) Decryption
2) Encryption

What is a Firewall?
4. The speed of which of the following memory
chips is faster?
1) Not Fixed
2) DRAM
3) SRAM
4) For smaller chips SRAM is faster
5) For larger chips DRAM is faster
5. Mahesh Babu has his cute childhood photos
in an album which might fade out in a couple
of years, which he wants to show it to his
fans by uploading it in his twitter account.
Which of the following devices can he use to
do that?
1) Keyboard
2) Mouse
3) Printer
4) Scanner
5) None of these
6. Which of the following is not a social networking site?
1) WAYN 2) Hi 5
3) Orkut
4) Yahoo 5) Facebook
7. In the URL https://twitter.com, what does 's'
represent in 'https'?
1) Safe
2) System
3) Start-up
4) Semantic 5) Secured
8. Which among the following is the file
extension for Word Documents?
1) .xls
2) .ppt
3) .docx
4) .worddoc
5) None of these
9. Linux Operating system is an example of
which of the following?
1) Freeware
2) Open Source Software
3) Shareware
4) Complimentary
5) None of these
10. A device that connects to a network without
the use of a cable is said to be:
1) Distributed
2) Non-Wired
3) Centralised
4) Open source
5) Wireless
11. Which of the following software applications
would be most appropriate for performing
Statistical and Numerical calculations:
1) Document Processor
2) Graphics Package II
3) Power Point
4) SpreadSheet
5) Meta Processor
12. Removing and replacing devices without
turning off the computer is referred to as:
1) Search Engines 2) Operating System
3) Software
4) Resource Locators
5) Plug-n-Play
13. Mr. Prashanth has a song sung by him on
the desktop, in the C drive, and also in the
D drive. This scenario in computer
language is generally referred to as:
1) Data Redundancy
2) Multiple Data Places
3) Various File Places
4) Data Inconsistency
5) Data Independent
14. What is a Firewall?
1) A wall to protect against Fire

3) Alphabet Coding 4) Encrography


5) Deptography
29. ..... is a type of RAM that stores
each bit of data in a separate
capacitor within an integrated circuit making it an efficient way to
COMPUTER AWARENESS
store data in memory.
1) DRAM
2) PRAM 3) NRAM
KVN
Prashanth
Kumar
2) Data Reduction
4) NORAM
5) None of these
3) Data Induction
4) Data Overload
30. A computer network that uses Internet pro5) Data Inconsistency
tocol technology to share information,
17. The legal right to use software based on
Operational system, within an organization
specific restrictions is granted via a:
is usually referred to as ......
1) Software privacy policy
1) Internet
2) MAN 3) PAN
2) Software License
4) NPN
5) Intranet
3) Software password manager
31. What is the symbol for attachments in
4) Software log
5) None of these
yahoo mail?
18. Which of the following is not an operating
1) Envelope
2) Letter A
system?
3) Paper Clip
4) Pen
5) None
1) Windows 2000
2) DOS
32. Which of the following computers is used in
3) Windows 7
4) Mac Os X Lion
Scientific researches?
5) Google
1) Super Computers
2) Main Frame
19. Find the Mis-Matched pair.
3) Laptop
4) Micro Computers
1) Chrome - Google
5) None of these
2) Opera - Opera Software
33. Winzip is an example of :
3) Internet Explorer - Microsoft
1) Free ware
2) Shareware
4) Safari - Net Scape Communications
3) Open Source
5) None of these
20. What is the full form of RISC?
1) Reduced Instruction Set Computing
2) Reformed Instruction System Computing
3) Reduced Information System Computing
4) Restoration of Information in System
Computing
5) Reduced Instruction Sect Code
21. The common name for Modulator and
Demodulator is:
1) Modem
2) Joiner
3) Networker
4) Connecter 5) Mom-dom
22. In order to delete a sentence from a document you would use .......
1) Highlight and copy
2) Cut and Paste
3) Copy and Paste 4) Highlight and Delete
5) Select and Paste
23. What is the keyboard shortcut for Slide
Show in Powerpoint ? :
1) F4 2) F8
3) F9
4) F5
5) F12
24. A ...... is a design tool that graphically
shows the logic in a solution algorithm.
1) Flow chart
2) Hierarchy Chart
3) Structure Chart 4) Context Diagram
5) None of these
25. The justification that aligns text on both
margins of a document in Word is ......
1) Justify
2) Bold 3) Centre
4) Right
5) Balanced
26. The Open, Print and Save Buttons are all
located on the ......

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34. ........... is the science that attempts to
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1) Nanoscience
2) Nanotechnology
3) Simulation
4) Artificial intelligence (AI)
5) None
35. COBOL is an acronym for .............
1) Common Business Oriented Language
2) Computer Business Oriented Language
3) Common Business Operated Language
4) Common Business Organized Language
5) None of these
36. The human readable version of a software
program is called:
1) cache
2) instruction set
3) source code
4) word size
5) None of these
37. Which of the following is not a programming
language with Object Oriented Features?
1) COBRA
2) ABAP 3) C++
4) C#
5) C
38. Which of the following programming language is favoured for Artificial Intelligence?
1) ABAP 2) COBOL
3) LISP
4) JAVA 5) C#
39. The quickest and easiest way in Word, to
locate a particular word or phrase in a
document
1) Replace
2) Find
3) Lookup
4) Search
5) None of these
40. What symbol is present on the number key
'2' on the keyboard?
1) !
2) %
3) ^
4)
5) @
(Writer - Director, DBS, Hyderabad)
KEY
1-3; 2-5; 3-5; 4-3; 5-4; 6-4; 7-5; 8-3;
9-2; 10-5; 11-4; 12-5; 13-1; 14-2; 15-2; 16-5;
17-2; 18-5; 19-4; 20-1; 21-1; 22-4; 23-4; 24-1;
25-1; 26-3; 27-1; 28-2; 29-1; 30-5; 31-3; 32-1;
33-1; 34-4; 35-1; 36-3; 37-5; 38-3; 39-2; 40-5.

- -K~: -d- 21.


--j-: www.apsfc.com

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--j-: www.gailonline.com

For SBI (Associate Banks), IBPS (Rural Banks) Clerks Material, Bit bank, Online exams click on...

www.eenadupratibha.net

- 6 d- 2012

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3

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3:4

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www.eenadupratibha.net

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--v- 7 d- 2012

-- j---

1. In a certain code DROWN is written as


MXNSC. How is BREAK written in that
code?
1) LBFSC 2) JBDSA
3) JZDQA
4) LZFQC 5) None of these
2. Among M, N, T, R and D each having a different height, T is taller than D but shorter
than M. R is taller than N but shorter than D.
Who among them is the tallest?
1) D
2) T
3) M
4) R 5) N
3. How many such digits are there in the number 5436182 each of which is as far away
from the beginning of the number as when
the digits are arranged in ascending order
within the number?
1) None
2) One 3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
4. What should come next in the letter series
given below?
DDEDEFDEFGDEFGHDEFGHIDEFGHIJD
1) D
2) E
3) F

4) Radish
5) Brinjal
8. How many meaningful English words can be
made with the letters ALPE using each letter
only once in each word?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three 5) More than three
9. Four of the five are alike in the certain way
and so form a group. Which is the one that
does not belong to that group?
1) 24
2) 48
3) 32
4) 72
5) 64
10. How many such pairs of letters are there in
the word CHAMBERS each of which has as
many letters between them in the word as
in the English alphabet?
1) None 2) One
3) Two
4) Three 5) More than three
Directions (Q.11-15): In each of the questions
below are given three statements followed by
two conclusions numbered I and II. You have
to take the given statements to be true even

follow
11. Statements:
Some toys are
desks.
Some desks are
pens.
All pens are rods.
Conclusion:
I. Some rods
are toys.
II. Some pens are toys .
12. Statements: Some tables are huts.
No hut is ring.
All rings are bangles.
Conclusion: I. Some bangles are tables.
II. No bangle is table.
13. Statements: All stars are clouds.
All clouds are rains.
All rains are stones.
Conclusion: I. All rains are stars.

Some bangles are tables!


4) J
5) None of these
5. The letters in the word MORTIFY are
arranged in such a way that the vowels are
replaced by the previous letter in the English
alphabet and the consonants are replaced
by the next letter in the English alphabet.
Which of the following will be the fourth letter
from the right end of the new set of letters?
1) S
2) H
3) G
4) N
5) None of these
6. Four of the five are alike in a certain way and
so form a group. Which is the one that does
not belong to that group?
1) Leaf
2) Flower
3) Petal
4) Fruit
5) Tree
7. Four of the five are alike in a certain way and
so form a group. Which is the one that does
not belong to that group?
1) Garlic 2) Ginger
3) Carrot

EXPLANATIONS
1-2;

i.e. 'Some tables are not rings'


No hut is ring ( E Type)

J
B +1 D +1 S
A
2-3; M > T > D > R > N. Hence, M is tallest.
3-2; Given Numbers: 5 4 3 6 1 8 2
Ascending order: 1 2 3 4 5 6 8
4-2; D DE DEF DEFG DEFGH DEFGHI
DEFGHIJ DE
5-5; New set of letters: N N S U H G Z

fourth from right


6-5; 7-5; 8-4; Meaningful words: PALE,
PEAL, and LEAP

9-5; 10-3;

C H A M B E R S
11-4; Some toys are desks. (I - Type)

Some desks are pens. (I - Type)


I + I = ' ' No conclusion.
Some desks are pens, (I-Type)

All pens are rods. ( A-Type)


I + A = I Type Conclusion
'Some desks are rods'.
12-3; Some tables are huts. (I - type)

No hut is ring ( E-type)


I + E = O Type Conclusion

All rings are bangles (A type)


E + A = O Type Conclusion
'Some bangles are huts'
Given conclusions are complementary
pairs. Hence the required answer is (3).
13-2; All stars are clouds. (A Type)

All clouds are rains. (A type)


A + A = A type Conclusion
i.e. 'All stars are rains'.
All clouds are rains (A Type)

'Some trees are chairs'


This is Conclusion II
All rooms are trees. (A Type)

All trees are poles. (A Type)


A + A = A Type Conclusion i.e. 'All rooms
are poles.'
16-20:
+2

D J I
1

+2

F U A
2

+1

H @ I
+2

B
+2

+5

+5

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17-3;

+5

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+5
+5
J T F N
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K 4 3 V
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Conversion

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-N-u --u --

Vowel

Some doors are buildings. (I Type)


I + A = '' No conclusion

x @, x q

Conversion

All rains are stones (A Type)


A+ A = A Type Conclusion
i.e. 'All clouds are stones'
This is conclusion II.
14-1; Some doors are buildings (I Type)

'Some cages are doors'.


This is conclusion I.
'All windows are doors'. ( A Type)

(Writer - Director, Banking Services Chronicle,


Hyderabad)

All rooms are trees. ( A-type)


I + A = I Type Conclusion i.e.
'Some chairs are trees'

16-3;

All buildings are cages. (A type)


I + A = I Type Conclusion
i.e. 'Some doors are cages'

KEY
1-2; 2-3; 3-2; 4-2; 5-5; 6-5; 7-5; 8-4; 9-5;
10-3; 11-4; 12-3; 13-2; 14-1; 15-2; 16-3;
17-3; 18-2; 19-3; 20-2.

15-2; Some chairs are rooms. (I Type)

M
X +1 N +1 S
Similarly
B
R
E
A
1

II. All clouds are stones.


14. Statements: All windows are
doors.
Some doors are buildings.
All buildings are cages.
Reasoning
Conclusion: I. Some cages are
doors.
S. Arun Mohan
if they seem to be at variance from
II. Some buildings are windows.
commonly known facts. Read all the conclu15. Statements: Some chairs are rooms.
sions and then decide which of the given conAll rooms are trees.
clusions logically follows from the given stateAll trees are poles.
ments disregarding commonly known facts.
Conclusion: I. Some poles are chairs.
Give answer 1) if only conclusion I follows
II. Some trees are chairs.
Give answer 2) if only conclusion II follows
Directions
(Q.16-20):
Study
the
Give answer 3) if either conclusion I or II
following arrangement carefully and answer
follows
the questions given below:
Give answer 4) if neither conclusion I nor II
GM5ID#JKE2PT4W%AF3U8$NV6Q@7H1B
follows
9Z
Give answer 5) if both conclusions I and II

16. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the
above arrangement and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to
that group?
1) DJI
2) FUA 3) H@1
4) B
5) I#5
17. What should come in place of the question
mark (?) in the following series based on
the above arrangement?
DJK
2T4
%F3 ?
1) U$V
2) U$N
3) 8NV
4) 8NI
5) None of these
18. How many such numbers are there in the
above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a vowel and also
immediately followed by a symbol?
1) None 2) One
3) Two
4) Three 5) More than three
19. How many such consonants are there in
the above arrangement, each of which is
immediately preceded by a number but not
immediately followed by a consonant?
1) None 2) One
3) Two
4) Three 5) More than three
20. Which of the following is the fourth to the
right of the twelfth from the right end of the
above arrangement?
1) 8
2) 7
3) K
4) A
5) None of these

Number Symbol
8

19-3;
Number Consonant

Consonant

2
P
T
20-2; The fourth to the right of the twelfth from
the right end means: (12 4 = ) 8th from
the right which is 7.

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--E 8 d- 2012

-- j---
B

v N-

N-

--u _-- v- N-. vN- () v- N--Eo x -q


Y-h vA--C-.
DEo -- vU ~ ' (t)
*-h.
C N- x *a-i, u-i .

v- N- N
v --u N \L (x )
2) --u * vA N- o N-- (dx) \-L. dx = xi - x
3) N-- _- \L. (dx2)
4) N-- _ h- (dx2) \L.
5) C v
y v- N- - Eo - L.
1)

(S.D.) =

v- N-

2
dx

= 100
x

N--

-u * \o N-- _

(dx = xi - x )

N--
_ dx2

28

-21

441

70

+21

441

31

-18

324

-49

2401

59

+10

100

108

+59

3481

82

+33

1089

14

-35

1225

-46

2116

95

+46

2116

v-

N-

(B) =
=

dx2 = 13,734
2

dx
13734
=
N
10

1373.4 = 37.06

6
= 100 = 20%
30
B

N-
h * B u ( x ) = 25,
v N-() = 4
N- (CVB)

4
100 = 100 = 16%
x

25

, N- -- A B
\ N- LT x, E-E ,
n - A B \ -n.
3. 200 C Nu-n , v-
N- 40, 15 -. F 43, 35 -- 34, 53 B--o.
j v- N--Eo, v- N-

14.97
= 100 = 37.47%
39.95
4. 250
15.6
100
15 3

u , v-N--
13.44.
u, v-N---

- , . NT-L v-N--Eo -.
: 100 u, u, v N-
n1, x1, 1. NT-L u, u, vN- n2, x2, 2 , h v
n1 = 100, x1 = 15, 1 = 3

n = n1 + n2 = 250, x = 15.6, = 13.44


n = n1 + n2

-- -\- -E-- --?


- v-

N-,
= N-- _
h, N - N-- u.
6) N- (CV)
v- N-

= 100 =
100 .

--u
x
N- -Eo x -.
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-E \- -E
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1. 10 Eoq A, B uh -
N- C N- o. O
\- E-- L---.
A : 42 17 83 59 72 76 64 45 40 32
B : 28 70 31 0 59 108 82 14 3 95

: A uq- 10 Eo-q
- = 42, 17, 83, 59, 72, 76, 64,
45, 40, 32
A -- uq-- - (x A)
42 + 17 + 83 + 59 + 72 + 76 + 64 + 45 + 40 + 32
=
10
530
= = 53
10
10
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= 28, 70, 31, 0, 59, 108, 82, 14, 3, 95

Eo-q -
(
x B)

uq- -

28 + 70 + 31 + 0 + 59 + 108 + 82 +14 + 3 + 95
=
10
490
= = 49
10

- V { -I

--h-- --y-

N--

42

-11

121

17

-36

1296

83

+30
+6
+19
+23
+11

900

59
72
76
64

36
361
529
121

45

-8

64

40

-13

169

32

-21

441
dx2 = 4038

v-
=
A

N-

(A) =

2
dx

4038
= 403.8 = 20.07
10

N-

ux- -- -
-d-u

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--J-NA: x.
- u: 17
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n1
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(xi)

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Brig SK Mazumdar Marg,
Timarpur, New Delhi- 110054

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- Eq d-J- Ja
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|: dK/ J\--@/ u>---@ 55
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150x2 = 250 15.6

100 15
= 3900 1500 = 2400
2400
x2 = = 16
150
d1 =
x 1 x = 15 15.6 = 0.6

x = 16 15.6 = 0.4
h 250 t Nh %A

d2 = x 2

n1(12 + d12) + n2 (22 + d22)

(2)

=
(n1 + n2)
(n1 + n2) 2 = n1(12 + d12) + n2(22 + d22)

250 13.44
= 100(9 + 0.36) + 150(22 + 0.16)
15022
= 250 13.44 - 100 9.36 - 150 0.16
= 3360 - 936 - 24
= 2400

150 22 = 2400
2400
150

2 = 16 = 4

22 = = 16
NT-L

v-N--

= 4

(- N----- E
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--J-Eo ----x, N-u --u -- x---..

[CVA] =
x 100
A
20.07
= 100 = 37.87%
53

40 = 8000

34 53 + 43 + 35 = 7991
B N- [CVB ] =
--O- -
j =
B
37.06
h 7991

100 = 100

= = 39.95
49
xB
u 200
= 75.63%
xi2
2
2
F, =
n x , xi-, x- u
B N- A N-
\- o-x B A \ n
* _ h (x i2)
E p-a.
= n (2 + x2)
2. E-O l Jt- D`-- C
= 200(225 +1600) = 200 1825
L- -.
= 3,65,000
A
B
j _ h
E Jh--E d
= 3,65,000 - (34)2 - (53)2 + (43)2 + (35)2
30
25

= 3,64,109
x i2
v- N-
6
4
j v- N 2 =
- x2
n
1) l-J \ n-yEo LT
364109
o?
= - (39.95)2
200
2) E-E Jh----?
= 1820.54 - 1596.40 = 224.14
: l Jt- n-yEo, E Eo
j v- N () = 224.14
----E A, B N- -- \L.
= 14.97
A N- h * A --u

(x ) = 30, v-N-- () = 6
j N (CV) = 100
X
N- (CVA) =

N--
_ dx2

(dx = xi - x )

-Eo \.
: h v,
h = 200
j h
= 8000

N-

n2 = n - n1

100 15 + 150
x2
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250

dx2

uq--

= 250 - 100 = 150, 2 = ?

www.eenadupratibha.net

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For SBI (Associate Banks), IBPS (Rural Banks) Clerks Material, Bit bank, Online exams click on...

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DRDO, Lucknow
Road, Timarapur, New Delhi- 110054

-j: www.drdo.gov.in
www.eenadupratibha.net

--C- 9 -d- 2012


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*-J-D: d- 21
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-j: www.jntuh.ac.in
www.eenadupratibha.net

--C- 9 d- 2012

-- j---

Y. Gayatri, Asifabad

Mounika Sharma, Kothagudem

Q: Due to fire accident (3) huts


reduced to ashes -

Q: I haven't had a good meal for/ since ages Which one is correct? Is it necessary to say/
place the article 'a'? - Clarify.

u j-?
A: Not
correct.
Because
of/owing to a fire accident,
the huts were reduced to

A: I haven't had a good meal for ages - Correct.

ashes - Correct = To-v


x - --u.
ashes =
Q: E, O h-o? DEo Tx-
pL?

Q: On/ At Christmas as we go to church and


offer prayers to God/ we pray to god - Which
one is correct?

A: I am Raghu. Do you remember me?


Q:

C u

Usage

Meal - countable singular, so 'a' should be


used before it.

A: On Christmas day/ During Christmas we


offer prayers/ we pray - Correct. (to God not necessary.)
Q: He studies during the day/ In the day. Which
is correct?

j-?

a) These boys be my students


b) One of my friends be sitting here for three
hours.

A: He studies during the day - Correct.

c) The boys did it, if you want it.

Q: By the grace of God through you I have


been able to learn a little English =
English

d) I know that he goes to Madras


e) A lakh of rupees be a large amount of
money for us.

Saif Khan, Warangal

x O y Cl
o C -d?

a--

through him

y L-C.
By (): It was done
by him = C.
By = by the side of. He
sat by me.
Q: The exam being
held - Explain the underlined word.
A: The exam being held =

(Letters)
(Sounds)

Ey--o

K~.
exam being held now is for the selection of
teachers =

p Ey-----o K~
x .

Q: Having been here since yesterday he is


happy =

Eo-o* \ -
- o. - -u d-?

A: Correct.
Q: I want to send an application for the post of
lecturer for the part. Please say the meaning
of underline part.

They paid for it themselves!


A: ... for the part - This part of the sentence has no meaning here.

f) If you want it, I would give it.


g) There be many countries in Africa

-x--- 699

h) This be my brother and his wife.

Q: 'Use' - It is pronounced as
(z
sound), prison (z sound) etc and
some words pronounced ' sound.
How can we know
sounds?

i) The crowd be well behaved.


j) Some of the teachers already left us.

A: Correct.

A: a) Wrong. These boys are my students Correct.


b) One of my friends has been sitting here for
three hours =

o-x
\ aE o/ C.
c) Wrong. O p--- G E v
sentence C. The boys did it, if you
d) Correct.
e) A lakh rupees is a large amount - Correct.
f) Wrong. If you want it, I will do it 'OR' if you
wanted it, I would do it - Correct.
g) Wrong. Use are in place of 'be'.
h) These are my brother and his wife.
i) Wrong. The crowd is well behaved.
j) Some of the teachers have already left us Correct.

j sentences , 'be'
O? be = . E o, C,
o, C, C -- n --E .
Q: C reflexive pronouns -d? -
N-J-.
a) Lalitha cursed her for trusting him
b) Mohan Reddy was ready do it himself with
out any out side help.
c) Rajashekhar Naidu himself asked her to
marry him.
d) They paid for it themself.
e) We have to look after us during our stay
there
A: a) Lalitha cursed herself for trusting him (self / -selves, pronouns
reflexive pronouns

- N
?)

b & c) correct.

?)

e) ... look after ourselves. Us reflexive pronoun

.
Q: Communicative skills development

OJa N?
A: Communication skills (communicative
improvement
Reading practice
English newspaper, short story books
etc.
English

)
-.

W
-. Ojp-x
x-,
p--- .

Q: Through/ By - Clarify the difference.

A: There are no clear rules when 's' is


M. SURESAN
pronounced as 'z'. However in the foli) Through = from one end of something to the
lowing cases, 's' is pronounced as 'z'. In these
other =
cases the sounds alone are important and not
He entered through the window =
the letters.

-.

( E) - --- -L v-P-.
ii) Through (y): I came to know of it

want it - Not a sentence, because it has no


meaning.

d) themselves (them - plural

Home - The word ends with the sound 'm'.


Home

n-i-C !

o. F l
, ' , C '.
English Pronunciation rules , l
v u. letters (~--) v
.
There are no rules which are always followed
for pronounced 's' as 'z'. However, in the following cases 's' is pronounced as 'z' (Only people with English as their mother tongue know
the correct pronunciation of English words).
i) 's' as pronounced 'z' when 's' follows b, d, g,
l, m, n and v.
e.g: Jobs - Jobz: buds - budz; bags - bagz; falls
- falz, homes - homz, pens - penz.
ii) 's' is pronounced as 's' when it follows voiceless sounds like p, t, k is pronounced s.
e.g: Tips, pots, cakes (Keiks) etc.

Fo * ' () a )
Eo x Jh---a.
-u Vowel sounds y a 's' E
'z' -L. Jaws - Jawz
rule

'd' is pronounced as 't' if 'd' comes after s, p,


k sounds.
e.g: used - uzet; tapped - tapt, looked - lookt.
In all other cases it is pronounced '-id'
painted - peintid.
For further help, practice pronunciation with
the help of CDs prepared by EFLU (English &
Foreign Languages University) and available in
the market.

~-

He has to take you home


Mihir: You have to finish the work by
tomorrow evening.
No more delay.

(
-v-Ex y
E Jh L.

u
.)

Varun: Is the time


enough? I have to
take care of certain
other things too. Why don't you ask Charan
to do it?

( -?-- Eo
N - --L. -
E---E ---?)

.)
Look at the following expressions from the
conversation above:
You have to finish the work by tomorrow
evening.
I have to take care of certain other things
too.
He has to go to Hyderabad.
Then I think I have to make do with ....
We have to get the money.
Mihir has to arrive by the evening.
He has to bring along the mechanic too.

Varun: Then, I think I have to make do with


whatever assistance. I can get from Nikhil.
Hope I will be able to finish it on time.

(, E" _ * --L-T
l--L. --E J_ Jh
h-E --o.)
Mihir: We have to get the money for it. The
earlier we finish is the better.

(E s
L. y Jh h -
*C.)

Varun: Nikhil has to arrive here by the


evening. Hope he will.

(E" -v-Ex \- L. h---!)

Mihir: He has to bring along the mechanic too.


Hope he won't forget.

(E -v
\ .
o x-Ey.)
Rajeev: Your brother
has to come to
take you home,
hasn't he?

(O
t Eo
B--x--E L
!)

He has to take you home (necessity).

Eo B-

xL F -

Has to/ have to


(Necessity)

Mihir: He has to go to Hyderabad tomorrow.


By the time he returns it will be too late.

( j--- xLq C. AJT


a--p K -u---C.)

Deepika: I cannot
wait any longer.
Please let me go.

---E
-- -Lq E

sentence
have to + 1st regular doing
word (have to + finish, have to + take care of
etc.), has to + 1st regular doing word (has to
go, has to arrive, has to bring)

-Eo

E.
Have to + 1st Regular Doing Word (RDW),
I, we, you and they
Has to + 1st
RDW, He, she, it
English conversation
Have to/
has to + 1st RDW (V1)

.
. N
u-i .
u-i --.
1) Obligation: c--l, NC -Lq---
.

e.g.: a) You have to finish the work by tomorrow evening


Order/ Command -

( -vEx E Jh
c)
L
b) She has to be at office by 10. ( Cx office L Order/ Command/
Obligation (c--/ NC -Lq
E.)

.
Madan: Why are you so impatient?

(-

-----o?)
Srikar: I have to
catch a train. If I
miss it, I have to
waste a whole
day here.
train

(
--L.
C p-,
\
% Lq hC.)
N- have to/ has
L-E .

to

Necessity

So, we use "have to/ has to" for obligation

(- c v NC -Lq E),
(--- -E-
Necessity ( - Dl -Lq E).
B---L. J-*-- --o.)
J-Eo have to/ has to + 1st RDW/ "be"
Varun: He doesn't usually. (-
form a-J.
Spoken English - - - u- -x ---... www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 1 -d 2012

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Q.No.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.

A
1
2
3
2
1
3
4
1
2
1
4
2
4
1
1
2
3
2

1
3
1
3
2
4
4
1
4
1
2
3
4
2
1
2
3
2
1
4
1
4
4
3
1
1
4
4
4
2
1
4
1
3
4
4
1
3
1
3
1
3
1
4
1
4
2
4
1
4
3
4
3
1
1
1

B
1
1
1
2
2
2
2
2
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
2
3
3
1
4
4
1
1
2
3
3
2
4
3
3
1
4
1
4
2
4
1
4
3
4
3
1
1
1
4
1
4
1
1
4
1
2
2
4
1
4
3
2
4
3
4
2
1
2
3
2
1
4
1
4
4
3
1
1

C
1
3
1
3
1
4
4
1
1
4
3
1
1
1
1
4
4
1
1
1
3
4
4
4
4
1
4
4
1
1
1
2
3
2
1
3
4
1
2
1
4
2
4
1
1
2
3
2

1
3
1
3
2
4
4
1
4
1
2
1
1
1
2
2
2
2
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1

D
3
1
4
1
4
2
4
1
4
3
4
3
1
1
1
4
1
4
1
1
4
1
2
2
4
1
4
3
2
4
1
1
1
2
2
2
2
2
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
2
3
3
1
4
4
1
1
2
3
3
2
4
3
1
3
1
3
1
4
4
1
1
4
3
1
1
1
1

Q.No.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
137.
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
144.
145.
146.
147.
148.
149.
150.

A
4
1
4
1
1
4
1
2
2
4
1
4
3
2
4
1
3
1
3
1
4
4
1
1
4
3
1
1
1
1
4
4
1
1
1
3
4
4
4
4
1
4
4
1
1
1
1
1
2
2
2
2
2
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
2
3
3
1
4
4
1
1
2
3
3
2
4
3

B
4
4
4
2
1
4
1
3
4
4
1
3
1
3
1
1
2
3
2
1
3
4
1
2
1
4
2
4
1
1
2
3
2

1
3
1
3
2
4
4
1
4
1
2
1
3
1
3
1
4
4
1
1
4
3
1
1
1
1
4
4
1
1
1
3
4
4
4
4
1
4
4
1
1

C
1
2
3
3
1
4
4
1
1
2
3
3
2
4
3
3
1
4
1
4
2
4
1
4
3
4
3
1
1
1
4
1
4
1
1
4
1
2
2
4
1
4
3
2
4
3
4
2
1
2
3
2
1
4
1
4
4
3
1
1
4
4
4
2
1
4
1
3
4
4
1
3
1
3
1

u
x u v L- - p-

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1
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1
3
4
4
4
4
1
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4
1
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3
4
2
1
2
3
2
1
4
1
4
4
3
1
1
4
4
4
2
1
4
1
3
4
4
1
3
1
3
1
1
2
3
2
1
3
4
1
2
1
4
2
4
1
1
2
3
2

1
3
1
3
2
4
4
1
4
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www.eenadupratibha.net

--C- 12 -d 2012

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Q.No.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.

A
3
2
1
4
2
4
2
3
2
3
2
4
1
1
3
4
2
3
2
1
4
4
2
3
2
2
1
3
1
2
3
3
1
4
1
3
1
3
4
3
2
1
4
1
4
2
2
4
2
3
4
1
1
3
1
2
4
3
3
1
1
1
2
1
3
3
2
1
2
1
2
3
2
1
4

B
1
4
3
2
4
3
3
2
4
2
1
4
2
3
2
3
1
2
3
?
3
2
1
3
1
2
2
3
3
1
1
1
2
1
3
3
2
1
2
1
2
3
2
1
4
2
4
1
3
1
2
3
1
4
1
2
4
3
1
2
3
3
1
4
1
3
1
3
4
3
2
1
4
1
4

C
3
1
2
4
4
3
1
4
2
1
3
4
2
1
3
2
4
1
2
3
1
2
4
2
1
1
3
4
4
2
3
2
1
4
2
4
2
3
2
3
2
4
1
1
3
4
2
3
2
1
4
4
2
3
2
2
1
3
1
2
1
4
3
2
4
3
3
2
4
2
1
4
2
3
2

D
1
1
2
1
3
3
2
1
2
1
2
3
2
1
4
2
4
1
3
1
2
3
1
4
1
2
4
3
1
2
1
4
3
2
4
3
3
2
4
2
1
4
2
3
2
3
1
2
3
?
3
2
1
3
1
2
2
3
3
1
3
1
2
4
4
3
1
4
2
1
3
4
2
1
3

Q.No.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
137.
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
144.
145.
146.
147.
148.
149.
150.

A
2
4
1
3
1
2
3
1
4
1
2
4
3
1
2
3
1
2
4
4
3
1
4
2
1
3
4
2
1
3
2
4
1
2
3
1
2
4
2
1
1
3
4
4
2
1
4
3
2
4
3
3
2
4
2
1
4
2
3
2
3
1
2
3
?
3
2
1
3
1
2
2
3
3
1

B
2
2
4
2
3
4
1
1
3
1
2
4
3
3
1
3
2
1
4
2
4
2
3
2
3
2
4
1
1
3
4
2
3
2
1
4
4
2
3
2
2
1
3
1
2
3
1
2
4
4
3
1
4
2
1
3
4
2
1
3
2
4
1
2
3
1
2
4
2
1
1
3
4
4
2

C
3
1
2
3
?
3
2
1
4
1
2
2
3
3
1
1
1
2
1
3
3
2
1
2
1
2
3
2
1
4
2
4
1
1
1
2
3
1
4
1
2
4
3
1
2
3
3
1
4
1
3
1
3
4
3
2
1
4
1
4
2
2
4
2
3
4
1
1
3
1
2
4
3
3
1

D
2
4
1
2
3
1
2
4
2
1
1
3
4
4
2
3
3
1
4
1
3
1
3
4
3
2
1
4
1
4
2
2
4
2
3
4
1
1
3
1
2
4
3
3
1
3
2
1
4
2
4
2
3
2
3
2
4
1
1
3
4
2
3
2
1
4
4
2
3
2
2
1
3
1
2

j-----E -~ d- -J\- -jd -G-Vb- N-g-l--f, -N------E --O d- -J\- jd --O -- '-E --C-.
-v-o-v, ' x- ---: www.eenadupratibha.net

-- j---
1. Storage that retains its data after the power
is turned off is referred to as
1) Volatile storage
2) Non-volatile storage
3) Sequential Storage
4) Direct storage
5) None of these
2. HTML stands for:
1) Hyper Text Mark-Up language
2) High Technology Mobile Language
3) Hyper Text Mobile Language
4) High Technology Mark-up Language
5) None of these
3. Which ports connect special types of musical
instruments to sound cards?
1) BUS
2) CPU
3) USB
4) MIDI
5) MINI
4. Antivirus is an example of which of the
following?
1) an operating system
2) a business software

1) Optical Coding
Recognizer
2) Original Code
Reader
3) Original Compatibility Recognizer
4) Original
Character
Reader
5) Optical Character Recognition
16. How can you paste the contents of a screen
in a word document
1) Press Print screen key open Word
Ctrl + V
2) Press Print screen key Ctrl + C Alt
+V
3) Press Print screen key Alt + C
Open word Ctrl + V
4) Press Print screen key Alt + C
Open word Alt + V
5) None of these

the ____
1) Menubar
2) Formatting toolbar
3) Standard toolbar 4) Title bar
5) None of these
27. Which of the following are the two parts of
an e-mail address?
1) Username and Password
2) Username and Street address
3) Initials and password
4) Legal name and password
5) Username and Domain name
28. A website address is a unique name that
identifies a specific ____ on the web.

To R eload a W ebpage pr ess Refr esh!


3) a security utility
4) an office suite
5) None
5. A computer checks the ____ of user names
and passwords for a match before granting
access.
1) website
2) network
3) backup file
4) database
5) None of these
6. Restarting a computer that is already on is
referred to as :
1) shutting down
2) cold booting
3) warm booting
4) logging off
5) None of these
7. Full form of pixel is :
1) Picture in excel
2) Print in Excel
3) Picture element
4) Programming and executing in language
5) None of these
8. A DVD is an example of a(n)
1) Hard disk
2) Optical Disc
3) Output device
4) Standard disc
5) None of these
9. To print a document, the short-cut key is :
1) Shift + P
2) ALT + P
3) CTRL + ALT + P
4) ALT + SHIFT + P
5) CTRL + P
10. .xlsx is the extension used for which of the
following files?
1) Windows
2) Access
3) Word
4) Excel
5) Powerpoint
11. In a website address www.prashanth.com,
what does '.com' stands for
1) communication
2) commercial
3) commerce
4) computer
5) None of these
12. If there is a file on the desktop, that means
the file is present in:
1) C drive
2) D drive
3) E drive
4) All the drives in the computer
5) The drive in which the operating system
is installed.
13. What is Cc in regard to e-mails?
1) Carbon copy
2) Communication copy
3) Client copy
4) Computer copy
5) None of these
14. Even if a disk drive fails, the computer
application running and using it can continue processing. This application is designed
with a feature called:
1) High Reliability
2) Bounce Back
3) Fault tolerance
4) All of these
5) None of these
15. OCR stands for:

1) User
2) Link
3) Website
4) Web browser
5) PDA
29. A byte can represent any number
between 0 and ___
1) 1024
2) 256
3) 255
COMPUTER AWARENESS
4) 2
5) 1025
KVN Prashanth Kumar 30. Vendor created program modifica17. .mpeg, a popular video file
tions are called ____
extension format, is an abbreviation of :
1) Patches
2) Anti viruses
1) Movie Picture Expressive group
3) Holes
4) Fixes
2) Motion picture Experts group
5) Overlap
3) Movie Picture Extension group
4) Motion Picture Extinct group
KEY: 1-2; 2-1; 3-4; 4-3; 5-4; 6-3; 7-3; 8-2;
9-5; 10-4; 11-2; 12-5; 13-1; 14-3; 15-5;
5) None of these
16-1; 17-2; 18-5; 19-5; 20-1; 21-4; 22-2;
18. Reusable optical storage will usually have
23-1; 24-2; 25-5; 26-4; 27-5; 28-2; 29-3; 30-1.
which of the following acronym?
1) DVD
2) ROM 3) CD
(Writer - Director, DBS Bank Coaching Centre, Hyderabad)
4) ROS
5) RW
19. To reload a webpage press ____ button
1) Restore
2) Redo
3) Reload
4) Reboot
5) Refresh
20. The ____ manual gives you information
about using a software program.
1) Documentation
2) Programming
3) Dictionary
4) User
5) None of these
21. A ____ uses pressure as a user presses it
with a stylus to send signals.
1) Track point
2) Graphics tablet
3) Keyboard
4) Touchpad
5) Track pad
22. In 'P2P computing' P2P refers to which of
the following
1) Point 2 Point
2) Peer 2 Peer
3) Pack 2 Pack
4) Patch 2 Patch
5) None of these
23. Most application softwares today comes
with an interface called a(an)
1) Graphical User Interface
2) Character User Interface
3) Icon User Interface
4) Button User Interface
www.indiapost.gov.in
5) Voice User Interface
24. Web pages are saved in which of the
following formats?
1) HTTP 2) HTML
3) DOC
4) URL
5) None of these
25. Which of the following is the feature that
keeps track of the right margin?
1) Find and Replace
2) Ragged Right
3) Left Justified
4) Word Wrap
5) Right Justified
26. The Name of a Microsoft Office word document is displayed in both the task bar and
www.pnbindia.in

---- -d- 431 --S-

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For SBI (Associate Banks), IBPS (Rural Banks) Clerks Material, Bit bank, Online exams click on...

www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 13 -d 2012

--q d- --p --q


(-v-IV) -I -- d- '

--q --C- -Ey-*-- d- --p -q (-v-IV)


-I - d- E -C-* '- E Cho. un- - -D-Eo ---T-a.
N N - --- - v- A -J----L.
Q.No.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.

A
4
4
2
4
1
1
4
1
4
4
4

1
1
1
2
3
4
4
4
2
4
4
4
3
2
4
1
4
2
1
1
2
2
4
4
1
1
4
1
4
3
4
1
1
1
4
1
2
1
4
1
4
1
1
1
2
1
3
3
4
1
4
1
1
4
2
1
2
2
2
4
4
3
3

B
1
4
3
4
4
4
2
2
1
3
1
1
4
3
2
1
1
2
3
4
3
3
1
3
1
2
2
4
3
3
4
1
4
1
1
4
2
1
2
2
2
4
4
3
3
3
1
2
1
2
1
2
4
2
4
1
4
4
1
3
1
1
2
2
4
4
1
1
4
1
4
3
4
1
1

C
4
1
2
3
2
1
4
1
4
2
1
3
2
3
4
1
2
3
1
4
3
2
1
4
4
1
4
4
3
3
4
4
2
4
1
1
4
1
4
4
4

1
1
1
2
3
4
4
4
2
4
4
4
3
2
4
1
4
2
1
4
3
4
4
1
2
2
1
3
1
1
4
3
2

D
4
1
4
1
1
4
2
1
2
2
2
4
4
3
3
3
1
2
1
2
1
2
4
2
4
1
4
4
1
3
1
4
3
4
4
1
2
2
1
3
1
1
4
3
2
1
1
2
3
4
3
3
1
3
1
2
2
4
3
3
4
1
2
3
2
1
4
1
4
2
1
3
2
3
4

Q.No.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
137.
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
144.
145.
146.
147.
148.
149.
150.

A
3
1
2
1
2
1
2
4
2
4
1
4
4
1
3
4
1
2
3
2
1
4
1
4
2
1
3
2
3
4
1
2
3
1
4
3
2
1
4
4
1
4
4
3
3
1
4
3
4
4
1
2
2
1
3
1
1
4
3
2
1
1
2
3
4
3
3
1
3
1
2
2
4
3
3

B
1
4
1
2
1
4
1
4
1
1
1
2
1
3
3
4
4
2
4
1
1
4
1
4
4
4

1
1
1
2
3
4
4
4
2
4
4
4
3
2
4
1
4
2
4
1
2
3
2
1
4
1
4
2
1
3
2
3
4
1
2
3
1
4
3
2
1
4
4
1
4
4
3
3

C
1
1
2
3
4
3
3
1
3
1
2
2
4
3
3
4
1
4
1
1
4
2
1
2
2
2
4
4
3
3
3
1
2
1
2
1
2
4
2
4
1
4
4
1
3
1
1
2
2
4
4
1
1
4
1
4
3
4
1
1
1
4
1
2
1
4
1
4
1
1
1
2
1
3
3

D
1
2
3
1
4
3
2
1
4
4
1
4
4
3
3
1
1
2
2
4
4
1
1
4
1
4
3
4
1
1
1
4
1
2
1
4
1
4
1
1
1
2
1
3
3
4
4
2
4
1
1
4
1
4
4
4

1
1
1
2
3
4
4
4
2
4
4
4
3
2
4
1
4
2

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-II E -C-* '- E Ch-o. un-
- -D-Eo ---T-a. N N --- - v- A -J----L.
Q.No.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.

A
1
3
2
3
4
3
2
1
2
1
4
3
1
2
3
4
1
3
3
4
1
2
1
1
4
2
1
4
2
1
4
3
4
2
3
3
1
1
2
2
4
4
4
3
4
4
2
4
3
1
3
1
3
1
4
3
2
2
2
3
1
3
1
4
2
4
3
3
4
2
4
2
1
3
1

B
2
3
1
1
3
2
2
3
1
3
1
4
2
3
4
1
4
2
4
3
2
4
3
4
1
1
2
2
4
3
1
3
1
4
2
4
3
3
4
2
4
2
1
3
1
4
1
3
4
3
2
1
4
4
3
2
3
1
2
2
4
3
4
2
3
3
1
1
2
2
4
4
4
3
4

C
3
4
2
1
3
3
1
4
1
4
3
2
2
4
4
1
3
4
2
1
3
3
1
4
4
1
3
1
2
4
1
3
2
3
4
3
2
1
2
1
4
3
1
2
3
4
1
3
3
4
1
2
1
1
4
2
1
4
2
1
2
3
1
1
3
2
2
3
1
3
1
4
2
3
4

D
1
3
1
4
2
4
3
3
4
2
4
2
1
3
1
4
1
3
4
3
2
1
4
4
3
2
3
1
2
2
2
3
1
1
3
2
2
3
1
3
1
4
2
3
4
1
4
2
4
3
2
4
3
4
1
1
2
2
4
3
3
4
2
1
3
3
1
4
1
4
3
2
2
4
4

Q.No.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
137.
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
144.
145.
146.
147.
148.
149.
150.

A
4
1
3
4
3
2
1
4
4
3
2
3
1
2
2
3
4
2
1
3
3
1
4
1
4
3
2
2
4
4
1
3
4
2
1
3
3
1
4
4
1
3
1
2
4
2
3
1
1
3
2
2
3
1
3
1
4
2
3
4
1
4
2
4
3
2
4
3
4
1
1
2
2
4
3

B
4
2
4
3
1
3
1
3
1
4
3
2
2
2
3
1
3
2
3
4
3
2
1
2
1
4
3
1
2
3
4
1
3
3
4
1
2
1
1
4
2
1
4
2
1
3
4
2
1
3
3
1
4
1
4
3
2
2
4
4
1
3
4
2
1
3
3
1
4
4
1
3
1
2
4

C
1
4
2
4
3
2
4
3
4
1
1
2
2
4
3
1
3
1
4
2
4
3
3
4
2
4
2
1
3
1
4
1
3
4
3
2
1
4
4
3
2
3
1
2
2
4
3
4
2
3
3
1
1
2
2
4
4
4
3
4
4
2
4
3
1
3
1
3
1
4
3
2
2
2
3

D
1
3
4
2
1
3
3
1
4
4
1
3
1
2
4
4
3
4
2
3
3
1
1
2
2
4
4
4
3
4
4
2
4
3
1
3
1
3
1
4
3
2
2
2
3
1
3
2
3
4
3
2
1
2
1
4
3
1
2
3
4
1
3
3
4
1
2
1
1
4
2
1
4
2
1

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PERCENTAGE
Percent means per every 100.
40 percent means 40 out of 100.
The symbol % is used to denote percent.
eg.: 20%, 25% etc
A fraction with denominator 100 is called
percentage.
Converting percent to fraction: To convert
percent into fraction, divide the percent by 100.
35
7
eg.: 35% = =
100
20
Converting fraction to percent: To convert
fraction into percent, multiply the fraction by 100.
3
3
eg.: = 100 = 60%
5
5
Increment
Increment percent = 100
Source

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To express one quantity (x) as a percentage
of another quantity (y), we have to write
x 100

y
eg.: 160 grams is what percent of 2 kilograms?
160
100 = 8%
2000
Sol: When there are three articles 'a', 'b' and'c'
in a group, then to express any one article
as a percentage of the group, then
a/b/c
Percentage of a/b/c = 100
(a + b + c)
eg.: There are 5 English, 9 French and 6 Hindi
books. Find the percentage of French
books.

25
Sol: 100 = 20%
125
If an objects value is
increased/
decreased by x%
and other factor
increased/
decreased by y%,
then the net effect is
xy
x y %
100

Note: The percentages are taken with positive/negative sign according to increase/
decrease in the factor.
eg.: In order to increase the total revenue, a
trader announced 25% discount. As a result,

What per centage is the first of the second?


Decrement
Decrement percent = 100
Source
eg.1: A number is increased from 500 to 600.
Find the increment percent
600 - 500
Sol: Increment % = 100
500
100
= 100 = 20%
500
eg.2: A man reduced the length of a scale from
1.5 metre to 1 m 5 cm. What is the percentage decrement in the length of the scale?
150 cm -105 cm
Sol: Decrement% = 100
150
45
= 100 = 30%
150

Some Important Percents and their Fractions


1
1
1
100% = 1, 50% = , 25% = , 12.5% = ,
2
4
8
1
3
1
2
6.25% = , 75% = , 20% = , 40% = ,
16
4
5
5
3
4
1
5
60% = , 80% = , 10% = , 125% = ,
5
5
10
4
2
1
1
1
2
2
16 % = , 33 % = , 66 % = ,
3
6
3
3
3
3
1
3
1
7
37 % = , 87 % =
2
8
2
8
1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

What is 25% of 40% of 7650?


A) 1530
B) 765
C) 1845
D) 1250
E) None of these
A man spends 45% of his money and still
has Rs.3960 with him. Find the money he
had originally.
A) 8400
B) 9200 C) 8600 D) 6700
E) None of these
The wages of a worker were increased by
20% and then reduced by 15%. What was
the net change in his wages?
A) 5% increment
B) 15% decrement
C) 5% decrement D) 2% increment
E) None of these
A man spends 13% of his monthly income
on rent, 9% of his monthly income on
school fees, 40% of his monthly income on
cloths, 19% of his monthly income on
house-hold expenditure and saves remaining Rs.5700. What is his yearly income?
A) Rs.3,00,000
B) Rs.2,75,000
C) Rs.3,50,000
D) Rs.3,60,000
E) None of these
When 40% of a number is added to 54, the
result is the number itself. What is that
number?
A) 60
B) 80
C) 90
D) 120
E) None of these
If the price of sugar be increases by 15%,
find by how much percent a householder
must reduce his consumption of sugar so
as not to increase his expenditure?

the sales volume increased by 20%.


What is the net effect on the sales
revenue?

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
9

G.S. Giridhar

Sol: 100 = 45%


5 + 9 +6
When two variables are inversely proportional, If one is 'x' percent more/less than the second one then the second one is
x
100 percent less/more than the
100 x
first one.

Note: If first one is more use '+' and if it is less


use ''
eg-1: A's salary is 20% more than B's salary.
Find by what percent B's salary is less than
A's salary.
20
2
Sol: 100 = 16 %
100 + 20
3
eg-2: If the price of sugar be increased by 20%,
find by what percent a housewife has to
reduce her consumption so that there is no
change in her expenditure on sugar.

Sol: Net effect is


25 20
-25 + 20 - % = 10%
100

10% decrease

1. Two numbers are 30% and 40% more than a


third number. What is the first number as a
percentage of second number?
Sol: If the third number is 100, then the first and
second numbers are 130 and 140 respectively.
First number as a percentage of
130
6
second = 100 = 92 %
140
7
2. A man spends 70% of his monthly income. If
his monthly income is Rs. 5250, how much
does he save in a year?
Sol: Spending 70% of income means saving
30% of income
Monthly savings = 30% of 5250
30
= 5250 = 1575
100
Yearly saving = 12 1575 = Rs. 18900
20 (-15)
3. +20 15 + = +2
100
2% increase
4. Total expenses percent
= 13% + 9% + 40% + 19% = 81%
Remaining percent = 100% - 81% = 19%
Saving money = Rs. 5700
19% = Rs. 5700
100
Total money (100%) = 5700
19
= Rs. 30000
Yearly income is 30000 12 = Rs. 3,60,000
5. Let the number be 'x'
40% of x + 54 = x (100%)
60% of x = 54

1
C) 10%
B) 13 %
23
D) 50%
E) None of these
7. If two numbers are respectively 20% and
25% more than the third number, what percentage is the first of the second?
A) 96%
B) 45% C) 75% D) 90%
E) None of these
8. A student scores 24% marks and fails by
36 marks while another student who
scores 32% marks, gets 12 marks more
than the minimum required pass marks.
What are the maximum marks for the
examination?
A) 500
B) 900 C) 800
D) 600
E) None of these
9. In an examination 42% students failed in
English and 52% failed in Hindi. If 17%
failed in both the subjects, find the percentage who passed in both the subjects.
A) 77%
B) 25% C) 23% D) 32%
E) None of these
ANSWERS: 1) B 2) E 3) D 4) D 5) C 6) B 7) A
8) D 9) C.

15
1
6. 100 = 13
115
23%
7. Let the third number be 100 then first and
second numbers are 120 and 125 respectively

EXPLANATIONS
25
40
1. 7650 = 765
100 100
2. 45% spent means he has 55% with him
55% = 3960
If 55% is 3960, then 100% (total money)
100
= 3960 = 7200
55

120
125
8. 32% - 24% = 8%
and 12 - (- 36) = 48
8% marks = 48
100
100% marks = 48 = 600
8
9. Failed in English only = (42 - 17) = 25%

A) 25%

100
x = 54 = 90
60

100 = 96%

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3. A student has to get 35% marks to pass. He


gets 183 marks and fails by 27 marks. What
are the maximum aggregate marks a student
can get?
Sol: Marks required for the student to
pass = 183 + 27 = 210
Percentage marks required to pass = 35%
35% = 210
100
Total marks (100%) = 210 = 600
35
4. Population of a town is increased from 75000
to 76125. What is the percentage increase?
Sol: Net increment = 76125 - 75000 = 1125
1125
Increment percent= 100 = 1.5%
75000
5. A man spends 15% of his monthly income on
rent, 20% of his monthly income on children's education, 25% of his monthly income
on other house-hold items and saves
Rs.3840. What is his monthly income?
Sol: Total expenses percent
= 15% + 20% + 25% = 60%
Remaining percent = 100% - 60% = 40%
Saving money = Rs.3840
40% = Rs.3840
100
Total money (100%) = 3840
40
= Rs.9600
6. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by
20% and its denominator is decreased by
14
15%, the value of the fraction is .
17
Find the original fraction.
100x
Sol: Let the number be
100y
120x
14
=
85y
17
x
14
85
7
= =
y
17
210 12
7
Original fraction is
12
Failed in Hindi only = (52 - 17) = 35%
Failed in one or two subjects
= (25 + 35 +17) = 77%
Passed students = (100 - 77) = 23%

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16 -d 2012

-- j---

APPSC GROUP - I MAINS 2012 MODEL PAPER


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16 -d 2012

-- j---

APPSC GROUP - I MAINS 2012 MODEL PAPERS


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--E- 18 -d 2012

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DSC - 2012 S.A. TELUGU MODEL GRAND TEST


No.of Questions: 160

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4) 35

30. vu ---o N- Nu-n- NN --


* - Ja vu Kp C -u--
- Jh-.
1) Jq
2) u-
3) u *
4) --
31. \o n, N p- -q--
.
1. SCERT
A. 1993
2. SIET
B. 1985
3. NUEPA
C. 1967
4. NCTE
D. 1971
1) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B 2) 1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A
3) 1-D, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A 4) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B
2005
NCERT

32. B Nu-v--R
-C---E
J u-~- N-E E-N-*C?
1) d -n--f
2) v- -
3) d K
4)
33. B J (-@-) --J* vA -q
Eo 'u-- Ey--h?
1) W 22-29
2) W 5-12
4) W 12-19
3) Vj 7-14
34. Nu q -C* J-E u-C?
1) Nu-N-- NuJn T q-Eo
'-- -h.
2) l o Nu v--q-Eo '---
u-J-h.
3) x Nu-N-- L- Nu v-Eo
'JqL q .
4) x Nu-N- Nu v q--Eo
'Gtx --.
35. K~ Nu-n x 'Jh-y y----G-%ClE
C N -E \o N C?
1) 1952 ~ t--yN -L- N-
2) 1964 K N-
3) 1948 Ny-N-u- Nu N-
4) 1986 B Nu-N-
36. -- Nu--\j v -- Lp
~u - 11 * vy v u-v-Eo
-dC. u-v-Eo E -h?
1) y-P~ v
2) y-Nu v
3) P~- G-
4) y- N-
37. Z - \ d p * -x
*aC?
1) d- 13, 2005
2) d- 12, 2005
4) W 12, 2005
3) 15, 2005
38. 'NCF-2005' v ' u - n
\-E C?
1) - -B--, Ay -, -h---
vu Lp
2) -y h--- Nu-N-- a
3) %-- v-u--Nh Cy vEo -
4) u-- y-G-%-Cl u u
Nu p-E--J p
39. -u C C, h -u --E
-A C - -Lq ju C?
1) Nu-n- E- vPoh
2) Oj- \ EE Lp-
3) vA---- v E- vq-h

4)

-A CE \ Ey---L n u

40. NCTE ~ -
N Ey-
\ vB u-Eo p C?
1) i
2) j-- 3) -
4) j o
41. --- -C* J-E Eo Jh-.
1) 'u-v hJ --y-- --

2) -Y
v-N C--vA- N---i
-
3) - v----i -- *-*
-- x ---
4) C--vA ----E No C
ElP* p vA-- x --y--
42. -vO --E ---?
1) --, -, *aa, -
2) u--, \, %T, -~
3) --, ---t, - -, p
4) , P-o, -A, --
43. C-E ---.
1. Cl vu-
. ---
2. % vu- G. , , , -, -
3. A vu-
. , J, ,
4. C vu- . , , N,
1) 1G, 2, 3, 4
2) 1, 2G, 3, 4
3) 1, 2, 3, 4G
4) 1, 2, 3, 4G
44. ''- o-E u- --, yCl u v- N--... o -
v--f u --EN?
1) v Jv
2) v- vA --
3) \ vA --
4) \ *
45. '' C\ h x C - u-E vN?
1) v-n, h- L 2) -n, --L
3) hyn, --L
4) v-n, --L
46. '< YE n. vh Y J Y N--E
n. n--J--Eo n .
C n J-T -N?
1) , , d, N-
2) -u, -j, u, Pju
3) , t, Cl, vl
4) Ht, , , v-R
47. vA-- - u-, v--,
u--o u?
1)
2) -UA
3)
4) --C
48. --?
A. - u--- -x v--u-iC
B. ju N-- - o
C. - *-* v l Lp
D. h N -x
1) A, C -u- j--N 2) B, D -u- j--N
3) C, D -u- j--N - 4) A, B -u- j--N -
49. ' * p JC?
1) vA--E -
2) Ny Ny
3) A- -v
4) - O-y--u
50. 'v-R T-h-o N?
1) o
2) A\
3) v 4) X-
51. jNF - *-* N?
1)
2) v
3) x--vJ -O-
4) \
52. j\, j n u--J - -E --P-*C ?
1) G.. %g-Jh
2) xx --Y
3) \ --o
4) v-tu Y
53. u----i --E l --E u?
1) -
2) -- 3) --C 4) u-\
54. ''d- - *a--p -- - o o L. *a- ---o E
-- E J- o--?
1) h-N-v 2) v 3) J-J 4) J-%\
55. 'A--J\ A-- v o u?
1) -v-n
2) Gs
3) h Gs
4) %--
56. C ux -t v o u C?
1) X- j *- .
2) a --J-
3) t -*C
4) - --d-*C
57. x-Lx --%-g-t vD--J-* v?
1) --h-A
2) --J-q-
3) %-\
4) -y-- -
58. ' u
1) , ,
2) -, -u, u
3) -u, -N---, --, --N
4) --N, -N--, -u, --%-y

59. '- J-* g?


1) j--
2) N--o
3) Mx
4) o--d
60. u-- -q -E x
v u?
1) - 2) o- 3) - 4)
61. C -, - ---.
1. -
. d- y yN
2. v E
G. J ---Y
3. u-v . N-Y
4. - d
. .-.j. -L
5. h . Ny- u---
1) 1, 2, 3, 4G, 5
2) 1, 2, 3, 4G, 5
3) 1G, 2, 3, 4, 5
4) 1G, 2, 3, 4, 5
62. 'j-yuE C-?
1) -C
2) %Cl C
3) -g-D` C
4) N_ C
63

. Oo-- ?
1)
2)
3)
4)

-- v uEo a
- v uEo a
- uEo v a
-%-A uEo a
64. ''--- n Jg CJ-T -j o
- %gE CJ-T a.... -s-
---?
1) -
2) -s-
3) v
4) Jg
65. - , - v N- J
s...?
1) h u Pxd u- p---p
2) h u- N-D- --p
3) u u Pxd u- p---p
4) Pxd uEo N-D- --p
66. C- J-E Eo Jh-.
1) ' Lx u- uh p- vA
2) 'N Y Ny v --E p- vA
3) 'y-E C- Ny v --E p- vA
4) '*- -- vq--* vA
67. - j *a x J- v?
1) vEq- q vq--
2) vq- vd
3) vq-- jG
4) q C vEq- q vq--
68. 'Eo v- J \ o N-
1) y--N N-
2) N N-
3) v-u N-
4) c-v-h N-
69. g-, g-, g-u-u, g- -- x J

1) q- 2) u 3) -s- 4) s-
70. ' Ny Eo %d-*C ?
1) -v
2) sJ
3) %g-Y
4) -x J--y-h
71. p-N \o h-N x 'l N ~
1) % --h C uEo *--
2) N--l x A-N--n N--
3) - N-
- i n- - - a-
4) g ln E- J-* u a
72. --N -- Jh-.
1) v-, --, % , d
2) % , -, --- - ,

3) p-, %g-~, y-, %


4) -, --, % , -J
73. C L- uC...
1) -h-~--E o a
2) Cyy-~--E o a
3) N-_ a
4) a
74. N
- yEo x L- - - - .
1. -v s-
. p-E Ny
2. --Lx %g-Y
G. u--Ny
3. yJ N-f
. G- N
4. J - --Y
. U Ny
1) 1, 2, 3, 4G
2) 1G, 2, 3, 4
3) 1, 2, 3, 4G
4) 1G, 2, 3, 4
75. ''u-v- %u - v- %u-yEo
p --A N-- E -A
J* p -E N
1) v- -- a Y 2) v- X--t
3) v 4) -- --- A
76. '% v%A -E N%A
1)
2) % 3)
4)

--E- 18 -d 2012

-- j---

DSC - 2012 S.A. TELUGU MODEL GRAND TEST


77

. C-E ---.
1. -v
2. _
3. - Et
4. NvA

. vA Y Et L
G. x
. Nv ju
. -{ d-
. C-x
. j --uL
>. Md- l
1) 1G, 2, 3, 4>
2) 1, 2G, 3>, 4
3) 1, 2, 3>, 4 4) 1, 2>, 3, 4
u - v E- -
78. 'u\ f v
x * Eoj v - A C
1) L- (-Nt t-V)
2) FL ( v-tu t)
3) v- (J P---Y)
4) c (Q-o -)
79. -E n
1) h-
2) p-
3) -
4) Cl-
80. '' 'y -C v---x
Cj v *-- n u C.
- *-. C u oN u-
v- E - --u J J*
uu-E-?
1) *--Jh ~ t--- 2) - ~ t---
3) -J O--L
4) - XE---
81. v-- ux -nEo C x
-C l C
1) vu
2) N 3) 4)
82. n -o, --- N u C?
1) '@ N* -- --
2) 'N - >-x-
3) '-- - E ~ u -J
4) '- --i
83. ' --~- E \o N
1) -- -
2) --N--
3)
4) h %-J
84. Sheep () C?
1) v-
2) 3) u 4) yv
85. '- T ?
1) *-T-
2) Cyy-~
3) --h
4) *o
86. 'y 'y-- -Eo ?
1) g--O--
2) g-
3) g-u-u
4) y-h
87. '- -E -n
1) , p
2) F, p
3) -, p
4) , p
88. u ~ N?
1) - %p 2) -u - -\
3) Ny-A
4) -h
89. 'p--N- -u h
1) %g-Y
2) -X
3) - p-
4) J s-
90. -- v Fo - NE- uC?
1) *B *
2) ---
3) o--
4) --U-
91. ''B- Nu v--*-x -
v--h-o E N-Y -JE v--?
1) - v-- 2) \--
3) s- -v
4) l
92. h-h v--u - Et
N
1) -YA
2) --
3) %--E --
4) Md--- l
93. ' K~ --a u
1) Ean u
2) ---n u
3) --un u
4) E--n u
94. N -V %d-* J
1) L
2) v- 3) P- 4) yP
95. - 'u-\, 'Cl- vv-- C -?
1) ,
2) , -E
3) u,
4) -E,
96. %-C -Eo ux *- ?
1) h, p--
2) l, p--
3) --, l
4) --, p--
97. ' g, -v- -b C
---E --?
1) vh
2) x 3)
4) vp~
98. p-h J-, _-.
u- L xd u .
1) p-h J- F _-
2) p-h J-T _-
3) p-h - _-
4) p-h J-T _-
99. ''O--L O--
N%-G-* A-C. N-- v --E x
-- -* N-C E --o?
1)
2) .N. --f
3) - --u 4) \-V --A-
100. u-- C N?
1) -n-i -
2) y, y y --

3)
4)

y-E y-y
y- y
101. (v), (T/--N)
1) y----E C-N
2) ~ --E C-N
3) h --E C-N
4) u --E C-N
102. L -E 'Cl-- -C--EC
1) 'u- v-- o
2) -N-y-Eo yn-v--- NE--T-
- *-*
3) -LE, -- v v o
4) ' *Lx E-E -
oi C -o
(103- - 105): Ea u(E), --u () u
-p --E p-p- Jh-.
103. (E): ya vu CC
(): Y ju %d x
1) (E) jC . () jC
2) (E), () j-N
3) (E), () j-N
4) (E) jC. () jC
104. (E): 'd C ~un Cl --
(): --n oC -v-
Eo-n- x
1) (E), () - j--N
2) (E), () j-N
3) (E) jC. () jC
4) (E) jC . () jC
105. (E): vA--E -yN J L - -
(): * x
1) (E), () j-N
2) (E), () j-N
3) (E) jC. () J-
4) (E) jC . () jC
106. vv- -C* J-E Eo Jh-.
1) ' u L
2) ' Jv L u
3) '-- N- -u- \ % * i L
4) 'E--- vGx E--E j L
107. 'C '-{ n p-C. \
J-T n J-
1) ~u-n- Cl
2) n-- 3) n-{ 4) n--
108. '- @N, - J, A--
C J E?
1) Nx
2) u-
3) C-
4) --h
109. C-J N E-?
1) -C
2) x- -
3) Jh
4) aJ v-tu
110. ' -p -J{-* h- Jv d E o--?
1) A
2) --
3) XX
4) -C
111. C- -Eo N- \-J- ?
1) J~
2) x
3) Ga-h 4) M
112. u- Ny N-y-- --C?
1) C--h-N-y
2) B Ny
3) Ny
4) R Ny
113. N-E--E Y-- u Eo L--J
-?
1) - Et
2) -v
3) _
4) - Et
114. P- -L N --Eo *- ?
1) . U
2) - j-A
3) -B-N
4) NvA
115. N - 'K Kh K
--u?
1) M l v
2) .. s
3) h
4) v
116. '' FC, FC, v- -EC E -v-
-- ER Jp-* N ?
1) XX
2) 3) >
4) -C
117. 'y-JE o - H AN j--AE o N ?
1) %gY
2) -v 3) 4) x--m
118. N-y-E v- *ax
-?
1) Nx
2) C-
3) E-
4) u-
119. - *a --x -C?
1) - -
2) - p-%~
3) Ey---h -
4) x -
120. X- L C?
1) Q-
2) -N-
3) L-- h--A
4) -h--a-Jv
121. u-- y -- *a -
1) ,
2) ,
3) ,
4) ,
122. ' -- -n
1) N, vA, N
2) , ,
3) JvA, ~v, u 4) vt, Ng, P
123. ' -E up-un
1) -Eo --h d

2)

-J- uAJx ~v
3) \ Fx d
o- d

4) A
Bh d

(124 128): C u Eo CN *a vo- j


-- Jh-.
u--- o X d.
A\-- Nh % . t --Eo
E-T-. l-- v . A-A
- Nu O-N- . ux * u
E-\-E N->-x C.
124. 'X d C
1) h
2)
3) B
4) h
125. 'A-A --- - Nu O-N-
u ' C n v-h-iC?
1) G-u--n
2) j--n
3) x--n
4) El--n
126. 'E--\- C
1) t-n v
2) v--n v
3) -j t--v
4) yn v
127. 'ux * u E--\-E N->-x C.
u '* Eo n v-T-?
1) yn
2) --n
3) - %-\-
4) u-n
iC?
128. -- N\L d-
1) -u-- 2) E-l-~J 3) h-C 4) uh~J
129. '~u-t-
1) K~ E- --- Eo
2) vA vo EJld y--F- LT
3) - Ey-* -i L
4) El-P ~uEo C
130. t-&-- l N?
1) u-Eo vPo-
2) u u--E ol
3) y, vh--- Nu-n p-
4) ------ --Th QJ{ d
131. jL jNu o u- C- L?
1) o
2) u-N
3) v-N
4) y-v--N
132. yEE --J* p-
1) u
2)
3)
4) v-
133. jN-Ah u-
1) u--Eo E- l-A p
2) -- E- p- v--o u- -
3) a-o E- p- v--o u- -
4) --- y v- -d
134. ''vu? vC-? u -
1) -- xu
2) xC u---
3) - ~ t - --
4) T tJh
135. -A Dl--- p, C v---
N->-?
1) Jb
2) Kq-
3) f
4) vF-
136. yE, n-E c C
1)
2) -
3)
4)
137. "Manual for School Level Seminor" SCERT
p v-J-*C?
1) 197374
2) 197071 3) 196566 4) 195657
138. -u N-Eo --o. NuJn Eo
o-x- C
1) h-- 2) %d-- 3) h-- 4) *-
139. C- J--E-C?
1) L" u h -C---E --
p--C
2) * n -- \
3) uN ---Eo J- L
4) Eo v - -a
140. Ty Eo n- ?
1) --
2) -y
3)
4) -O
141. ''Nu ~u -E - Ey
u--- - Nu-v--R E Ey-*-*C?
1) Lq q
2) -d q
3) -qJ
4)
142. --A- E --u- %u- -s--Eo -aC?
1) 2) -- 3) % h 4)
143. ''vA v \ % uh f-L-d
C E \-o---?
1) D
2) ..-F{ 3)
4)
144. lA Nu-n u-- --T--a?
1) %
2) u-v
3) ~ t--
4) -E
145. N- h, pu a KA (y
v) uEo l-A C-h.
1) vA--n lA
2) lA

3) lA
4) g lA
. --Y-Vc pL
--E ---N?
1) - Nu-Jn J- x
2) --E --E o
3) v- l-AE --J*
4) Nh %--i c
147. -
1) Vt-A --NA - C.
2) --NA \-, VtA \- C.
3) VtA \-, --NA \- C.
4) --NA VtA .
148. ''--n vA-- l u E Ey-*-*--?
1) n-
2) -o-
3) Ny--
4) V
149. -u u-v-- -C* J--EC.
1) u u-v-- Go
2) v-R-- - LT
3) -j uE h
4) -u v \
150. l- -C* J--E-C?
1) OE C- x
2) u v-R * C- -Lq-N
3) --- - C
4) n-i p *-h
151. J{ v-R- \--Lq
1) -u---, ~u- %d E E-x
N->-
2) Nu -q- Lq N-
3) -q- --Lq Nu u-v-
4) v G-%Cl v-R
152. -u- uEo 'g--l-A p--L- .
N-Eo --J-L?
1) u- E - N-D vA -E n
-y- y-- N--* pL
2) uE N--o - B-E n-i
Nu-n- L- L
3) vA
- - -nEo CN E N- - p * y-v- Eo p- * vA -E n N-J* pL
4) uEo NE-* p-uEo L AJT Eo Nu-n
x p-L
153. -E -C--EC.
1) yE, -E -
- - i -
2) , - E p-
3) o-p -
---
4) v%A -t--F, vA n v---
LT -
154. C- %u ------ --
1) x-x, kxx, --t, T -
2) -, .-.., kxx, dx
3) --vA-, -*-v, *v *-, kxx
4) -G-, .., --t, -
155. f lA J-N-x
1) C u-N, o Nu-n- v
--J-hC.
2) --, u \.
3) Nu-n ---- - C.
4) Nu-n - % - \.
156. K~ x u, -h, ~u-t vo \-
--o -
1) vo Et Nun --E
2) jNui vo -E
3) vh K-~ xE - E-J---E
4) -G-, -u-G- -C---E
157. -s- N - C-N?
1) %
2) ~t
3) u-v
4) -A
158. jL, KA, , - -C-*-N?
1) -u-c
2) -c
3) \ %A - J-c 4) -
159. - ---E --- h ,
C-u, -E C v-?
1) -A, G-uh, L"--, v
2) Dl-, G-uh, L"--, v
3) -A, v, L"--, v
4) Dl-, v, L"--,
160. u - v - v
1) v-z, v, -Jy-z, -E
2) v, v-z, -E, -Jy-z
3) v, v-z, -Jy-z, -E
4) v-z, v, -E, -Jy-z
146

(' -- -@-x)
-( --- -v-o-v-Eo ---E -X -vt-v-P~- n E-- -%- --C-*-C.)

--C- 19 -d 2012

-- j---

DSC - 2012 S.A. SOCIAL MODEL GRAND TEST


No.of Questions: 160

(1 *

40

Eo -bd---J
vo )
41. --- -v-- P-L v-
-h?
1) Nt
2) u-
3) t
4) v
42. vt-v CE - 'q .
DE n--N?
1) vt * Et-*C
2) ya -iC
3) N-v-iC
4) u-o--iC
43. C- *-F q EC C?
1)
2)
3) -
4) q
44. v --E C
v
1) j
2) -d

3) -
4) u
45. u- i
v- G-%Cl --E
q p n C?
1) v vH t
2) v vH t
3) v Ja t
4) D-
46. 'jp f E Z-E
?
1)
2) g- 3) N-- 4)
47. j--E-Ap y -L F--- u -x >xx u- G-%Cl -C?
1) -- 2) o
3) *h
4) X- N---
48. v-- A-l --
Z u un
o vd C?
1) vd
2) -
3) -~
4) \
49. - J-v-x q E-Eo
-T-h?
1) -F
2)
3) u-N-E
4)
50. >x- E To-- E--E
vCl?
1) T
2) d
3) -F
4) u-N-E
51. -jj E J - >x
C?
1)
2)
3) x
4) X-
52. x _ E Eo -h?
1) Nu-a h
2) t Nu-a h
3) Nu-a h
4) D-
53. hE --T* Nu- pAh
v C?
1) --
2) N
3) N>>
4) D

-E-o- -v--J-*- --q -.-. -- -d ----


14; 21; 31; 43; 54; 64; 72; 83; 92; 102;
111; 124; 132; 142; 153; 162; 172; 183;
194; 202; 214; 221; 231; 243; 252; 262;
273; 284; 291; 304; 312; 322; 331; 341;
351; 363; 371; 383; 394; 403; 413; 422;
434; 443; 454; 463; 472; 482; 493; 502;
513; 522; 531; 543; 551; 563; 571; 584;
591; 602; 613; 622; 632; 641; 653; 663;
674; 681; 694; 704; 713; 724; 731; 743;
752; 761; 773; 782; 791; 802; 812; 824;
831; 843; 854; 863; 872; 882; 891; 903;
911; 924; 932; 943; 952; 964; 972; 984;
991; 1002; 1011; 1022; 1032; 1043; 1051;
1063; 1071; 1082; 1091; 1103; 1111;
1123; 1132; 1143; 1154; 1163; 1171; 1182;
1191; 1204; 1211; 1224; 1233; 1243;
1252; 1261; 1274; 1284; 1292; 1302;
1311; 1322; 1334; 1342; 1354; 1362;
1371; 1383; 1394; 1404; 1412; 1423;
1432; 1442; 1451; 1462; 1474; 1482;
1494; 1503; 1511; 1522; 1532; 1541;
1553; 1563; 1572; 1581; 1592; 1603.

Max. Marks: 80

Time: 2.30 Hours

54.

jy- -C* 'O q


x \ p?
1)
2) -
3) -
4) -h
55. E q-v j u
1) 4

2) 5

3) 6

4) 8

56.

--- ---J wj
EJt-* jy-_ C?
1) N--o K
2) _
3) - L- 4) - h
57. ---- -- \
\-o?
1) y-"
2) vA
3) %-g---J
4) --
58. 2001 -N* v-C?
1) 2) 3) 4) h Q
59. - J--e E To--y C?
1)
Z L
2) L--
3) \
4) u-q
60. v NE -J d----E
-C?
1) 23 56 EN-
2) 24 15 EN-
3) 24 52 EN-
4) 23 50 EN-
61. Dy- E v C -
- l NE--hC?
1) ---
2)
3) *
4) -
62. --x - PC
v o?
1) q
2) tF
3) Kd-E
4) v-
63. ' -J v v E Eo
h?
1) L--Jo
2) Jq--
3)
4) Mbq
64. --- E v--- - --- -Eo -?
1) p-q
2) p-
3) wl
4) -
65. -U n J* L-hC?
1) h Jv
2) u Jv
3) p \ %A
4) x \ %A
66. c J N-Eo N-J C?
1) y
2) V-y
3) -
4) -y
67. u v-G-*--?
1) vF-VII
2) L---I
3) x-I
4) q-I
68. -N-x p J-TC?
1) 1688

2) 1687 3) 1689 4) 1690

69.

-Jx vq * vEo -C?


1)
2) -
3) xJ
4) q
70. vq x- d -- 16
Eo -q- y ----J?
1) 170

71.

3) 181

4) 185

-L- vq v-Jh -q
1) 1800

72.

2) 175
2) 1802

3) 1803

4) 1804

'C L *v-- ?
1) L-f NFq
2)
3) i--->
4) -
73. u- O J* --
v C?
1) v
2) vq
3) y
4) -
74. 1917 Nx -N-*C?
1) -J 2) u
3) vq 4) tF

75.

** v C?
1) O
2)
3) q
4) D-
76. -%g Eo --- \ n- ?
1)
2)
3) v
4) --h
77. XA Jf- ju - \
n?
1) Mx
2) --
3) --h
4) C
78. u- v v -*--?
1) --
2) --
3) -
4)
79. E-G- B v u-~--L
p u--J-?
1) 1905

2) 1917 3) 1929 4) 1947

80.

-o - N-
l ?
1)
2)
b
3) Jf
4) LA
81. , , p
JB?
1) 1930 -J 23
2) 1931 Ja 23
3) 1931 d 31 4) 1934 - 30
82. D- G -JC?
1) *h--
2) .. v
3)
4) Kb
83. 'Nd-J - v- -q?
1) 1803

84.

1) 1850
85.

2) 1858 3) 1856 4) 1909

t l p J-TC?
2) 1852 3) 1854 4) 1856

E-- u -d
d 4 * 9 \ -
Ey--?
1)
2) -h
3) o
4) -
86. - -v- Kd n ?
1) -t-D
2) ..
3) R-F-h
4) V-
87. Z -Jy-- p * - x
*aC?
1) 1956 - 1
2) 1953 d- 1
3) 1956 - 1
4) 1960 - 1
88. v N- E p ?
1)
2) J-l
3)
4) Fq
89. --q u C ?
1) v-- 2) vv Gy
3)
4) u-
90.
Z -E vN ?
1)
2) -
3)
4) D
91. \ EJt?
1) H
2) H-
3) s_
4) H
92. d-- EJt-* C?
1) j--
2) Ny-y
3) N-~
4) -y
93. d y x-- vu x
G v---d?
1) Eqx d 1861
2) Eqx d 1862
3) Eqx d 1909
4) vy d 1935
94. 1929 N--- Ey--* v-- u-~ -*C ?
1) y-Lx -%g 2) -f
3) >. N
4) --pu
95. u-u
NA -C--q--Eo V

?
d- 2
2) d- 24
3) d- 30
4) d- 12
96. d 6 -- h N-h?
1) -
2) -
3) v 4) v C
97. u-u NA - v u-Jz n?
1) y 2) t
3) y 4) t\
98. >- \ ?
1) vq
2) L-pq
3) ~-D-
4) L-
99. -, -, O-
G- l --E --- v-
C?
1) 16 v-
2) 17 v-
3) 18 v-
4) 19 v-
100. B -Eo u Et yJ* C?
1) 1946 - 9 2) 1947 -J 22
3) 1947 Vj 22
4) 1947 d 14
101. B , B U; u
J--~, --E -C* 1971
d J---E \o N C?
1) t N 1999
2) --- N 1998
3) - N 2000
4) v-v-A-Eu d 1951
102. v- -C* Jd- 41
EC?
1) E-\
2) v- \
3) Nu-\
4) vy - \
103. u-- 12 C Eg-- N-
--E -- v- C?
1)

1) 80

2) 80(2)

3) 80(3)

4) 80(1)

104.

x--K N -Jp E-C--j


vy-E, x--K N- u Gv p- E-C-- J
JQ-- L?
1) -
2) ---
3) u-
4) Z-A
105. u- 100 V --
L. - Eo V--
-- -Lq C?
1) 100

106.

2) 120

3) 140

4) 150

--- -v-- A v- J~-E l-P-* v- C?


1) 370(1)

2) 371 H

3) 371 D

4) 371 B

107.

-J-- ~ EC C?
- d--l --
2) v--J -u-Eo C-
3) \-j
4) -- --G-%-Cl NE--T---
108. -J-- Eo --J q -T?
1)

1) 1992
109.

1) 1968
110.

2) 1989

3) 1987

4) 1986

-\ _-E v-- p
-y ?
2) 1970

3) 1969

4) 1971

C- u- u-v EC
C?
1) --- l
2) 20 v u-v
3) H n B
4) Z-A u-- C-- -T-
111. v G-- E C?
1) jd
2) jx
3) vd
4) h--vA-

--C- 19 -d 2012

-- j---

DSC - 2012 S.A. SOCIAL MODEL GRAND TEST


112.

v-v- --- vA-~


?
1) .--u
2) .-T-f
3) >.-ao
4) X%g
113. j-- Z -v- ?
1) E M
2) --Dl
3) _ -%-g- 4) t M-
114. u J-- \ -J-* \-o
E- C?
1) v- 31
2) v- 32
3) v- 32 (2)
4) v-30
115. v- 82 u l N?
1) Z-A Eo
2) u- n Jy-
3) - n JyN--
4) v-d Et
116. - f-- %Cl -j ---
v-R C?
1) v-R 2) v-R
3) v-R 4) v-R
117. E- v-R -q
C?
1) 1970

2) 1972 3) 1975

4) 1978

118.

--G-%Cl -< --p-


C?
1) -J 2) -v-
3) Nu
4) jFo
119. v-v- - j-u l >x C?
1) j--
2) x
3) ---- 4) --
120. --E vy j F
OE Lph v- C?
1) -
2) K
3) F l
4) jFo
121. u- p-h- F l
Eg n C?
1) u- N-
2) .. N
3) p--
4) yN-- N-
122. vy -o, NF-o --
p v -d-C?
1) 1996

2) 1997

3) 1998

4) 1999

123.

B--- y -T-* j -B- - ?


1) J-q 2) 3) 4) v-Jh
124. u \- N u-~ ?
1)
2) ~ t--yN
3) v
4) -
125. ~ o-j -- -E
pj N u-~ ?

1)

--
2) u-u
.. "
4) -- --
126. '-J -x \-* -J B- D`- ---- Jn--G-%Cl
E \-oC ?
1) i -
2) >..
3) -x-Q
4) Kb
127. - -
\- Jn un G-%Cl C
v--hC?
1) 2) 3) 4)
128. v u- v -Eo p
v-G-?
3)

1) 1960 2) 1962

3) 1964 4) 1965

129.

NuJn D N-Eo E @N-


J C ~u?
1) NE-
2) G-*
3) jJ
4) v--F
130. --J --E NuJn -v
C ~u
1) NE-
2) G-*
3) jJ
4) v--F
131. ' -, --- J* NuJn
N-J-h ---C
1) NE-
2) jJ
3) ju
4) --
132. NuJn O-v- *v--j o
p-p- Jh C ~u-E
-C-* pd--?
1) --
2) c
3) G-*
4) ju
133. '-A C -u- -- d
v-t - u E Ey-**C?
1)
2) j
3) d--
4) d
134. 'h--i v-R j l--,
j -u- x @- C.
- N EKb-- oC
1) J N- 2) -K Nu N-
3) tJh N 4) D-
135. 'L- E * L- E E-j
C C %p?
1) E-
2) Nx-
3) -
4) x---t
136. d - C L- Ny-N-u-
C?
1) yf
2) df
3) -G
4) *
137. Nun x vu~ -- LT---E
p %u C?

1)
2)

E
vu~
3) ~v u--
4) jFo
138. ' EKg n
EKg
- @N- u- E
Ey**C?
1) u-N 2) -d

3) i-M
4) Nd-J \ f
139. Nu-n -- -------E ---i N-, @N--y
p C?
1) v-
2) vA-p-C-
3) N d
4) u-n-
140. - n NuJn Bt-Eo
E --E u lA vu
hC E \-oC?
1) j-E 2) i-M 3) -d
4) d
141. 'u-, v, J-Q- Nc--E
y E \-oC ?
1) u q
2) -NL Jd
3) vEq--\
4) d
142. P- --- - N
NE--T-h, o Nu v-R
\oC ?
1) --
2) v
3) Eo
4) v & -v
143. u- ~ C?
1) N- vv
2) v
3) Nu vv- -s 4) jFo
144. N--v K-~- v-dE *-*C?
1) x
2) ---L- N-
3) J
4) jFo
145. E E-- E ~u-, N-Eo L
d- -?
1) vo-v
2) -F-L-~ (x-v--)
3) --*
4) jFo
146. --u- vv ---o-p
u--Eo -?
1) Et--t
2) v
3) -
4) -E-
147. Ld y ~- E-E J-Q-L--LT, J y ~- v-Eo
-a?
1) - J-f 2) E
3) yu
4) J-Q- d
148. Eq-y-E Ny-N-u-- --
C?
1) ~ t
2) E
3) v-d
4) Et--t E

q-L D: d- 7
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-t 2012

o- u-- (v-v-)
vU @ vv x-d-
t q v--E --h

---E --- v o-->- -C. uC: x.


E--Jq, y--E Hx -d-u
o-@ -h Cho ' vU @
vv L--u-E-- v--E h o. DE -j u-n
(N-d 1) -- ---,
N 18 (N-d 2, 3, 4) y-E
Hx -d-u o--@ ----E
- G-hC.
|: -Z-Eq L--u-E--/ -Z-Eq
L--q/ u- jq/ --t-
o-@ >-F-J- 55 \- H/
H/ - vU L. h, , >-FJ nx Tx O- CN L.
: --N J - u-n
qL Ey--h. -h: -j *
- -a. *-J-D: d- 3

|: uq/ -@, >q, NZ -bd-


Bh-gj L. : \
- q-L Eyh.
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j @ x

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(j) Nu y 'wj --- - @ x q v--E --h
-C. uC: -q; |: j vU.
: --N J -.
-h: -j * - -a.
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~ u jy 1250 S
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N-: -J{- 18, v- (>-F-J)
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(Recruitment), RRC, Secunderabad
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149.

vu~ ~, j-h -> ~u


u Nu v-R -- E
*-*C ?
1)
2) j
3) , j
4) --
150. -gy C Eo u- Eo
u- u---- 'N-
- --o-C
1) ----
2) d- d
3) -J-
4) j-E
151. J- x -C C?
1) v-z
2)
3) y-
4) u- n--
152. ' E Nu-n- C- -Lq
cEo v--l-A- vu- --J*---o u-v E \-o-C
?
1) v & -v
2)
3) .- .-.--..
4) ---
153. NuJn, J-- u, u- J- n-
u J - vA--Eo
?
1) u- vv- 2) u- --
3) vu~ -- 4) --C --
154. u- vv- El-P---E -u-
--J -N-- lA E Ey-*-*C
?
1) -u
2) x- & - \
3) -K Nu--N
4) .N.-
155. -J \x l-A YEo
v---d?
1) -- lA
2) Nv
3) vu--Y lA
4) iu
156. NuJn * u- P-*
p-- v-R- pd \--Eo
-?
1) -
2) ~u
3) pd--
4) jFo
157. --, Eq -- C?
1) -a
2) FL-
3)
4) --
158. x C
1) CyN-B
2) -v
3) vAN-B
4) l-- - Zd
159. ' Eo-- Jh -u-t
%u vd E \-oC
1) - v
2) j-E
3) xf
4) d--
160. N--o >x o -, J-v-,
\ v O-u C- J-Q-L-* y NuJn N--o
G-%Cl CC E L--- ~u?
1) --y--
2) x-
3) u-
4) Nx-
----: 411; 422; 431; 443; 452;
461; 471; 482; 491; 501; 512; 521; 531;
541; 552; 562; 571; 582; 594; 603; 612;
621; 631; 642; 653; 662; 671; 681; 692;
702; 714; 721; 733; 742; 753; 762; 771;
782; 792; 803; 812; 822; 832; 842; 852;
862; 871; 882; 893; 902; 911; 923; 933;
942; 952; 962; 973; 982; 993; 1003;
1011; 1022; 1033; 1042; 1052; 1062;
1074; 1082; 1093; 1104; 1111; 1121; 1134;
1142; 1153; 1161; 1174; 1184; 1194; 1203;
1211; 1222; 1232; 1244; 1253; 1262;
1272; 1284; 1293; 1302; 1314; 1324;
1334; 1342; 1353; 1361; 1373; 1384;
1394; 1401; 1411; 1422; 1434; 1441;
1452; 1461; 1472; 1484; 1493; 1502;
1513; 1522; 1532; 1542; 1554; 1563;
1574; 1583; 1594; 1604.

-( --- -v-o-v-Eo ---E vtv *


- -N-- -E-- . Ov --C--.)

- 2 -d 2012

-- j---
%h pKz-
C(B, r2) %h u-p-Jz--j

----E A-u x '%h .


%h-E -C* C u -
-u- E- - K~x -
\.
1) %h E l-
2) J-%h %h v -s
v -s tj -u
3) %h pz-
4) %h p-Jz- %h
5) vu~ t pz--, Au t pz %h- l %h-E
uj l.

%h u - l-

i) C (A, r1),
AB = AP + BP
d = r1 + r2

pJz--j

ii)

AB = r1 r2

iii)

B
P

--j

AB > r1 + r2

pz-- -E j
Eo Au t
pz-- -E .
C(A, r1), C(B, r2),
AB = d -
a) d = r1 + r2
vu~ t pz u = 2
b) d < r1 + r2 Au t pz- u
= 0.

r1 .P
A
K

iv)

n G ('O') * n- (r) o
G N-AE %h . DEo C (O, r)
h. 'O' %h--v-E, 'r' %h ul-E . O C (O, r).
C(O, r) j A, B G-

ABE , AB u h. AB u
%h-v y R, C u---C.
%h l -u u .

r2

r1
A

. r2

c) d > (r1 + r2)


B
K

-%-h--

--j AB < r1 + r2 -C.


i) u-p-Jz %h- UL t pz- u = 3 d = r1 + r2 C(A,
r1), C(B, r2) UL t pz-
l3
l u
1

= 3

l2

vu~ t pz, Au t pz-- u-n---.

d) vu~ t pz- = d2 (r1 r2)2


Au t pz-
=

d2(r1 + r2)2

e) C(O, r)

%h-E
v * 'd'
E P u
G *
pz- U-.

PA = PB =

A
r

x p D`---v j-u-E
.

C(O, r) AB, CD
u. N 'P' l -.

OP = r

ii) C (o, r)

%h-E l
----
OP < r
iii) C(O, r) l
OP>r -C.

l
P

-- --
l

d2 r2

--l-
v * pz-G-- L
ul, pz-G- l pz--
.
- -%h ul *J G-
l ulE -i,
%hE pz-.

--Jt--d -X-E--
%h- l-

pJz--j O UL 'O' v o %h-E A l


PQ pz-, AB
t pz-- u = 1.
u. ACB j 'C'
G ACB E
BAQ ---E- -- -%-h- C
iii) C (A, r1) ,
B
C(B, r2)
----E ---E, ADB
O
%h- E BAP -E
D
B
UL t
A
P
Q
pz-- u = 2. %h-E
-E Ey-*-h.
l4
l3
ACB = BAQ, ADB = BAP ---Eo -- -%-hl1
- -l- -Ey-*h. -Nu- ACB =
BAQ, ADB = BAP - - -%h-E -A l
PQ
A
B
pz- -----C.
l

ii) C (A, r1), C(B, r2)


AB

l1

l2

iv)

%h
C(A,
C(B,

r1),
r2)

UT t pz- - u = 4.
vu~ Au t pz-: t pz-
%h- j Eo vu~ t

P
D

(P

G )

ii) PA. PB = PC. PD


= OP2 r2

C
D

u G
O
)
P
B
l: PAB -- A
C(O, r)
%hEo A, B x h PT pz- C v -\-.
(P

-%--h-E --e- -~- -u ---!

i) PA. PB = PC. PD= r2OP2

PA.PB = OP2r2
= PT2

vA u %h-E e-~. d
%h-E e--~ u .
vE xDl 'u _-C.
A, B C (O, r) X, Y C(O, r)
X
j G-.
P
AXB > AYB d AXB E
r
C -E, AYB E pO
--E
.
AXB = AYB AXB, A
B
Y
AYB l-%-h--.

AXB , u AB
%--i- %h- Eo %h- .
AXB > AYB AXBE C %h E, AYB E p-%h -E .
A, B C(O, r) AXB E C %hE --E, AYB E p-%h E -E .
C %h--- E p-, p%h-E C , l-%-h-E
-.
%h uj l-
i) C(O, r), C(O', r) %h y--.
ii) %h u
h. N-u E.
iii) %h u v *
. N-u- %h v
* E u -
.
iv) %h v l
- h. N-u- u.
v) %h j u --Cy %h
v y -C.
vi) %h v * j u U
u --Cy-- hC.
vii) %h-v, u u-G-- L u
C.
%h pz-
i) C(O, r) %h-E l
pz-

O
.

PA. PB = PC. PD

(... POT -

%h u

vA)

PT= PA.PB

O
r

T
l-:
u pJz %h
pz-G-, v L-- -j C.
C(A, r1), C(B, r2) %h 'P' l pJz-
i) r1+r2 = AB AB E 'P', r1:r2 Ep-Ah
-,
ii) r1r2 = AB AB E 'P', r1 : r2
EpAh u N>h.
l: %h U vu~, Au
t pz-- G- %h
v L --Eo ul EpAh u, - h.
C(A, r1), C(B, r2)

%h
AB > r1 + r2 u , v
u ~ pzC
-
D
G 'P', AB
P
E r1:r2 EpA- h A
B
u
N>hC.
C
Au t pz-

B
P
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-- 21 -d 2012

-- j---

DSC - 2012 S.A. MATHS MODEL GRAND TEST


No.of Questions: 160

Max. Marks: 80

(1 *

n(n + 1)(n + 2)

40

Eo -bd---J vo
)
41 . A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}, B = {1, 2, 3, ....., 30}. f v-Eo A
* B f(x) = x2 + 1 Ey*. X A u
X N-AE f(x) = {10, 17, 26} Ey-*h,
C-- NA 'X' --C?

1)
6
n2(n + 1)2
3)
4

1) {1, 2, 3}

2) {2, 3, 4}

42. (p (q)) (p q)
1)

2)
4)

u p, q v- Ey*h, q p u-N-
1) u
2) u 3) El-J-
4) D-
44. C- C u?
45.

1) [p (q)] [(p) q]

2) (p q) p q

3) (p q) p q

4) (p q) p q

C- j y E-Eo N- yC?
1) A (B C) = (A B) (A C)

2) A

3)

4)

' =

=A

jFo
46. x 'O' v,
'R' ul o
AB = 35 R u-N-
A.
hEo -J-. h O
.
-J-, --J--
C?
B

1) 50.5

2) 60.3

3) 70.1

4) 57.6

47 log102 = 0.3010, log103 = 0.4771

2 30 3100

Eo ?
1) 57

2) 58

3) 59

4) 60

48 ax - 1 = bc, by - 1= ac , cz - 1 = ab

, C-

C u?

1)

x,y,z

3)

xy = x
x,y,z
x

x,y,z

2)

x,y,z

= x
x,y,z

4)

1) ay + bx + c = 0

xy2 = x
x,y,z

D-

49 (a - b)5+ (b - c)5 + (c - a)5

66.

ab)
3) 5(a - b)(b - c) (c - a)(a2 - ab)
a2 -

2) 2(a - b)(b - c)(c - a)(

a,b,c

a,b,c

4)

D-
50. C-- u v-C?
1) f(x), g(x) e --j f(x). g(x)
e
2) f(x) -
--i f(kx) = knf(x).
(f(x) \ J- n)
3) 1, 2
4) D-
51. x4 + ax3 + bx2 + cx + d = (x2 + px + q)2 q =
a2

(
(

1
1) b -
2
4

)
)

(
(

1
b
2) a2 -
4
4

1
a
3) b2 -
2
4

1
4) b2 - a2
3

52. (3a + 2b - c + d)2 - ka(2b - c + d)


k

)
)

67.

69

\ N--

-
~Eo pJzhC?

3) {1, 3}

4) {1, 2}

(
(
(
(

)
)
)
)

(
(
(
(

)
)
)
)

q q
p
r
4) x2 + + x + + + 2 = 0
p
r
r
p

g(x) =

2) (2n + 1)Cn

20

) Nh--

3) 2nCn+1 4) 2n Cn-1

%h v C?
1) (2, 3)
3
5
3) (
2 ,
2 )

Q{o

ABC

\ J-

2) (1 1)

- -u Nu
(x + 2), - (x2 + Ax 4), 3
A N ?

2) 15

3) 18

4) 20

1) 5

1) AD > CD > AB

2+3

2-3

2) 4
2

)(
+

2-3

2+3

2) 194

3) 6

4) 7

3) AB > AD > CD

=
3) 185

4) 195

%d u

f = 2x + 3y

2) 18

3) 15

4) 24

1)

%d u f(x, y)
-v---E Eo Je
2)

J-N

3)

u 4) D-
u-n-u

72 x + y 6, 2x + y 8, x 0, y 0

2
1)
p

2)
p

p
3)
2

p
4)

1
74. Lt =
x 0 x
1)

2) 0
3) 1
4) u- n
x4
{

5}, Z g--u NA
3
AZ =

75 A = x R :

1
3

1
2

1)

1
4

2)

3)

4) 0

105.

- -d * j o P
30 n y-- C. \ * 60 O. P
C
J-T--p C 60 n y C.
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
P
h ?
-- n ju 1386 .O., p
1) 10 O. 2) 20 O. 3) 303 O.
4) 15 O.
7 Ox-, --E u ul (Ox ) ?
106. a cos ( + ) = b cos( ) cot . cot =
1) 28
2) 42
3) 35
4) 56
a+b
ab
b
a
> --- h, u--
1)
3)
2)
4)
a
b
ab
a+b
h-E 5 x, -> u
1 3
?
(A2 2A) vA El-
107. A = [
2 1]

89 ABC

E o

4) (
2

104. sin 780 . sin 480 + cos 240. cos 300 =

(x3 + 3x2 2x 5),

1) 12
x

AC BD
3) 4) AC + BD
2

-C?

= 4x + 3y

87.

AC + BD
2)
2

B = 70, C = 50. A \ -Cy AD - AB, AD, CD j v

1) 16

xy

86.

88.

1) 2nCn

1) AC BD

Nh-- u ?

55.

C vA--e C?
1) x, y R x y
2) x, y R
3) A = {1, 2, 3} j R = {(1, 1), (2, 2), (2, 3)}
4) jFo
56. f(x) = 2x +3, gof(x) = 16x2 + 48x + 36

95 A(2, 2), B(8, 4), C(5, 7)

77. xp = y

2n

- ->
% - ->
2) N% - ->
3) 1, 2
4) D-
73. %h -Jx-"--i -> u n.
n --p -> d-- p ,
%h ul ?

q q
p r
3) x2 - - x + - + 2 = 0
p
r
r
p

a
x

1)

2) x2 - + x + + - 2 = 0
p
r
r
p

x =1

x
a

1) x2 - + x + + + 2 = 0
q
r
r p

71 x 0, y 0, 8x + 5y 40, 4x + 3y 12

54. ,

- --o _ --D O--


1
1
px2+ qx + r = 0 , + , +
- --o

_----D O-- C?

anx + an1 xn1 + .... + a0


76. Lt
= (m n)
x bmxm + bm1 xm1 + ...... + b0
an
an
bm
bm
1) , 1
2) , 0
3) , 1 4) , 0
bm
an
an
bm

4) -24

~u-v- Je N ?

X-

2) { -1, 1}

3) 27

70. x 0, y 0, x + y 5, 3x + y 9

4) 18

53 y = (k - 2)x2 + 2(2k - 3)x + (5k - 6)


1) {2, 3}

2) 16

NA

F v A * B 15 .O.
vhC. uh A * B , AJT v--E
G-- B * A v----E 8
dC. E- F - 4 .O.
, F v ?
1) 1 .O./
2) 2 .O./
3) 3 .O./
4) 4 .O./

g _-i

3) 16

2) ax + by + c = 0
4) ax - by + c = 0

_ O--
A = {x : x 2 x 4} -C?

1) 182

2) 12

4) {11, 10, ..... ,19}

68. x +

x x

N ?

1) 10

1) 24

-
1) 3(a - b)(b - c)(c - a).(a2 + b2 + c2)

n2(n - 1)2
4)
4

, 52 )
\ -C* C- C 96. (2, 1), (4, 5), (1, 3) - ABC
u?
u G- ABC ju
1) x2 - 6x + 8 > 0
2) x2 - 6x + 8 0
1) y < 0, p = 2n + 1 C
1) 20
2) 16
3) 18
4) 8
3) x2 + 6x 8 > 0
4) x2 - 6x + 8 0
2) y < 0, p = 2n
97. E---~ - Eo- LT
1
1
1
C jx C-
3) 1, 2
4) D-
59. + + + ... + n h ?
1
1
1
1
1
1
1.3 3.5
5.7
1) ( , , ) 2) (
78. a, b u 'n' --u-- h ?
,
,
)
2
2
2
2
2
2
n
n
2n + 1
2n - 1
1
1
1
1
1
1
n(a b)
n(a + b)
n(b a)
1)
2)
3)
4)
3) ( , , )
4) (
1)
2) 3) 4) D-
,
,
)
2n + 1
2n - 1
n
n
3
3
3
3
3
3
2
2
2
60. ---- l
18
98. --- E N-g u i
i
i1
1
79. (2 + 3
)=
1
1) vu--- lA
2) E- lA
1) sin1 ( )
2) cos1 (
)
i=1
2
1 18
1 17
2
17
18
3) v Et lA
4) D-
2) 3(2 1) + (3 1)
1) 2(2 1) + (3 1)
1
1
2
2
3) tan1 ( )
4) cos1 ( )
2
2
1
61. n(A) = n(B) --p C-- C u?
3) 2(2181) + (3181)
4) D-
,
4
,
5)
,
(3
,
5
,
4)
G

-L --Eo
99.
(2
2
1) f : A B y f : A B vh
80. GP Tm, Tn, Tp Sx G.P. , m,
xy Ep-Ah N>hC?
2) f : A B y f-1 : B A u- n
n, p v ?
1) - 5 : 4
2) u 5 : 4
3) f : A B vh f : A B y
1) A.P.
2) G.P.
3) H.P.
4) D-
4) u 4 : 5
3) - 4 : 5
4) jFo
n , logn
81. 1 < a < b < x, n N. n > 1 logn
,
log
.
100
log
1
log
{
log
32
}
=
2 x =
[
]
a
c
b
x
4

2
62. f : A A q v, g : A B n vi,
H.P. a, b, c v ?
16
625
25
4
C C u?
1) A.P.
2) H.P.
3) G.P.
4) D-
2)
3)
4)
1)
625
16
4
25
1) gof n v
2) gof q v
82. a, bu A.M., G.M., H.M. A, G, H
101. sinA = psinB, cosA = q cosB tanA =
3) fog q v
4) D-
*h, A, G, H v ?

n
n- 1
1q2
1p2
63. f(x) = a0x + a1x
+ ..... + an -C a0 + a1
1)
2)
1) A.P.
2) H.P.
3) G.P.
4) D-
2

1q
p2 1
2
2
+ a2 + a3 + ..... = 2 (a1 + a3 + a5 + ...) tEo
83. ABC AD BC, BD = 3 CD 2 AC + BC =

1q2
1+p2
h f(x) \ -
3)
4)
1) 3 AB2
2) AB2
3) 2 AB2
4) 5 AB2
2+1

p
1+q2

1) (x - 1)
2) (x + 1) 3) (2x - 1) 4) (2x + 1)
84. ABC BC, CA , AB u G- D, E, F
2001
2001
102.
3sinA
+
5
cosA
=
5

5
sinA
3 cosA =
64. C-- C (1999
+ 2001
) Ez
AB2 + BC2 + CA2 =
1) 2
2) 4
3) 5
4) 3
3
4
ThC?
2
2
2
2
2
2
1)
4 (AD + BE + CF ) 2)
3 (AD + BE + CF )
103. x = tan170. tan80, y = tan70. cot20
1) 1999
2) 2001
3) 3999
4) 4000
1
2
2
2
1
2
2
2
3) (AD + BE + CF ) 4) (AD + BE + CF )
4
x3 + y3 =
65. x2 - 3x + 2 = 0, x2 - 5x + p = 0 _--O--- t
D 3l AB + CD =
85.

ABC %h BC
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
--- p2 - 10p E ?

58.

n(n + 1)(n + 2)
43 p: x R, x2 0, q: n N, N
8

2) {10, 9, ..... ,14}


3) {0, 1, 2, 3, ..... ,15)

--p ax2 + bx + c = 0 _--O--


C y = x2 ---Eo pJz-hC?
3) bx + ay - c = 0

-h
D-

2)
3

57. b2 = 4ac

4) {1, 4, 5}

N--
j

3)

3) {3, 4, 5}

Time: 2.30 Hours


1) {11, 10, ..... ,15}

2n(n + 1)(2n + 1)

1) 5
2) 25
y = 1,
x+
y=1
x +
108.
a
b

2) AD < CD < AB
4)

D-
90. ABC \ G 'O' , C
C u?
1
2
1
2) (OA + OB + OC) < (AB + BC + CA)
2
1
3) (OA + OB + OC) = (AB + BC + CA)
2

1) (OA + OB + OC) > (AB + BC + CA)

3) 5

C-*--p

B1 =

1) ab(a + b)

2) ab(ab) 3) ab(b a) 4)

109 (AT)1 =

1) A1
110.

4) 25

O---- v lA

2) AT

3)

D-

4) (A1)

vA- %d u C- C u?
1) A.B = 0 A = 0 B = 0 -- --
2) (k. AB)T = k. AT.BT (k C)
1
3) (AB) = I (AT) = BT
4) 1, 3
4) D-
2
3
2 4

111. [
.A = [ 3 1] %h J A vA

4
6 ]
91. ABCD v->- AB // CD. AB = 20 .O.,
BC = 8 .O., CD = 10 .O., AD = 6 .O.
1/8
8/7
7/8
1) [
] 2) [ 1/8
]
ABCD v >- j u (..O.-- ) ?
12/7
4/3
7/12
3/4
1) 84
2) 92
3) 72
4) D-
7/8
1/8

4) D-
3) [
7/12 4/3 ]
92. ABC \ J-%-hj 'P' G. PL , PM ,


PN - BC , AC , BA U -j L,
2 1 n
]=
112. n N , n J-u [
3 2
M, N y --x -?1)
2

u
v
A
2)
2

2 C vA
1) -
2) q
3)
2

E
vA
4)
D

3) -
4) D-
2 + B2 =
113.
AB
=
B,
BA
=
A

A
93. C C v?
1) A + B
2) A B 3) AB
4) O
1) -s -Cy-- - p s
114. -v vA A, vA O-- A24A5I = 0
2) G- ---u s
%h--Jh A1 =
3) 1, 2
4) D-
1
2) (A 4I)
1) (A 4I)
3
94. A(2, 1), B(0, 0), C(3, 0) Q{- vA ABC
1
1
4) (A4I)
3) (A4I)
pC. A -Cy-- BC E
4
5
G E--
115. C(A, r1), C(B, r2) %h. r1 + r2 < AB u

- %h- UL t yz-- u
1) (5 10, 0)
2) ( 5 + 10, 0)

1) 2
2) 3
3) 4
4) 0
3) (5 + 10, 0)
4) D-

-- 21 -d 2012

-- j---

DSC - 2012 S.A. MATHS MODEL GRAND TEST

116 ax + 3y + 1 = 0


1)

117. y - 1 = 0

135
2)

X-~
a =

-%-d u (3,

1) (3, -2)

3) - 3
2)

4) 2

G vA-G

2) (0, -3) 3) (3, 0)

4) (-3, 0)

1) A.M.

u- -
u- -
3) A.M. = u- = --
4) D-
128. x, (x + 2), (x - 3), (x + 6) --u -
29
1, 2, 3, 4. hE A.M. = x =
10

118. A

* 4 vE, 5 xE --o.
* B 3 vE, 7 xE o. *
A * AE, * B * -
%-*a- B. - *a h 3
x 2 xE, vE A a -
-u ?

4C1 7C2
5C1 3C1 7C1
1) +
9C1 10C2
9C1 10C2
4C2 7C1
5C1 3C2 7C1
2) +
9C1 10C2
9C1 10C2

4)

D-
yv -. A, B - -N
-u 16 . O A B p--E -u
1

A -u
3
1
1
1 1
1 1
1) ,
2) , 3) ,
4) D-
2
3
4 5
5 6
120. .11000j vf R = 5% p
xJ f \d lA- -x
vf h ?
1) .13200
2) .13310
4) .14500
3) .13500
121. h d .2400 Ej 10% N*a 8% h d ,
- C ---L?
1) 20

.
1) 60

2) 30
20

3) 25

4) 15

EN x u-
2) 70

3) 85

4) 90

123 P, Q

u 120 .O. P *
uo 12 - --J- A, 4
Q -. Q l 1 PM --J- B
3 40 EN PM P E ---. A, B
L
1) P * 55 .O.
2) P * 60 .O.
3) P * 66 .O
4) P * 70 .O.
124. H@ vv-- -j u
1) u-
2) -
3) --
4) D-
125. x = 10n, (n = 1, 2, ..., n) f(x) = log10x E
Ey*h, .... f(1), f(2), ....f(n) =
.

1) n

2) (n + 1) 3) (n - 1)

2) 3

3) 4

4) 1

1) i, ii, iii

2) i, ii, iv 3) i, iii, iv

4) ii, iii, iv

. \---u C i) l P-
ii) ----
iii) o -C-* E a
iv) = 3.1416
1) i, ii, iv

NuJn
---
y
ii) NuJn
u
-C-* hEo, Eo
\ -
iii) NuJn xE - J NE-
iv) NuJn u T l-AE
ju

. j--- C Eo Jh-.
i) j-u-j J- - ii) vA-- u
iii) j--J-- vA
iv) vA-- E -- h 180

2) ii, iii, iv 3) i, ii, iii

4) i, ii, iii, iv

131.

119 A, B

122 6

1) 2
129

130

4C1 7C2
5C2 3C1 7C2
3) +
9C2 10C1
9C2 10C2

i)

2) A.M.

C-- J-E Jh-.


i) x C L-q
ii) d uvq j J---
iii) Jb- u--q
od
iv) X --%-g-Bn C u--q
1) i, iii

2) ii, iv

3) iii, iv

1) i, ii, iii

o - nE l
1) vN x pd p
2) - Ny, juEo -C-
3) Nun x x h, Ny, G--Eo
-C-
4) NuJn Eu-@-N- Y j-u,
%p NE--T--N-
133. '% -b C C
Y N- L---hC?
1) v- N
2) -> N
3) v-P-~ N
4) \ %-A N
134. - J----G-%-Cl ----C
1) -L-d
2) - v-R
3)
4) ---E
135. --A -- o NuJn
uY-E -- -\---E
*a -u N- d-- E -A
, --u- ---
--L-. C-* ~u
1) c
2) --
3) NE-
4) ju
136. Nt -A --o u Nu-JnE

3
A = .. v - vA

1) i, ii, iv
140.

-o h 10, 3 -o
h 5 O NtR h
1) 15.0
2) 10.0 3) 8.5
4) 7.5
127. Eo h-- Jh E

d2013

ju Jh-*C. C-* ~u
c
2) --
3) NE-
4) ju
137. C-- J--EC C?

-b d o - -d u (d 2); 2) u- q/ - @; 3) >- C; 4) s -d
u (Tx) , 5) - .b - - - 3 TK 50, *- - J- 2 - T- K- - 25 \- -.
K~ D: 2013 -J 27
-j: nest.net.in

--- '--j u--


\-- d 2013--- N- C.
Dx d1, d2 -T-K .
d1: \ \ C-* u-Jn .35,000,
10 nx EL-* u-n- \-\J
.25,000 --h.
|: >-F-J, H-H-/ H--/ H--/ H--/ H-/ H/ Hq
, q x >F-J *J -q Nu-n |.
d2: n EL-* u-Jn
.50,000, C nx EL-* u-n \-\J .35,000 Ch.
|: >-F-J, H-H-/ H--/ H--/ H--/ H-/ H/ Hq
*J q Nu-n |.
K~: h \ 200.
-T-K: 1) > q / NZ (d 1)-/ -C

-- -Jq q
N----E d Fd- E--Jq
h jq , q Jq, qx
v--E --h -C. uC: x.
q: (- y, N, F);
q (Jq); d >
- - - .
|: -C N vU/ x.
: v K~ y (>--- )
-j J>-Z- *-J-D: d 31
q- v K~: d- 7
q Jq q v K~: d- 16
-j: http://pgntruhs.org

3) i, iii

4) ii, iv

1) i, ii
143

4a

1)

2) i, iv

- N u-h
(Developmental Activities) E ?
1) N N-D--
2) CJ u
3) Nu-n u- u--~
4) NE-
141. v--t u- v-uEo h---
Nu v-R Ey- vx E
C?
1) J\ v
2) P--vD-
3) ---t-
4) N--J-u
142. QJ{ l-A C
i) -Jy--z -
ii) P v l-A uA-
iii) vc--- N d-hC
iv) Eo Jh a--o-o %h
A -
2) ii, iii

3) iii, iv

4) i, iv

. v lA x L v-?
i) c--h --C
ii) vc--- -jC
iii) Eo Jh a--
iv) Nu-n -- a--
1) i, ii, iii

4) n(n + 1)

126. 7

4) iii, iv

. 'Nu-n E J-CE n --
EE Eo *-hC?
1) v
2) g %d
3) -uEo -\- 4) Fo
139. u x - u-
- L v
-
i) \ v Eg---o ~u- -
C---.
ii) C- ----.
iii) % -a.
iv) v-Rl
C--Eo
-
.

4) ii, iii

132.

2) i, iii, iv 3) ii, iv

138

2) i, ii, iv 3) i, iv

4) i, ii, iii, iv

144

. v-N--, CJ u - -
-h y vOu C-E -j
u- N?
1) "
2)
3) - 4) Fo
145. uN-B -- U-E --T
--
i) >-f
ii) -f
iii) J-- d iv) x-f
1) i, ii, iii

2) i, iii

3) iii

-A C s- -u E y Nu-n- K-~* \
n uo-, u n uo-,
\ n uo-- N->-. E
~
1) v--
2) Ny--F-
3) hy-v-
4) N-~ h
147. -- - j * C aCl
hy
1) -C
2) _-C
3) JT y _-C
4) p
148. C jE Jh-.
i) ----
j--
ii) --
j o
iii) -
Mx
iv) -

1) i, ii, iii

2) i, ii, iv 3) ii, iii, iv 4) i, ii, iii, iv

C- J--EC
i) 1
ii) 37 -
iii) 53 -

E
uMx
b -

1) i, ii

-xq

2) ii, iii

3) ii

4) iii, iv

150.

vA o Nu-n y- vu
Nu--u-v- -C-* Y-h
1) j--
2) x
3) q
4) x
151. -u- -d--T u-v C?
i) -A 20 * 30 C Nun L
ii) Oj--- uh-- L
iii) -Eo *J J-- C- L
iv) -Eo Nu-n Eu-@-N--E y-- L
1) i, ii, iii
2) i, iii, iv 3) i, ii, iv 4) ii, iii, iv
152. y a--, JQ
- - y a- v-j - o Al
1) -
2) v--
3) y-
4) v-p
153. (2x - y)4 Nh-J- u --C---E
-j ---lA
1) -
2) E-
3) Nx-
4) x-
154. Nx- l-A -C-* N
i) * h--E -C.
ii) - vv.
iii) NuJn t %A N--E-hC.
iv) -u *o - N>- y xd
-u J-\-Eo -- hC.
1) i, ii, iii

2) ii , iii, iv 3) i, ii, iv 4) i, ii, iii, iv

155

. -l, u-, L l--j ---


lA
1) y-
2) v-p
3) u J-\
4) x-
156. v ' c L-
p- --u- Et-j --
C?
1) J\
2) v--
3) c
4) Fo
157. ---Y-E -C?
i) J\
ii) -
iii) %--t-
iv) , *a-y
1) ii, iv

2) i, ii, iii

3) ii, iii, iv 4) ii

158

. nK-- JTD, ED E y --a?


1) " E
2) E
3) -h N
4) E-
159. E---E -C* C?
i) i y u-
ii) -A - T_-hC
iii) -- E S- JhC
iv) u---E T-C
1) i, ii, iii

4) i, ii, iii, iv

146.

149.

iv) 54

160

2) i, ii, iv 3) i, iii, iv

. Nu-n --
N--E
---C
1) " K~
2)
3) N--v K~
4)

4) iii, iv

p--p a -,
- J-C-l--E
u-- K~
---E

----:

41-3; 42-1; 43-1; 44-4; 45-4; 46-4;


47-1; 48-1; 49-3; 50-3; 51-1; 52-2; 53-1; 54-4;
55-4; 56-2; 57-1; 58-4; 59-1; 60-2; 61-4; 62-1;
63-2; 64-4; 65-4; 66-1; 67-1; 68-3; 69-4; 70-3;
71-1; 72-2; 73-1; 74-4; 75-4; 76-2; 77-3; 78-2;
79-3; 80-1; 81-3; 82-3; 83-3; 84-2; 85-4; 86-1;
87-3; 88-1; 89-3; 90-1; 91-3; 92-2; 93-3; 94-1;
95-4; 96-4; 97-4; 98-4; 99-1; 100-2; 101-2; 102-4;
103-2; 104-2; 105-3; 106-1; 107-2; 108-3; 109-4;
110-4; 111-2; 112-3; 113-1; 114-4; 115-3; 116-3;
117-3; 118-1; 119-1; 120-2; 121-1; 122-2; 123-3;
124-3; 125-2; 126-3; 127-2; 128-4; 129 2 130 3
131 4 132 4 133 1 134 4 135 4 136 1 137 2
138 2 139 3 140 4 141 3 142 1 143 3 144 2
145 3 146 4 147 1 148 1 149 3 150 4 151 3
152 2 153 2 154 3 155 2 156 3 157 4 158 1
159 1 160 1

;
;
;
;
;

;
;
;
;
.

;
;
;
;

;
;
;
;

;
;
;
;

;
;
;
;
;

;
;
;
;
;

-( --- -v-o-v-Eo ---E -X vtv


-P~- n -E-- -%- --C--*-C.)

-- 22 -d 2012

-- j---

DSC - 2012 S.A. PHYSICAL SCIENCES MODEL GRAND TEST


No.of Questions: 160

Max. Marks: 80

(1 * 40 Eo
-bd---J vo .)
41. C- NA t
1) \, E
2) & vu-, v-
3) vu-, x n 4) Fo j-
42. - Ve = Ga Mb Rc N v B- h a, b, c N- - (G = Ny-y n, M = v-u-P, R = ul)

58.

3) =

y-vA -n-
1) 8.318

2) = 2

4) =
2
(R)

2) 102 T
3) 104 T
4) 106 T

76.

107 erg gm m1 k1

2) 8.318 J gm m1 k1
3) 1.986 Cal gm m1 k1

Z V =

107 i ms1. C B = 2 jT v Bv o \ ~v- v--*C. Ej E


?
1) 3.2 1012 N
3) 3.2 106 N

4)

Fo j
,
,
, ,
60. - , 20C l --J 100 cm3 Eo 100C -h --J, ,
4) D-
125 cm3 uC. --J-
?
43. v\ -\ O 200 N---o.
'5 x Ap-p - 5 N.O.
1) 0.033/C
2) 0.0033/ C
CL, v\ F (.O.-)
3) 0.33/C
4) D-

1) 0.05
2) 0.005 3) 0.0005 4) 0.001
61. F = 2i + 3j + 4k ux h
- j E- Eo

44. 70 .O. -o -u- - 33.6 x


S = i + 2j + k Ox nv- Ch J-T E
20 - hC. E - 80 .O. h
1) 10 J
2) 11 J
3) 12 J
4) 20 J
E ---h ?

62.
A
=
4i
+
3j;
B
=
8i
+
6j

A
+
B C =
1) 1.8 . 2) 1.6 . 3) 33.6 . 4) 1.59 .
3
5
45. j A l-Eo -J-*C
1) tan1 ( )
2) tan1 ( )
4
6
1) v 2) 3) v, 4) q-
4
13
3) tan1 ( )
4) tan1 ( )
3
14
46. - u-- - u ?
63. 300 Ox ho v * E C
1) 2n
2) n
3) 2n
4) (2n+1)
-N--. -~- N * E
47. He-Ne --j` u ?
l y 100 O./ . v~h h
1) 6943 A
2) 6328 A
o- ---?
3) 5000 A
4) 5500 A
1) 300 O. 2) 150 O 3) 219.9 O. 4) 100 O.
48. g -E - N
64. 39.2 Ox ho P-j * Ed-E-- j
N-J h 4 x y NE J, Eo
1) 4 d-x
2) 2 dx
N-?

3) d-x
4) d-x
1) 39.2 O./.
2) 9.8 O./.
r2
49. 20 .O. ul o - p -
3) 19.8 O./.
4) 6.29 O./.
15 .O. h *-p
65. ~A -
- 45
vA-G p--C?
300 ms1 a. E uh ?
1) 25 .O.
2) 30 .O.
1) 2.296 .O.
2) 9183.67 .O.
3) 10 .O.
4) 15 .O.
3) 9.184 .O.
4) 3.29 .O.
50. -g- --h --E E
66. EN--E 240 -
1) A v- * N---500 ms1 a-a. vB vu-P
-E v--hC.
5 103 @ -- n u ?
2) -- N E C-l- \.
1) 1.5 KW 2) 2.5 KW 3) 4.5 KW 4) 6 KW
3) A, B j-N
4) A, B j-N .
67. X- - --j` u ?
51. v- y v-J-ho A-- L1) 0.0001 nm 0.1 nm
2) 0.001 nm 10 nm
- u Eo 45 -- p %P-*C. F
3) 10 A 100 A
4) 0.001 A 1 A
v-- -. --p v-- 68. ~-E N?
?