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All Chapters Exam - 1

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Monday, 10 February 2014, 6:05 PM

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Question 1

A money order system is designed to calculate the

Finish review

Correct

charge for a transfer.

Mark 1 out of 1

- Amounts from 1 to 1999 are charged EUR 10.

Flag question

- Amounts from 2000 to 5000 are charged EUR 15.

- Amounts below EUR 1 or above EUR 5000 are not
accepted. Assume that only integer values can occur.
Which of these sets of amounts covers all equivalence
classes?
Select one:
a. 0, 99-1-2000-4999, 99
b. 0-1999-2000-5000
c. 0-100-2000-6000
d. 1-2000-5001-10000

The question has 4 classes ( Less than 1, EUR 10, EUR

15, More than 5000), so check for data in all these class.
First Class (Less than 1) should have value less than 1
like 0, - ve integer
Second Class (EUR 10) should have value anything from 1
to 1999
Third Class (EUR 15) should have value from 2000 to 5000
Fourth Class ( More than 5000) should have value more
than or equal to 5001
The correct answer is: 0-100-2000-6000

Question 2

A Test engineer finds a defect while testing. After the

Incorrect

developers has fixed the defect, the test engineer decides

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Mark 0 out of 1
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to re-run a complete section of the tests. Which of the

following is correct?
Select one:
a. The test engineer should not re-run the tests; they
should be part of the developer tests
b. The test engineer should re-run the tests, because
the defect shows that the test cases need to be
updated
c. The test engineer should not re-run the tests, as
they have already be run, and results recorded
d. The test engineer should re-run the tests, in order
to ensure that new defects have not been introduced by
the fix

The concept is called Regression. Whenever change

happens (Defect fix, New Feature added or removed or
modified), Regression testing has to happen.
The correct answer is: The test engineer should re-run the
tests, in order to ensure that new defects have not been
introduced by the fix

Question 3

Consider the following pseudo code,

Correct

Integer k;

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If (k > 1 && k < 30),

Then ....
End if,
Which of the following sets of test input values is the
result of correct boundary value analysis?
Select one:
a. 0, 1, 30, 31
b. 1, 2, 29, 30
c. -3, -2, -1, 0, 30, 31, 32, 33
d. -1,0,1,2,29,30,31

The correct answer is: 1, 2, 29, 30

Question 4

When is use case testing appropriate ?

Correct

I. For acceptance testing with user participation,

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II. For exhaustive testing of subsystems interaction if the

system is specified by use cases,
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III. For testing the interaction between the user and the
system depending on user input and system state.,
IV. For tests reflecting real-world use of the system under
test,
V. For testing mathematical algorithms if the program
flow differs depending on the input given.
Select one:
a. II, IV
b. I, II, III, V
c. I, III, IV, V
d. I, III, IV

The correct answer is: II, IV

Question 5

In the fundamental test process, what does primarily entail

Incorrect

the test analysis and design activity?

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Select one:
a. The continues comparison between current
progress and the test plan, in order to identify deviations
b. The testability evaluation of the test basis and test
objects and the root-cause analysis
c. The transformation of the test objectives in testing
conditions and tangible test cases
d. The data collection on the completed test
activities, in order to consolidate experience, testware,
facts and figures

The correct answer is: The transformation of the test

objectives in testing conditions and tangible test cases

Question 6

Which of the following statement regarding IEEE 829

Correct

standards is correct?

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Flag question

Select one:
a. IEEE standard 829 covers only test case design
specifications.
b. IEEE standard 829 is a standard for SW test
documentation.
c. IEEE standard 829 applies mainly for HW testing
projects.

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d. IEEE standard 829 doesn't cover test case design.

It only relates to test planning.

The correct answer is: IEEE standard 829 is a standard

for SW test documentation.

Question 7

Which of the following statements is correct?

Incorrect
Mark 0 out of 1
Flag question

Select one:
a. Test planning is an activity that is only performed
at the very beginning of the project.
b. Because independence of testers enhances
quality and improves testing, test planning should not
take into account constraints from the development
team.
c. Since test planning is influenced by the developers
work, test planning should not start before the entire
project plan of the development team is available.
d. Test planning is influenced by among others, the
scope of testing, the risks and the availability of
resources.

The correct answer is: Test planning is influenced by

among others, the scope of testing, the risks and the
availability of resources.

Question 8

Which of the following describes best, when incident

Correct

reporting may occur?

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Select one:
a. during review and testing of a product
b. during development, review, testing and use of a
product
c. during development and testing of a product
d. during testing and maintenance of a product

The correct answer is: during development, review, testing

and use of a product

Question 9

Agile development can be classified as which life cycle

Correct

model?

Mark 1 out of 1

Select one:
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Flag question

a. RAD
b. iterative or incremental
c. Agile development is not related to any life cycle
model
d. V Model

Agile is an example of Iterative model, which over the

drawback of referring documents in doing work.
Refer ISTQB Page 39 second paragraph for details.
The correct answer is: iterative or incremental

Question 10

What is true about software testers?

Correct
Mark 1 out of 1
Flag question

Select one:
a. Testers need good communication skills
b. Experienced testers always guarantee high
software quality
c. Testers and programmer must always have
opposite mindsets
d. The evaluation done by testers is not influenced by
personal experience

The correct answer is: Testers need good communication

skills

Question 11

The following program part is given,

Correct

IF (condition A),

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Then DO B,
END IF.
How many test cases are necessary in order to achieve
100% statement coverage?
Select one:
a. A very high number
b. 4
c. 1
d. 2

The correct answer is: 1

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Question 12
Correct
Mark 1 out of 1
Flag question

Select one:
a. 3
b. 11
c. 5
d. 45

The correct answer is: 45

Question 13
Correct
Mark 1 out of 1
Flag question

Consider a program that computes the factorial of a

. If n<0, a message value out of range must be i
. If 0<=n<20, the program returns the exact factori
. if 20<=n<=200 the factorial number must be approx
. if n>200 a message value out of range must be i
Which of the following equivalence partitioning is
Select one:
a. n<0, 0<=n<200, n>200
b. n<=0, n<20, n>=20, n>200
c. n<0, 0<=n<20, n>=20
d. n<0,0<=n<20, 20<=n<=200, n>200

Form a group based on the N values. There are four

groups 1."out of range" input for less than 0 input 2. value
0 to 19 3. value 20 to 200 4. "out of range" input for greater
than 200 input Check the answer which has value from all
these 4 classes.
The correct answer is: n<0,0<=n<20, 20<=n<=200, n>200

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Question 14

Which of the following is not a test level according to the

Correct

V-model?

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Select one:
a. System Test
b. Performance test
c. Unit Test
d. Acceptance test

The correct answer is: Performance test

Question 15

You are managing the testing of a fluid dynamics package

Incorrect

to be used for designing the sewage system of an

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upcoming city. All testers are domain experts who

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understand fluid dynamics and hydraulic engineering and

all of them have tested similar packages in the past.
Which of the following statements is most likely to be
true?
Select one:
a. The test specification should follow IEEE standard
template.
b. The tests can be written with less details because
of the testers expertise
c. The test specification should be written very
detailed to ensure that everyone understands the
application.
d. The tests should be very detailed with step by step
procedures, including button clicks, tabs and menu
selections

The correct answer is: The tests can be written with less
details because of the testers expertise

Question 16

Which of the following statements describe regression

Incorrect

testing ?

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I.Retesting of a fixed defect,

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II.Testing of an already tested program,

III.Testing of new functionality in a program,
IV.Regression testing applies only to functional testing,
V.Tests that do not have to be repeatable, because they
are only used once.

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Select one:
a. I,IV
b. I,III,IV
c. II,IV,V
d. II

The correct answer is: II

Question 17
Correct
Mark 1 out of 1
Flag question

Select one:
a. X-Time, Y-Number of defects, A-Number of open
defects, B- Number of closed defects
b. X-Time, Y-Cost, A-Cost of test(per week), B-Cost
of finding a single bug(per week)
c. X-Time, Y-Count, A-Total number of executed
tests, B- Number of open bugs.
d. X-Time, Y-Percent, A-% of functional tests in the
test suite, B-% of non-functional tests in the test suite

The correct answer is: X-Time, Y-Count, A-Total number of

executed tests, B- Number of open bugs.

Question 18

Which type of automation test design is used in the

Correct

example below, An automation team designs an

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automation framework for testing of their web based

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applications. Realizing that they need to use different test

cycles, they decide not to hardcode any data in their
scripts. Instead they read all the data from text files while
test execution is in progress.

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Select one:
a. dynamic test design
b. data driven
c. data coverage analysis
d. keyword-driven

The correct answer is: data driven

Question 19

For a given set of test-cases, which of the following is a

Correct

benefit of running with a test automation tool?

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Select one:
a. The total cost of the test project always
decreases
b. test coverage is increased.
c. The number of round bugs is reduced.
d. The time spent on repetitive tasks is reduced.

The correct answer is: The time spent on repetitive tasks

is reduced.

Question 20

In maintenance testing, What is the relationship between

Incorrect

impact analysis and Regression testing?

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Select one:
a. The impact analysis is used to evaluate the
amount of regression testing to be performed
b. Impact analysis requires a regression testing for
only the tests that have detected faults in Previous SW
release.
c. Impact analysis requires a regression testing for all
program elements when there are new changes
integrated (new functionalities).
d. There is no relation between impact analysis and
regression testing.

The correct answer is: The impact analysis is used to

evaluate the amount of regression testing to be performed

Question 21

Which of the following sentence lists the main advantage

Correct

of reviews over testing?

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Mark 1 out of 1
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Select one:
a. Low cost of defects detection, enhancement of
code and documents quality, identification improvement
opportunities
b. Clear allocation of roles to review members,
confidence that participants are familiar with the reviewed
subject.
c. No need to write specific plans for reviews , code
reviews can save white box testing
d. no need of specific tools, lower risk verification,
better classification of detected defects

The correct answer is: Low cost of defects detection,

enhancement of code and documents quality,
identification improvement opportunities

Question 22

Which of the following statements regarding incidents is

Correct

NOT true?

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Select one:
a. Since incidents are the discrepancies between
actual and expected outcomes they cannot be raised
during development
b. The discrepancies between actual and expected
outcomes need to be logged as incidents
c. Incidents may be raised during development,
review, testing or use of a software product
d. Incidents should be tracked from discovery and
classification to correction and confirmation of the
solution

The correct answer is: Since incidents are the

discrepancies between actual and expected outcomes
they cannot be raised during development

Question 23

A software system checks age in order to determine

Correct

which welcome screen to display. Age groups are:

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Group I: 0-12

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Group II: 13-18

Group III: over 18
Which of the below represent boundary values?
Select one:

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a. (-1,0,12,13,18,19)
2 values are taken from each group 1, 2 and 3
b. (4,5,15,20)
c. (0,12,13,18,19)
d. (-1,0,11,12,13,14,18,19)

Lets identify the ranges. Group 1 : 0-12, so the BVA

values are -1,0,1,11,12,13 Group 2: 13-18, so the BVA
values are 12,13,14,17,18,19 Group 3: over 18, so lets
take value only on lower boundary 17,18,19 Lets see the
answer which cover all the group from the identified values
The correct answer is: (-1,0,12,13,18,19)

Question 24

Which of the following is an example of static testing?

Incorrect
Mark 0 out of 1
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Select one:
a. Requirements review
b. Calculating path coverage using tools
c. Usability testing
d. Performance testing

The correct answer is: Requirements review

Question 25

Which of the following statements correctly describes

Correct

traceability?

Mark 1 out of 1
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Select one:
a. The degree to which a requirement is stated in
terms that permit establishment of test design.
b. An approach to integration testing where the
component at the top of the component hierarchy is
tested first.
c. The capability of software product to enable
modified software to be tested.
d. The ability to identify related items in
documentation, such as requirements vs software
design.

The correct answer is: The ability to identify related items

in documentation, such as requirements vs software
design.

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Question 26

What is Integration testing?

Correct
Mark 1 out of 1
Flag question

Select one:
a. Another term for testing system integrity.
b. Testing that the interfaces work correctly.
c. Specifying which components to integrate in which
order.
d. Looking for faults in larger components or
subsystems.

The correct answer is: Testing that the interfaces work

correctly.

Question 27

Which of the following statements is correct?

Incorrect
Mark 0 out of 1
Flag question

Select one:
a. COTS tools are available for the general market
and can be adapted to meet specific needs
b. a test suite must include static and dynamic code
analysis tool
c. stress testing is focused on the ability of the
system to work under minimum load
d. monitoring tools are available only for functional
testing

The correct answer is: COTS tools are available for the
general market and can be adapted to meet specific
needs

Question 28

Which of the following statements is an example of testing

Incorrect

contributing to higher quality?

Mark 0 out of 1
Flag question

Select one:
a. A project manager asks to a test leader to
estimate the test effort
b. A tester finds a bug which is resolved prior to
release
c. A tester installs a test item in the test
environment
d. A test leader writes a test summary report

The correct answer is: A tester finds a bug which is

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resolved prior to release

Question 29

Which of the following is not a part of the test plan (IEEE

Correct

829 standarard) ?

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Flag question

Select one:
a. Test policy
b. Information about test environment and test data
c. The features not to be tested
d. Time schedule and deadlines

The correct answer is: Test policy

Question 30

Which of the following structure-based technique has the

Correct

strongest code coverage?

Mark 1 out of 1
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Select one:
a. statement coverage
b. decision coverage
c. multiple condition
d. condition coverage

Multiple Condition Coverage has the strongest code

coverage because it checks whether every possible
combination of conditions occurs. The test cases required
for full multiple condition coverage of a decision are given
by the logical operator truth table for the decision.
Ex: a && b && (c || (d && e))
Test cases required is 6.
a && b && (c || (d && e))
1. F - - - 2. T F - - 3. T T F F 4. T T F T F
5. T T F T T
6. T T T - The correct answer is: multiple condition

Question 31

Which of the following describes the pesticide paradox

Correct

principle?

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Flag question

Select one:
a. A small number of modules contain most of the
defects discovered during pre-release testing, or show
most of the operational failures
b. Testing can show that defects are present, but
cannot prove that there are no defects
c. Testing everything (all combinations of inputs and
preconditions) is not feasible, except for trivial cases
d. If the same tests are repeated over and over again,
eventually the same set of test cases will no longer find
any new bugs

The correct answer is: If the same tests are repeated over
and over again, eventually the same set of test cases will
no longer find any new bugs

Question 32
Incorrect
Mark 0 out of 1
Flag question

Mark the correct sentences,

l. Defects are a result of environmental conditions and are
also referred to as Failures,
ll. A human mistake may produce a defect
lll. A system will totally fail to operate correctly when a
failure exists in it,
lV. When a defect exists in a system it may result in a
failure,
V. Defects occur only as a result of technology changes
Select one:
a. l, ll
b. ll, lV
c. ll, lll, IV
d. lV, V

The correct answer is: ll, lll, IV

Question 33

Consider the following excerpt from a test report:

Correct

"we tested the module AX45T and we got only 1 failure. To

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recreate the failure, we used test file

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PR624_DR78_TCB0022.pkr,available under the

PR624_DR78 repository in the Ck01 server"
Which incident report objective does this excerpt satisfy?
Select one:

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a. Does not belong to an incident report

b. Provides project managers with information on the
project risks.
c. Provides developers with information to isolate the
failure.
d. Provides test managers with information to report
test progress.

Given answer discuss the details how tester has to report

defects in incident reporting. The object of incident
reporting is to provide all the details to developer to
reproduce the defect and isolate them for fixing. So the
only answer that meet that object is "Provides developers
with information to isolate the failure."
The correct answer is: Provides developers with
information to isolate the failure.

Question 34

Which of the following statements about exit criteria is

Correct

true?

Mark 1 out of 1
Flag question

Select one:
a. Exit criteria evaluation results in decision to
continue or stop testing
b. Once finalized, exit criteria cannot be changed by
the test manager
c. Exit criteria are decided on the basis of entry
criteria only
d. Completion of regression testing is never a part of
exit criteria

The correct answer is: Exit criteria evaluation results in

decision to continue or stop testing

Question 35

What is a major difference between use case based

Correct

testing and other specification-based testing techniques?

Mark 1 out of 1
Flag question

Select one:
a. Use case based testing is used only for objectoriented projects where as other techniques can be used
for all types of projects.
b. Use case based testing is more efficient than other
techniques.
c. Use case-based testing cannot be used in agile

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projects but other techniques can be used for other

models.
d. Use case testing provides end-to-end scenario
based tests.

The correct answer is: Use case testing provides end-toend scenario based tests.

Question 36

Which of the following tools can be used by developers,

Correct

testers and quality assurance personnel in looking for

Mark 1 out of 1

defects prior to dynamic testing?

Flag question

Select one:
a. test data preparation tool
b. modeling tool
c. configuration management tool
d. static analysis tool

The correct answer is: static analysis tool

Question 37

Which of the following lists represents the correct

Correct

sequence of the main activities of the fundamental test

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process (leaving out the activity of control which should

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take place in parallel to all the other activities)?

Select one:
a. Planning, analysis and design, execution, logging
and reporting, regression testing
b. Planning, analysis and design, implementation and
execution, evaluation exit criteria and reporting, test
closure activities
c. Planning, analysis, design and implementation,
execution, logging, test closure activities, evaluating exit
citeria.
d. Planning, analysis and reporting, design and
implementation, execution, test closure activities,
evaluating exit criteria.

The correct answer is: Planning, analysis and design,

implementation and execution, evaluation exit criteria and
reporting, test closure activities

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Question 38

Which of the following would be a key difference between

Correct

a peer review of code and static analysis of code using a

Mark 1 out of 1

tool?

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Select one:
a. peer reviews cannot find missing requirements
where as static analysis can find
b. peer reviews find defects while static analysis finds
failures.
c. static analysis targets the code technically
whereas peer review is applicable to together aspects.

d. peer reviews find failures while static analysis finds

defects.

The correct answer is: static analysis targets the code

technically whereas peer review is applicable to together
aspects.

Question 39

Which of the following statement is true?

Incorrect
Mark 0 out of 1
Flag question

Select one:
a. Experience-based testing is best used in
integration testing.
b. white-box testing is equally useful for low-level and
high-level testing
c. Experience-based testing should be applied after
systematic test methods have been used.
d. Black-box testing is equivalent to equivalence
partitioning

The correct answer is: Experience-based testing should

be applied after systematic test methods have been used.

Question 40

Which statement about use case testing is true?

Incorrect
Mark 0 out of 1
Flag question

Select one:
a. the test cases are designed to be used by real
users, not by professional testers.
b. the test cases are designed to find defects in the
process flow.
c. the test cases are designed to find defects in the
data flow.

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d. the test cases are always designed by customers

or end users.

The correct answer is: the test cases are designed to find
defects in the process flow.

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